EN304 (Engineering Materials) Reviewer

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What are considered as the "building blocks" for engineering materials? A. Atoms B. Elements C. Matters D. Compounds What are the major classes of engineering materials? A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors B. Polymers, metals and composites C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field? A. Crystals B. Amorphous materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Metalloids What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form? A. Metalloids B. Matrix alloys C. Metal lattices D. Metal matrix composites What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element? A. Metalloids B. Matrix composites C. Inert D. Metal matrix composites Polymer comes from the Greek words "poly" which means many and "meros" which means __________. A. metal B. material C. part D. plastic The engineering materials known as "plastics" are more correctly called: A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Polymers C. Polyethylene D. Mers Which of the following plastics does not burn but rather extinguishes itself? A. Polyester B. Acrylic C. Nylon D. Propylene Which of the following plastics does not burn? A. Carbonates B. Acetals C. Polyester D. Fluorocarbons

10. Which of the following is an example of fluorocarbon? A. Nylon B. Acrylic C. Styrene D. Teflon 11. What is a combination of two or more metals that has properties that the components materials do not have by themselves? A. Compound B. Composite C. Mixture D. Matrix 12. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials? A. Periodic table B. Truth table C. Building blocks of Materials D. Structure of Materials 13. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling? A. Melting point B. Curie point C. Refractive index D. Specific heat 14. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces? A. Melting point B. Thermal conductivity C. Thermal expansion D. Curie point 15. What refers to the temperature at which a ferromagnetic material reverts to being a paramagnetic material? A. Ferromagnetic temperature B. Paramagnetic temperature C. Curie temperature D. Tri-point temperature 16. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of under a controlled environment? A. Dielectric strength B. Electric resistivity C. Water absorption D. Thermal conductivity 17. What physical property of a material that refers the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogenous material under steady-state conditions, per unit area, per unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to area? A. Thermal expansion B. Thermal conductivity C. Heat distortion temperature D. Water absorption

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18. What refers to the ratio of thermal conductivity of a material to the product of electrical conductivity and temperature? A. Conductivity ratio B. Matthiessens' ratio C. Wiedemann's-Frantz ratio D. Maxwell's ratio 19. What states that "the total electrical resistivity is the sum of the thermal resistivity and the residual resistivity? A. Matthiessens' Rule B. Nordheim's Rule C. Wiedemann's Rule D. Frantz Rule 20. What is caused by the local melting of a constituent or an impurity in the grain or randomly oriented metal crystals boundary at a temperature below the melting point of a metal itself? A. Slip-sliding B. Hot-shortness C. Inclusion D. Tempering 21. Which of the following elements has the highest thermal conductivity? A. Zinc B. Copper C. Gold D. Aluminum 22. Which of the following has the lowest electrical conductivity? A. Quartz B. Graphite C. Glass D. Ceramics 23. What type of bond in metallic compounds will enable them to possess electrical conductivity property? A. Crystalline bond B. Covalent bond C. Ionic bond D. All of the above 24. What refers to a covalent bond formed by between two p-orbitals on different atoms? A. Pi bond B. Omega bond C. Delta bond D. Sigma bond 25. The superimposition of pi bonds on sigma bonds results in the formation of what type of bonds? A. Beta-sigma bonds B. Sigma-pi bonds C. Pi-alpha bonds D. Double bonds or triple bonds

26. What refers to an interatomic and intermolecular bond that are relatively weak and for which bonding energies are relatively small? A. Primary bond B. Double bond C. Secondary bond D. Covalent bond 27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an ionic compound? A. They have high melting point. B. They are normally brittle crystalline solids. c. They have low boiling point. D. They are poor conductor of electricity when in the solid phase. 28. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that an insulating material of given thickness can withstand for specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk? A. Thermal expansion B. Conductivity C. Dielectric strength D. Electric resistivity 29. What is the percentage of copper content of copper used for electrical wires, switches and terminally normally supplied as ETP? A. 90.95% B. 95.95% C. 98.95% D. 99.95% 30. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water to 1 degree? A. Specific heat B. Latent heat C. Heat of fusion D. Heat of fISsion 31. Which of the following materials has the highest specific heat? A. Copper B. Aluminum C. Iron D. Lead 32. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of declaration? A. Curie temperature B. Specific heat C. Heat distortion temperature D. Thermal conductivity 33. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant temperature? A. Creep strength B. Stress rapture strength C. Compressive yield strength D. Hardness

34. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation? A. Rigidity B. Plasticity C. Ductility D. Hardness 35. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops below some predetermined value, usually 15 ft-lb? A. Nil ductility temperature B. Curie temperature C. Thermal conductivity D. Heat distortion temperature 36. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails? A. Elastic limit B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material C. Creep D. All of the choices 37. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness? A. Lay B. Out of flat C. Camber D. Waviness 38. What dimensional property of a material refers wavelike variation from a perfect surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness? A. Lay B. Waviness C. Surface finish D. Out of flat 39. Wood is composed of chain of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called: A. plastic B. lignin C. mer D. additive 40. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different monomers? A. Copolymerization B. Blending C. Alloying D. Cross-linking 41. What refers to a linear copolymer in which identical repeat units are clustered in blocks along a molecular chain? A. Branched copolymer B. Block copolymer C. Clustered copolymer D. Moleculed copolymer

42. What refers to a polymer having a molecular structure of secondary chains that extend from the primary main chains? A. Branched polymer B. Block polymer C. Secondary polymer D. Extended polymer 43. A polymer in which two different repeat units are randomly distributed along the molecular chain is called ________. A. uneven copolymer B. random copolymer C. specific copolymer D. even copolymer 44. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercially known as "nylon"? A. Polyacetals B. Polyamide C. Cellulose D. Polyester 45. What is defined as a material being capable of recovering from large deformations quickly? A. Elastomer B. Rubber C. Cellulose D. Polyester 46. For a natural rubber, what refers to its base which is a milky-sap obtained from the inner dark of a tropical tree? A. Elastomer B. Vulcanizer C. Gum D. Latex 47. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _______ elongation in tensile test and is capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed. A. 100% B. 150% C. 200% D. 250% 48. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes, in which the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold by vacuum, and cool while still in contact with the mold? A. Calendering B. Blow molding C. Thermoforming D. Solid phase forming 49. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die? A. Calendering B. Thermoforming C. Lithugraphy D. Extrusion

50. What does the word "refractory" mean when used to classify metals? A. It is oxidation resistant B. It is sun rays resistant C. It is corrosion resistant D. It is heat resistant 51. The following are classified as refractory metals except one. Which one? A. Beryllium B. Niobium C. Tantalum D. Molybdenum 52. What of the following metals is NOT a refractory metal? A. Lead B. Tungsten C. Molybdenum D. Niobium 53. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment? A. Stereospecify B. Corrosion resistance C. Conductivity D. Electrical resistance 54. Corrosion refers to deteriorative loss of a metal as a result of __________. A. too much applied force B. calcinations C. dissolution environment reactions D. all of the above 55. Corrosion refers to the deterioration of metals and ceramics. It plastics, corrosion is usually called _________. A. oxidation B. deformation C. degradation D. deterioration 56. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to form with an ordered, special, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules? A. Stereospecify B. Conductivity C. Retentivity D. Spatial configuration 57. Which of the metals used as engineering materials uses face-centered cubic (fcc) atomic arrangement? A. Zirconium B. Gold C. Alpha-iron D. Cadmium 58. Which of the following metals use hexagonal closepacked (hcp) atomic arrangement? A. Cobalt B. Cronium C. Platinum D. Tantalum

59. The combination of slip-plane and its direction of slip is known as a slip-system. Which crystal has 3 slip systems? A. Body-centered cubic crystal B. Phase-centered crystal C. Phase-body cubic crystal D. Hexagonal close-packed crystal 60. Which of the following metals is NOT in body-centered cubic (bcc) atomic arrangement? A. Alpha iron B. Aluminum C. Molybdenum D. Vanadium 61. Which of the following ferromagnets has bodycentered cubic (bcc) crystalline structure? A. Cd B. Fe C. Cu D. Ni 62. What is the basic atomic crystalline structure of chromium? A. Hexagonal close-packed B. Body-centered cubic C. Face-centered cubic D. Cubic lattice-closed 63. What refers to a crystalline defect associated with one or at most several atomic sites? A. Point defect B. Line defect C. Structure defect D. Frenkel defect 64. What is the common crystal defect? A. Smoothness defect B. Grain structure defect C. Line defect D. Point defect 65. What refers to a cation-vacancy and cation-interstitial pair in an ionic solid? A. Line defect B. Point defect C. Dislocation defect D. Frenkel defect 66. What refers to a defect consisting of a cation vacancy and anion vacancy pair in ionic solid? A. Line defect B. Point defect C. Frenkel defect D. Schottky defect 67. What refers to a linear crystalline defect around which there is atomic misalignment? A. Line defect B. Point defect C. Alignment defect D. Dislocation defect

68. Which material below possesses the property of having very high conductivity but with very low electrical conductivity? A. Beryllia B. Magnesia C. Graphite D. All of the above 69. The atomic structure of silicon, in which each atom has four nearest neighbors in a tetrahedral configuration is called _______ lattice. A. ordinary B. cubic C. diamond D. graphite 70. What refers to a two lattice structure identical to the diamond lattice except that there are two times of atoms instead of one? A. Graphite lattice B. Dual lattice C. Zincblende lattice D. Mixed lattice 71. What is the smallest unit cell that can be repeated to form a lattice? A. Primitive cell B. Tiny cell C. Finite cell D. Micro cell 72. What refers to the small volume of crystal that can be used to reproduce the entire crystal? A. Mini cell B. Micro cell C. Unit cell D. Finite cell 73. The set of integers used to describe crystal plane is called ______. A. lattice indices B. crystal indices C. Miller indices D. Cell indices 74. What amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material? A. Impact strength B. Endurance limit C. Creep strength D. Stress rupture strength 75. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress? A. Elongation B. Elasticity C. Creep D. Rupture 76. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from proportionality of stress and strain? A. Tensile strength B. Shear strength C. Yield strength D. Flexural strength

77. The greatest stress which material is capable of withstanding without deviation from acceptable of stress and strain is called _______. A. elongation B. proportional limit C. yield point D. elastic limit 78. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles? A. Endurance state B. Endurance test C. Endurance limit D. Endurance strength 79. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron? A. Conductor B. Semiconductor C. Magnet D. Semimagnet 80. Which of the following is a natural magnet? A. Steel B. Magnesia C. Lodestone D. Soft iron 81. Of the materials listed below, which one ranked third as good conductor of electric current? A. Silver B. Copper C. Gold D. Aluminum 82. What silver is an alloy of silver and copper? A. White silver B. Nordic silver C. Sterling silver D. Red silver 83. Sterling silver is composed of _____ copper and _____ silver. A. 7.5%, 92.5% B. 8.5, 91.5% C. 10%, 90% D. 5%, 95% 84. Which of the following is an arrangement of good conductors of electricity from best to least? A. Silver, Copper, Gold, Aluminum B. Aluminum, Gold, Silver, Copper C. Gold, Silver, Copper, Aluminum D. Aluminum, Silver, Gold, Copper 85. Which of the following engineering materials has the highest electrical conductivity at room temperature? A. Copper B. Nickel C. Silver D. Cadmium

86. What is the electrical conductivity of aluminum mohm/m? A. 2.57 x 10^7 B. 3.57 x 10^7 C. 4.57 x 10^7 D. 5.57 x 10^7 87. What is the resistance of the material to plastic deformation? A. Hardness B. Stiffness C. Creep age D. Rigidity 88. Hardness is the measure of a material's resistance to deformation by________. A. surface indention B. abrasion C. tensile and compressive forces D. surface indention or by abrasion 89. Heat distortion is what property of plastics? A. Physical Property B. Mechanical Property C. Chemical Property D. Structural Property 90. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-Magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 91. What materials have permeabilities slightly greater than that of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-Magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 92. What materials have very high permeabilities? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-Magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 93. What refers to the weak formed of induced or non permanent magnetism for which the magnetic susceptibility is negative? A. Ferromagnetism B. Paramagnetism C. Diamagnetism D. Antimagnetism 94. What refers to a relatively weak form of magnetism that results from the independent alignment of atomic dipoles with an applied magnetic field? A. Paramagnetism B. Ferromagnetism C. Diamagnetism D. Antimagnetism

95. What is defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and at some stage in its manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow? A. Metal B. Metalloid C. Plastic D. Ceramic 96. Cermet is a composite material consisting of a combination of ceramic and ________. A. non-metallic material B. polymer C. metallic material D. elastic material 97. Abrasive materials are hard and wear-resistant materials that is used to _______ other materials. A. wear B. grind C. cut-away D. all of the above 98. What type of substance that bonds together the surfaces of two other materials? A. Abrasive B. Adhesive C. Amorphous D. Anistropic 99. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called _______. A. Metallic bond B. Van der Waals bond C. Cross linking D. Covalent bond 100. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer? A. Homopolymer B. Ethenic polymer C. Polyethylene D. Copolymer 101. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as________. A. monomer B. elastomer C. mers D. copolymer or interpolymer 102. A polymer that consists of two or more dissimilar repeat units in combination along its molecular chains is called ______. A. elastomer B. branched polymer C. copolymer D. crosslinked polymer

103. A polymer in which adjacent linear molecular chains are joined at various positions by covalent bonds is called ______. A. elastomer B. branched polymer C. copolymer D. crosslinked polymer 104. A stable molecule from which a polymer is synthesized is called _________. A. monomer B. high polymer C. elstomer D. copolymer 105. What refers to the ability of a solid material to exist in more than one form of crystal structure? A. Polycrystallination B. Polymorphism C. Polyamorphism D. Coexistence 106. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties? A. Vulcanizer B. Elasticmer C. Polychloroprene D. Elastomer 107. What is defined as an alloy of iron or carbon, with the carbon being restricted with certain concentration limits? A. Steel B. Wrhought iron C. Cast iron D. Tendons 108. Ordinary steel at high temperature has only one constituent which is iron holding carbon in solid solution. What is this constituent? A. Cementite B. Austenite C. Ferrite D. Pearlite 109. The carbon content of cemetite is approximately how many percent of its compound? A. 4.7% B. 5.7% C. 6.7% D. 7.7% 110. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting from the BOf or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots? A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR) B. Vauum induction melting (VIM) C. Electron bean refining D. Electroslag refining

111. In what special refining process of steel was molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute) into ingot mold? A. Electroslad refining B. Vacuum remelting C. Vacuum induction melting D. Electron beam refining 112. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent? A. Alloy steel B. Stainless steel C. Galvanized steel D. Carbon steel 113. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite? A. Austenite B. Eutectoid C. Hyper-eutectoid D. Stainless steel 114. Which type of steel does not contain nickel and can be hardened by heat treatment? A. Precipitation-hardening steel B. Austentic steel (200 and 300 series) C. Marstensitic (400 and 500 series) D. Ferritic steel (400 series) 115. What group of steels are water-hardened tool steels? A. Group S B. Group w C. Group O D. Group T 116. What group of steels are molybdenum high-sped steels? A. Group A B. Group D C. Group M D. Group H 117. Steels that are used for axles, gears and similar parts requiring medium to high hardness and high strength are known as? A. Medium-carbon steel B. Low-carbon steel C. Very high-carbon steel D. High-carbon steel 118. Galvanized steel products coated with ______. A. Carbon B. Sulfur C. Zinc D. Nickel 119. What is the most utilized metal for industry next to iron, aluminum and magnesium? A. Zinc B. Tin C. Nickel D. Lead

120. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics? A. A370 B. D638 C. E292 D. C674 121. What ASTM test for compression designated for plastics? A. D638 B. D790 C. D695 D. D638 122. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics? A. D732 B. D790 C. D695 D. D638 123. What is the ASTM tension testing designation standard method for steel products? A. A370 B. E345 C. E8 D. C674 124. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for nonstructural application is classified as _______. A. Merchant quality B. Commercial quality C. Drawing quality D. Special quality 125. The use of acids to remove oxides and scaled on hotworked steels is known as __________. A. Tempering B. Pickling C. Machining D. Galvanizing 126. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying? A. To increase brittleness B. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness C. To increase brittleness, combine with sulfur D. To increase corrosion and resistance 127. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. About 10% of Earth's crust is iron. B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft. C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon(less than 2%). D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct reduction vessel. 128. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits? A. E B. H C. X D. B

129. What prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace? A. E B. H C. X D. B 130. What letter suffix in steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element? A. xxLxx B. xxBxx C. xxHxx D. xxKxx 131. What refers to the tin mill steel without a coating? A. White plate B. Tin steel free C. Black plate D. Dichromate tin 132. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at red heat temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating? A. Aluminum bronze B. Nichrome C. Hastelloy D. Alnico 133. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium? A. 10% B. 20% C. 25% D. 5% 134. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron oxide content of the steel? A. Deorizers B. Deoxidizers C. Deterrent D. Detoxifiers 135. What graphite exists largely in the form of flakes? A. Gray cast iron B. White cast iron C. Wrought iron D. Malleable cast iron 136. What is the reason of the name "gray" cast iron? A. When it is broken the fractured path is along graphite path and has a gray softly appearance B. It is just called gray to differentiate with the white cast iron. C. Because the outside appearance is gray even though its inner part is white. D. Because it was the name given by the one who discovered this iron. 137. Which of the following gray irons is called "fully-gray iron"? A. Perlistic gray iron B. Masteritic gray iron C. Flabby gray iron D. Ferritic gray iron

138. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, ironcarbon-silicon alloy? A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Alloy iron 139. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility? A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Ductile iron 140. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant? A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. White iron D. Malleable iron 141. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron? A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. Alloy iron D. Malleable iron 142. What is another term for nodular iron? A. Malleable iron B. Ductile iron C. Wrought iron D. White iron 143. What is the effect of manganese in cast iron? A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5% C. To deoxidize molten cast iron D. To increase fluidivity and lowers melting temperature 144. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron? A. To increase hardness above 0.5% B. To deoxidize molten cast iron C. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% 145. What is added to nickel to improve its ductility? A. Zinc B. Copper C. Iron D. Manganese 146. What refers to a measure of a material's ability to undergo appreciable plastic deformation before fracture? A. Ductility B. Malleability C. Elasticity D. Plasticity

147. Ductility is expressed in terms of _________. A. Percent elongation B. Percent area reduction from a tensile test C. Percent elongation or percent area reduction from a tensile test D. Percent strain 148. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron? A. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5% B. increase fluidivity and lowers melting temperature C. softens iron and increases ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13% D. deoxidizes molten cast iron 149. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth's crust is iron? A. 10% B. 5% C. 20% D. 8% 150. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench? A. Carburizing B. Tempering C. Nitriding D. Heat-treating 151. The following statements are true except one. Which one? A. Carburizing does not harden a steel. B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels. C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness. D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts. 152. Which of the following is a characteristic of breaking of brittle materials? A. Splinters in various forms will be produced. B. Breaking takes place in perpendicular and parallel lines. C. Breaking takes place in an oblique plane. D. The cross-sectional area size 153. What arbitrary strain value is used to differentiate ductile materials from brittle materials? A. 0.05 inch per inch B. 0.025 inch per inch C. 0.50 inch per inch D. 0.25 inch per inch 154. For ductile materials, the material strength used is the ________. A. nominal strength B. average allowable strength C. ultimate strength D. yield strength

155. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel? A. Heating to the proper temperature B. Sufficient carbon content C. Adequate quench D. All of the choices 156. What is the average hardening temperature for steel in degree Fahrenheit? A. 1470 to 1580 B. 1670 to 1870 C. 1375 to 1575 D. 1575 to 1875 157. What field of study encompasses the pronouncement and production of metals? A. Metallurgy B. Geology C. Material Science D. Metalgraphy 158. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides? A. Hematic B. Magnetite C. Gangue D. Ore 159. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment? A. Tuyere B. Coke C. Diamond D. Hematite 160. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? A. Brass B. Zinc C. Nickel D. Aluminum 161. What refers to the hardening of the outer surface of a steel component by a carburizing or nitriding process? A. Case hardening B. Case annealing C. Case nitriding D. Case calcination 162. What is the main purpose of case hardening? A. To improve machinability B. To improve ductility C. To improve corrosion resistance D. To improve wear and fatigue resistance 163. What refers to the case hardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near the surface of a part is increased? A. Carburizing B. Annealing C. Normalizing D. Martempering

164. What is the process of heating hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling? A. Normalizing B. Spheroidizing C. Carburizing D. Tempering 165. What refers to the heat treatment done in materials that improve its strength and machinability and hardens it resulting to loss of ductility? A. Normalizing B. Tempering C. Carburizing D. Annealing 166. Brazing is a metal joining technique that uses a molten filler metal alloy having a melting temperature greater than _______. A. 400 degress Celcius B. 425 degress Celcius C. 450 degrees Celcius D. 475 degrees Celcius 167. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite temperature of transformation within a solid state? A. Pearlite B. Eutectoid C. Austernite D. Delta solid solution 168. What is the method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box heated to about 100 degree Fahrenheit? A. Annealing B. Normalizing C. Carburizing D. Nitriding 169. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test? A. 10mm ball B. 120 degree diamond (brale) C. 1.6 mm diameter ball D. 20 degree needle 170. What is defined as the ratio of the load P to the curves surface area of the indention in a certain hardness test? A. Brinell hardness number B. Moh's hardness number C. Vicker hardness number D. Rockwell's hardness number 171. In measuring the hardness of materials using Brinell's test, what is the recommended load to obtain accurate measurement? A. 1500 kg or 3000 kg B. 500 kg or 1000 kg C. 1000 kg or 2000 kg D. 500 kg or 3000 kg

172. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of the test bar? A. Tensile strength B. Yield strength C. Shear strength D. Flexural strength 173. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic range? A. Poisson's ratio B. Refractive index C. Modulus of elasticity D. Percent elongation 174. What is a measure of rigidity? A. Stiffness B. Hardness C. Strength D. Modulus of elasticity 175. In tensile, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures within the gage length is called _____. A. percent elongation B. creep C. elasticity D. elongation 176. What impurity steel can cause "red shortness", which means the steel becomes unworkable at high temperature? A. Sulfur B. Silicon C. Manganese D. Phosporous 177. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface? A. Cyaniding B. Nitriding C. Flame hardening D. Induction hardening 178. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites? A. Boron B. Ceramic C. Graphite D. Glass fiber 179. A fine-crystalline ceramic material that was that was formed as a glass and subsequently crystallized is known as _____. A. glass-polymer B. glass-ceramic C. glass-plastic D. glass-fiber 180. What kind of composite in which carbon is used in the fiber as well as in the matrix? A. Carbonic composite B. Homogenous carbon composite C. Carbon-carbon composite D. Pure carbon composite

181. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity? A. Electrolyte B. Water C. Solution D. Acid 182. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities? A. Cracking B. Pitting C. Cavitation D. Erosion 183. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses? A. Dezincification B. Graphitization C. Stabilization D. Dealloying 184. What is the scaling off the surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion? A. Expoliation B. Corrosion fatigue C. Seaping D. Fretting 185. What type of failure results from the simultaneous action of cyclic stress and chemical attack? A. Coercive fatigue B. Corrosion fatigue C. Coulombic fatigue D. Creep 186. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 187. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 um) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 188. Indicate the false statement about corrosion. A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many cause of corrosion because they are not good conductors of electricity. B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode. C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of many metals. D. Corrosion of metals usually electrochemical in nature. 189. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than _______ percent. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1

190. Indicate false statement about stainless steel? A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels. B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat. C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity. D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels. 191. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels? A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper 192. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as times _________ that of carbon steel. A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 15 193. Two identical electrical wires of equal length are made from the same material. What is the ratio of their resistances of the radius of one wire is twice that of the other? A. 1:2 B. 1:4 C. 1:8 D. 1:16 194. What is the range of the specific gravity of carbon steel (rolled)? A. 9.11 to 9.81 B. 8.31to 8.61 C. 7.81to 7.85 D. 6.71to 6.81 195. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold? A. Casting B. Molding C. Forming D. All of the choices 196. What refers to the process by which a raw material is shaped by heating and squeezing into the desired shape, between two platens that act as a mold? A. Heat molding B. Cold molding C. Compression molding D. Tension molding 197. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting? A. Water-cooled metal cavities B. Machined metal holding blocks C. Ejection mechanism D. Metal mold (matching halves) 198. Which of the following materials is the easiest to die cast? A. Aluminum B. Zinc C. Titanium D. Vanadium

199. What cast iron has nodular or spheroidal graphite? A. Ductile iron B. Wrought iron C. Gray iron D. White iron 200. What is a proess for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generated by pulling resin-impregnated glass strands through a die? A. Continuous pultrusion B. Bulk molding C. Vacuum bag forming D. Resin transfer moulding 201. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and acids? A. Alkaline B. Alkydes C. Alcocids D. Aldehyde 202. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy? A. 13 XX B. 23 XX C. 25 XX D. 31 XX 203. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel? A. 13 XX B. 31 XX C. 23 XX D. 12 XX 204. What is the AISI-SAE designation for nickel steel? A. 21 XX B. 22 XX C. 23 XX D. 24 XX 205. What does AISI stands for? A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries B. American Institute of Steel Industries C. Association of Architects and Engineers D. American Iron and And Steel Institute 206. What does SAE stands for? A. Society of Automotive Engineers B. Society of American Engineers C. Society of Architects and Engineers D. Society of Alloy Engineers 207. What does ASTM stands for? A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials B. American Society for Testing and Materials C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials 208. What is the approximate chromium range of a terrific stainless steel? A. 12% to 18% B. 10% to 12% C. 16% to 20% D. 20% to 24%

209. Stainless steels are iron-based alloys that contain 12% or more ________. A. tin B. cadmium C. lead D. chromium 210. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range? A. 600 deg.C to 1100 deg.C B. 1000 deg.C to 1500 deg.C C. 1100 deg.C to 2000 deg.C D. 200 deg.C to 800 deg.C 211. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steels except: A. Molybdenum B. Tungsten C. Cobalt D. Chromium 212. The chrome-molybdenum steel contains how many percent of molybdenum? A. 0.10 B. 0.20 C. 0.30 D. 0.40 213. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium? A. 0.15 to 0.30 B. 0.05 to 0.15 C. 0.30 to 0.45 D. 0.45 to 0.60 214. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 11 to 14 D. 14 to 18 215. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _________, that is, the hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold-worked. A. cold harden B. stress harden C. cool-temperature resistant D. strain harden 216. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium? A. 4 to 8 B. 9 to 10 C. 11 to 17 D. 17 to 21 217. What refers to the application of a any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard? A. Carburizing B. Case hardening C. Annealing D. Surface-hardening

218. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center is large section? A. Malleabilty B. Hardenability C. Spehiodability D. Rigidity 219. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austernite to pearlite? A. 1000 degree Fahrenheit B. 1333 degree Fahrenheit C. 1666 degree Fahrenheit D. 1222 degree Fahrenheit 220. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ______. A. 700 degree Celcius B. 550 degree Celcius C. 660 degree Celcius D. 440 degree Celcius 221. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve? A. Pearlite B. Bainite C. Austenite D. Marstenite 222. What refers to the possibility of the existence of two or more different crystal structures for a substance, generally an elemental solid? A. Allotrophy B. Calcination C. Anisotrophy D. Amorphoustropy 223. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670oF? A. Beta iron B. Gamma iron C. Delta iron D. Alpha iron 224. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000*F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling? A. Nitriding B. Flame hardening C. Precipitation hardening D. Carburizing 225. The approximate temperatures of heated metals such as steel and copper as it undergo heating process are determined by what physical property? A. By its density B. By its length C. By its color D. By its volume 226. A metal undergoes a heating process. What is the approximate temperature if the color of the metal is dull white? A. 1000 degree Celcius B. 1300 degree Celcius C. 1600 degree Celcius D. 2000 degree Celcius

227. Austenite is transformed into bainite when subjected to what cooling process? A. Very slow cooling process B. Moderate cooling process C. Rapid cooling process D. Quenching cooling process 228. Some engineering materials are called PH alloys. What does PH stands for? A. Percent hydroxide B. Percent hardening C. Precipitation hardening D. Percent hydrides 229. What is the chief ore of tin? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Ilmanite D. Galena 230. What is the chief ore of zinc? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Sphalerite D. Ilmanite

236. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents? A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy C. The modification of the alloy group or impurity limits D. The alloy group 237. In the system of designating wrought aluminum aloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what condition of the alloy? A. As fabricated B. Strain hardened C. Annealed D. Artificially aged 238. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are diecast except: A. Zinc alloys B. Magnesium alloys C. Manganese alloys D. Aluminum alloys 239. What is considered as the most used material in aircraft turbine component because of its properties? A. Super alloy B. Carbon nanotubes C. Carbon fiber D. Titanium 240. What is the most important property of super alloy when used for aircraft turbine component? A. Density B. Air resistance C. Strength D. Thermal conductivity 241. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50? A. 25000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 B. 35000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 C. 50000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 D. 100000 lbf/inches with exponent 2 242. What is the carbon content of wrought iron? A. less than 0.1 percent B. exactly 0.1 percent C. more than 0.1 percent D. ranges from 0.1 to 0.2 percent 243. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel? A. 10% B. 14% C. 18% D. 22% 244. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called _______. A. yellow brass B. red brass C. Muntz brass D. white brass

231. What is the chief ore of titanium? A. Sphalerite B. Ilmanite C. Bauxite D. Cassiterite 232. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived? A. Bauxite B. Rutile C. Galena D. Sphalerite 233. The term "brass" is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of: A. copper and zinc B. aluminum and iron C. copper and aluminum D. zinc and nickel 234. The term "bronze" is used to designate any alloy containing: A. copper and zinc B. copper and aluminum C. copper and nickel D. copper and tin 235. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit indicates? A. The purity of iron B. The identity of the alloy C. The alloy group D. The strength of the alloy

245. The optimum combination of strength and ductility of alpha-beta brass is offered as an alloy known as _______. A. Muntz B. Strirling C. Fornicate D. Invar 246. What type of brass is usually used in conduits, sockets, condensers and heat-exchangher tubings? A. Red brass B. Yellow brass C. White brass D. Blue brass 247. Red brass is also known as _______. A. softmetal B. gunmetal C. pewter D. solid brass 248. Red brass contains how many percent copper? A. 70% B. 75% C. 80% D. 85% 249. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc? A. 20% B. 50% C. 30% D. 40% 250. Indicate the false statement. A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin. B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high strength fasteners. C. Bronze is copper-tin alloy. D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper. 251. What is the most abundant metal in nature? A. Aluminum B. Steel C. Iron D. Copper 252. Indicate the false statement about aluminum. A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel B. It has 1/3 of the stifness of steel C. It has high strength to weight ratio D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity 253. What is the effect to aluminum with the iron as the alloying element? A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting B. Improving conductivity C. Lower castability D. Improves machinability 254. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element? A. Icreases strength up to about 12% B. Reduces shrinkage C. Improves machinability D. Increases fluidity in casting

255. Which of the following are two well known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets? A. Invar and Nilvar B. Nichrome and Constantan C. Elinvar and Invar D. Alnico and Cunife 256. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except: A. lime B. silica C. alumina D. asphalt 257. That refers to a substance that by chemical reaction blinds particulate aggregates into a cohesive structure? A. Concrete B. Cement C. Adhesive D. Glue 258. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain diagram? A. Modulus of elasticity B. Proportionality limit C. Secant modulus D. Tangent modulus 259. Specific modulus is the ratio of _____ of a material. A. tensile strength to specific gravity B. elastic modulus to specific gravity C. strain to specific gravity D. tangent modulus to specific gravity 260. Specific strength is the ratio of ________ of a material. A. tensile strength to specific gravity B. elastic modulus to specific gravity C. strain to specific gravity D. tangent modulus to specific gravity 261. What is the reciprocal of the coefficient o volume elasticity/ A. Compressibility B. Coefficient of rigidity c. Bulk modulus D. Young modulus 262. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen? A. Jominy end-quench test B. The lever rule C. Gibb's phase test D. Stress relief test 263. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutetoid steels to change martenite into pearlite? A. Temperizing B. Normalizing c. Annealing D. Spheroidizing

264. What is another term for tempering? A. Recrystaliation B. Annealing c. Sphereoidizing D. Drawing or toughening 265. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one? A. Carburizing B. Flame hardening C. Nitriding D. Annealing 266. In annealing, what refers to the ratio of the working temperature to that of the temperature of the melting point when carrying out plastic deformation process? A. Homogenous temperature B. Cold-working temperature C. Hot-working temperature D. Homologous temperature 267. For metric wire gage, the no. 2 wire is _____ in diameter. A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm 268. Bus bars of rectangular cross sectionare generally used or carrying _______. A. high electric currents B. low electric currents C. high voltage D. low voltage 269. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards? A. Unlaminated flat conductors B. Insulated conductors C. Rounded flexible conductors D. Flat flexile conductors 270. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper? A. 65% B. 35% C. 55% D. 45% 271. How does the electrical conductivity of copper be reduced significantly? A. By reducing the copper's electronegativity B. By removing impurities C. By adding impurities and alloying components D. By chemical treatment using enamel 272. The state of having exactly the same number of positive and negative electrical charges is known as ____. A. electrobalance B. electroneutrality C. electrically stable D. stable state

273. The presence of what type of bond in metallic compound enables then to posses electrical conductivity property? A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Crystalline bond D. Metallic bond 274. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generators? A. Yellow brass B. Beryllium copper C. Tin bronze D. Phosphor bronze 275. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in micro-ohms-centimeter? A. 1.76 B. 1.71 C. 1.67 D. 3.10 276. What should be the resistivity in micro-ohmscentimeter of a resistor material? A. 200-300 B. 100-200 C. 50-150 D. 10-50 277. Resistivity ratio of a conductor is the ratio of the electrical resistivity at 298 K to that of _____. A. 4.2 K B. 5.2 K C. 6.2 K D. 7.2 K 278. What material is usually used for some electrical and electronics applications, especially for those that require higher resistivity and lower eddy-current losses? A. Silicon-iron B. Silicon-copper C. Germanium-iron D. Germanium-copper 279. How much silicon is present in silicon-iron? A. 1% to 3% B. 2% to 4% C. 3% to 5% D. 4% to 6% 280. What is the most widely used dielectronic material in the electrical and electronics industry? A. Polymer B. Plastic C. Rubber D. all of the above 281. What refers to dielectric materials, such as Rochelle salt, with domain structure containing dipole and are aligned spontaneously? A. Dieletric materials B. Photo-electric materials C. Ferro-electric materials D. Ferro-magnetic materials

282. What are natural or synthetic rubberlike materials which have outstanding elastic characteristics? A. Thermosettting plastics B. Polymers C. Elastomers D. Thermoplastic plastics 283. What refers to an additive that imparts a specific color to a polymer? A. colorant B. Component C. Profiler D. Changer 284. What refers to an inert foreign substance added to a polymer to improve or modify its properties? A. Component B. Catalyst C. Filter D. Profiler 285. What refers to a polymer that has been made porous or sponge-like by the incorporation of gas bubbles? A. Suds B. Smog C. Fog D. Foam 286. What are cellular forms of urathenes, polystreams, vinyls, polythylenes, polyproplenes, phenolics, epoxies and a variety of other plastics? A. Thermoplastic plastics B. Plastic foams C. Polymers D. Thermosetting plastics 287. What is the widely used electrical insulator? A. Plastic B. Polymer c. Epoxy D. Paper 288. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper? A. 6 to 12 MV/m B. 8 to 14 MV/m C. 10 to 16 MV/m D. 12 to 18 MV/m 289. What is the most widely known carbide? A. Carbon carbide B. Lead carbide C. Germanium carbide D. Silicon carbide 290. Which of the following carbides has a good resistance to wear, thermal shock and corrosion? A. Tungsten carbide B. Titanium carbide c. Silicon carbide D. Nitric carbide

291. What refers to the quantity of mass diffusing through and perpendicular to a unit cross-sectional area of material per unit time? A. Diffusion coefficient B. Diffusion flux C. Dielectric displacement D. Diffraction coefficient 292. What refers to the ratio of the permittivity of a medium to that of a vacuum? A. Dielectric constant B. Magnetic constant C. Relative permeability D. Diffusion coefficient 293. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to ____. A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 500 294. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors? A. 500 to 10,000 B. 1,000 to 10,000 C. 500 to 5000 D. 100 to 1,000

295. What class of ceramic capacitor is best suited for oscillator circuit where capacitance stability is necessary? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV 296. What is the maximum dielectric constant of class I ceramic capacitor? A. 500 B. 600 C. 700 D. 800 297. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings? A. Alkyds B. Acrylics C. Epoxies D. Vinyls 298. What is most widely used in electronic industry as a structural member, such as the envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated circuits, etc? A. Glass B. Plastics C. Silica D. Film

299. The thin conducting films used for semiconductor is made of what metal? A. Gold B. Tin C. Aluminum D. Silver 300. What refers to a two-element compound semiconductor such as Gallium-Arsenide? A. Duo semiconductor B. Binary semiconductor C. Twin semiconductor D. Pair semiconductor 301. What refers to a three-element compound semiconductor such as aluminum gallium arsenide semiconductor? A. Tri semiconductor B. Trio semiconductor C. Tetra semiconductor D. Ternary semiconductor 302. A semiconductor composed of a single specie of atom such as silicon or germanium is called _____ semiconductor. A. elemental B. unit C. primary D. ordinary 303. A semiconductor wafer or other material used as the starting material for further semiconductor processing, such as epitaxial growth or diffusion? A. Substrate B. Layer C. Lattice D. Crystal 304. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100 degree celsius below their softening point to form a very fine network of crystalline phase? A. fused silica B. Glass ceramics C. Fused quartz D. Fiber glass 305. What type of motion is produced when crystalline solids are strained? A. Amorphic motion B. Molecular motion C. Structural motion D. Dislocation motion 306. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging is called the ____. A. aging box B. aging factor C. aging coefficient D. aging point

307. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called _____. A. magnetic anistropy B. magnetoresistance C. magnetostriction D. magnetizing factor 308. Which material is used for dc application such as electromagnetic cores and relays? A. Iron B. Copper C. Steel D. Aluminum 309. Which of the following is known as "electrical steel"? A. Silicon steel B. Stainless steel C. Carbon steel D. Cast steel 310. What is the highest frequency ferrite? A. Garnet B. Spinel C. Mumetal D. Superinvar 311. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and injection lasers? A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallium Phosphide 312. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red light? A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallium Phosphide 313. Lead compounds such as lead sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which application? A. Diodes and transistors at low temperatures B. Infrared detectors C. Thermoelectric applications D. All of the above 314. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator? A. Sphere B. Square pyramid C. Asymmetrical pyramid D. Cube 315. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material? A. Knoop test B. Vickers test C. File hardness test D. Toughness test

316. What method of determining hardness of materials that users a small diamond pyramid (136 degrees), with a square base and using a much lighter load, permitting its use on thinner specimens? A. Brinnel hardness number method B. Vickers pyramid hadness method C. Shore scleroscope method D. Knoop hardness number method 317. Using Moh's scale, which of the following materials is the hardest? A. Iron B. Topaz C. Brass D. Corundum 318. A hardness scale that is used to show the different hardness of materials is the Moh's scale. What type of scale is the Moh's scale? A. Scratch-based scale B. Imbedded-based scale C. Penetration-based scale D. Impact-based scale 319. What is the Moh's hardness number for aluminum oxide used for cutting tools? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10 320. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point? A. Elastic toughness B. Fatigue C. Hardness D. Creep strain 321. What type of failure wherein the cyclic stresses are introduced by fluctuating thermal stresses? A. Thermal conductivity B. Thermal fatigue C. Thermal shock D. Thermal tempering 322. The fracture of a brittle material as a result of stresses is introduced by a rapid temperature change is called ___________. A. thermal fatigue B. thermal shock C. thermal conductivity D. thermal tempering 323. The following are typical properties of ceramic except one. Which one? A. High melting point B. High compressive strength C. High corrosion resistance D. High thermal conductivity 324. Which of the following refers to ceramic used in engineering? A. Materials that posses plastic properties B. Non-metallic, non-crystalline materials C. Oxides, nitrides and carbides D. Materials that conduct heat easily

325. Which of the following engineering materials is NOT classified as ceramics? A. Graphite B. Diamond C. Glass D. Reinforced plastic 326. The most important mechanical property of ceramics which is the measure of its resistance to crack propagation is ________. A. ductility B. plasticity C. elasticity D. toughness 327. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity at room temperature? A. Diamond B. Glass C. Porcelain D. Graphite 328. Which of the following is NOT a property of carbon graphite products? A. Melt when heated B. Brittle C. Used as electrical conductors D. Very low tensile strength 329. Which of the following engineering materials has the highest density? A. Magnesium B. Lead C. Steel D. Tantalum 330. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to several thousand? A. Polymerization constant B. Polymerization factor C. Degree of polymerization D. Polymerization index 331. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat temperature and contains 15 to 20% chromium? A. Alnico B. Nichrome C. Invar D. Nilvar 332. Due to their unique properties, invar and upper invar are commonly used in which of the following applications? A. Shado mast in CRTs B. Bimetallic strips C. Piping for liquefied natural gas D. All of the above 333. What element is used to replace the nickel content of an alloy to produce a super invar alloy? A. Zinc B. Cobalt C. Tin D. Cobalt

334. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon? A. 96% B. 3% C. 1% D. 69% 335. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties? A. Silicon B. Aluminum C. Berylllium D. Zinc 336. Which of the following metals in their alloy form has the greatest strength at room temperature? A. Graphite fibers B. Steels C. Kevlar fibers D. Carbides 337. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard? A. Aluminum B. Zinc C. Lead D. Silicon 338. What element constitutes a major component of most bronzes? A. Zinc B. Tin C. Lead D. Aluminum 339. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? A. Tin B. Lead C. Zinc D. Aluminum 340. What is the lightest metal currently available for engineering applications? A. Magnesium B. Copper C. Tungsten D. Chromium 341. What is the heaviest material currently available for engineering applications? A. Vanadium B. Molybdenum C. Chromium D. Tungsten 342. Aluminum is lighter than all materials below except one? Which one? A. Magnesium B. Ferrous materials C. Zinc D. Tin

343. Which of the following is NOT a ferrous metal? A. Carbon B. Stainless steel C. Beryllium D. Too-and-die steel 344. In the manufacturing of engineering materials, what refers to the major computer application which adjusts automatically the manufacturing parameters such as forces, temperature, surface finish and dimensions of parts, to fall within the acceptable range? A. Automated handing control B. Industrial Robotics C. Computer Numerical Control D. Adaptive Control 345. Which of the elements is NOT harmful to solders? A. Antimony B. Zinc C. Cadmium D. Aluminum 346. What alloy is usually used for minting of coins? A. Nordic gold B. Plated gold C. Chinese gold D. Alloyed gold 347. Nordic gold contains how many percent copper? A. 85% B. 87% C. 89% D. 91% 348. What component of smart metals performs a responsive and adaptive function? A. Actuator B. Retention C. Memory D. Magneto fiber 349. Which of the following is used as actuators or smart metals? A. Piezo-electric ceramics B. Nanocarbon polymers C. Magnetic resistance materials D. Shape-memory alloys 350. What refers to the ability of a material to permit it to be permanently bent or twisted into various shapes without shapes without breaking? A. Ductility B. Elasticity C. Plasticity D. Malleability

351. Copper is the most commonly used material for electrical wires. What is its modulus of elasticity in pascals? A. 9 x 10 to 10th power B. 10 x 10 to 10th power C. 11 x 10 to 10th power D. 12 x 10 to 10th power

352. What abundant materials refer to the product of the weathering of complex silicates, particularly of feldspar? A. Sand B. Clay C. Gravel D. Limestone 353. Which of the following materials is normally found in small microwave tubes? A. steatite B. Carbides C. Forsterite D. Cordierite 354. What term is used to describe the technology of treating a mined ore, to obtain a product higher on concentration of a wanted material from the unwanted rock mass in which it occurs? A. Ore dressing B. Ore mining C. Ore drawing D. Ore alloying 355. What refers to the fabrication step in semiconductor manufacturing in which proper interconnection is made? A. Metallization B. Mineralization C. Oxidation process D. Lithography 356. What is the usual specific gravity of the mineral oil used for transformers? A. 0.68 B. 0.98 C. 0.78 D. 0.88 357. Which of the materials below will be used when high compressive ultimate strength is necessary? A. Aluminum B. Granite C. Concrete D. Copper 358. What material is usually used in cellphone relays? A. Titanium B. Aluminum C. Palladium D. Platinum 359. Which is not a property of palladium? A. It cannot be electroplated B. It is less resistant to corrosion C. It resembles a platinum D. It is normally used for contacts in relays 360. What type of resin is usually used for manufacturing plumbing pipe? A. High density polyethylene B. Low density polyethylene C. Polypropylene D. Polyvinyl chloride

361. What is the dielectric constant of the ceramic dielectric material, porcelain? A. 6.0 B. 6.9 C. 4.0 D. 5.2 362. Steel is normally described in gauges, such as 16 gauge BG, what does BG stands for? A. Burmingham Gauge B. Buckingham Gauge C. British Gauge D. Brinell Gauge 363. Perforated materials are not usually used for structural members. If used however, what factors must be considered in the calculation taking into the account the effect of the perforation on the strength of the material? A. Stiffness and strength B. Stiffness and resistance to creep C. Strength and resistance to fatigue D. Resistance to fatigue and resistance to creep 364. What type of solder is used in an intermediate temperature solder but not suitable for brass? A. Aluminum-silver solder B. Tin-antinomy solder C. Aluminum-zine solder D. Lead-silver solder 365. What type of integrated circuit constructed on a glass or ceramic substrate, used only for passive elements? A. Ceramic IC B. Planar IC C. Film IC D. Semiconductor subtrate IC 366. What refers to the ability of a material to withstand shatter? A. Shear resistance B. Plasticity C. Elasticity D. Impact resistance 367. An "Oxygen Free High Conductivity" copper refers to the one that contains ____ copper. A. 99.95% B. 99.399% C. 99.90% D. 99.00% 368. What gold alloy is usually used for low-current electric contacts? A. Au-Tn alloy B. Au-Ag alloy C. Au-Fe alloy D. Au-Si alloy 369. At the maximum temperature can a nickel-coated copper conductor be used? A. 340 degree Celsius B. 320 degree Celsius C. 360 degree Celsius D. 300 degree Celsius

370. What abundant materials refer to the product of the weathering of complex silicate4s, particularly of feldspars? A. Sand B. Clay C. Gravel D. Limestone 371. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding strength in descending order? A. Carbides, Steel, Tantalum, Titanium B. Steel, Carbides, Titanium, Tantalum C. Titanium, Steel, Carbide, Tantalum D. Tantalum, Titanium, Steel, Carbide 372. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding toughness in descending order? A. Wood, Thermoset, Ceramic, Thermoplastic B. Thermoplastic, Wood, Thermoset, Ceramic C. Thermoset. Ceramic, Wood, Thermoplastic D. Ceramic, Wood, Thermoset, Thermoplastic 373. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding stiffness in descending order? A. Copper, Tungsten, Titanium, Thermoset B. Titanium, Thermoset, Copper, Tungsten C. Thermoset, Titanium, Tungsten, Copper D. Tungsten, Copper, Titanium, Thermoset 374. Which of the following arrangements have their corresponding hardness in descending order? A. Magnesium, Thermoplastic, Thermoset, Copper B. Thermoset, Copper, Magnesium, Thermoplastic C. Copper, Thermoset, Magnesium, Thermoplastic D. Thermoplastic, Copper, Thermoset, Magnesium 375. Arrange the following metals from greatest to least electrical conductivity at room temperature. A. Brass, Iron, Platinum, Carbon Steel B. Iron, Platinum, Brass, Carbon Steel C. Platinum, Iron, Carbon Steel. Brass D. Carbon. Steel, Iron, Platinum, Brass 376. Arrange the following materials in accordance from greatest modulus of elasticity to the least. A. Nickel, Titanium, Copper, Brass B. Titanium, Copper, Brass, Nickel C. Copper, Nickel, Titanium, Brass D. Nickel, Copper, Titanium, Brass 377. What is the electrical conductivity per ohm-meter of aluminum used as electrical conductor? A. 5.08x 10 raise to the power of 7 B. 6.47x 10 raise to the power of 7 C. 7.32x 10 raise to the power of 7 D. 3.57x 10 raise to the power of 7 378. Piezoelectric materials are usually utilized as: A. Inductors B. Capacitors C. Transducers D. Resistors

379. Indicate the false statement about modulus of elasticity? A. The modulus of elasticity of polymers is lower than that of metals. B. The modulus of elasticity range of metals is slightly higher than that of ceramics. C. The modulus of elasticity of polymers is lower than that of ceramics. D. Steel and Nickel has almost the same value of modulus of elasticity. 380. Aside from Gold, Silver, and Platinum, which of the following is considered as noble metal? A. Niobium B. Vanadium C. Iridium D. Zirconium 381. Because of their unique properties, invar and superinvar are commonly used in all the following except one. Which one? A. Shadow mast on cathode ray tubes B. Bimetallic strips C. Piping for qualified natural gas D. Coinage 382. _____ have superlative combinations of properties and mostly used in aircraft turbine components. A. Invars B. Superalloys C. Titanium and palladium D. Alloys 383. What is the most important consideration for superalloys? A. Density B. Strength C. Thermal Capacity D. Air resistance 384. What process is involved in the transformation of austenite into bainite? A. Rapid quenching B. Reheat C. Moderate cooling D. Slow cooling 385. To produce a super-invar alloy, some of the nickel content is replaced by what element? A. Cobalt B. Copper C. Tin D. Lead 386. What type of laser is used for line-of-sight communication, recording/playback of holograms? A. He-Ne laser B. Argon Laser C. Ruby Laser D. Diode Laser

387. For the pure metal and all the copper-nickel alloys, the resistivity rises linearly with temperature above about ____ degree Celsius. A. -100 B. -150 C. -200 D. -250 388. Which of the following is NOT a diamagnetic material? A. Diamond B. Alkalihalides C. Ag D. Gd 389. Nichrome is the widely used as a heater wire in household appliances and industrial furnaces. What is the composition of nichrome? A. 80& Nickel and 20% Chromium B. 85% Nickel and 15% Chromium C. 75% Nickel and 25% Chromium D. 90% Nickel and 10% Chromium 390. Which ferromagnet has a BBC crystal structure? A. Gd B. Cu C. Ni D. Fe 391. Which semiconductor material has a green LED? A. GaP (N) B. GaP (Zn-O) C. SiC D. InGan alloys (430- 460 nm) 392. Which semiconductor material has a blue LED? A. InGan alloys (500- 530nm) B. GaP (Zn-O) C. SiC D. Gap (N) 393. Which of the following is NOT a standard load for Brinell Hardness Testing? A. 500 kg B. 1500 kg C. 2500 kg D. 3000 kg 394. Which is NOT a property of the common plastic known as mylar? A. It has high dielectric strength B. Is is chemical resistance C. It is moisture resistance D. It embrittles with age 395. To determine the approximate temperature of heated metals such as heated metals such as steel and copper, a color scale for metal temperature is used. When the color of metal is dull white, what is the approximate temperature of metal in degree Celsius? A. 1300 B. 1400 C. 1500 D. 1600

396. Which of the following is NOT true about electrical conductors? A. Oxides and salts of silver are also conductors. B. Oxides of copper are good conductors. C. Gold does not normally oxidize. D. Oxides of aluminum are not good conductors. 397. Hardening of steel is accomplished by raising the temperature until the steel becomes austenitic in form and the quick-cooling it at a rate faster than the critical state. What is the average hardening temperature of steel? A. 1475 to 1675 degrees Fahrenheit B. 1275 to 1475 degrees Fahrenheit C. 1375 to 1575 degrees Fahrenheit D. 1375 to 1675 degrees Fahrenheit 398. What important semiempirical equation which is used to predict the resistivity of an alloy? A. Nordheim's Rule B. Schrodinger's Rule C. Stefan's Rule D. Hall's Rule 399. What soft magnetic materials are used for high permeability applications and for low-loss electric devices? A. Silicon iron B. Super alloy C. Commercial grade iron D. Ferrites