AME DGCA MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Multiple-choice questions:
1. Which of the following statement is true?
Every Indian registered aircraft is required to possess a current & valid C of A.
C of A is necessary even if the aircraft is flown in the vicinity of departing
aerodrome for the purpose of test for renewal of C of A.
It is the responsibility of the manufacturer and DGCA to ensure that the aircraft
has a valid C of A.
All above statements are true.

2. Mark the correct statement, regarding the responsibility of the operator

Carryout scheduled inspection as approved by DGCA
Ensure pilot to operate the aircraft by virtue of his experience
All defects encountered in flight need not to be reported to airworthiness
directorate
All of the above

3. CAR is issued under the provision of

a) 133A of aircraft rule 1937 b) Section 5 (B) of aircraft act 1934
A and B are correct d) None of the above

4. The promulgation of CAR is to meet

Duties and obligations of contracting state
Harmonization of requirements with FAA / JAA etc
A and B are correct d) None of the above

5. Why is harmonization of CAR required with other airworthiness regulatory

authorities like FAA/JAA?
a) For easy exchange of products among various countries.
b) For easy exchange of services among various countries.
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of the above

6. Whenever the revision takes place to the entire CAR series

Revision sl.no and date shall appear on every page of the series
Revision sl.no and date shall appear in the first page only
CAR series originally issued dated will be changed to the revision effective date
None of the above

7. Objectives and targets of airworthiness department is to

a) Ensure design levels of reliability
b) Ensure operating safety of civil aircrafts
c) Promulgation and enforcement of highest achievable standards
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d) All the above are correct

8. Which type of maintenance process is suitable for components not affecting the
safety of Aircraft?
a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition maintenance
c) (a) and (b) are correct d) Condition monitoring

9. Which type of maintenance would you suggest for the servicing of fuel control
unit?
a) Hard time maintenance b) On condition c) Condition monitoring
d) Any other special type of maintenance process which, is specially designed for
FCU

10. Total no. of engine hours =

No. of airframe hours x no. of aircraft in the fleet
No. of airframe hours x no. of engines installed on that type of aircraft.
No. of engines in the fleet x total no. of aircraft of all types with the operator.
None of these.

11. What is the %of dispatch reliability of an organization having conducted 5277
flights out which 134 flights are delayed for more than 15 minutes?
a) 2.54% b) 6.8% c) 98.46% d) None of the above

12. Organization, which need not to send the data on mechanical delay of the flights
a) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator c) Private Operator
d) Other than (a) is correct
.
13. Mark the correct sentence, if any
a) Private operators should furnish data regarding dispatch reliability every 06
months.
b) Scheduled operators furnish emergency landing data to RAWO/Sub-RAWO
every month.
c) Non-scheduled operators & training aircraft operator would furnish
information regarding dispatch reliability every 03 months to RAWO/Sub-
RAWO.
d) All are correct statements.

14. Effective safety regulation and oversight of airworthiness functions can be

achieved by joint efforts of
Operator, AMO and Regulating authority
Operator, Manufacturers and DGCA
Operator, Accountable Manager and QCM
All the above
15. During the scrutiny of the data sent by the operator on routine basis, if any
adverse trend observed it is corrected by the following recommendations by the
RAWO
a) Varying the process of maintenance
b) Reviewing the qualification of certifying personnel
c) Additional preventive maintenance
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d) All the above

16. Calculate IFSD rate for the PT-6A-42 Engine sl.no.PCE 30105, for a particular
duration, when aircraft is operated for 500 flight hours, the above mentioned
engine is met with IFSD for 6 times
a) 0.012 b) 0.006 c) 0.024 d) None of the above

17. The aim of safety oversight airworthiness programme is to

Prevent operators from maintaining their airworthiness standards at a level above
the level required by the regulations.
Detect the strengths in the engineering activities of the operators.
To take corrective actions in time before they become a potential safety hazard.
All of the above.

18. Mark the correct statement, if any.

a) All public transport aircraft shall be maintained by approved
organizations.
b) All work done by approved organizations will be regulated by an
approved QCM.
c) RAWO/Sub-RAWO carries out surveillance checks to ensure that the laid
down standards are enforced.
d) All above correct.

19. Which statutory document is used by DGCA to ensure airworthiness and

safety oversight?
Quality control manual b) Aircraft maintenance manual
Civil aviation requirements c) All the above

20. Rule____ requires that all aircraft to be operated in India needs to be

registered
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 48 c) Rule 61 d) Rule 62

21. The nationality and registration markings shall be painted on the Indian
regd. aircraft as per
a) Rule 62 b) Rule 134 c) Rule 37 d) Rule 48

22. Rule 49 deals with

a) Type certificate b) Registration c) Issue of CAR d) Airworthiness

23. Rule 60 deals with

a) Licensing of AME’s b) Maintenance standards and certification
c) Defects and defective parts d) Weight and balance

24. The QC dept.’s duties shall include to ensure

a) That catering items bought are of good quality and from DGCA approved
sources.
b) That all passengers in the aircraft have proper authority to travel.
c) That all vendors hold DGCA approval.
d) None of the above.
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25. Situations indicating negative trends in the maintenance standards of an

operator include
Increase in MEL items and the length of time they remain deferred.
Improvements in the dispatch reliability status.
Decrease in the no. of passengers traveled. d) None of the
above

26. Repeat pilot report means

a) Improved system reliability b) Decreased system reliability
c) Pilot needs to be awarded for his alertness d) None of these

27. Emergency responding in airworthiness performance monitoring system

include identifying
a) IFSD b) Uncontained engine failure c) De-pressurization d) All above

28. Mark the incorrect statement, if any.

a) Any foreign AME employed should pass an oral check with DGCA.
b) An AME employed from other airlines should pass an oral check with
DGCA before certifying aircraft.
c) Any foreign AME employed should get security clearance from home
ministry & external affairs ministry through his embassy.
d) Foreign AME employed should know Indian rules and regulations, CAR’s
& QC manual.

29. For serious lapses in the airworthiness maintenance programme and in

airworthiness performance monitoring programme – the punitive action will
be initiated by
a) QCM b) RAWO c) DAW
(Hqs.)
d) Officer in charge RAWO/Sub-RAWO

30. Mark the correct statement, if any.

Operator shall make arrangements with other approved organization
for replay of CVR.
For readout of FDR/DFDR operator should have own facilities or
make arrangements with other approved organizations, which shall be
acceptable to DGCA.
The oversight of airworthiness functions is the responsibility of DGCA
only.
All of the above.

31. Which of the following is Airworthiness performance data?

a) Routine maintenance b) Scheduled inspection
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c) Service bulletins d) Pilot report compiled ATA

code wise

32. The organizations need not to prepare MEL is

a) Private Operator b) As in (a) not issued with MMEL
c) As in (a) issued with MMEL d) Flying clubs

33. The operator has to prepare MEL by consulting

a) Engineering / operational deportment of the operator
b) MMEL
c) As in (b) duly approved by the regulatory authority of the country of
manufacturing
d) All the above

34. Judge the Component / System malfunction be included in the MEL

a) Engine rpm Indicator b) PA system c) Wings
d) None of the above

35. Intention of Invoking MEL is

To permit the operation of the aircraft with inoperative equipment within the
frame work of controlled and sound programme of repair and parts
replacement
To make the profit for the airlines
To reduce the workload of the crew
None of the above

36. Select the wrong statement, if any

a) MEL defects shall be rectified at first available opportunity.
b) In any case, MEL defects shall be rectified once aircraft returns to the
main base.
c) MEL defects can be carried forward for indefinite periods provided they
are covered in MMEL also.
d) All above statements are correct.

37. CAR section 2, Series B Part II is issued vide (Preparation of CCL & ECL)
Aircraft rule
a) 7B b) 133A c) 50 d) 15

38. Amendment to the MEL is the responsibility of

a) AME b) Chief Engineer c) QCM d) None of the above

39. Information contained in the preamble to MEL is

Method informing AME about the unseviceability of item / defects
Specific programme of rectification
As in (b) in respect of each aircraft consistent with safety, which will have the
prior approval of DGCA.
All the above are correct

40. Rule, which governs the preparation of cockpit and emergency checklist, is
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a) Rule 7A b) Rule 133A c) Rule 8B d) None of the above

41. Cockpit and emergency check list is available in manufacturers

a) Operations manual b) Crew operating manual
c) Flight manual d) All the above

42. Which manual gives the information about the inoperative system when or where
required to be replaced
a) QC Manual b) Maintenance Manual
c) Engineering Organization Manual d) None of the above

43. Any deviation to the manufacturer’s procedures in the cockpit checklist is to be

followed after
a) Obtaining concurrence from DGCA b) obtaining concurrence from RAO
c) QCM can approve the deviation d) none of the above

44. Aircraft requiring two or more crewmembers must follow the procedure of
___while using cockpit checklist
a) Challenge and response b) Reading and performing
c) Following action by action d) None of the above

45. State the rules which governs the defect reporting, recording, investigation,
rectification, and analysis
a) 60 b) 59 c) 5 d) All the above are correct

46. Repetitive defect means

a) Defect which recurs in the same aircraft
b) Defect which recurs in the different aircraft
c) (a) or (b) defect should repeat
d) None of the above

47. Arrange the action required in a chronological order, if an aircraft is suffering

with a major defect
Initial information, details information, investigation progress report,
Investigation report
Initial information, investigation progress report, investigation report, detailed
information report
Initial information, investigation report, investigation progress report, detailed
information report
None of the above is in correct order.

48. The purpose of investigation of defect is to

a) Punish the person who caused the defect
b) Avoid the recurrence of defects
c) Avoid duplicated penal action against offender
d) None of the above
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49. What is the periodicity of forwarding fleet performance report by the operators
other than scheduled operator?
a) One month b) Six month c) Four months d) none of the above

50. The parameter- no. of `take offs’ per delay is part of

a) Fleet performance, Engg statistics and analysis
b) Report rendering to RAO after the aircraft is delayed to a scheduled
service of 15 minutes duration or more on account of aircraft defect
c) Delay investigation report
d) All of the above are correct

51. What is the duration of preserving aircraft component associated with the major
defects?
a) One month b) Fort night c) Two months d) None of the above

52. Which of the following is a Group I major defect?

I – Fires during flight II – IFSD because of flameout
III – IFSD due to icing IV – Defect of propeller feathering system
V – IFSD with external damage to the engine
a) All b) I, II, III, IV c) I & V d) I, II & IV

53. How many aircraft can constitute a fleet?

a) Minimum two of particular type of model b) Minimum four of particular type
c) Minimum five of particular type or model d) none of the above

54. What are the documents, which give detailed information about fleet
performance, engine statistics and analysis?
a) AAC 4 of 2002 b) AAC 5 of 2001
c) AAC 5 of 2002 d) AAC 5 of 2003

55. An operator may face service difficulties on account of defects malfunction and
shall be reported to manufacturers / designers
a) At the earliest b) As in (a) with in 7 days of occurrence
c) As in (a) not later than two week of occurrence d) None of the above

56. What is the duration within which the major defects investigation to be completed
a) 6 months of its occurrence b) 4 months of its occurrence
c) 3 months of its occurrence d) none of the above

57. Records associated with defects shall be preserved for a period of

a) Two weeks b) One month c) Six months d) none

58. The operator operating public transport aircraft should record in the flight report,
Defects observed by the crew during pre-flight prior to the take off
Record special reports with all details regarding incidents
Flight sectors of short duration, where the aircraft is unable to obtain stabilized
cruise conditions of flight, recording of parameters, may be omitted
All the above are correct
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59. Pilot of an Operator of public transport, observed a defect during flight, but not
entered in PDR then,
a) AME need not to rectify the defect till, the defect report for the previous
flight is filled and signed by the crew.
b) AME should ask the crew with regard to defect and rectify at the earliest
c) AME will release the aircraft, by invoking the provision of MEL
d) A and C are correct

60. Name the operator, who can afford to record the defect observed by the flight
crew in a register
a) Scheduled Operator b) Non-scheduled operator
c) Other than public transport operator d) A or B is correct

61. Operator of private aircraft, responsibility of making periodic assessment about

the defects reported lies with
a) QCM b) AME c) Approved person d) None of the above

62. Operator of non-public transport aircraft, when flying out station away from
parent base, the defect observed shall be recorded in
a) Journey logbook b) As in (a) column X
c) As in (a) column XII d) As in (a) Column XI

63. Defect reporting / rectification procedures pertaining to the operators except

public transport aircraft. Mark the correct statement
Defect observed in the aircraft during pre flight must be recorded in the register
Defect observed in the aircraft away from the parent base may be recorded in the
JLB
If the aircraft is temperately based away from the normal base, defect register may
also be located in the temporary base
All are correct statement

64. Analytical study of in flight Instrument readings / recordings of aircraft is

applicable to
a) Public transport aircraft b) Non public transport aircraft
c) As in (a) fitted with turbo jet engine
d) As in (c) not engaged in scheduled services

65. Periodicity for the evaluation of the collected data from the in flight instrument
reading / recording is
a) Two months b) Three months c) Quarterly d) None

66. Name the instrument reading, which is not considered, for analytical study of in
flight instrument
a) Voltmeter reading b) EGT c) Propeller rpm d) EPR

67. Airframe performance is evaluated based on

a) Fuel flow and TAS b) Fuel flow and IAS
c) ROC d) None
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68. Procedure for analytical study is reflected in

a) Airplane maintenance Manual b) Engine maintenance manual
c) A or B is correct d) None of the above

69. In the event of Deterioration of engine being observed

a) Replacement of engine is advised b) Curative measure is taken
c) As in (b) is not satisfactory then (a) is advised d) None of the above

70. Maintenance control by reliability method is applicable to

a) AMO
b) Approved orgn. which holds approval in Cat-C in accordance with series
“E” part I
c) (a) or (b) operating scheduled flights
d) Any approved organization

71. Purpose of reliability method is

To help in identifying the potential problem area existing on its aircraft and
engines
Organization to amend and refine its existing system of operation
To alert the organization in time to take preventive or curative measures
All above are correct

72. Reliability control programme once it is approved become the part of

a) MS Manual b) QC Manual
c) Quality Assurance Manual d) None of the above

73. Reliability monitoring unit will gather information from the primary sources like
a) Shop findings b) Bench check reports
c) Sampling Inspections d) All the above

74. The RMU will gather information from

a) Circulars issued by DGCA b) Service bulletins issued by manufacturer
c) Pilot reports d) All of the above

75. Aircraft system reliability will be measured by

a) Unscheduled removals applicable to system per 1000 hours
b) Confirmed failures applicable to the system per 1000 hours
c) No. of pilot reported defects applicable to the system per 1000 hours
d) All the above are correct

76. Alert notices will be issued by..…to all concerned persons and a report shall be
forwarded on….. of every month
a) QCM and 25th b) RMU & 25th
th
c) QAM & 25 d) None of the above

77. The alert value will be numerically equal to …………

a) Mean Value b) Mean value + Two standard deviations
c) Mean of the Mean value d) none of the above
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78. Name the operator and the duration regarding development of monthly graphic
display covering operating experience for at least
a) Scheduled operator and one month b) Non-schedule operator and one month
c) Private operator and three months d) none of the above

79. All the graphic display regarding operators experience shall be preserved for a
period of
a) One year b) Three years c) Five years d) None of the above

80. Following changes to bring the alert value under control need not have the prior
approval of DGCA
a) Service time decrease in schedule b) Data analysis method
c) Data collection system d) All the above

81. Reliability programme of aircraft engines applicable to

a) Non-scheduled operators b) Private operators
c) Flying clubs d) None of the above

82. Name the type of IFSD need not to be used in computing operator’s shut down
rate
a) Critical shut downs b) Non-critical shut downs for training
c) Non-critical shut downs for test d) B and C are correct

83. State the rule that lays down the requirements for grant of approval to an
organization
a) Rule 133A b) Rule 133 B c) Rule 133 C d) None of the above

84. DGCA Hqs. will receive the operators report regarding exceeding of alert value
from
a) QCM b) RMU in QC dept.
c) Accountable Manager d) none of these

85. Mark the wrong statement, if any.

Any change in data collection system for maintenance control reliability method
will need DGCA approval
The maintenance control by reliability method is applicable to scheduled airlines
only.
A likely source of information for reliability control is sampling inspection.
Operators who are having a continuous in flight monitoring of instruments can
alter the computation method of alert value on their own.

86. If an operator’s engine reliability index is above alert value, then he will
ground all his aircraft and analyze the problem
ask the engine manufacturers to rectify
prepare a corrective programme & submit to RAWO
overhauls all affected engines

87. SSID means

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a) Special Servicing Inspection Document

b) Special Structural Inspection Document
c) Supplemental Structural Inspection Document
d) Significant Structural Insp. Document

88. Initial periods for component TBO’s in respect of state govt. aircraft shall be
approved by
a) DGCA Hqs b) RAWO where operator is located
c) Aviation adviser to the state govt. d) None of the above

89. An operator can apply for upward revision of maintenance periods/TBO’s if

a) Minimum four consecutive major maintenance schedules reveal satisfactory
condition of aircraft/component
b) Component premature removal rate is within 0.3/1000 hours continuously for
last 06 months
c) They are having minimum 05 years experience in operating the type of
aircraft
d) Both a) and b)

90. The requirements are enumerated for an AO located outside India in

a) CAR Section – 2 Series “E” Part-I b) Rule 133B
c) AAC 4 of 1998 d) All the above are correct

91. Mark the incorrect sentence.

a) Cat- A organizations manufacture aircraft/aircraft components/aircraft goods.
b) For Cat A, B, C, D& E organizations separate approval in cat F is not
required.
c) The organization, which tests the RPM gauge, will be approved in D category.
d) The approval to organizations is based on the concept of delegated system of
responsibility.

92. If you are having an organization for carrying out inspection of components by
magnetic particle method, the organization shall seek approval in ___ category
a) A Category b) C Category
c) D Category d) None of the above

93. Separate approval in category in “F” is required for the organization approved
for___ if he wants to establish a store
a) D category b) G Category
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above

94. Certificate of Approval contains

a) Privileges of an AO b) Scope of approval
c) Defining the limits of an AO d) none of the above are correct

95. Certificate of maintenance is issued in respect of

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Light aircraft after carryout routine inspection schedules

Heavy aircraft after carryout special inspection schedules
Light aircraft after carrying out modification and overhaul process and treatment
All of the above

96. Quality assurance manual is a documents detailing

a) Operators procedures and practices in detail
b) As in (a) observance of which will ensure compliance with the airworthiness
c) As in (b) and safety requirement of the DGCA and manufacturer
d) None of the above is correct

97. Release note can be issued by

a) An AO only b) Any organization manufacturing aircraft part
c) Chief designer d) All of the above are correct

98. Rejection note can be issued by

An AO b) Any other organization with maintenance capacity
c) All the above are correct d) none of the above is correct

99. Granting approval in any category will be depend upon

a) Scope of the approval shall be less than 100 hrs. Inspection schedule
b) Request of the applicant and not on his capability
c) As in (b) and approval will be specified in certificate of approval /
capability list while granting initial approval
d) None of the above

100. Mark the incorrect statement, if any.

An organization will be initially granted part approval, and given 03 months time
to meet the deficiencies for final grant of approval.
Granting approval will be dependant on request of the applicant and his
capability/capacity to perform work as required by DGCA.
Scope of approval for routine maintenance of aircraft shall not be less than 100
hrs inspection schedule.
No incorrect statement.

101. Organization located in India seeking approval shall submit application in form
a) CA 182 B b) CA 182 C c) CA 182 D d) None of the above

102. Mark the wrong statement, if any.

a) In case Indian operators desire to carry out maintenance activities including
daily insp. of their fleet outside India, DGCA HQs. will grant such approval.
b) For grant of approval, a statement signed by the Accountable Manager is
mandatory.
c) CA 182 D is used for renewal of approval of foreign organizations.
d) All above statements are correct.

103. Approval of Indian organization affected by

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a) Director of airworthiness of region b) DAW at DGCA

c) Controller of Airworthiness d) Any DGCA Officer of the region

104. Name of the manual, which shall reflect the scope of the approval
a) QC manual b) QA manual
c) Maintenance system manual d) None of the above

105. The storage and handling procedures for Electro static device components are
detailed in …… for guidance
a) AAC 5 of 2000 b) ACC 4 of 2000
c) AAC 6 of 2001 d) None of the above

106. Scope of approval of an organization will depend on

Qualification of QCM & Dy. QCM
Capacity of the organization and availability of the equipments
Both a) & b) d) none

107. Name the eligible person who cannot be an accountable manager

a) Chief executive b) Dy. MD
c) Any other person not having necessary financial authority to ensure
compliance of safety requirements
d) MD

108. Nodal officer can be appointed by

a) State government b) As in (a) who is having own AMO
c) As in (a) who has contracted maintenance of his aircraft to an AMO
d) General aviation organization

109. Qualification and experience for a nodal officer is

A senior person in department having 5 years of aviation experience
A senior person in department having 10 years of aviation experience
As in (b) satisfied to DGCA
As in (a) or (b) satisfied to RAO

110. The function of nodal officer is to

a) Ensure that all personnel are appropriately trained and qualified to accomplish
the work
b) Ensure that appropriate instructions are developed, maintained, documented
and followed for compliance with requirements.
c) Provide required spare parts and components from approved sources with
appropriate documents before use on aircraft.
d) All of the above.

111. Certifying staff of an AO issuing C of M must have

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a) Involved in at least 3 months of actual maintenance experience in

preceding 24 months.
b) As in (a) get sufficient refresher course in each 2 years period
c) As in (b) the programme for the training is reflected in QC or training
manual
d) None of the above

112. Quality control cell of an AO has to monitor

Product standard
Airworthiness of aircraft engine / components
Compliance with adequate procedures to ensure good maintenance practices
stipulated by manufacturers/ DGCA
All of the above

113. Internal audit of an AO is performed by

a) QC department b) Quality assurance unit
c) Reliability monitoring unit d) none of the above

114. Mark the wrong statements, if any.

The quality assurance personnel will be from QC dept., who shall be highly
experienced and have rating/approval in their area of work.
The quality assurance manager gives his report directly to QCM.
The application for grant of approval of fuel companies shall be submitted at
DGCA HQs.
All are incorrect statements.

115. Frequency of an internal audit to be carried out by an AO is

a) Once in year b) Thrice in year c) Twice in year d) None

116. For an operator who carried out his first in house audit of the year in June, the
next audit can be carried out in
a) Next year July b) November c) September d) One audit is sufficient

117. Who will ensure that necessary corrective action is taken promptly on the
observations made by audit team during spot checks and internal audit?
a) Accountable manager b) QA Manager
c) QC Manager d) Nodal Officer

118. Mark the correct statement, if any.

a) A copy of safety audit report along with remedial action taken by the
QCM shall be reported to RAWO/Sub RAWO
b) DGCA shall take disciplinary action on the basis of above report
c) Procedure for in house audit is reflected in maintenance system manual
d) None of the above is correct statement
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119. Quality control and Quality assurance manual of Indian airlines will be approved
by
a) RAWO b) Sub-RAWO where IA Head Office is based
c) DGCA Head quarters d) None of the above

120. QC manual of fuel companies shall be submitted for approval at

a) RAWO b) DGCA HQs
c) Sub-RAWO where the fuel company is based d) none of the above

121. Maintenance system manual of an AO to be approved by

a) RAWO b) DGCA HQs
c) As in (a) consultation with (b) d) None of the above

122. A list of maintenance related forms would be available in

a) Maintenance system manual b) Engg. Organization manual
c) QC manual, Section II- maintenance d) Quality assurance manual

123. Name the manual that contains the procedure for use spares under a pool
agreement
a) Maintenance system manual b) Aircraft Manual
c) Engg. Organization Manual d) None of the above

124. A list containing current life of every major component shall be reflected in
a) QC manual b) QA manual c) EO Manual d) None of above

125. The approval of an AO valid up to

12 months from the date of issue / renewal
Valid up to 31 Dec of the year in which issued/renewed
As in (b) subjected to comply with regulation and requirements
As in (C) and payment of any charges prescribed by DGCA

126. Kingfisher Airlines will start scheduled airlines operation from April 2005 with
Airbus A-320 aircraft. They have an approved QCM who has 10 years experience
in A-320 aircraft. Their inspection schedules shall be approved by
a) QCM b) Sub-RAWOc) DGCA HQs. d) none of these

127. Mark the correct statement, if any.

a) The inspection schedule of organization approved in Cat D will be approved
by QCM if it has more than 03 years experience
b) DGCA HQs shall approve inspection schedule of Cat E organizations.
c) Once approved no item of inspection can be removed from inspection
schedules of Cat A organizations.
d) All correct statements.

128. CAR Series E Part VII deals with

a) Fuels & lubricants b) Stores c) AMO d) Test laboratories
 16

129. Organizations approved in Cat D shall issue

a) Certificate of manufacture b) Release notes
c) Certificate of maintenance d) None of these.

130. Organizations seeking approval in Cat D shall have to meet the requirements laid
down in
a) CAR Series E Part VII b) CAR Series E Part II
c) CAR Series E Part I d) CAR Series E Part IV

131. Mark the correct statement, if any.

The third copy of release note will be sent to RAWO
The fourth copy of rejection note will be sent to RAWO
When a new certificate of approval is issued, previously issued certificate is to be
returned to the RAWO.
All correct statements.

132. Petroleum in bulk means

a) Petroleum contained in a container exceeding 900 ltrs. in capacity.
b) Petroleum in a receptacle in excess of 1900 ltrs.
c) Petroleum in a receptacle exceeding 900 gallons in capacity.
d) None of these.

133. Which organization needs an approval from Chief Inspector of Explosives, in

addition to approvals from DGCA?
a) Cat A b) Cat E c) Cat D
d) All approvals are granted by DGCA, no additional approval needed.

134. Organizations approved in Cat E will issue a voucher to the customer with each
consignment of aviation fuel delivered by it into an aircraft in order to certify
a) Quantity b) Quality c) Airworthiness requirements d) none of these

135. Release notes shall be preserved by approved stores organizations for at least
a) Ten years b) Five years c) Two years d) One year

136. Rule____ specifies that applicants who have passed a course from DGCA
approved institute will be granted one year relaxation in total aeronautical
experience for grant of AME license.
a) 60 b) 61 c) 62 d) 63

137. Instructors in a training school shall be approved by

a) Chief Instructor b) local airworthiness office where school is situated
c) RAWO c) none of the above

138. Which of the following is not part of training manual?

Names and experience of all regular instructors
Names and address of all students semester wise
Details of practical training to be imparted
All above are parts of training manual.
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139. Mark the correct statements, if any.

a) Cat D organizations shall preserve their records for five years.
b) Cat G organizations shall preserve their records for five years.
c) Cat F organizations shall preserve their records for five years.
d) All are correct statements.

140. The quantity of unusable fuel is to be determined if not available in the flight
manual before
a) C of A renewal b) Type certification of aircraft
c) Complete overhaul of aircraft d) All of the above

141. Fuelling operations shall be stopped whenever jet efflux of turbo-propeller engine
is with in
30 mtrs from refueling point/refuelling eqpt. / vent
As in a) within 15 mtrs.
As in a) within 43 mtrs.
None of these.

142. Who will furnish the fuelling company personnel with information regarding
correct procedure of fuelling and precautions to be observed for a type of aircraft?
a) QCM of the fuelling company b) The manufacturer
c) Aircraft operator d) none of these

143. To prevent water remaining in the tanks all the filters should be purged once in
a) 02 weeks b) Every week c) Every month d) Every day

144. Mark the incorrect statement, if any.

a) The aircraft shall not be refuelled with in 30 mtrs of radar equipment under
test.
b) The aircraft wheel chocks are placed properly and aircraft brakes are applied
before refuelling is started.
c) The refuelling equipment shall follow oblique approach to the aircraft by
reversing the equipment towards the aircraft.
d) No incorrect statement.

145. Mark the correct statement, if any.

Over wing refuelling shall be carried out during electrical storms only if the
aircraft is properly earthed and bonded to the aircraft.
During refuelling, the refuelling valve will be opened first and ensured that the
fuel flows into the aircraft. Only after that bonding connections will be made
to ensure safety.
Both a) & b) are correct d) both a) & b) are incorrect.

146. Drag chains are used during refuelling for

a) To hold the aircraft firmly to prevent it from moving during refuelling.
b) To hold the refuelling equipment firmly to prevent it from rolling and
damaging/harming aircraft and personnel during refuelling.
c) Static electricity discharge bonding.
d) Earthing.
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147. Recorded data such as fuel flow Vs TAS in case of jet engine public transport
aircraft shall be evaluated against
a) Alert values suggested by operator b) Alert values approved by DGCA
c) Alert values every month d) All are correct

148. Mark the correct statement, if any.

Fixed wing aircrafts and Helicopter with a seating capacity of greater than 20
shall be permitted to be refueled with passengers on board.
During refueling only strobe lighting of all types will be permitted to be operated.
In case of a fuel spillage covering an area greater than 5 sq. mtrs, fuelling
operations shall stop.
All the above are correct statements.

149. Barrelled AVGAS if remains unused for ___ period should be lab tested before
use.
a) Six weeks b) Six months c) Six years d) none of these

150. In checking the aircraft wheels for high temperature the wheels shall be
approached from the
a) Front & back c) Left side or right side
c) Top side d) No such restrictions
Essay type questions: (Marks)

01. What are the conditions for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition? (03)
02. What is the objective of airworthiness directorate? (02)
03. What is critical shut down? (02)
04. What are the conditions for employing a foreign AME before he certifies an aircraft?
(03)
05. What recommendations does the airworthiness authority give when adverse trends are
observed in any operator’s maintenance standards? (04)
06. What is the aim of safety oversight programme? (02)
07. Name examples of at least 05 situations that indicate negative trends in maintenance
standards? (04)
08. Through which statutory/regulatory documents does the DGCA ensure the Safety
oversight of an operator? (03)
09. Write short notes on conditions for using MEL? (03)
10. What does preamble of MEL contain? (04)
 19

12. Define the following.

a) Condition monitoring
b) Emergency check list
c) Damage tolerant
d) Quality control
e) Certificate of maintenance
f) Aircraft components
g) Maintenance
h) Approved organization
i) Defect
j) Scheduled operator
k) Certificate of Manufacture
l) FRC (2 Marks each)

13. What is the content of the report, which an operator shall submit to RAWO within 24
hours in case of a mechanical delay of 15 minutes or more for dispatch? (05)
14. What details does the fleet performance & engg. statistics report of a scheduled
operator contain and at what periodicity shall they prepare it? (05)
15. Name at least 03 defects classified as group I defects? (03)
16. List out at least 03 defects classified as group II defects? (03)
17. What are the primary sources of information for maintenance control by reliability?

(04)
18. Briefly explain the action to be taken if any system of an aircraft is above alert value.
(05)
19. What changes in maintenance control reliability method will require prior approval of
DGCA? (05)
20. What shall the RAWO do when any operator’s engine reliability index is above alert
value? (03)
21. What corrective programme will be undertaken by the operator when his engine
reliability index is above alert value? (04)
22. At what periodicity will the average fuel and oil consumption of LA engine be
entered in engine logbook? (03)
 20

23. List out the input parameters for on condition maintenance of piston engines (10)
24. What factors will be kept in view while determining proven service life of an
aircraft/component? (07)
25. Under which conditions can an operator apply for upward revision of maintenance
periods/TBO’s? (03)
26. Define briefly the categories in which DGCA grants approval to aviation
organizations and the scope of each category. (06)
27. Who can become an Accountable Manager and explain his duties briefly? (04)
28. Write short notes on QCM. (03)
29. Who needs a nodal officer and what are his qualification and experience
requirements? (03)
30. List out the manuals required to be prepared by the organizations seeking approval
and who approves them? (06)
31. What is the content of Engineering organization manual? (03)
32. Write any 05 points to be covered in MSM. (05)
33. What is the requirement for approval remaining valid? (04)
34. What is release note? Who can issue release notes? Write distribution of release
notes. (05)
35. What is rejection note? Who can issue rejection notes? Write the distribution of
rejection notes (05)
36. What changes in the organization shall be notified to DGCA by AO? (03)
37. Write briefly the contents of QC manual. (04)
38. What is the difference between bonded stores and quarantine stores? (04)
39. What is the qualification requirement for CI of an AME school? (03)
40. What documents are required in a night halt station? (04)
41. Briefly explain the method of determination of unusable fuel in case of light aircrafts
below 5700 Kgs. AUW. (04)
42. What are the conditions for refuelling an aircraft with passengers on board? (03)
43. What is the grade of filter required for AVGAS and ATF tank installations? (04)
44. What are the occasions when the sampling of fuel should be carried out from a tank
or sump? (03)
45. What are the checks to be carried out on a new hose to be used on fuel installations?
 21

(03)
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