MBA Quiz Questions Answers (Business Communications Quiz - 38)

1. There are many barriers, which impede the listening process. Many people are poor listeners, becausethey are overly concerned with themselves. This concern, a barrier to listening is termed as Ans: Egocentrism 2. Conflicts are inevitable. Even the most amicable people get upset at times. Disagreements arisebecause individuals see, hear, and interpret things differently. Which of the following is/are potentialsources of conflict? Ans: Competition for scarce resources, Poor communication, Power struggles. 3. The success of a meeting depends on the ability of each individual member of a group to communicatewith the rest of the group as a whole. When conducting a meeting Ans: 4. Regardless of your background, knowledge, or skill, each time you speak it is a different and uniqueexperience. The _______________ delivery is often referred as the middle course. Ans: Extemporaneous 5. You are asked to prepare a message, which is going to be received by different people across thecountry. To make the communication/message effective, you must Ans: Look for the common denominators that tie the group together 6. How do you deal with your finding of customer error when responding to a claim (complaint)? Ans: Let the customer understand his/her error in using the product or service without insulting the customer in any way. 7. You are writing a business message to a customer regarding the benefits of a to-be introduced and a bitcostlier product. You have to include evidences supporting the claims you have made regarding theutility of the product. The evidence should be [A]As abstract as possible [B]Minimal if your subject is complex or unfamiliar [C]Enough to be convincing but not so much that it's boring [D]All of the same type, such as examples or statistics

8. You are graduating from business school in another month and entering the job market. Your educationhas equipped you with a set of resources - qualifications, skills that you now have to sell to prospective employers. What additional section would improve the effectiveness of a scannable resume? [A]An application letter should be made a part of a scannable resume, so the letter can be in the database too [B]A detailed "References" section to enable the employer to check out your references before calling you for an interview [C]A "Keyword Summary" section [D]A "Keyword Summary" section in a box

9. Two punctuation styles are customarily used in business letters: open and mixed. Standard or mixedpunctuation uses which of the following after the salutation and a comma after the complimentaryclose? Ans: A colon 10. When business people speak of reports, they are, in general, thinking of written, factual accounts thatobjectively communicate information about some aspect of the business. Which of the following will not give the readers a sense of the overall structure of a report? Ans: The final outline. 11. Whether you are speaking, writing, or listening, communication is more than a single act. Instead, it isa chain of events that can be broken into five phases, feedback as the last phase. Feedback is the receivers response to a message; it can take a number of verbal and nonverbal forms. Which of thefollowing is not a good way to give constructive feedback? [A]Focusing on particular behaviors; feedback should be specific rather than general [B]Keeping feedback impersonal; keep feedback job related

[C]Using "you" statements; make clear where the employee is wrong [D]Making feedback well timed; there should be only a short interval between the recipient's behaviorand the feedback 12. Non-verbal communication is defined as the communication, which is not conveyed using words but byour facial expressions, body movements, tone of the voice etc. The study of the non-verbal symbols is divided into three main areas: paralanguage, proxemics, and kinesics. What does kinesics mean? Ans: A study of body movements and facial expressions 13. The listener can use a number of verbal and nonverbal cues to aid the speaker in communicating.Sometimes nodding the head slightly or casual remarks like I see can tell the speaker Ans: Listener is actively involved in the communication process 14. Success in negotiation, like other things in life, does not just happen. A good deal of preparation isnecessary to understand people involved, our expectations from the negotiation, how much are wewilling to concede at the time of negotiation etc. Advantage of high bid in negotiation Ans: Provides room for maneuvering 15. Sometimes -------- sessions are used to arrive at a decision. Members are encouraged to generate asmany ideas about a topic as they can. Every idea is recorded. No idea is rejected at the initial stage.The group then returns to the ideas and adopts those that seem most feasible or most useful Ans: Brainstorming

Questions for Management Students (MBA Quiz - 64)

1. With respect to a SWOT analysis of the competitive environment in which a company operates, which of the following could be a potential resource weakness for a company? Ans: Narrow product line relative to rivals 2. Which of the following can be said to be an appropriate technique for line personnel in reducing linestaff conflict? Ans: Make proper use of the staff abilities 3. Which of the following is not a factor that effects ethical/unethical behavior? Ans: Ethical hotline

4. Which of the following steps in the Nominal Group Procedure precedes the others?

Ans: Ideas listed for review 5. Delegation includes the three stages of briefing, monitoring progress, and evaluation and feedback. Which of the following is included in the briefing stage? Ans: Discuss the areas of the task that are sensitive to error or risk 6. The function of planning in organizations is Ans: Very closely linked to controlling, because it sets the goals or standards against which performance is measured 7. Which of the following is true about a highly decentralized organization? Ans: Decisions made at the lower levels are very important 8. Which of the following is not one of Taylors principles of Scientific Management? Ans: Discipline is vital for running an organization 9. The MBO process is characterized by an emphasis on the clarity and balance of objective and participation of managers with accountability for results. The MBO process has many steps. Which of the following is a final step of a typical MBO process? Ans: Successful achievement of objectives is reinforced by performance based rewards 10. An organization characterized by a very formal structure, strict lines of communication, existence of many rules, and fixed duties, has a/an Ans: Mechanistic structure 11. Departmentation helps an organization take advantage of functional specialization. Which of the following is not a reason why departmentation is required? Ans: It helps in avoiding conflicts among power centers 12. Which approach to management emphasizes managing people by understanding their individual psychological needs? Ans: Interpersonal behaviour approach 13. Henry R. Towne was one of the prominent contributors to preclassical management thought. Which of the following did Henry R. Towne advocate/propose? Ans: Emphasis on the importance of business skills for running a business

14. Which of the following is/are not assumption(s) of the rational decision-making model?

Ans: Preferences change slowly. 15. The decision-making process has seven steps. Which of the following is/are approache(s) for selecting among alternatives, in the decision-making process? Ans: Experience, Experimentation., Research and analysis.

marketing
1.Ministerial meeting of WTO held in Dec 99 was unsuccessful because of what reasons? Ans.Environment-related issues. 2.Name the only Indian President who was the speaker of Lok Sabha also? Ans. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy 3.What was the venue of world cup of Football in 1994? Ans. U.S.A. 4.Manisha Koirala is associated with the advertisement of which brand of fan? Ans.Ortem fan 5.Name the company whose C.E.O was chosen as the manager of the century by Fortune magazine? Ans.General Electric (GE) 6.Which International company owns Lotus Development Company? Ans.IBM 7.Which film has won 11 Oscar awards other than Titanic? Ans.Ben Hur 8.Which states has maximum number of seats reserved for Schedule Tribes in Lok Sabha? Ans.Madhya Pradesh 9.French Revolution resulted in the abolition of? Ans.Slavery

10.The Standing committee of state finance ministers recommended in January 2000 uniform rates across the states in respect of?

Ans.Sales Tax 11.Which city is known as the Manchester of South India? Ans.Coimbatore 12.How many states are there in India? Ans.28 13.Economic liberalization in India started with? Ans.It started in the year 1991 with the delicensing of Industries in India 14.Which body is not a creation of the constitution? Ans.Election Commission 15.Which was the first Indian company to dematerialize its shares? Ans.Reliance Industries 16.Who is the first person from Africa to become the Secretary General of UN? Ans.Dr. Boutros Boutros Ghali 17.National Income in India is estimated by? Ans.Central Statistical Organization (C. S. O) 18.Which is the oldest company listed in wall street? Ans.Bank of New York 19.Who led Indian delegation to G-15 summit held at Cairo in June 2000? Ans.Vice-President, Krishna Kant 20.Talk to me is a promotional campaign associated with which company? Ans.Toothpaste 21.What is the expected food subsidy bill for 2000-01? Ans.8100 crores

22.Who is the founder of positive health clinic?

Ans.Dr. Mukesh Batra 23.First public sector unit registered in New York Stock Exchange on 15th August 2000? Ans.ICICI LTD. 24.Which bank is associated with the Sapnay credit card? Ans.Standard Chartered Bank 25.Lexus is a sports car owned by which Asian car manufacturer? Ans.Toyota 26.Indian population constitutes what percentage of the world population? Ans.16% 27.Sanjukta Panigrahi was the popular exponent of which form of dance? Ans.Odissi 28.Who is the MD of ICICI? Ans.K.V Kamath 29.TRAI expands to? Ans.Telecom Regulatory Authority of India. 30.What is the meaning of Direct Tax? Ans.Tax imposed and collected directly on and by the consumer 31.Vishvas/Vikas/Vaibahav is the motto of which private bank? Ans.IndusInd Bank 32.Which form of intellectual property can provide the longest protections? Ans.Trade mark 33.Khalid Ansari is associated with which publications? Ans.Mid Day

34.Which News paper has highest of circulation?

Ans.Dainik Bhaskar 35.Who is the Ex-officio chairman of the Planning Commission of India? Ans.Prime Minister 36.Which Indian TV channel owned the rights for the telecast of 50th Miss World Contest held in Millennium Dome in London? Ans.Zee TV 37.Bajaj Auto Ltd. is setting its two-wheeler plant in which south Asian country? Ans.China 38.Who was chosen as the Businessman of the Century by Fortune Magazine? Ans.Henry Ford 39.Marjorie Sardino is the CEO of which company? Ans.Pearson Plc. 40.The speaker can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as? Ans. Yielding the floor. 1. The logic of qualitative data analysis is described as: 1: Objective 2: Subjective 3: Inductive 4: Deductive 2.Which of the following is least likely to occur as an ethical problem with e-research? 1: People are not likely to be able to stop once they have begun participating. 2: Informed consent cannot be completely monitored. 3: Debriefing could be avoided. 4: Privacy could be invaded. 3.What is the first step in the research process?

1: Preliminary data collection 2: Problem definition 3: Theoretical framework 4: Define broad problem area 4. The number of people who complete a survey in relation to the number of people contacted to participate is called the: 1: Response set 2: Response rate 3: Response bias 4: Respondents 5. A researcher developed a measure of shyness and is now asking whether this measure does in fact measure a person's true state of shyness. This is a question of: 1: Reactivity 2: Construct validity

3: Reliability 4: Content validity 6. The following journal article would be an example of _______ research; "The benefits of florescent lighting on production in a factory setting." 1: Applied 2: Interview 3: Basic 4: Stupid 7.Which of the following is a research method that allows a researcher to get information about a large number of subjects relatively inexpensively and easily? 1: Naturalistic observation 2: Case study

3: Laboratory observation 4: Survey 8.The researcher protects the confidentiality in following ways, Except; 1: Obtaining signed nondisclosure documents. 2: Restricting access to data instruments where the respondent is identified. 3: Disclosure of data subsets. 4: Restricting access to respondent identification. 9.The independent variable is; 1.The variable manipulated in order to observe its effects 2.The variable that is measured 3.The free spirited variable 4.A confounding variable 10. A measure has high internal consistency reliability when: 1.Multiple observers make the same ratings using the measure. 2.Participants score at the high end of the scale every time they complete the measure. 3.Multiple observers obtain the same score every time they use the measure. 4.Each of the items correlates with other items on the measure. 11. When doing research involving deception with human subjects, researchers have an obligation to do which of the following? 1.Tell subjects the truth about the studys purpose and methods after the study is completed 2.Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects 3.Let subjects withdraw from the study at any time if they dont want to keep participating 4.All of the given options

12. The findings from a study of decision making processes within a UK financial services company can be generalized to:

1.Decision making processes in all financial services companies 2.Decision making processes in the all UK companies 3.Decision making processes in the researched companies 4.Companies all over the world 13. A variable is: 1.Any characteristic of interest that can take on more than one value 2.Defined as the groups manipulated in experimental research 3.The complete set of scores we use in statistical analysis 4.Completely specified only in observational research 14. Which of the following is an example of a dilemma that might face feminist business researchers conducting qualitative interviews with women? 1.What role to adopt when interviewing male managers? 2.How many female employees should be interviewed for a representative sample? 3.How to overcome the issue of false consciousness? 4.What data to use when publishing findings? 15. Research questions are crucial because they will: 1.Guide your decisions about what data to collect and from where. 2.Help you decide which research area interests you. 3.Ensure that your findings have external validity. 4.Prevent you from thinking about research strategies.

1.What does CRM allow an organization to accomplish? A) Provide better customer service

B) C) D)

Make call centers more efficient Help sales staff close deals faster All of the above

2.What helps an organization identify its customers across applications? A) B) C) Predicting Processing Analyzing

D)

Reporting

3.Which of the following operational CRM technologies does the marketing department typically use? A) B) C) D) Contact center, Web-based self-service, call scripting List generator, campaign management, cross-selling and up-selling List generator, opportunity management, cross-selling and up-selling Contact center, cross-selling and up-selling, Web-based self-service

4.What targets sales opportunities by finding new customers or companies for future sales? A) B) C) D) Sales management systems Contact management systems Campaign management systems Opportunity management systems

5.What allows customers to use the Web to find answers to their questions or solutions to their problems? A) B) Contact center Call scripting

C) D)

Web-based self-service List generators

6.What focuses on keeping suppliers satisfied by evaluating and categorizing suppliers for different projects, which optimizes supplier selection? A) B) C) D) Customer relationship management Partner relationship management Employee relationship management Supplier relationship management

7.Which of the following is one of the CRM business drivers? A) B) C) D) Inventory control Increase revenues Automation/productivity/efficiency All of the above

8.What occurs when a Web site can know enough about a person's likes and dislikes that it can fashion offers that are more likely to appeal to that person? A) B) C) D) Personalization Operational CRM Analytical CRM None of the above

9.What is the first CRM industry best practice? A) B) C) D) Clearly communicate the CRM strategy Build an integrated view of the customer Implement in iterations Define information needs and flows

10.Which of the following is not a CRM industry best practice? A) Provide better customer service

B) C) D)

Define information needs and flows Build an integrated view of the customer None of the above

Q1 When looking at how CRM can help a business; What are the main Lines of Business that Customer Relationship Management typically encompasses? 1. 2. 3. 4. Sales Marketing Customer Service All Three

Q2 What is the main purpose of implementing a CRM strategy into your organisation? 1. To simply manage Contact information 2. To track all of your customer interactions in & out of your organisation 3. A way to address how an organisation can better engage the market to retain and acquire customers and to apply a method for long term customer loyalty Q3 Can you simply install a CRM software package into your organisation and say that you have now addressed your customer centric goals? 1. Yes, the tool will now enable me to start tracking all customer interactions 2. No, customer centricity can only be addressed by creating an overall customer relationship management strategy before you actually start thinking about what solution you will need and how you will apply it Q4 Can a CRM Software as a Service (SaaS), or Hosted Solution, integrate with my existing business systems? 1. Yes, that is the very purpose of purchasing an outsourced CRM service 2. No, you can't simply outsource CRM. It will ultimately need to integrate into your people, processes and technology. Only a minority of implementations out there have got this [tradeoff] right. Still, on-demand CRM software doesn't work for everyone since it cannot be customized for complex business processes. (It can be configured, of course, within the bounds set by the vendor.) Furthermore, on-demand CRM software is typically less capable than selfhosted applications, even when both come from the same vendor, notes Isher Kaila (Research Director for CRM at Gartner).

Q5 What is meant by the term Workflow management?

1. Workflow, is the automation of your business processes through which documents, information or tasks are passed from one participant to another according to a set of defined business rules 2. Workflow, is Email routing for alerts or notifications, a simple way to integrate with an email client, full featured contact management, and information sharing between users

Quiz Chapter 5 Customer Relationship Management and the Marketing Research Process
1. Customer Relationship Management (CRM) is most consistent with which of the following business philosophies? A .Production Orientation B. Sales Orientation C. The Marketing Concept D. short-term profit maximization E. Technological Orientation 2. Consumer Relationship Management (CRM) is a natural outgrowth of recent emphasis upon: A. relationship marketing. B. response marketing. C. mass marketing. D. advances in communications technology. E. e-marketing. 3.Generally, it costs about ________________ as much to replace a dissatisfied customer as it would have to retain him. A. half B. five times C. four times D. three times

E. twice 4.The success of any Customer Relationship Management program is most dependent upon: A. computer technology. B. customer technology. C. a "manageable" consumer population. D. emphasis upon high-quality production processes. E. an effective quality control program. 5.Marketing intelligence is primarily distinguished from marketing research by: A. the amount of money it requires. B. its focus upon specific, short-term projects. C. its failure to use secondary data. D. its failure to use primary data. E. the heavy use of real-time customer information. 6.The Customer Relationship Management attempts to: A. identify the types of programs/satisfactions that will add value to the firm's customers. B. understand the value perception of the consumer segment and how to enhance it. C. identify the products, services, and mode(s) of delivery modes that have value to the consumer. D. understand customer responses to marketing and sales campaigns. E. deal effectively with all of the above. 7.A major challenge to creating an enterprise-wide CRM program is breaking through traditional, functional ______________________. A. silos. B. data bins. C. gateways.

D. registers.

E. files. 8.Under a customer-centric approach, ____________________ data is used to anticipate and fulfill customer's desires. A. structured B. primary C. granular D. secondary E. silo 9.The X-Cel Corporation desires to create an effective CRM program. The firm's effort must emphasize: A. the strategic use of customer information. B. information based on a transactional focus. C. enterprise-wide approach to the use of information. D. technological support of the CRM structure. E. all of the above. 10.A firm has the opportunity to "capture" customer information: A. only through expensive primary research projects. B. only from long-standing customers who purchase often. C. in every transaction it has with every customer. D. directly from its competitors. E. only through personal contact with the customer. 11. Specific customer information gathered and shared by all individuals in an enterprise is called a: A. touch point. B. contact point. C. context point.

D. transaction hub.

E. information hub. 12. The role of technology in a CRM environment is evidenced by: A. the creation of integrative, interactive data bases. B. the use of telecommunications in data collection. C. the use of the internet in data collection. D. the use of interactive store environments in data collection. E. all of the above. 13.The X-Cel Corporation automatically captures the internet protocol (IP) address and domain name (DP) of every visitor to any of its web sites. This type of information is called ____________________ data. A. interactive B. passive C. active D. secondary E. access 14. _______________ data is acquired by a business when customers interact with the firm's web site. A. Interactive B. Passive C. Active D. Secondary E. Access 15. _____________ data refers to comprehensive data about customers collected through the use of computers. A. Directed B. Active C. Passive D. Access

E. Secondary 1. Which of the following statements refer to a Remote Cube? 1. 2. 3. 4. InfoCube that gathers data from several Basic Cubes Transaction data that are not managed in SAP BW but are available to SAP BW users Remote Cubes do not contain data A cube built in a non-BW data warehouse

2. If product price is a slowly changing dimension, how do you model product price if you want to report on the price at the time of the query? 1. 2. 3. 4. As a characteristic on the material dimension As a time-dependent navigational attribute As a time-dependent hierarchy of material As a time-independent navigational attribute of material

3. Which of the following refer to pointer tables that provide the technical link to the master data outside of the InfoCube? 1. 2. 3. 4. Dimension tables Set IDs M tables SID tables

4. Which of the following Dimensions are delivered by SAP BW for each InfoCube? 1. 2. 3. 4. Unit Time Transfer package Currency Unit

5. Which of the following statements describes a categorical dimension? 1. An artificial dimension used to describe the status of another dimension 2. An artificial dimension/attribute used to categorize another dimension 3. An artificial dimension used in a reporting scenario where the comparison of the same key figure is needed 4. A dimension that is used across all cubes 6. Which of the following is an example of a slowly changing dimension? 1. 2. 3. 4. Customer on a sales order Date Person responsible for a cost center Value of a purchase order

7. Fact tables may be partitioned by which of the following characteristics? 1. 2. 3. 4. 0CALDAY 0CALMONTH 0CALYEAR 0CALPERIOD

8. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the operational data store (ODS)? 1. 2. 3. 4. The data in the ODS are compressed and do not have a Request ID attached ODS can consolidate data from different source systems Data in the ODS cannot be reported upon The ODS is the inbound layer of the SAP BW system and data are written directly to it from the source system

9. A Fact table consists of which of the following elements? 1. 2. 3. 4. Characteristic InfoObjects Key figures InfoObjects Calculated key figures InfoObjects Hierarchies

10. If you worked for a retail company that changed prices on a very frequent basis, how would you model the price? 1. 2. 3. 4. In the master data table as an attribute In the transaction table as a new characteristic In the ODS to enhance performance In the fact table

11. Which of the following occurs as a result of degenerating dimensions? 1. The grain of the fact table represents actual working documents like order number or invoice number 2. All descriptive attributes of the grain are located in other dimensions 3. The InfoCube becomes very weak and performs poorly when it is run 4. The degenerating dimensions cannot be modeled using normal star schema 12. What values can a key figure retain? 1. 2. 3. 4. Last value Average value First value None of the above

13. Which of the following describes an unbalanced hierarchy? 1. 2. 3. 4. A hierarchy with too many leaves within one branch A hierarchy with fewer nodes within one or more branches Hierarchy without leaves The term used for data that are delivered from two or more sources on different aggregation levels

14. How many BP classifications exist in mySAP CRM? 1. 2. 3. 4. One Two Three Five

15. Identify the BP categories 1. 2. 3. 4. Person Organization Group All of the above

16. The following describes BP roles: 1. 2. 3. 4. The BP role is assigned to the business partner based on the business process. Configuration of screens and fields can be done per BP role. Authorization checks can be setup per BP role. None of the above.

17. Can a BP with the classification "rented address" be distributed to the back-end R/3 system? 1. 2. 3. 4. Yes No It depends You never know

18. How many international address versions are supported by SAP in WAS 6.20? 1. 2. 3. 4. Seven Nine 11 12

19. How many address formats are offered in standard mySAP CRM? 1. US only

2. Europe/Standard only 3. Japan only 4. All of the above 20. The following explains the address usage feature: 1. It is configurable and allows addresses for different usage. 2. The default address in a transaction can be maintained in a partner determination. 3. The system prompts for address selection if it is not specified in the partnerdetermination, when multiple addresses are maintained in address usage. 4. All of the above 1. This new CRM system will hopefully increase our __________________________ ( = help us to become more productive). 1. productivity 2. inclination 3. propensity 2. This new software will provide us with the __________________________ we need to help customers quickly. 1. tolls 2. tools 3. tails 3. By __________________________ certain processes ( = not doing them manually), we save a lot of time. 1. automating 2. automation 3. automatic 4. The new CRM software will allow us to create trouble tickets for each __________________________ ( = problem) that comes up. 1. idea 2. issue 3. info

5. When you __________________________ an open ticket, you're following the progress of the open ticket. 1. trick

2. trap 3. track 6. Are the open tickets __________________________ by case number? No, they're __________________________ by date. 1. errant 2. aroused 3. arranged 7. To find out more about the team's performance = To gain __________________________ into the team's performance 1. visibility or insight 2. vis-a-vis or inform 3. virulence or inspect 8. To __________________________ a case means to send the case to someone (like a manager, boss, etc.) for review. After you __________________________ the case to the appropriate person, you should send an email to that person notifying them of this. 1. escape 2. escalate 3. scale 9. After you __________________________ an issue ( = solve a problem), make sure you close the ticket. 1. respond 2. revoke 3. resolve 10. I need to access the CRM system from home. No problem, you can access the system __________________________. 1. remotely 2. remedially 3. remorsefully

1.Sales promotion is primarily used to: 1. Increase sales in the short term. 2. Increase sales in the long-term.

3. Increase instore consumer traffic. 4. Create awareness of a product. 2.Direct marketing is about: 1. 2. 3. 4. Sending publicity to a named person. Selling directly to consumers. Door to door selling. None of the above.

3.A push strategy involves: 1. 2. 3. 4. Directing publicity material to retailers to convince them to hold stock. Pushing products onto consumers to convince them to purchase products. Pushing advertising in certain media. Selling products over the internet.

4.Personal selling involves: 1. 2. 3. 4. Selling a product over the internet. Selling a product through personal recommendations. Selling a product one to one. Selling a product through multiple chains.

5.The most probable advertising strategy to use during the introduction stage of the product lifecycle is: 1. 2. 3. 4. Peursasive advertising. Informative advertising. Reminder advertising. Reinforcement advertising

6.The most probable advertising strategy to use during the decline stage of the product lifecycle is: 1. 2. 3. 4. Informative advertising Reminder advertising. Persuasive advertising. Reinforcement advertising.

7.A pull strategy involves: 1. 2. 3. 4. Promoting the product to the consumer to create demand. Promoting product to the retailer. Promoting over the internet. None of the above,

8.AIDA is a communication model. It stands for:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Attention, Informative, Desire, Action. Attention, Interest, Desire, Action. Attention, Interest, Desire, Acquire Attention,Interest,Develop,Action

1 The halo perceptual error leads a rater to consistently evaluate other people or objects in an extremely positive fashion. A) B) True False

2 Stereotypes are sometimes positive. A) B) True False

3 Although research indicates that men and women do not systematically differ in the manner suggested by traditional stereotypes, these stereotypes still persist. A) B) True False

4 According to the self-fulfilling prophecy, peoples past experiences determine their behaviour and performance. A) B) True False

5 The fundamental attribution bias represents ones tendency to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure. A) B) True False

6 The study of how people perceive one another has been labelled A) B) C) D) perception theory. social cognition. attribution theory. the fundamental attribution bias.

E)

perceptual information processing.

7 What is the correct sequences of stages in the social information processing model? A) Encoding and simplification; storage and retrieval; retrieval and response; attention/comprehension. selective

B) Selective attention/comprehension; storage and retention; encoding and simplification; retrieval and response. C) Storage and retention; encoding and simplification; selective attention/comprehension; retrieval and response. D) Encoding and simplification; storage and retention; selective attention/comprehension; retrieval and response. E) Selective attention/comprehension; encoding and simplification; storage and retention; retrieval and response. 8 A ____________ represents a persons mental picture or summary of a particular event or type of stimulus. A) B) C) D) E) fundamental attribution bias causal attribution schema person memory stereotype

9 _____________ refers to general knowledge about the world. A) B) C) D) E) Encoding Semantic memory Schemata Event memory Information processing

10 The ____________ perceptual error represents the tendency to avoid all extreme judgements and rate people and objects as average or neutral.

A) B) C) D) E)

contrast effects recency effects central tendency leniency halo

11 A stereotype is an individuals set of A) B) C) D) E) beliefs about the characteristics of a group. beliefs about another individual. inaccurate assumptions about a group. positive expectations about another individual. negative expectations about the qualities of a group.

12 Research suggests that as employees age, they experience A) B) C) D) E) less job satisfaction. higher accident rates. less absenteeism. less organizational commitment. less internal work motivation.

13 Another name for the Pygmalion effect is A) B) C) D) E) self-serving bias. selective attention. fundamental attribution bias. self-fulfilling prophecy. stereotyping.

14 According to Kelleys attribution model, distinctiveness involves

A) B) C) D) E)

judging if the individuals performance on a given task is constant over time. looking at all the available information and weighing each piece according to its importance. discussing the individuals behaviour with others and coming to a group decision. comparing an individuals behaviour with his or her peers. contrasting a persons behaviour on one task with his or her behaviour on other tasks.

15 According to Wieners attribution model, task difficulty and help from others are examples of A) B) C) D) E) internal factors. behavioural consequences. external factors. judgments. psychological consequences.

1 Two areas that are influencing and impacting corporations and managers today are the rapid pace of change and A) B) C) D) demographic increases. complexity of the work environment. organizational culture changes. managerial ineptness.

2 The field of organizational behavior examines such questions as the nature of leadership, effective team development, __________, and ___________. A) B) C) D) interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals organizational control; conflict management motivation of individuals; planning planning; development

3 ____________ is attributed with developing the scientific management perspective.

A) B) C) D)

Elton Mayo Robert Owens Frank Gilbreth Frederick Taylor

4 Which perspective is hailed as being responsible for launching research into such topics as leadership effectiveness and group dynamics? A) B) C) D) Human relations approach Scientific management Contingency approach Hawthorne effect

5 Of the four building block skills, which one is frequently considered to be the largest behavior management challenge? A) B) C) D) The ability to inspire employees The ability to analyze situations correctly Personal flexibility and adaptability Outstanding perceptual skills

6 Which of these skills is considered to be the cornerstone of the four building block skills? A) B) C) D) Personal flexibility Self-insight Perceptual skills Leadership capabilities

7 Which of these approaches argues that there is no single best way to manage behavior? A) B) Hawthorne Scientific Management

C)

The cornerstone skill

D)

Contingency

8 The area of "knowledge foundation" deals with the importance of A) B) C) D) understanding organizational behavior. the behavior management process. development of solutions for achieving behavioral goals. identification of the causes of behavior.

9 Which of these steps of the behavior management process involves implementation of selected strategy, monitoring for effectiveness, and performing necessary adjustments? A) B) C) D) Step three Step two Step four Step one

10 ________ is/are a key trend that is having a significant impact on behavior management today. A) B) C) D) Information technology Reverse discrimination Decreasing the amount of training for managers Stay-at-home mothers

11 What is contributing to organizations taking a look at employee groups that had previously been overlooked, ignored, or shutout? A) B) C) D) Current discrimination laws Government monetary incentives New behavior management theories Economic pressures

12 One way businesses can benefit from diversity in the work force is A) B) increased popularity. increased understanding of the marketplace.

C) D)

increased employee satisfaction. minimizing EEOC/AA investigations.

13 One drawback to the technology of today is A) B) C) D) it can actually accelerate the speed at which crises can strike a nation. it can keep employees too busy to stay in touch with their employers and organizations. it can decrease waste and efficiency in organizations. it can reduce the need for familiar methods of communication such as telegraph and faxes.

14 The percentage of employees who work 50 or more hours per week has risen by _____ over the past twenty years. A) B) C) D) 25% 40% 30% 37.5%

15 During the last thirty years, the percentage of dual-career married couples has grown by A) B) C) D) 24 percent. 96 percent. 60% percent. 36% percent.

1 Diversity is synonymous with differences. A) B) True False

2 Secondary dimensions of diversity contain an element of control or choice. A) B) True False

3 Work location represents an organizational dimension of diversity.

A) B)

True False

4 Workforce demographics are statistical profiles of the characteristics and composition of the adult working population. A) B) True False

5 Diversity is A) B) C) D) E) synonymous with similarities. synonymous with differences. composed of many different dimensions. driving white males from the job market. something that pertains only to women and minorities.

6 _____________ is (are) the centre, core layer of diversity. A) B) C) D) E) Primary dimensions Organizational dimensions Secondary dimensions Internal dimensions Personality

7 Secondary dimensions of diversity A) B) C) D) E) are salient to other people. exert an important and sustained impact throughout our lives. include, for example, ethnic heritage and age. contain an element of choice or control. are likely to evoke responses associated with biases, prejudices, or stereotypes.

8 Affirmative action programs have _________ effect on the job satisfaction of women and minority employees who supposedly benefited from them. A) B) C) D) E) a negative no a positive an emotional a pragmatic

9 Rachel was recently hired for a managerial position in a large high-tech firm. The organization has an active affirmative action programme, and Rachel thinks that the fact that she is female might have influenced the hiring decision. Rachel is likely to feel ___________ compared to employees selected solely on the basis of merit. A) B) C) D) E) less stress greater job satisfaction greater organizational commitment greater career satisfaction negatively stigmatised

10 The primary reason for managing diversity is to A) B) C) D) E) conform to legal requirements. attract a supply of qualified workers. treat everyone morally and ethically. allow everyone to feel appreciated and accepted. maintain a successful business in an increasingly competitive marketplace.

11 __________ is (are) a common barrier to implementing successful diversity programmes. A) B) C) Ethnicity Affirmative action Workforce demographics

D) E)

Illiteracy Resistance to change

12 R. Roosevelt Thomas, Jr. identified some basic responses for handling any diversity issue. The ________ option assumes that all diverse people will learn to fit in or become like the dominant group. A) B) C) D) E) assimilate suppress isolate tolerate exclude

13 According to diversity expert Ann Morrison, diversity practices fall into three main categories: A) B) C) D) E) expectations, expedience, and elaboration. deny, assimilate, and suppress. equilibrium, enrichment, enlightenment. accountability, development, and recruitment. isolation, tolerance, and inclusion.

14 ___________ practices relate to managers responsibility to treat diverse employees fairly. A) B) C) D) E) Accountability Advancement Development Equitable Recruitment

15 __________ practices are necessary because most non-traditional employees have not been exposed to the type of activities and job assignments that cultivate effective leadership. A) B) C) Accountability Advancement Development

D) E)

Equitable Recruitment

Chapter 1: Introduction and Historical Background

1. Which of the following is not a dimension of workforce diversity? a. Affirmative action b. Religion c. Union status d. Ethnic background 2. Which of the following statements is false? a. Managing diversity does not try to harness the potential of a diverse workforce b. Managing for diversity forces major changes on an organization c. An organization's diverse workforce can give it a competitive advantage d. Valuing diversity means managers actively try to build a diverse workforce 3. Pick the incorrect statement about quality management. a. Quality management is a philosophy of management b. Quality management is a system of management with tools and techniques that help manage for quality c. Quality management builds strong ties with suppliers and customers d. Quality management tries occasionally to improve the quality of an organization's product or service 4. Which of the following is true about quality management? a. Quality management has a short-term focus b. Quality management applies to all types of organizations c. Quality management cares more about cost than continuous quality improvement d. Quality management has its roots in military organizations 5. All the following new and emerging technologies will become part of the context of modern organizations except

a. Wave division multiplexing b. Wireless technology on airplanes c. Push-button telephones d. Electronically based measurement systems 6. Each of the following is a future organization and management characteristic except a. Thorough understandng of customer needs and desires b. Compete in globally diverse markets c. Little involvement in Internet commerce d. Growing use of virtual organizations 7. Which of the following statements is false about the global environment of organizations? a. Modern managers must think beyond their domestic environment in ways never before required b. Global markets will have fewer interconnections in the future c. Transnational organizations that see no national boundaries will increasingly emerge in the future d. The entire planet becomes a source of markets, labor, and materials 8. All but one of the following are issues raised by a global management focus. a. Cultural differences exist in people's spatial orientations b. Forming partnerships with local people can help overcome language differences c. Managers face strong issues about the values they want in their globally dispersed operations d. Few cultural differences exist in people's time orientations 9. Which of the following is false about countries that vary in uncertainty avoidance and power distance? a. High uncertainty avoidance and lower power distance countries (Austria, Germany, Israel) like rules to guide behavior and let managers settle exceptional matters b. Low uncertainty avoidance and high power distance countries (China, Malaysia, Singapore) rely on simple organizational forms and direct supervision c. Countries in the middle of the two dimensions (Netherlands, Canada, United States) rely on top management to coordinate activities and specify results

d. Low uncertainty avoidance and lower power distance countries (Denmark, Sweden, Republic of Ireland) rely on direct interpersonal interactions for coordination 10. Which of the following organizational policies is not affected by workforce diversity? a. Day care b. Performance goals c. Daily spoken language d. Social activities 11. Each of the following is a quality management tool or technique except a. Quality function deployment b. Checksheet c. Variance analysis d. Cause and effect diagram

Chapter 2: The Context of Modern Organizations (Diversity, Quality, Technology, International)

1. All the following are organization characteristics except a. No cooperation b. A bounded system c. Structured social interaction d. Authority relationships 2. Which of the following statements is correct about organizational theory and organizational behavior? a. Organizational behavior focuses on organizational design b. Organizational behavior draws from anthropology and social psychology c. Organizational theory draws from political science d. Organizational theory and organizational behavior are independent of each other

3. Each of the following is true about a manager using theories and concepts as a photographer uses camera lenses except a. Using a single theory from a group of theories falls between a wide-angle and telephoto lens b. Using entire motivation theories is the same as using a wide-angle lens c. Using a single concept is the same as using a telephoto lens d. Managers do not switch from one theory or concept (lens) to another theory or concept (lens) while analyzing and solving organizational problems 4. A plant manager uses an efficiency rating to measure a department's performance. Foremen falsify their efficiency reports to get high ratings. This is a a. Latent dysfunctional consequence b. Latent functional consequence c. Manifest dysfunctional consequence d. Manifest functional consequence 5. Which of the following statements is false about scientific management (Taylor)? a. Scientifically select workers and give them standardized tools to do their job b. Scientific management contrasted with most views of management at the time c. Workers should do the planning and the doing of the work d. Managers should make task assignments and set performance goals 6. Each of the following is a basic management idea or concept in the theory of administration (Fayol) except a. Bureaucracy b. Planning c. Unity of command d. Centralization 7. Which of the following is not a feature of bureaucracy (Weber) that made it an efficient organizational form? a. Loosely defined functions

b. Hierarchical form c. Technically trained bureaucrats d. Written rules and procedures 8. All the following are early observations on organizations and management by Mary Parker Follett except a. Power-with b. Power-over c. Leaders are tenacious and steady during stormy times d. Delegation of authority 9. Which of the following concepts or statements is false about the views from The Functions of the Executive (Barnard)? a. Contributions and inducements b. People join organizations when their contributions slightly exceed the inducements c. Motivation to perform d. Purposes and limitations 10. Which of the following observations is not part of Peter Drucker's work? a. Goals as a source of a manager's self-control b. Management by objectives (MBO) c. Most people like to work d. Forming alliances, partnerships, and joint ventures across national boundaries 11. Which of the following is false about the characteristics of modern organizations? a. Have little global focus b. Face simultaneous pressures for stability and change c. Some employees will find such organizations stressful d. Use the Internet to manage external interactions

12. Each statement below about the Hawthorne Studies is true except a. Secondary analyses of the studies' original data supported using monetary incentives to get higher productivity b. The Hawthorne Studies motivated further understanding of human behavior in organizations c. Empathic management behavior leads to more productivity than directive management behavior d. The studies had strong research designs that allowed solid conclusions 13. One statement below about Theory X or Theory Y (McGregor) is incorrect. a. Theory Y: A person committed to work goals will work toward them without external control b. Theory X: People like to work c. Theory Y: Lack of ambition is not a basic human quality d. Theory X: The average person desires security and avoids responsibility 14. Which of the following is not part of a view (Drucker) of organizational governance and management integrity? a. A board of directors should not review senior management's plans b. Integrity is a critical part of a manager's character c. Effective governance requires a strongly independent and diverse board of directors d. An organization's board of directors should take action in times of crisis

Chapter 3: Ethics and Behavior in Organizations

1. According to an ethic of care, the first stage of individual moral development is a. Principled b. Self-sacrificing c. Reflective understanding d. Self-focused 2. According to an ethic of justice, the most advanced stage of individual moral development is a. Preconventional b. Conventional

c. Principled d. Reflective understanding 3. Which of the following is false about ethics and modern management? a. Modern managers will feel growing pressure to behave ethically b. There are clear standards for judging ethical and unethical behavior c. Questions of ethics surround many management decisions d. Managers often navigate a moral maze in their decision-making processes 4. Pick the incorrect answer from the following. a. Ethical behavior is right; unethical behavior is wrong b. The judgment of right and wrong comes from the guidelines of a specific ethics theory c. The distinction between subjectively and objectively ethical behaviors can cause confusion and controversy d. Few conflicts can arise between a person who believes he or she behaved ethically and those observing the behavior 5. All the following are part of the utilitarianism theory of ethics except a. Utilitarianism asks a person to examine the effects of the person's actions to decide whether the action is morally correct b. Utilitarianism assumes a person can know and assess all costs and benefits of his or her actions c. Utilitarianism easily works with hard-to-quantify values d. An action is morally right if the total net benefit of the action exceeds the total net benefit of any other action 6. Which of the following is false about a rights-based view of ethics? a. Negative rights allow interfering with another person's rights b. Rights can exist because of an ethical standard c. People have a moral duty to respect the rights of others d. Rights are a moral justification for one's actions

7. _______ is a principle in the theory of distributive justice. a. Egoism b. Net benefits c. Fair equality of opportunity d. Reflective understanding 8. Managing for ethical behavior includes each of the following except a. Peer reporting of unethical behavior (whistle blowing) b. Positive rights c. Ethical performance standards d. Decision procedures 9. Which of the following does not apply to the legal and ethical views in the international context of managing? a. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act b. Ethical realism c. Cultural relativism d. Egoism 10. Which of the following is false about ethical egoism? a. A universal ethical egoist can consider the interests of others b. Ethical egoism is among the oldest and simplest of Western ethical systems c. An individual ethical egoist always considers other people's interests when assessing the effects of his or her actions d. Some egoists will behave in a way they want other people to behave toward them 11. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about It's good business to do business ethically? a. Ethical businesses develop reputations for concern about the societal effects of their decisions b. Ethical businesses have a short-term view of ethical management c. Ethical businesses can have short-term costs not borne by less ethical competitors

d. Ethical businesses likely face few regulatory efforts 12. One statement below about ethical issues in organizational behavior is untrue. a. Ethical issue: managers have no obligation to reduce dysfunctional stress b. The organizational behavior topics in your textbook raise many ethical issues c. Ethical issue: getting a person's free consent to use behavior-shaping processes d. Ethical issue: using behavioral knowledge to affect another person's behavior with their full knowledge of the manager's intent 13. Pick the incorrect statement about ethics and moral philosophy. a. Ethical absolutism holds that an ethics system applies to all people everywhere b. Ethical relativism says that whatever a society or person believes is ethical defines ethical behavior c. Ethics and moral philosophy do not reflect on how actions ought to be done d. Ethics and moral judgments can change over the course of human history 14. Which is the incorrect statement about ethical values of societies? a. The languages of all societies distinguish between good and bad b. Ethical systems have no important functions for a society c. Ethical standards can be unwritten, as in preliterate societies, or written, as in literate societies d. All societies have ethical standards that define the behavior they see as right, desirable, and good

Chapter 4: Organizational Culture

1. _______ are the most visible parts of an organization's culture. a. Basic assumptions b. Artifacts c. Espoused values d. In-use values 2. Which of the following statements is false? a. Cultures can identify rules for power

b. Cultures identify criteria for inclusion in a group c. Cultures define the rewards managers use d. Cultures do not clarify the nature of peer relationships 3. Which of the following is not a dysfunction of organizational culture? a. Culture defines group boundaries b. New technology may create resistance to change c. Culture can lead to resisting strategy change d. Merging incompatible cultures can create conflict 4. An outsider can diagnose an organization's culture using each of the following except a. Photographs b. Organizational stories c. Annual reports d. Magazine articles 5. Which of the following pieces of information is an insider least likely to use to diagnose an organization's culture? a. Stories and anecdotes b. Basis for promotions and raises c. Photographs d. Activities and communication in meetings 6. An organization with a cohesive culture will perform best under environmental circumstances of a. Low complexity, low ambiguity b. Low complexity, high ambiguity c. High complexity, low ambiguity d. High complexity, high ambiguity

7. Which of the following statements is false about some international aspects of organizational culture? a. Local cultures can shape the subcultures of globally dispersed organizations b. Subcultures can form along national lines in multinational organizations c. Managing multinational workforce diversity is not the same as managing domestic workforce diversity d. The cultural synergy view urges managers to view multinational diversity as a resource 8. An organization with formal control processes such as policies and procedures will perform best under circumstances of a. Low complexity, low uncertainty b. High complexity, low ambiguity c. High complexity, high ambiguity d. Low complexity, high ambiguity 9. Pick the incorrect statement about creating an organizational culture. a. Often happens when managers form a new operating unit b. Socialization practices play a key role in developing a culture c. Ideology is a key tool for getting member commitment to an organization's vision d. Inconsistent cultural symbols will not affect creating a culture 10. Which of the following statements is false about developing a moral dimension of organizational culture? a. It has a goal of making managers comfortable with discussing moral issues during decision making b. Managers have the ethical dialogue once only c. It is the dimension that holds values and basic assumptions about including ethical dialogues in decision processes d. It makes ethical dialogues an explicit part of the organization's ideology 11. The plurality organizational culture dimension emphasizes which of the following? a. Power systems b. Interconnections

c. Presence of subcultures d. A widely dispersed organizational culture 12. Which of the following statements is not true about perspectives and views of organizational culture? a. The fragmentation perspective emphasizes ambiguity b. The integration perspective emphasizes consensus c. The culture symbolism view emphasizes meanings d. The differentiation perspective emphasizes consistency in values 13. Each statement below about cultural symbolism is true except a. Organization members find cultural symbols inefficient in summarizing meaning for them b. Cultural symbols capture emotional, ethical, and aesthetic meanings c. Symbols are material, verbal, or action symbols d. Cultural symbols bring order to otherwise complex processes and events 14. Which of the following statements about organizational culture is false? a. Organizational culture has the content of what a new employee must learn to become an accepted organizational member b. Organizational cultures typically are uniform, with few subcultures forming within them c. One can think of an organization's culture as similar to a country's culture d. A culture's content develops from the organization's adaptation to its external environment

Chapter 5: Perception, Attitudes, and Personality

1. Which of the following statements is false about the perceptual process? a. A person's perceptual process does not learn from repeated exposure to stimuli b. The perceptual process includes inputs to the person c. A person selectively attends to inputs d. The perceptual process plays a role in a person's adaptation to a changing environment

2. Self-perception has all the following parts except a. Self-esteem b. Self-presentation c. Self-concept d. Distinctiveness information 3. Which of the following is not a goal of self-presentation? a. Affect other people's impressions b. Increase a person's influence in a situation c. Attribution processes d. Ensure others have an accurate impression of the person 4. Which of the following statements is false about attitudes? a. An attitude is a learned predisposition about an object b. The three parts of an attitude are cognitive, affective, and behavioral intentions c. Attitudes and behavior are not strongly connected d. Only physical objects are the targets of an attitude 5. Which of the following is not true about attitude formation? a. Early family upbringing has little effect on attitude formation b. Negative beliefs about attitude object lead to negative attitudes c. Positive beliefs about attitude object lead to positive attitude d. The amount and type of information a person has affect attitude formation 6. Each of the following is a persuasive communication process except a. The target of attitude change must comprehend the message b. Retention of the message is unimportant in the change process c. The target must accept the message d. The persuasive communication must get the target's attention

7. All but one of the following can change attitudes. a. Cognitive dissonance b. Social group norms c. Multiple cognitions d. Persuasive communication 8. Which of the following statements is false about the major classes of personality theories? a. Operant-learning theory views people as learning behavior because external stimuli reinforce behavior b. Behavior genetics says an individual's unique gene structure affects personality development c. Cognitive social-learning theory sees behavior as largely learned by observation d. Cognitive theory says people develop their thinking patterns as their lives unfold. This class of personality theory sees a child as unwittingly shaped by environmental influences 9. Your organizational behavior textbook offered observations on all but one of the following stereotypes. a. Americans are energetic b. New Mexicans like green chile c. The Swiss are punctual d. Germans are task oriented 10. Which of the following isfalse about perception and ethical behavior? a. Situational and personal attributions likely do not affect an observer's belief about another person's ethical behavior b. Many people may have inaccurate stereotypes about the ethics of people with diverse backgrounds c. Some people deliberately manage their self-presentation to appear ethical d. Attribution errors can affect conclusions about who is responsible for an unethical act

11. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about social perception? a. A perceiver can make attributions and integrate the attributions to form a final impression b. When forming an impression of a person, a perceiver first observes the person, the situation, and the person's behavior c. The perceiver likely will not form a quick impression by making a snap judgment about the observed person d. Social perception is the process by which people come to know and understand other people 12. Pick the incorrect statement about emotions and emotional intelligence. a. Four dimensions define emotional intelligence including self-awareness and social awareness b. Anger, surprise, and disgust are basic human emotions c. Nonverbal communication plays an important role in emotional assessment d. Behavior triggered by emotions happens slowly, with careful thought about why one behaves in a particular way 13. A commercial airline pilot who is secure, relaxed, and calm while flying likely is high in a. Conscientiousness b. Extroversion c. Emotional stability d. Openness to experience 14. A person who pauses to think about where he or she is headed in a career is likely which of the following personality types? a. Type B personality b. Machiavellian c. Type A personality d. External locus of control

Chapter 6: Organizational Socialization

1. Organizational socialization is a process with all but one of the following features. a. It does not let organizations put their imprint on individual members b. It is the way people learn the content of an organization's culture c. It helps maintain and shape an organization's culture d. People learn the values and norms of an organization's culture through the socialization process 2. Each of the following is a role episode characteristic except a. The focal person perceives the desired role and tries to accurately engage in it b. Role episodes have a role sender and a focal person c. Role episodes repeat until the focal person accepts the desired behavior or leaves the organization d. Role episodes do not communicate pivotal role behaviors 3. Which of the following statements is false? a. Members of an organizational culture feel they should require some degree of conformity to important cultural values b. Differences in values and behaviors among organizational members can increase the potential for conflict c. Organizations should over-specify role behavior d. There is a constant interplay between socialization efforts and a person's desire for individualization 4. Each of the following statements about socialization processes in the anticipatory stage is true except a. The recruitment process gives people a set of expectations about the organization b. Employment interviews do not affect expectations about the organization c. Realistic job previews can give potential employees realistic expectations about the organization d. Screening and selection devices are socialization processes for employees entering an organization or taking a new position 5. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of organizational socialization? a. Entry/encounter metamorphosis anticipatory

b. Anticipatory metamorphosis entry/encounter c. Metamorphosis entry/encounter anticipatory d. Anticipatory entry/encounter metamorphosis 6. Which of the following is an incorrect pair of organizational socialization stages and socialization processes? a. Entry/encounter stage, mentoring b. Anticipatory stage, recruitment activities c. Anticipatory stage, indoctrination programs d. Entry/encounter stage, training programs 7. Which of the following statements is false about the results of the metamorphosis socialization stage? a. Content innovation is a form of rebellion and the employee usually leaves the organization b. A custodial response occurs when an employee conforms to all role requirements c. An organization's acceptance of role innovation keeps the innovation in the organization d. A rebellious response features rejecting all socialization demands 8. Each of the following statements about expatriate adjustment is true except a. Employees are selected for overseas assignments based on their performance in the home country b. There are few failures in overseas assignments c. Training for expatriates' spouses can help their adjustment to a foreign assignment d. Some countries are more difficult to adapt to than others 9. Which of the following statements is false about repatriate adjustments? a. Repatriation is often easier if the employee has a mentor in the home office b. Benefits that are a part of international assignments can be dysfunctional c. Almost no multinational organizations offer predeparture training to employees preparing for return to the home office d. Required visits to the home office will not help maintain accurate expectations about the home country

10. Which of the following statements about realistic job previews is false? a. They are used as a socialization process during the entry/encounter stage b. They give negative and positive information to job applicants c. They can reduce turnover d. One method of realistic job preview is work site visits 11. Which of the following is not a boundary transition dimension? a. Inclusionary b. Hierarchical c. Metamorphosis d. Functional 12. Which statement pair is incorrect? a. Fire department pivotal role behavior, reporting on time for work duty b. Relevant role behavior, essential behavior for successful organizational membership c. Peripheral role behavior, having stuffed figures of animated film characters in your office d. Role sender, reacts to a focal person's behavior 13. Each of the following socialization situations presents an ethical issue except a. Realistic presentation of self to an organization b. Realistic job preview by an organization c. An organization's socialization process changes a person's values and behavior d. Telling employees about the potential effects of an organization's training program 14. Pick the wrong statement pair. a. High levels of job-related skills, learn job duties quickly b. Strong need for affiliation (social need), influence of workgroup members c. High self-efficacy beliefs, custodial socialization response d. Strong need for achievement (growth need), aggressively pursue new job duties

Chapter 7: Motivation: Need Theories

1. Which of the following is false about the assumptions shared by motivation theories? a. The theories explain voluntary behavior b. Behavior has a starting point, direction, and stopping point c. The theories assume behavior is not random d. The theories do not suggest ways managers can affect employee behavior. 2. Which of the following assumptions is false about Murray's theory of human personality? a. People adapt to a changing environment b. Internal factors (needs) do not affect behavior c. External environmental factors affect behavior d. Behavior is both purposeful and goal directed 3. Which of the following statements is true about Murray's theory of human personality? a. Usually a single need decides a person's behavior b. People cannot adapt to a changing environment c. A person's behavior can try to satisfy needs that are opposites of each other d. Needs only cause us to go toward objects we like 4. Which of the following statements is false about the hierarchy of needs theory (Maslow)? a. Chronic frustration of needs has no ill effects b. The next higher-level need can become important, while a lower level is only partially satisfied c. Needs are not the only basis of human behavior d. A satisfied need is no longer a motivator 5. Each of the following statements about the hierarchy of needs theory (Maslow) is true except a. A satisfied need does not motivate behavior b. People progress through the hierarchy in the same order without exception

c. Behavior can focus on satisfying more than one need at a time d. The environment can affect behavior 6. Which of the following is not part of E.R.G. theory? a. The theory says three needs motivate behavior: existence, relatedness, and growth b. The three needs form a hierarchy through which a person progresses c. Relatedness needs are the same as the belongingness and love needs in Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory d. The satisfaction progression movement happens when a need is frustrated 7. Which of the following is false about E.R.G. theory? a. Growth needs include the desire to develop additional capabilities b. A deficiency cycle can occur at the bottom of the hierarchy c. The theory says there is only one form of movement through the hierarchy d. A person who experiences the enrichment cycle wants to continually grow and develop 8. Each of the following statements is true about McClelland's motivation theories except a. Employees high in need for achievement value money as an end in itself b. High need for power people can strongly affect others c. High need for achievement employees want to feel responsible for their performance in challenging jobs d. Employees low in need for achievement value money as an end in itself 9. Which of the following is false about motivator hygiene theory (Herzberg)? a. Motivators include achievement and the work itself b. Empirical research strongly supports the theory c. Dissatisfiers and satisfiers fall on two different continua d. Company policies are a hygiene factor 10. Which of the following pairs of needs and countries is incorrect? a. Security and belongingness and love (social) needs, Latin American countries

b. Self-actualization needs, India c. Belongingness and love (social) needs, Singapore d. Security needs, Ireland 11. Which of the following statements about motivation and motivation theories is false? a. Motivation theories give you tools for analyzing an organization's motivation system b. Motivation is a psychological process that causes the arousal, direction, and persistence of voluntary goal-directed behavior c. Motivation theories assume behavior is continuous with no stopping point d. Understanding motivation theories can help managers build effective motivation systems in their organizations 12. Which of the following ethical issues about the need theories of motivation have the most unclear ethical guidelines? a. Creating work environments and work experiences that let people satisfy their needs b. Managing multinational operations according to the needs of people in the host culture c. Managing multinational operations as if they were in their home culture d. Managers affecting people's behavior from knowledge of human motivation without their informed consent

Chapter 8: Motivation: Cognitive and Behavioral Theories and Techniques

1. Which of the following statements about expectancy theory concepts is wrong? a. Valence is the preference people have for outcomes b. Extrinsic outcomes are rewards people receive from someone else c. Blockages have two forms: individual and organizational d. Performance outcome expectancy is the link between a person's effort and a desired performance level

2. When a person's ratio of outputs to inputs is less than the perceived ratio of a comparison other, the person experiences a. Negative inequity b. Positive inequity c. Equity sensitivity d. Equity 3. Which of the following is false about equity theory? a. People try to balance the ratios of inputs to outcomes in an exchange relationship b. Inputs are personal characteristics and behaviors that a person brings to the employment exchange c. Positive inequity happens when a person's ratio is less than the perceived ratio of a comparison other d. A person can compare her or his ratio to an absolute standard of fairness 4. Which of the following statements is false about goal-setting theory? a. Participation in goal setting is unimportant for goal acceptance b. Feedback is not necessary for effective goal setting c. A person must accept the goal for goal setting to be effective d. Specific, difficult goals have a greater effect on performance than fuzzy goals 5. Which of the following is incorrect about goals that lead to high performance as described by goalsetting theory? a. Unclear b. Challenging c. Specific d. Reachable 6. Which of the following is incorrect about some behavior modification concepts? a. Extinction withdraws something the employee values to decrease the frequency of an undesirable behavior b. Positive reinforcement applies a positive event to increase the frequency or strength of desirable behavior

c. Negative reinforcement applies a negative event to decrease the frequency of undesirable behavior d. Intermittent reinforcement applies a consequence based on time between behaviors or number of behaviors 7. Each of the following statements is true about punishment except a. Punishment is less potent for shaping behavior than positive reinforcement b. Punishment stops behavior temporarily c. The undesirable behavior can return when the source of punishment is not present d. Punishment does not induce an emotional reaction from the punished person 8. Which of the following statements is false? a. Muslim managers believe that Allah controls their destiny b. Research evidence suggests that goal-setting theory does not apply across cultural boundaries c. Expectancy theory may apply to some cultures that are less individualistic than the United States d. The motivation theories reflect U.S. values of free will 9. Each statement below is true about the ethical implications of behavior modification except a. The controller and the person being controlled interact with each other b. Knowledge of human motivation can only be used for positive ends c. The issue of who will control people's behavior is an important one d. Critics say that behavior modification is used to control people 10. Which of the following is not a blockage (individual or organizational) to the effort performance expectancy? a. High conflict levels b. Task difficulty c. Self-actualization d. Training

11. Which of the following statements is false? a. Equity sensitives do not react to inequity as equity theory describes b. Entitleds have high inequity thresholds c. Benevolents accept fewer outcomes for their inputs than other people would accept d. Entitleds believe that whatever outcomes they get are their just reward 12. Pick the incorrect statement about the cognitive and behavioral theories of motivation. a. Equity theory describes people's reactions when they feel unfairly treated b. Expectancy theory describes how people choose from different behaviors c. Goal-setting theory emphasizes setting external goals that a person tries to reach d. Behavior modification uses internal psychological processes to explain motivation 13. Pick the incorrect statement below. a. People perceive a connection between effort and a desired performance level b. Expectancies and valences combine multiplicatively when people assess various results of their behavior c. Expectancy theory describes people's choices among behaviors by using only valences d. Multiple outcomes are possible for behavior

Chapter 9: Intrinsic Rewards and Job Design

1. All statements below about social information processing theory are correct except a. Verbal cues provided by managers do not affect perceptions of job characteristics b. Using the job diagnostic survey before job redesign can sensitize people to certain job characteristics they had not previously noticed c. Coworkers' descriptions of the job may affect the jobholder's perceptions d. Participation in the job design process can produce satisfaction without changing the job 2. Which of the following statements is false about international aspects of job design? a. Changing job characteristics will have different reactions in different cultures b. Scandinavian countries have used mostly group-based approaches to job design

c. All cultures view self-actualization derived from the job as important d. The United States has traditionally used mostly individual-based approaches to job design 3. All the following statements about contextual factors in job design are true except a. Flexible manufacturing techniques increase the skill variety for people with those types of jobs b. Mass-production technical processes usually have jobs with low motivating potential c. Group-based manufacturing technologies need jobs designed for groups, not individuals d. Just-in-time inventory management builds little feedback into the job itself 4. Which of the following is false about a self-managing workgroup? a. Group members control the group's tasks and interpersonal processes b. Managers only need to design the group's task, not some aspects of the group c. The group produces a defined service, decision, or product d. It is an intact group with interdependence among its members 5. Which of the following is false about diagnosing and redesigning jobs? a. The first step is to gather information about jobs using multiple measurement methods b. Norms are not available for comparison to job diagnostic survey results c. A theoretical orientation, such as the job characteristics theory of work motivation, guides the job redesign effort d. Employees who provide the data should see the results to verify their accuracy 6. Which of the following is a critical psychological state in the job characteristics theory of work motivation? a. Meaningfulness of the work b. Growth need strength c. Internal work motivation d. Growth satisfaction

7. Which of the following is not a moderator that affects relationships among parts of the job characteristics theory of work motivation? a. Experienced responsibility for outcomes of the work b. Quality of supervision c. Growth need strength d. Knowledge and skill 8. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the core job characteristics? a. Feedback from the job itself: the degree to which a person learns about the quality of his or her job performance while doing the task b. Skill variety: the degree to which the job has many different activities using several skills and abilities c. Autonomy: the degree to which a person does a whole piece of work d. Task significance: the degree to which the person doing the job perceives it as important to others 9. Which of the following statements is true about the job characteristics theory of work motivation? a. Objective job characteristics lead to three critical psychological states b. Affective outcomes lead to the critical psychological states c. Growth need strength, knowledge and skill, and context satisfaction are moderator variables in the theory d. Behavioral outcomes produce the affective outcomes of growth satisfaction and internal work motivation 10. Motivating potential combines the effects of all but which of the following? a. Skill variety b. Autonomy c. Task identity d. Internal work motivation 11. Pick the incorrect statement about intrinsic and extrinsic rewards and a manager's role in job design. a. Conditions differ for experiencing intrinsic and extrinsic rewards b. Managers indirectly control intrinsic rewards

c. Managers use extrinsic rewards directly d. Managers do not affect an employee's work experiences that can lead to intrinsic rewards 12. The job characteristics theory of work motivation predicts several relationships. One statement below incorrectly describes those relationships. Which one is it? a. Jobs low in motivating potential produce less internal work motivation than jobs high in motivating potential b. People with strong growth needs should respond less positively to jobs high in motivating potential than people with weak growth needs c. A person's knowledge and skill combine with a job's high motivating potential to produce high internal work motivation d. A positive work context helps a person experience a job's motivating qualities 13. Several ethical issues surround job design, intrinsic rewards, and self-managing groups. Which of the following statements is false about such ethical issues? a. Should managers in multinational or transnational organizations honor the host country culture or keep to their home country culture when considering decentralized decision making in self-managing workgroups? b. Ethical issue: Should involvement in self-managing workgroups be voluntary for employees? c. Ethical issue: Should a company inform job applicants of their likely involvement in self-managing workgroups if they join the firm? d. People around the world vary so little in the needs that are central to their personalities that managers of transnational organizations face few ethical issues in their approaches to job design 14. Pick the incorrect statement. a. Job rotation advocates believed that workers would become less bored by doing many different activities b. Job enlargement combined duties, tasks, and jobs that usually were at the same level c. The universal, positive, linear response in worker attitudes assumed by early job redesign approaches has held true d. All early job redesign approaches tried to improve work satisfaction and decrease boredom

Chapter 10: Groups and Intergroup Processes

1. Which of the following statements is false about groups in organizations? a. Group norms include the performance levels expected of group members b. Informal groups form within and across formal groups c. Personal acceptance means group members conform because their values are congruent with group norms d. Cohesive groups tend to perform better than noncohesive groups, especially if the groups are large 2. Which of the following is true about factors affecting cohesive group formation? a. Free time at work limits social interaction b. High noise levels help social interaction c. Low absence rates in the group increase social interaction d. Complete job descriptions help social interaction 3. All the following pairs are true about the stages of group development and typical behaviors in each stage except a. Task orientation stage: energy focuses on defining the group's work b. Group cohesion stage: the group has defined its roles and relationships among the roles c. Intragroup conflict stage: members discuss social roles within the group d. Group formation stage: first meeting of group members; learn about task and each other 4. Which of the following is false about the model of cohesive group formation? a. Bases of attraction include factors such as age, gender, and ethnic background b. Interaction refers to face-to-face social interaction between two or more people c. Activities include job duties and responsibilities d. Sentiments are attitudes and beliefs about a person or persons with whom an individual interacts 5. Each of the following statements about typical roles found in groups is true except a. Elaborator role: tries to show the expected results of the group's efforts b. Aggressor role: tries to get group members to work together

c. Gatekeeper role: tries to keep communication open with people outside the group d. Joker: engages in horseplay 6. Which of the following statements is false about the effects of workforce diversity on group development and functioning? a. Diverse groups develop more ideas than homogeneous groups b. Diversity can lead to distrust among members c. Diverse groups can take longer than homogeneous groups to become cohesive d. Diversity in workgroups has little conflict potential 7. Which of the following statements is true as group size increases? a. People in large groups find it easy to learn about each other b. Large groups have fewer resources for doing the group's task c. The strength of bonds among group members increases as group size increases d. Reaching agreement about a group's activities is more difficult in large groups than in small groups 8. Which of the following is not a dysfunctional consequence of groups? a. Groups can take more time than individuals to do some tasks b. Social loafing can develop when a person perceives her or his effort as unimportant c. Cohesive groups are self-policing and can stamp out deviant behavior d. A cohesive group pressures its members to conform to its norms, exerting strong control over group member behavior 9. Which of the following statements is true about self-managing teams? a. Some people want to work independently, so they should not be part of self-managing teams b. Leadership does not rotate among team members c. A self-managing team is a group of people working on independent tasks d. Managers typically do not appoint team leaders 10. Which of the following is true about ethical issues raised by groups in organizations? a. Managers do not have an ethical duty to screen people for membership based on the strength of their social needs

b. Managers have an ethical duty to screen people for group membership based on their level of conflict tolerance c. Managers should not make membership of self-managing teams voluntary d. Managers are not required to inform recruits about all cohesive groups in the organization 11. Which of the following is false about virtual groups? a. Virtual group members rely only on the Internet to link them together b. Virtual groups can form from members at scattered locations anywhere in the world c. Some physical interaction can happen when a virtual group meets in a single room d. Software supports problem-solving and decision-making groups 12. Which of the following statements is true about majority and minority (deviant) influences in groups? a. Minority members bring alternative views to a decision faced by a group b. Minority members loosely hold to their positions c. Minority members usually are not confident about their positions d. Majority members do not have negative views of minority members 13. Pick the incorrect statement about international aspects of groups in organizations. a. Norwegian, French, and Swedish groups reject deviates with high intensity b. Self-managing teams fit high individualistic cultures with low power distance such as the United States and Australia c. Collectivistic cultures welcome conflict during intergroup interactions d. Collectivistic cultures that emphasize social status (high power distance) likely will resist the selfmanaging feature of self-managing teams 14. Which of the following statements is false about groups and their dynamics? a. A group is a collection of people who perceive themselves as interdependent with each other b. Groups can powerfully affect people's behavior c. Group members typically do not interact with each other regularly d. Managers can maximize the positive value of groups with knowledge of groups and their dynamics

15. Each statement below about the functional effects of groups in organizations is true except a. Cooperative behavior among cohesive group members helps them complete interdependent tasks b. Control over individual behavior in cohesive groups is less immediate than control by managers c. Cohesive groups are self-policing and can have close control of member behavior d. Cohesive groups often produce innovations of value to the organization 16. Pick the incorrect statement about factors that affect group effectiveness. a. Group goals have little effect on group performance b. Groups with physical boundaries can become more cohesive than groups with blurred boundaries c. Group tasks requiring variations in people's performance call for differences in member characteristics d. People in large groups have difficulty learning about each other 17. Which of the following statements is true about intergroup processes in organizations? a. Intergroup processes do not occur when people from different groups interact with each other b. Members of different groups usually have the same goals c. Conflict rarely occurs within intergroup processes d. Stereotyping of diverse members of different groups can affect the quality of intergroup behavior 18. Pick the incorrect statement about workgroup socialization. a. A newcomer develops an image of participation in the group during the anticipation phase of workgroup socialization b. The workgroup successfully adapts to a new member during the adjustment phase of workgroup socialization c. A new group member learns her or his role in the group during the encounter phase of workgroup socialization d. Mutual adjustment and adaptation between the workgroup and a new member do not occur during workgroup socialization

Chapter 11: Conflict in Organizations

1. Each statement below is true about conflict and conflict management in organizations except a. Conflict management includes both increasing and decreasing conflict b. Conflict is necessary for organizational survival c. Conflict management is not a basic management responsibility d. Conflict includes interactions in which one party opposes another party 2. Which of the following statements is false about functional and dysfunctional conflict in organizations? a. Conflict is dysfunctional when it is lower than a group requires for reaching its goals b. Conflict management does not involve maintaining conflict at functional levels c. Conflict that is functional in one group can be dysfunctional in another group d. Dysfunctionally high conflict can reduce trust 3. All but one of the following statements accurately describe aspects of levels and types of conflict in organizations. Which statement does not? a. Intraorganization conflict includes all types of conflict between organizations. b. Interpersonal conflict is conflict between two or more people. c. Intergroup conflict is conflict between two or more groups. d. Intrapersonal conflict is conflict that occurs within a person. 4. Which of the following definitions of conflict episode concepts is incorrect? a. Manifest conflict is the actual conflict behavior b. The conflict aftermath often holds the latent conflict that starts another episode c. Felt conflict occurs when a party to the conflict episode notices that he or she is in conflict with someone else d. Latent conflict starts a conflict episode when the right conditions occur

5. Pick the incorrect statement about conflict frames. a. A task emphasis focuses on the material aspects of an episode b. A relationship emphasis focuses on the party's interpersonal relationship c. An intellectual emphasis focuses on feelings in the episode d. A party with a winning focus wants to maximize personal gain 6. Which of the following statements is false about latent conflict? a. Reward systems that encourage incompatible behavior can create conflict b. Ambiguous jurisdictions are a source of conflict c. Scarce resources can lead to conflict d. Conflict does not develop when cohesive groups interact with each other 7. Each statement below is true about conflict management except a. Innovative products or services require a higher desired conflict level than more routine products or services b. If conflict in a work unit is dysfunctionally low, the manager tries to increase conflict c. A manager's tolerance for conflict can affect the manager's perception of desired conflict levels in a workgroup d. Desired conflict levels do not vary from one group to another and for the same group over time 8. Which of the following is false about reducing conflict? a. Compromise uses negotiation to reduce conflict. It splits the differences between the parties in conflict b. Problem solving usually does not find a conflict episode's root causes c. Avoidance prevents a person from facing a conflict episode d. A superordinate goal is a goal desired by all parties to the conflict but not reachable by any party alone 9. Which of the following does not increase conflict in organizations? a. Superordinate goal b. Devil's advocate

c. Heterogeneous groups d. Organizational culture 10. Which of the following is false about ethical issues in conflict in organizations? a. Variation in optimum conflict levels among countries b. Subtle methods of increasing conflict c. Intrapersonal conflict from requests for immoral acts d. Conflict higher than a person's tolerance level 11. Pick the incorrect pair describing some international aspects of conflict in organizations. a. Individualistic cultures, positively value conflict b. Collaborative cultures, negatively value conflict c. Competitive cultures, positively value conflict d. Cooperative cultures, felt conflict occurs publicly 12. Which of the following lets a person selectively focus on many conflicts that can occur in an organization? a. Perceived conflict b. Latent conflict c. Felt conflict d. Manifest conflict 13. Which of the following pairs shows the correct link between conflict episodes? a. Perceived conflict felt conflict b. Conflict aftermath latent conflict c. Latent conflict manifest conflict d. Felt conflict perceived conflict

Chapter 12: Leadership and Management

1. Which of the following is a leadership trait? a. Dominance b. Energy c. Cognitive ability d. All responses are leadership traits 2. Which of the following statements is false about the behavioral theories of leadership? a. Consideration is a people-oriented dimension of leadership behavior b. Production-centered leader behavior focuses on tasks and has little concern for people c. Leaders high in initiating structure do not set deadlines or make individual task assignments d. Employee-centered leader behavior focuses on people and the quality of the social system 3. Which of the following is not a concept in Fiedler's contingency theory of leadership? a. The desire to lead b. Task-oriented leaders c. Leader member relations d. Task structure 4. Each statement below is true about concepts in House's path goal theory of leadership except a. Personal factors include a subordinate's perception of ability b. Supportive leader behavior focuses on tasks c. Participative leader behavior includes consultation with subordinates d. Achievement-oriented leader behavior emphasizes excellence in subordinate performance 5. Which of the following statements is false about personal factors in House's path goal theory? a. Subordinates high in authoritarianism will accept directive leader behavior b. Subordinates with an internal locus of control will accept directive leader behavior

c. Subordinates with low ability to do the task will accept directive leader behavior d. Subordinates low in authoritarianism will accept participative leader behavior 6. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the leadership mystique? a. A capacity for power is the ability to get and use power to pursue a mission b. A leader has a will to persevere against a discourteous, unbelieving world of sometimes total opposition c. Leaders tend to describe their mission with little passion d. A sense of mission a vision of some future state for the organization 7. Which of the following statements is false about the leadership categorization process? a. A leadership exemplar is a specific person people regard as a leader b. A leadership prototype is a person's cognitive image of leadership characteristics c. People do not compare their observations of another person to a cognitive category describing a leader d. Human perceptual processes underlie a person's observations of leader traits and behaviors 8. Each statement below is true about leadership style differences of women and men except a. Empirical research shows major, consistent differences in leadership behavior of men and women b. Women share power and information. They also encourage their subordinates self-worth c. Women behave more democratically and participatively than men d. Men use their position authority and rely on rewards and punishments to shape subordinates behavior 9. Which of the following statements is false about some international aspects of leadership? a. Managers who tie rewards to people's performance get positive results across cultures b. Workers in countries with authoritarian values expect their managers to behave autocratically c. People in countries that value hierarchical relationships prefer directive approaches to leadership d. The socialization practices of some multinationals do not produce consistent leader behavior from country to country

10. Which of the following is not a role behavior of managers and supervisors external to a selfmanaging team? a. Team development b. Resource support c. Day-to-day direction d. Political support 11. Pick the incorrect pair. a. Enhancers, organizational policies b. Neutralizers, rules and procedures c. Neutralizers, group norms d. Substitutes, routine task 12. Which of the following is not a likely leadership exemplar? a. Oprah Winfrey b. Colin Powell c. Jack Welch, General Electric's former CEO d. Homer Simpson 13. Which of the following statements is false about leadership in organizations? a. The formal qualities of a person's position play no role in leadership b. Emergent leaders often appear within informal and formal groups in an organization c. An individual's personal characteristics contribute to leadership d. Leaders can hold formal organizational positions 14. Each of the following statements about management and leadership in organizations is true except a. An organization's leadership requirements rarely change b. Managers follow an organization's present vision; leaders create a vision c. Leaders take risks when they perceive high payoffs from a course of action d. Leaders use power for influence not punishment

15. Which of the following statement pairs about the alternative views of leadership is false? a. Transformational leadership, intellectual stimulation b. The leadership mystique, lack of perseverance c. Charismatic leadership, creating inspirational vision d. Transformational leadership, charisma 16. Pick the incorrect pair about ethical issues in leadership and management. a. Ethical issue in leadership and management: affecting other people's behavior without their awareness of the effect b. Ethical issue in leadership and management: brainwashing-like effects on people c. Ethical issue in leadership and management: changing a person's attitudes, values, and beliefs with their consent d. Ethical issue in leadership and management: leader confronts moral dilemmas

Chapter 13: Communication Processes

1. Organizational communication processes include each of the following except a. Communication flows in all directions b. Communication happens over a pathway called a network c. Communication typically does not affect behavior in organizations d. The network includes formal organizational positions and informal relationships 2. Which of the following is not true of the basic communication process? a. The sender interprets the receiver's response and acts accordingly b. A receiver decodes a message and interprets its meaning c. A sender encodes a message and sends it to a receiver d. International diversity adds little noise to the communication process 3. Which of the following statements is false about oral communication? a. Oral communication can include radio and television communication b. Nonverbal communication has no effect on oral communication

c. Oral communication usually has the immediate attention of the receiver d. Oral communication leaves no permanent, retrievable record of the message 4. Which of the following statements is false about physical aspects of the person as nonverbal behavior? a. Moving closer to the receiver can imply a positive attitude toward the receiver b. Senders who look away from the receiver imply uncertainty about the message c. Senders who increase their rate and volume of speech can persuade a receiver to accept a message d. A receiver may perceive deceit when the sender speaks quickly 5. Each statement below is true about the functions of organizational communication except a. Persuasion plays a large part in organizational change b. Communication processes help organizations share information with employees c. Communication's emotional function inhibits employees from expressing their feelings d. An organization's communication process helps integrate an organization's diverse functions 6. Which of the following statements is false about some dysfunctions of organizational communication? a. Different sender and receiver frames of reference do not negatively affect communication b. People may react to information overload by ignoring some information c. Senders can filter message content unintentionally d. Jargon may be a source of communication dysfunction 7. Which of the following is not true about active listening? a. Only the speaker is responsible for the message's meaning b. A listener asks questions or rephrases a message to clarify a speaker's intent c. Active listening involves accurately hearing the facts in a message d. Message meaning includes both its content and the sender's feelings

8. Which of the following is not an ethical issue in organizational communication? a. Should an organization reveal negative information about its plans to employees? b. The positive and negative effects of nonverbal communication have important ethical implications for organizations c. Do people's rights to privacy extend to computer surveillance of employee e-mail? d. Should an organization tell its suppliers how it chooses among them? 9. Which of the following statements is false about improving communication effectiveness? a. Getting training in oral and written communication b. Long, complex messages are usually better than short, simple messages c. Understanding the background and culture of the receiver d. Receivers perceive high-contrast messages more readily than low-contrast messages 10. Each of the following statements is true about communication roles in organizations except a. Initiators start and send more messages than they receive b. Isolates are outside the communication process. They send, receive, and relay only a few messages c. Terminators infrequently send messages to others in the organization d. A liaison is a member of each part of an organization he or she connects 11. Pick the incorrect statement about technology and communication. a. Multimedia personal computers: large audience communication b. Digital communication technologies: flexibility and mobility of future communication c. Desktop videoconferencing: local communication only d. Distributed computing: communication within and between organizations 12. Which of the following statements about communication networks is false? a. Decentralized communication networks feature a central or controlling role b. Large audience communication gets a message from one person to many people c. Pair-wise communication involves two people in some form of written or oral communication d. A single person can have a key role in a centralized communication network

13. Each item or statement below is correct about international aspects of organizational communication except a. Distance between people while communicating b. International issues only apply to written or spoken language c. Meaning of time d. Future orientation 14. Pick the incorrect statement about listening. a. Interpersonal activity in listening: A person receives a message from another person b. Intrapersonal activity in listening: The person who receives a message tries to interpret it c. Interpersonal activity: The person who receives the message responds to the other person to show the meaning given to the message d. Listening and hearing are the same process

Chapter 14: Decision-Making and Problem-Solving Processes

1. Which of the following paired statements is incorrect about decision strategies? a. Programmed decision strategy; unusual events b. Unprogrammed decision strategy; nonrecurring decisions c. Unprogrammed decision strategy; unpredictable decisions d. Dimensions defining each strategy; routine nonroutine, recurring nonrecurring, certainty uncertainty 2. Which of the following statements is false about the decision-making process? a. Decision makers can restart the decision-making process at an earlier phase b. Decision makers can stop for some time at one phase of the decision-making process c. Decision makers do not repeat the decision-making process d. Decision makers can move in any direction in the decision-making sequence

3. Each of the following is characteristic of satisficing except a. Decision makers pick an alternative that is good enough to reach the goal b. Decision makers can change the goal of the decision problem c. Decision makers may not choose an alternative to maximize a goal d. Satisficing behavior occurs in political models of decision making 4. Which of the following statements is not true about group decision making? a. Assets include increased information and job satisfaction b. Participation in a decision-making group decreases satisfaction and acceptance of a decision c. Liabilities of group decision making include a favored alternative and a dominant person in the group d. Group decision making can help the personal development of those who participate 5. As the social processes for decision making go from authoritative ("A") to group ("G") approaches, each of the following occurs except a. Conflict potential increases in the group b. Social processes for decision making become more complex c. Social interaction decreases between the decision maker and others involved in the decision d. Group members have increased commitment to the decision 6. Which of the following statements is false about escalation of commitment? a. Factors that contribute to escalation of commitment include ego protection and pressures for decision behavior consistency b. Past decisions have little effect on present decisions c. Decision makers affected by escalation of commitment acknowledge and emphasize past or sunk costs in their decision making d. Escalation of commitment often arises in decision processes involving important organizational decisions

7. Pick the incorrect statement about ways a group leader can avoid groupthink. a. Form homogeneous decision-making groups b. Invite outsiders to analyze and comment on the group's deliberations c. Stimulate conflict during group meetings d. Assign the role of devil's advocate to a member 8. Which of the following is not a method of improving decision making in organizations? a. Delphi method b. E-mail system c. Brainstorming d. Decision support systems 9. Which of the following statements is false about international aspects of decision making and problem solving? a. U.S. decision makers usually use a serial decision-making process b. Decision makers in Japan and China usually consider all alternatives before choosing c. Decision making moves more quickly in U.S. organizations than in Egyptian organizations d. Malaysian, Thai, and Indonesian decision makers attack and solve problems 10. Which of the following statements is incorrect about ethical issues in decision making? a. Decision makers who face ethical issues apply a decision rule with a minimum cutoff for some ethical criterion b. Moral decision makers are not deceptive during discussions c. An ethical decision maker has no responsibility to give information freely d. Ethical questions can arise in all phases of the decision-making process 11. Which of the following statements is false about judgment biases? a. Heuristics are guidelines that simplify information processing during decision making b. People are not always aware that they use heuristics

c. Framing effects are a form of judgment bias d. Heuristics typically do not introduce bias in decision making 12. Each of the following statements is true about decision-making and problem-solving processes except a. Problem solving tries to find root causes of a problem b. Group decision making works well with ill-defined problems c. Decision making focuses on choice and reaching a goal d. Only an organization's managers make decisions 13. Pick the incorrect pair below that applies to the different decision-making models. a. Political models, pursue organizational interests and goals b. Unstructured decision-making models, ambiguous problems c. Rational model, chooses an alternative that maximizes a goal d. Garbage can model, choice opportunity streams 14. Pick the incorrect statement about the Vroom Yetton Model of decision making. a. A decision maker assesses a decision problem's characteristics by asking some diagnostic questions b. The Vroom Yetton Model is a normative model of decision making that guides a person's choices among some alternative social processes for decision making c. The Vroom Yetton Model does not try to protect a decision's acceptance and quality d. The model guides the decision maker to the model's recommended approach for a decision problem 15. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about judgment biases? a. Ease of recall bias: recalling vivid, recent events more easily than other events b. Confirmation trap bias: avoiding uncomfortable and disconfirming information c. Managers can make good decisions despite the quality of the heuristics they use d. Overconfidence bias: inaccurate judgments when answering questions about which the person has little knowledge

Chapter 15: Power and Political Behavior

1. Which of the following statements is false about power in organizations? a. Power is a person's ability to get something done the way the person wants it done b. Power is essential to leadership and management functions c. Power typically has negative effects on organizations d. Powerful managers and leaders get more resources for their subordinates 2. Pick the incorrect definition. a. The relational dimension is the social interaction part of power b. The dependence dimension views power as coming from one party's reliance on another party c. The sanctioning dimension refers to a power relationship based on rewards and punishments d. Potential power refers to a person having and using power 3. Which of the following statements is false about the bases of power? a. Reward power comes from a manager's use of positive outcomes for a subordinate's performance b. Expert power derives from the manager's technical knowledge c. Information power comes from the control and distribution of information in an organization d. Personal bases of power flow from one's organizational position 4. Each of the following statements is true about power and leadership except a. Those with little power use close supervision b. Those with power take few risks in organizations c. Powerful leaders can get resources and information for subordinates d. Powerful leaders delegate decision authority to subordinates 5. Which of the following statements is wrong about building power in an organization? a. Enhancing one's reputation builds power in an organization b. A person's work activities are not a source of power

c. Creating a perception of dependence builds power d. A work unit with unique functions builds power for the manager 6. Which of the following is not a factor that can lead to attributions of power? a. A low status position b. Membership in important informal coalitions c. Membership in a powerful project d. High technical knowledge 7. Which of the following statements is false about political strategies? a. Political strategies are not created for decisions about resource allocations or pay increases b. Political strategies may or may not be written c. Political strategies recognize that political events do not always unfold as planned d. Performance appraisal is an area where political strategies have appeared 8. Each statement below is true about political behavior except a. Political behavior can lead to the institutionalization of the current power holders b. A key aspect of political behavior is power and influence c. Political behavior is unimportant in managing lateral relationships d. Behavior that uses power is political 9. Which of the following statements is false about a political diagnosis? a. One assesses each person's skills in using a power base b. One can use archival information such as reports and meeting minutes c. The diagnosis of networks depends on knowledge from informants and experience in the organization d. A person's power base is weak if the person has discretion in using important resources 10. Each of the following describes ethical political behavior except a. The administration of the organization's policies and procedures allows fair treatment of all affected b. People are influenced by another party but have not given their free consent to be influenced

c. Individuals the political actor tries to influence clearly know his or her intent d. While the political behavior unfolds, all those affected have the right of due process within the organization 11. Each statement below is true about political tactics except a. Decision-making processes typically lack a political dimension b. Building coalitions helps create a power base c. Impression management involves controlling the image a person projects to another person d. Some influence tactics include upward appeal and ingratiation 12. Pick the incorrect statement pair about the dark side of organizational politics. a. Lying: A liar does not try to mislead another party b. Intimidation: A manager transfers an organizational reformer to a low visibility position c. Deception: An executive emphasizes a successor's abilities while choosing a person loyal to the executive's ideas d. Machiavellian personality: A personality type that is well adapted to the dark side of organizational politics 13. Each statement below about international aspects of political behavior in organizations is true except a. Workers in many South American countries value the directive use of power b. Workers in Mexico perceive a manager who involves them in a decision process as weak c. Political processes in organizations in different cultures likely mirror the culture's power orientation d. Scandinavian workers typically view a directive manager as having high power 14. Pick the incorrect statement. a. Social astuteness: has high self-awareness, accurately perceives varying social situations b. Networking ability: deliberately gains positions in alliances and coalitions c. People cannot develop their political skill through coaching and management training d. Apparent sincerity: leaves an impression of openness and honesty (or the person is open and honest)

Chapter 16: Stress in Organizations

1. Each statement below is true about stress in modern living except a. The results of dysfunctional stress in organizations include high turnover and absenteeism b. Stress can occur when a person's environment presents excessive demands c. Stress occurs when something blocks a person's efforts to reach a goal d. Potential stressors are present only in people's work environments 2. Which of the following is not true about the general adaptation syndrome? a. Resistance is the stage at which the body tries to return to a normal state by adapting to the stressor b. Alarm is the stage at which the person prepares to fight or adjust to the stressor c. Only distress results from exposure to a stressor d. Exhaustion results after a person repeatedly experiences a stressor 3. Which of the following statements is false about the stress response? a. The physiological response differs from person to person b. Psychological responses to stressors can be positive or negative c. The physiological reaction to a stressor happens quickly d. Physiological changes prepare the body to face the stressor 4. Which of the following statements is not true about the physiological and psychological stress response? a. Breathing rate increases as the sympathetic nervous system and the endocrine system ready the body to face the stressor b. The psychological stress response raises the heart rate and blood pressure c. The general psychological response includes increased alertness and apprehension d. The physiological stress response secretes hormones that increase fatty acid and glucose levels in the bloodstream

5. Each statement below is true about some personality types included in the integrated model of stress except a. Type B personalities feel a sense of time urgency b. High hardiness personalities assess stressors optimistically c. Type A personalities are aggressive and can quickly become hostile d. Low hardiness personalities view stressful events as unchangeable disruptions to normal behavior 6. Which of the following statements is false? a. A person experienced with a stressor will have less distress than a person without such experience b. A physically fit person is less likely to feel the harmful effects of distress than a person who is less fit c. A low-sodium, low-fat diet cannot help a person's response to stressors d. Family medical histories of hypertension increase the chance of experiencing the ill effects of stress 7. Burnout has all the following characteristics except a. Organizational results of burnout include negative work attitudes and increased absenteeism b. Burnout usually affects people in jobs with high levels of interpersonal interaction c. Burnout usually affects people in jobs that require helping others d. Those most affected by burnout derive a major part of their self-esteem from their nonwork activities 8. Pick the incorrect statement about stress management strategies. a. Stress recuperation strategies help a person bounce back from stress with methods that are not physically harmful b. Regular aerobic exercise helps a person recover from stressful life events c. Avoiding stressors, such as a crowded shopping mall, is a form of stress reduction d. Relaxation training is a stress resilience strategy 9. Which of the following is false about working in another country? a. Culture shock can be particularly stressful for spouses of expatriates b. Repatriates do not experience stress upon returning home

c. The longer the stay in another country, the more stressful d. Relocation of the entire family contributes to the stress of an overseas assignment 10. Ethical issues about stress in organizations include each of the following except a. Managers are not required to prepare employees for stressful organizational change b. Organizations may consider offering career counseling as a means of stress management if there is poor person environment fit c. Organizations can give accurate information about the organization before hiring potential employees d. The physical environment can present many stressors 11. Pick the incorrect statement pair about stress management. a. Individual stress resilience strategy; weight control, diet, and physical exercise b. Organizational stress recuperation strategy; exercise center available to employees at their workplace c. Individual stress recuperation strategy; avoiding events that cause distress d. Organizational stress reduction strategies; training to improve employees job-related skills 12. Pick the incorrect statement about stressors. a. Work stressors: deadlines, work overload, shift work, job security, and the physical environment b. Nonwork stressors: financial problems, relocation, and dual careers c. Different people perceive the same objects or events as stressors d. Life transition stressors: death of a loved one, divorce, or children leaving home 13. Pick the incorrect statement. a. Removing the stressor is a behavioral response b. Stressful situations usually give people much time to choose among the behavioral responses in the integrated model of stress c. Changing the stressor is a behavioral response d. Leaving the stressor is a behavioral response

14. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about distress and eustress results in the integrated model of stress? a. Behavioral results of distress: high levels of smoking, drug use, appetite disorders, proneness to accidents, and violence, and decreased job performance b. People do not differ in sources of eustress and distress c. Medical results of distress: increases in smoking and drug use can cause heart problems or a stroke d. Behavioral result of eustress: personal growth and development from a promotion at work 15. Pick the incorrect statement about the psychological demands and decision latitude model. a. Job decision latitude includes job skills and decision authority b. Job demands include the amount of work and the pace of work c. Keeping up the work pace and getting work done on time produce little anxiety in people d. Stress results when a job is low in decision latitude and high in demands

Chapter 17: Organizational Design

1. Which of the following is incorrect about organizational design? a. Organizational design is the way managers structure their organization to reach its goals b. A goal of organizational design is to get information to the right places for effective decision making c. Organizational charts show all aspects of the formal and informal design of an organization d. Organizational design includes the different ways organizations divide their work and allocate duties and tasks 2. Which of the following statements is false about the contingency factors of organizational design? a. The technical process is the system an organization uses to produce its services and products b. Strategies describe organizational goals and ways of reaching them c. The external environment of an organization includes customers, suppliers, and government regulators d. Most modern organizations are closed systems

3. Pick the incorrect statement about an organization's external environment. a. We can describe an organization's external environment with two dimensions: simple to complex and static to dynamic b. The dimensions of simple to complex and static to dynamic imply the degree of environmental uncertainty facing the organization c. A dynamic external environment features many changing events d. A simple static external environment presents high uncertainty to an organization 4. Which of the following statements is false about organization size? a. Small organizations have a narrower span of control than large organizations b. Large organizations have more structured work activities than small organizations c. Large organizations have fewer management levels than small organizations d. Large organizations can have more diverse activities that require more coordination than small organizations 5. An organization designed by function has all the following characteristics except a. The strategy is to produce a few products for a well-defined market b. It has many competitors c. The external environment is stable with little uncertainty d. Because of standardized products or services, an organization design by function applies its technical process repeatedly, according to standard procedures 6. Which of the following statements is false about the specific forms of organizational design? a. A hybrid organizational design combines division and matrix forms b. An organizational design based on divisions decentralizes around products, services, or customers c. An organizational design by function groups tasks according to their activities, such as accounting, finance, manufacturing, and the like d. Organizations use a matrix design when two environmental sectors demand management attention

7. Each of the following statements is true about self-managing work teams except a. Organizations often become more nimble and responsive when they use self-managing teams b. Self-managing work teams let managers flatten their organizations by removing management levels c. Teams do not use functional differences in thinking to get more creative solutions to problems d. Building self-managing teams uses decentralization to move decision making to the teams 8. Which of the following statements is false about virtual organizations? a. There is high interdependence among network members b. The number of elements in a virtual organization is defined by skills and resources needed to reach the goal of the network c. A company that lacks a particular resource enters an agreement with a company that has that resource d. Virtual organizations feature permanent networks 9. Each statement below is true about some international aspects of organizational design except a. Matrix organizations are acceptable in countries that avoid ambiguity b. The international context increases an organization's environmental complexity because of differences in labor law, consumer preferences, economics, and the like c. Computer technology lets a virtual organization have network members in almost any country of the world d. Functional and divisional organizational designs are consistent with the cultural values of countries that want to avoid uncertainty and accept hierarchical differences in power 10. Which of the following is not an ethical issue related to organizational form that managers must face? a. Matrix organizations often produce conflict and ambiguity b. Managers can affect their external environment through lobbying efforts c. The amount of change required by moving to some organizational forms can induce stress in employees d. Changes to the technical process can also induce stress

11. Which of the following statements is true about the generic forms of organizational design? a. Defender organizations work well in changing environments b. Analyzer organizations have features that distinctly differ from those of defender and prospector organizations c. Reactor organizations have a well-balanced configuration of strategy and external environment d. Organic organizations work well in uncertain environments 12. Each of the following statements about technical process as a contingency factor of organizational design is true except a. Technical processes vary in degree of interdependence within the process b. Modern manufacturing technologies let managers move decision authority to low organizational levels c. An organization's technical process does not affect inputs to the organization d. Routine technologies usually have centralized decision-making processes 13. Pick the incorrect observation about strategy as a contingency factor of organizational design. a. Strategy follows structure: Managers create strategy within the environment of an organization's design b. An organization's strategy specifies only short-term goals c. Structure follows strategy: Managers create strategy from their assessment of many forces and then change the organization's design d. Structure follows strategy: An organization's design helps managers carry out the strategy 14. Pick the incorrect statement about organizational design by division. a. Organizations rarely evolve from a functional design to a divisional form b. Strength: easily adapts to differences in products, services, and clients c. Weakness: loss of economies of scale because of duplication of functions such as accounting and purchasing d. Strength: high visibility of products, services, and customers in a divisional structure

15. Pick the incorrect observation on the hybrid form of organizational design. a. Weakness: high administrative overhead if the staff at corporate headquarters expands without control b. Strength: economies of scale are possible in some functional areas c. The hybrid form of organizational design keeps all the weaknesses of the functional and divisional designs d. The centralized functions often are the costly ones for the organization 16. All but one of the following observations on matrix organizational design are correct. Which is the incorrect one? a. Condition for choosing a matrix organizational design: high uncertainty within multiple external environmental sectors b. Weakness: ambiguity caused by dual authority relationships c. Matrix organizations feature low conflict potential d. Strength: responsive and flexible; efficiently uses costly resources

Chapter 18: Organizational Change and Development

1. Which of the following statements is false about organizational change? a. Pressures for organizational change will drop in the future b. Organizational change involves movement from the organization's present state to a target future state c. Managers need to know how to manage change and how to deliberately change an organization d. People and organizations often resist organizational change 2. Which of the following statement pairs is incorrect about forces for and against organizational change? a. Internal force, employees b. External force, threat of acquisition c. External force, slow decision processes d. Internal force, felt conflict or stress

3. Which of the following statements is false about unplanned and planned organizational change? a. Unplanned change happens when pressures for change overwhelm an organization b. Planned change is a systematic effort to move a subsystem or an entire organization to a new state c. A change agent guides the change process, helping managers with planned organizational change d. Planned change typically moves forward smoothly 4. Each statement below is true about the evolutionary model of organizational change except a. Evolutionary change features gradual adaptation of an organization to changes in its external environment b. Organizational change moves through the phases of change without repeating an earlier phase c. Organizational change happens in phases: developing a need for change, moving the organization to the new state, and stabilizing the change d. Each phase blends into the next phase; the phases have no distinct boundaries 5. Pick the incorrect statement about aspects of the revolutionary model of organizational change. a. During equilibrium periods, an organization moves steadily toward its goals b. Deep structures are temporary features of an organization's design c. Revolutionary periods feature feverish change activities d. Dissatisfaction with an organization's performance can trigger a revolutionary period 6. Which of the following statements is false about resistance to change? a. Coercive approaches quickly reduce resistance b. Employees can resist change because they have a low tolerance for change c. Managers can use resistance to change as a reason to get more information d. Employees can resist change because they distrust the change agent 7. Which of the following is not true of organizational development? a. Organizational development is a short-term, systematic, and prescriptive approach to organizational change b. Organizational development builds mechanisms that let members get feedback about the state of the organization

c. Feedback about the state of the organization encourages all members to focus on continuous improvement d. Organizational development tries to create a flexible organization 8. All the following characterize the feedback phase of organizational development except a. The consultant offers a preliminary diagnosis of the client system b. Discussions during the feedback meeting only focus on the consultant's preliminary diagnosis c. The consultant and organization members collaboratively arrive at a diagnosis d. There typically are a limited number of feedback meetings 9. Which of the following statements is incorrect about organizational development interventions? a. Human process interventions focus on processes such as communication, decision making, and conflict in organizations b. Structural and technological interventions focus on organizational design and bringing new technology into the organization c. Strategy interventions focus on maintaining the organization's existing strategy d. Human resource interventions target the personnel practices of the organization 10. Which of the following is not true about ethical dilemmas in organizational development? a. Organizational development consultants may misrepresent their capabilities and skills when helping the client system solve its problems b. Ethical dilemmas in organizational development have little negative effect on programs and interventions c. Managers in the client system may misrepresent themselves and the nature of their problems d. All data collected must be treated confidentially 11. Which of the following statements is false about leadership and organizational change? a. A vision offers a view of the future b. An effective vision is future oriented and compelling c. A person with the leadership mystique can build a power base for organizational change d. Managers change organizations

12. Each of the following statements is true about international aspects of organizational change and development except a. Russian managers prefer having a clear plan to which everyone can commit b. People in Scandinavian countries accept more uncertainty than people in southern Europe c. French managers view organizational change as directly following from leadership and influence, not from a manipulative perspective d. The assumptions and values of organizational development consultants likely reflect the cultural values of the intellectual roots of organizational development (United States, UK, northern Europe, Scandinavia)

1 The primary purpose of accounting is to determine whether the business entity is profitable or unprofitable in its operations. A) B) True False

2 Costs, prices, sales volume, profits, and return on investment are all accounting measurements. A) B) True False

3 The types of accounting information are limited. A) B) True False

4 Accountants use the term financial position to describe an entity's activities during the year. A) B) True False

5 Financial accounting information is designed primarily to assist investors and creditors in deciding where to place their scarce investment resources. A) B) True False

6 Management accounting involves the development and interpretation of accounting information intended specifically to aid management in acquiring investment resources. A) B) True False

7 The most challenging aspect of tax accounting is in the preparation of the many forms required for an entity's tax return. A) B) True False

8 An accounting system consists of personnel, procedures, devices, and records used by an organization to develop accounting information and to communicate this information to decision makers. A) B) True False

9 The cost of producing the types of accounting reports required by law is always cost-effective. A) B) True False

10 External users of financial accounting information are the same users of management accounting information. A) B) True False

11 Return of investment and return on investment refer to the same thing--the amount returned at the end of the investment period. A) B) True False

12 If you invest $50,000 and receive $52,500 at the end of the investment period, the return on your investment is 5 percent. A) B) True False

13 The primary financial statements are an income statement and a balance sheet. A) B) True False

14 One financial statement that covers a specific period of time is the balance sheet. A) B) True False

15 Externally reported financial information and financial statements are primarily historical in nature. A) B) True False

16 Management accounting is the preparation and use of accounting information systems to achieve the organization's objectives by supporting decision makers outside the enterprise. A) B) True False

17 Plant managers are internal users of accounting information systems. A) B) True False

18 The management accounting information created and used primarily by internal users is intended above all for planning and control decisions. A) B) True False

19 One of the specific purposes of management accounting system is to provide information useful to help the enterprise achieve its goals, objectives, and mission. A) B) True False

20 Standards adopted and used as a guide in measuring, recording, and reporting the financial affairs and activities of a business are known as accounting concepts. A) True B) False

21 Today, the most authoritative source of generally accepted accounting principles is the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB). A) B) True False

22 The primary purpose of the conceptual framework for financial reporting is to provide guidance to the FASB in developing new accounting standards. A) B) True False

23 The Securities and Exchange Commission is a governmental agency with the legal power to establish accounting principles and financial reporting requirements for publicly owned corporations. A) B) True False

24 The main purpose of the internal control structure is to detect fraud. A) B) True False

25 Uncovering fraud is the primary purpose of an audit. A) B) True False

26 The major purpose of an audit is to uncover theft and fraud so that the users of the financial statements can have a high level of assurance that all money is accounted for properly. A) B) True False

27 The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants licenses certified public accountants. A) B) True False

28 Whichever career in accounting you choose, public, management, financial forecasting, cost accounting, internal auditing, government accounting, or accounting education, it is your obligation as a professional to serve the public's best interest, even at the sacrifice of personal advantage.

A) B)

True False

29 The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants issues the Certificate of Management Accounting (CMA). A) B) True False

30 The code of ethics of the Institute of Management Accountants (IMA) includes the requirements of competency, confidentiality, integrity, and subjectivity. A) B) True False

31 Which of the following provides information about the financial resources, obligations, and activities of an economic entity that is intended for use primarily by external decision makers? A) B) C) D) E) Financial accounting Management accounting Tax accounting Cost accounting Bookkeeping

32 Which of the following provides information that is intended primarily for use by internal management in decision making required to run the business? A) B) C) D) E) Financial accounting Management accounting Tax accounting Cost accounting Bookkeeping

33 Which of the following involves the preparation of income tax returns and anticipating the tax effects of business transactions and structuring them in such a way as to minimize the income tax burden? A) B) C) D) E) Financial accounting Management accounting Tax accounting Cost accounting Bookkeeping

34 Which of the following involves determining the cost of certain business activities and interpreting cost information? A) B) C) D) E) Financial accounting Management accounting Tax accounting Cost accounting Bookkeeping

35 Which of the following refers to recording the routine transactions and day-to-day record keeping of an enterprise? A) B) C) D) E) Financial accounting Management accounting Tax accounting Cost accounting Bookkeeping

36 An accounting system is cost-effective when it does which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Produces useful information Produces reports required by law Uses computers to replace manual activities All of the above None of the above

37 The basic functions of an accounting system include which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Interpreting and recording the effects of business transactions Classifying the effects of similar transactions Summarizing and communicating the information contained in the system Only A and B A, B, and C

38 Which of the following financial statements is also known as a statement of financial position? A) B) C) D) E) Balance sheet Income statement Statement of cash flows Bank statement None of the above

39 The personnel, procedures, devices, and records used by an organization to develop accounting information and communicate that information to decision makers are called which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Audits Accounting systems Personnel systems Internal control structures None of the above

40 The two things that make up cash flow prospects are which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Return of investment and return on investment Return on investment and timing of investment Return of investment and timing of investment Periodic interest and dividends None of the above

41 Which of the following shows details and results of the company's profit-related activities for a period of time? A) B) C) D) E) Balance sheet Income statement Statement of cash flows Statement of financial position None of the above

42 Which of the following shows the details of the company's activities involving cash during a period of time? A) B) C) D) E) Income statement Statement of financial position Balance sheet Revenue - Costs = Profits None of the above

43 Which of the following would be considered an external user? A) B) C) D) E) Owner Store manager Plant manager Board of directors All of the above

44 You made a $10,000 loan to your cousin's company. At the end of one year, the company returned to you $10,850. The $850 is called which one of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Return of investment Return on investment An 8.5% return on investment B and C A and C

45 A characteristic of externally reported information is that it is which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Largely historical in nature May be inexact and contain approximations Is general-purpose in nature Its usefulness is enhanced by explanation All of the above

46 Which of the following would be considered an internal user? A) B) C) D) E) Owner Creditor Chief financial officer Labor union None of the above

47 Which of the following is not a characteristic of management accounting information? A) B) C) D) E) Timeliness is of importance Decision-making authority is identified Historically oriented Measures efficiency and effectiveness A means to an end, not an end in and of itself

48 Which of the following provides the framework for determining what information is to be included in financial statements and how that information is to be presented? A) B) C) D) E) Generally accepted auditing standards Generally accepted amortization standards Accounting standards and practices Securities and Exchange Commission Generally accepted accounting principles

49 Measures used by an organization to guard against errors, waste, and fraud; to assure the reliability of accounting information; to promote compliance with management policies; and to evaluate the level of performance of all divisions of the company, are called which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Audits Internal control structure Internal auditing Integrity None of the above

50 Which of the following enhances the integrity of accounting information? A) B) C) D) E) Institutional features can add significantly to the integrity Professional accounting organizations play a significant role Personal competence, judgment, and ethical behavior play a role All of the above Only A and C

51 Which of the following is a professional accounting organization that is dedicated to the promotion and development of the practice of internal auditing? A) B) C) D) E) Institute of Internal Auditors Institute of Management Accountants American Institute of CPAs Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) American Accounting Association

52 Which of the following is a professional accounting organization that intends to influence the concepts and ethical practice of management accounting and financial management? A) B) C) D) Institute of Internal Auditors Institute of Management Accountants American Institute of CPAs Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) E) American Accounting Association

53 Which of the following is a professional accounting organization of certified public accountants that engages in a variety of professional activities, including establishing auditing standards, conducting research, and working closely with the FASB in establishing financial reporting standards? A) B) C) D) E) Institute of Internal Auditors Institute of Management Accountants American Institute of CPAs Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) American Accounting Association

54 The membership of which of the following consists primarily of accounting educators? A) B) C) D) E) Institute of Internal Auditors Institute of Management Accountants American Institute of CPAs Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) American Accounting Association

55 An investigation of financial statements designed to determine their fairness in relation to generally accepted accounting principles is called which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Internal control structure External control structure Audit Bookkeeping Management accounting

56 Which of the following issues a Certificate in Internal Auditing? A) B) C) D) E) Institute of Internal Auditors Institute of Management Accountants American Institute of CPAs Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) American Accounting Association

57 Which of the following issues a Certificate in Management Accounting? A) B) C) D) E) Institute of Internal Auditors Institute of Management Accountants American Institute of CPAs Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) American Accounting Association

58 Which of the following issues licenses to practice as a Certified Public Accountant? A) B) C) D) E) Institute of Management Accountants American Institute of CPAs Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) American Accounting Association None of the above

59 Expectations of ethical conduct are important for accountants. For management accountants, the code of ethics includes which of the following requirements? A) B) C) D) E) Competence Confidentiality Integrity Objectivity All of the above

60 Which of the following is not a government agency? A) B) C) D) E) Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Security and Exchange Commission (SEC) General Accounting Office (GAO) American Accounting Association (AAA) Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation#