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Database Management System

1. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database
system?
a) Database application and the database b) Data and the database
c) The user and the database application d) Database application and SQL

2. Which of the following products was an early implementation of the relational model developed by
E.F. Codd of IBM?
a) IDMS b) DB2 c) dBase-II d) R:base

3. The following are components of a database except ________ .
a) User data b) metadata c) reports d) indexes

4.An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a(n) ___.
a) single-user database application b) multiuser database application
c) e-commerce database application d) data mining database application

5. An on-line commercial site such as Amazon.com is an example of a(n) ________ .
a) single-user database application b) multiuser database application
c) e-commerce database application d) data mining database application

6. Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC DBMS?
a) IDMS b) Oracle c) dBase-II d) R:base

7. SQL stands for ________ .
a) Structured Query Language b) Sequential Query Language
c) Structured Question Language d) Sequential Question Language

8. Because it contains a description of its own structure, a database is considered to be ________ .
a) described b) metadata compatible
c) self-describing d) an application program

9. The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .
a) Creating and processing forms b) creating databases
c) Processing data d) administrating databases

10. Helping people keep track of things is the purpose of a(n) ________ .
a) database b) table c) instance d) relationship

11. Which of the following products implemented the CODASYL DBTG model?
a) IDMS b) DB2 c) dBase-II d) R:base



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12.An Enterprise Resource Planning application is an example of a(n) ________ .
a) single-user database application b) multiuser database application
c) e-commerce database application d) data mining database application

13. A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is ________ .
a) Microsoft's SQL Server b) Microsoft's Access
c) IBM's DB2 d) Oracle Corporation's Oracle

14. You have run an SQL statement that asked the DBMS to display data in a table named
USER_TABLES. The results include columns of data labeled "TableName,"
"NumberOfColumns" and "PrimaryKey." You are looking at ________ .
a) user data b) metadata c) A report d) indexes

15. Which of the following is not considered to be a basic element of an enterprise-class database
system?
a) Users b) Database applications c) DBMS d) COBOL programs

16. The DBMS that is most difficult to use is ________ .
a) Microsoft's SQL Server b) Microsoft's Access
c) IBM's DB2 d) Oracle Corporation's Oracle

17. Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute B, but not the same
value of attribute C) Therefore, it is true that:
a) A ? B) b) A ? C) c) A ? (B,C). d) (B,C) ? A)

18. The different classes of relations created by the technique for preventing modification anomalies
are called:
a) normal forms. b) referential integrity constraints.
c) functional dependencies. d) None of the above is correct.

19. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies:
a) second normal form. b) third normal form.
c) fourth normal form. d) domain/key normal form.

20. Row is synonymous with the term:
a) record. b) relation. c) column. d) field.

21. The primary key is selected from the:
a) composite keys. b) determinants. c) candidate keys. d) foreign keys.

22. Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?
a) Key b) Determinant c) Tuple d) Relation


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23. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of
one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):
a) transitive dependency. b) insertion anomaly.
c) referential integrity constraint. d) normal form.

24. A relation is considered a:
a) Column. b) one-dimensional table.
c) two-dimensional table. d) three-dimensional table.

25. In the relational model, relationships between relations or tables are created by using:
a) composite keys. b) determinants. c) candidate keys. d) foreign keys.

26. A functional dependency is a relationship between or among:
a) tables. b) rows. c) relations. d) attributes.

27. Table is synonymous with the term:
a) record. b) relation. c) column. d) field.

28. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?
a) The cells of the table must contain a single value.
b) All of the entries in any column must be of the same kind.
c) The columns must be ordered.
d) No two rows in a table may be identical.

28. For some relations, changing the data can have undesirable consequences called:
a) referential integrity constraints. b) modification anomalies.
c) normal forms. d) transitive dependencies.

29. A key:
a) must always be composed of two or more columns. b) can only be one column.
c) identifies a row. d) identifies a column.

30. An attribute is a(n):
a) column of a table. b) two dimensional table.
c) row of a table. d) key of a table.

31. A relation in this form is free of all modification anomalies.
a) First normal form b) Second normal form
c) Third normal form d) Domain/key normal form

32. If attributes A and B determine attribute C, then it is also true that:
a) A ? C) b) B ? C)
c) (A,B) is a composite determinant. d) C is a determinant.



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33. A tuple is a(n):
a) column of a table. b) two dimensional table.
c) row of a table. d) key of a table.

34. If attribute A determines both attributes B and C, then it is also true that:
a) A ? B) b) B ? A)
c) C ? A) d) (B,C) ? A)

35. One solution to the multivalued dependency constraint problem is to:
a) split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme.
b) change the theme. c) create a new theme. d) add a composite key.

36. Which of the following indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a
relationship?
a) Minimum cardinality b) Maximum cardinality
c) ERD d) Greater Entity Count (GEC)

37. Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also exists in the
database, but does not require that the identifier of that other entity be included as part of its own
identifier?
a) Weak entity b) Strong entity c) ID-dependent entity d) ID- independent entity

38.In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the one side of the relationship is called a(n)
________ entity.
a) parent b) child c) instance d) subtype

39. which type of entity represents an actual occurrence of an associated generalized entity?
a) Supertype entity b) Subtype entity c) Archetype entity d) Instance entity

40. A recursive relationship is a relationship between an entity and ________ .
a) itself b) a subtype entity c) an archetype entity d) an instance entity

41. Which of the following indicates the minimum number of entities that must be involved in a
relationship?
a) Minimum cardinality b) Maximum cardinality c) ERD d) Greater Entity Count (GEC)

42. Which of the following refers to something that can be identified in the users' work environment,
something that the users want to track?
a) Entity b) Attribute c) Identifier d) Relationship

43. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity instances of
another type?
a) One-to-One Relationship b) One-to-Many Relationship
c) Many-to-Many Relationship d) Composite Relationship

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44. Which of the following refers to an entity in which the identifier of one entity includes the
identifier of another entity?
a) Weak entity b) Strong entity c) ID-dependent entity d) ID-independent entity

45. Which type of entity is related to two or more associated entities that each contain specialized
attributes that apply to some but not all of the instances of the entity?
a) Supertype entity b) Subtype entity c) Archetype entity d) Instance entity

46. An attribute that names or identifies entity instances is a(n):
a) entity. b) attribute. c) identifier. d) relationship.

47. Properties that describe the characteristics of entities are called:
a) entities. b) attributes. c) identifiers. d) relationships.

48. In which of the following can many entity instances of one type be related to many entity
instances of another type?
a) One-to-One Relationship b) One-to-Many Relationship
c) Many-to-Many Relationship d) Composite Relationship

49. Entities of a given type are grouped into a(n):
a) database. b) entity class. c) attribute. d) ERD.

50.Which of the following is NOT a basic element of all versions of the E-R model?
a) Entities b) Attributes c) Relationships d) Primary keys

51. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type of related to a single-entity
instance of another type?
a) One-to-One Relationship b) One-to-Many Relationship
c) Many-to-Many Relationship d) Composite Relationship

52. Entities can be associated with one another in which of the following?
a) Entities b) Attributes c) Identifiers d) Relationships

53. Which type of entity has its relationship to another entity determined by an attribute in that other
entity called a discriminator?
a) Supertype entity b) Subtype entity c) Archetype entity d) Instance entity

54. Which type of entity represents a logical generalization whose actual occurrence is represented
by a second, associated entity?
a) Supertype entity b) Subtype entity c) Archetype entity d) Instance entity

55.In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the many side of the relationship is called a(n)
________ entity.
a) parent b) child c) instance d) subtype


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56. The SQL command to create a table is:
a) MAKE TABLE. b) ALTER TABLE. c) DEFINE TABLE. d) CREATE TABLE.

57. A ________ is a stored program that is attached to a table or a view.
a) pseudofile b) embedded SELECT statement
c) trigger d) None of the above is correct.

58. The DROP TABLE statement:
a) deletes the table structure only. b) deletes the table structure along with the table data)
c) works whether or not referential integrity constraints would be violated.
d) is not an SQL statement.

59.SQL views can be used to hide:
a) columns and rows only. b) complicated SQL syntax only.
c) both of the above can be hidden by an SQL view. d) None of the above is correct.

60.The SQL statement to create a view is:
a) CREATE VIEW. b) MAKE VIEW. c) SELECT VIEW. d) INSERT VIEW.

61. To update an SQL view, the DBMS must be able to associate the column(s) to be updated with:
a) a particular column in a particular underlying table.
b) a particular column in a particular row.
c) a particular row in a particular underlying table.
d) None of the above is correct.

62. Which of the following is NOT a type of SQL constraint?
a) PRIMARY KEY b) FOREIGN KEY c) ALTERNATE KEY d) UNIQUE

63. A ________ is a program that performs some common action on database data and that is stored in
the database.
a) trigger b) stored procedure c) pseudofile d) None of the above is correct.

64. For what purposes are views used?
a) To hide columns only b) To hide rows only
c) To hide complicated SQL statements only d) All of the above are uses for SQL views.

65. What is an SQL virtual table that is constructed from other tables?
a) Just another table b) A view c) A relation d) Query results

66. When using the SQL INSERT statement:
a) rows can be modified according to criteria only
b) rows cannot be copied in mass from one table to another only.
c) rows can be inserted into a table only one at a time only.
d) rows can either be inserted into a table one at a time or in groups.


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67. What is not an advantage of stored procedures?
a) Greater security b) SQL can be optimized
c) Code sharing d) Increased network traffic

68. A reason for using an SQL view to hide columns is:
a) to simplify a result only. b) to prevent the display of sensitive data only.
c) to accomplish both of the above. d) None of the above are reasons for using an SQL view.

69. Which of the following is an SQL trigger supported by Oracle?
a) BEFORE b) INSTEAD OF c) AFTER d) All of the above.

70. The SQL ALTER statement can be used to:
a) change the table structure. b) change the table data)
c) add rows to the table. d) delete rows from the table.

71. What SQL structure is used to limit column values of a table?
a) The LIMIT constraint b) The CHECK constraint
c) The VALUE constraint d) None of the above is correct.

72. Which is NOT one of the most common types of SQL CHECK constraints?
a) System date b) Range checks c) Lists of values
d) Comparing one column value to another within the same table

73.What is an advantage of placing computations in SQL views?
a) To save users from having to write an expression.
b) To ensure that the results are consistent.
c) To accomplish both of the above.
d) None of the above is correct - computations cannot be placed in a view.

74.Views constructed from SQL SELECT statements that conform to the SQL-92 standard may not
contain:
a) GROUP BY. b) WHERE. c) ORDER BY. d) FROM.

75. Which of the following database activities allow for the actual retrieval and use of a database?
a) Enterprise modeling b) Logical database design
c) Physical database design and definition d) Database implementation

76. The three-schema components include all, but:
a) internal schema) b) conceptual schema) c) programming schema) d) external
schema)

77. Which is not a type of data management technology?
a) Relational b) Rational c) Object-oriented d) Dimensional


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78. Which is not a relevant feature of CASE tools?
a) The ability to help draw data models using entity-relationship notations
b) The ability to generate code
c) An information repository d) Access to a DB via the Internet

79. The first step in database development is which of the following?
a) Enterprise data modeling b) Logical database design
c) Physical database design and definition d) Database Implementation

80. Which of the following database activities determines the entities, attributes, and relationships of
data?
a) Conceptual data modeling b) Logical database design
c) Physical database design and definition d) Database implementation

81. The use of packaged data models can offer which of the following benefits?
a) Reduce implementation time and costs b) Higher quality models
c) Both A and B) d) Neither A nor B)

82. The Enterprise tier of the three-tiered database architecture includes:
a) managing the data) b) managing the User-system interface.
c) processing HTTP protocol. d) processing scripting tasks.

83. An entity type is which of the following?
a) A major category of data about people, place, and things
b) The various departments of an organization c) The application software
d) The business processes the support the mission of an organization

84. Strategic Planning factors do not include which of the following?
a) Organizational goals b) Critical success factors
c) Information engineering d) Problem areas

85. CASE tools do not include which of the following features?
a) Help to draw data models b) Help to generate code
c) Help to manage people d) Create an information repository

86. In enterprise data modeling, which is incorrect?
a) You review current systems. b) You implement the new database.
c) You describe the data needed at a very high level of abstraction.
d) You plan one or more database development projects.

87. Which of the following database activities require a specific knowledge of a DBMS?
a) Enterprise modeling b) Conceptual data modeling
c). Logical database design d) Physical database design and definition


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88. You can add a row using SQL in a database with which of the following?
a) ADD b) CREATE c) INSERT d) MAKE

89. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is:
a) REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER ... b) DROP FROM CUSTOMER ...
c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER WHERE ... d) UPDATE FROM CUSTOMER ...

90. The SQL WHERE clause:
a) limits the column data that are returned. b) limits the row data are returned.
c) Both A and B are correct. d) Neither A nor B are correct.

91. Which of the following is the original purpose of SQL?
a)To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL data definition language
b) To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL manipulation language
c) To define the data structures d) All of the above.

92. A view is which of the following?
a) A virtual table that can be accessed via SQL commands
b) A virtual table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands
c) A base table that can be accessed via SQL commands
d) A base table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands

93. The command to eliminate a table from a database is:
a) REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER; b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER;
c)DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER; d) UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER;

94. ON UPDATE CASCADE ensures which of the following?
a) Normalization b) Data Integrity c)Materialized Views D. All of the above.

95. SQL data definition commands make up a(n) ________ .
a) DDL b) DML c) HTML d) XML

96. Which of the following is valid SQL for an Index?
a) CREATE INDEX ID; b) CHANGE INDEX ID;
c) ADD INDEX ID; d) REMOVE INDEX ID;

97. User views are included as part of which schema?
a) Internal b) Conceptual c)External d) None of the above.

98. Whose role is it to determine the requirements and design for a database?
a) Database analysts b) Database administrators
c) Both A and B) d) Neither A or B)


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99. The SQL keyword(s) ________ is used with wildcards.
a) LIKE only b) IN only c)NOT IN only d) IN and NOT IN

100. Which of the following is the correct order of keywords for SQL SELECT statements?
a) SELECT, FROM, WHERE b) FROM, WHERE, SELECT
c)WHERE, FROM,SELECT d) SELECT,WHERE,FROM

101. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed in:
a)braces -- {...}. b) CAPITAL LETTERS.
c) parenthesis -- (...) . d) brackets -- [...].

102. The result of a SQL SELECT statement is a(n) ________ .
a) report b) form c)file d)table

103. Which of the following are the five built-in functions provided by SQL?
a) COUNT, SUM, AVG, MAX, MIN b) SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, MULT
c) SUM, AVG, MULT, DIV, MIN d) SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, NAME

104. To remove duplicate rows from the results of an SQL SELECT statement, the ________ qualifier
specified must be included.
a) ONLY b) UNIQUE c)DISTINCT d) SINGLE

105. The benefits of a standard relational language include which of the following?
a) Reduced training costs b) Increased dependence on a single vendor
c) Applications are not needed. d) All of the above.

106. Which of the following do you need to consider when you make a table in SQL?
a) Data types b) Primary keys
c)Default values d) All of the above.

107.SQL query and modification commands make up a(n) ________ .
a) DDL b) DML c) HTML d) XML

108. When three or more AND and OR conditions are combined, it is easier to use the SQL
keyword(s):
a) LIKE only. b) IN only. c) NOT IN only. d) Both IN and NOT IN.

109. The Microsoft Access wildcards are ____ and ____ .
a) asterisk (*); percent sign (%) b) percent sign (%); underscore (_)
c) underscore(_); question mark (?) d) question mark (?); asterisk (*)



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110. Find the SQL statement below that is equal to the following: SELECT NAME FROM
CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA';
a) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');
b) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA';
c) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'V';
d) SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');

111. Which one of the following sorts rows in SQL?
a) SORT BY b) ALIGN BY c)ORDER BY d)GROUP BY

112.To sort the results of a query use:
a) SORT BY. b) GROUP BY. c)ORDER BY. d) None of the above is correct.

113. To define what columns should be displayed in an SQL SELECT statement:
a) use FROM to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT.
b) use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT.
c) use SELECT to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after USING.
d) use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after WHERE.

114.SQL can be used to:
a) create database structures only. b) query database data only.
c) modify database data only. d) All of the above can be done by SQL.

115. The SQL keyword BETWEEN is used:
a) for ranges. b) to limit the columns displayed.
c) as a wildcard. d) None of the above is correct.

116. A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement:
a) can only be used with two tables.
b) can always be duplicated by a join.
c) has a distinct form that cannot be duplicated by a join.
d)cannot have its results sorted using ORDER BY.

117.________ was adopted as a national standard by ANSI in 1992.
a) Oracle b) SQL C) Microsoft Access d). DBase

118. SQL is:
a) a programming language. b) an operating system.
c) a data sublanguage. d) a DBMS.

119. Needing to using more complicated SQL in database applications is a(n) ________ of
normalization.
a) advantage b) disadvantage
c)either an advantage or disadvantage d) neither an advantage nor disadvantage


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120.Eliminating modification anomalies is a(n) ________ of normalization.
a) advantage b) disadvantage
c) either an advantage or disadvantage d) neither an advantage nor disadvantage

121. Multivalued dependencies should ________ be eliminated.
a) always b) commonly c)seldom d)never

122. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, accessing the validity of
possible referential integrity constraints on foreign keys is (part of) the:
a) first step. b) second step. c)third step. d) fourth step.

123. Using the SQL GROUP BY phrase with a SELECT statement can help detect which of the
following problems?
a) The multivalue, multicolumn problem b) The inconsistent values problem
c)The missing values problem d) The general-purpose remarks column problem

124. For a number of reasons, normalizations is not often an advantage for a(n) ________ database.
a) read-only b) updateable
c) either a read-only or an updateable d) None of the above is correct.

125. Most of the time, modification anomalies are serious enough that tables should be normalized
into:
a) 1NF. b) 2NF. c)3NF. d)BCNF.

126. A ________ is a stored program that is attached to a table or a view.
a) pseudofile b) embedded SELECT statement
c) trigger d) None of the above is correct.

127. The DROP TABLE statement:
a) deletes the table structure only.
b) deletes the table structure along with the table data)
c) works whether or not referential integrity constraints would be violated.
d) is not an SQL statement.

128.SQL views can be used to hide:
a) columns and rows only. b) complicated SQL syntax only.
c) both of the above can be hidden by an SQL view. d) None of the above is correct.

129. The SQL statement to create a view is:
a) CREATE VIEW. b) MAKE VIEW.
c) SELECT VIEW. d) INSERT VIEW.



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130. To update an SQL view, the DBMS must be able to associate the column(s) to be updated with:
a) a particular column in a particular underlying table.
b) a particular column in a particular row.
c)a particular row in a particular underlying table.
d) None of the above is correct.

131. Which of the following is NOT a type of SQL constraint?
a) PRIMARY KEY b) FOREIGN KEY C) ALTERNATE KEY d) UNIQUE

132. A ________ is a program that performs some common action on database data and that is stored
in the database.
a) trigger b) stored procedure c)pseudofile d)None of the above is correct.

133. For what purposes are views used?
a) To hide columns only b) To hide rows only
c) To hide complicated SQL statements only d) All of the above are uses for SQL views.

134.What is an SQL virtual table that is constructed from other tables?
a) Just another table b) A view c)A relation d)Query results

135. When using the SQL INSERT statement:
a) rows can be modified according to criteria only.
b) rows cannot be copied in mass from one table to another only.
c)rows can be inserted into a table only one at a time only.
d) rows can either be inserted into a table one at a time or in groups.

136. What is not an advantage of stored procedures?
a) Greater security b) SQL can be optimized
c) Code sharing d) Increased network traffic

137. A reason for using an SQL view to hide columns is:
a) to simplify a result only. b) to prevent the display of sensitive data only.
c) to accomplish both of the above. d) None of the above are reasons for using an SQL view.

138. Which of the following is an SQL trigger supported by Oracle?
a) BEFORE b) INSTEAD OF C) AFTER d) All of the above.

139.The SQL ALTER statement can be used to:
a) change the table structure. b) change the table data)
c) add rows to the table. d) delete rows from the table.

140. What SQL structure is used to limit column values of a table?
a) The LIMIT constraint b) The CHECK constraint
c) The VALUE constraint d) None of the above is correct.


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141. Which is NOT one of the most common types of SQL CHECK constraints?
a) System date b) Range checks c). Lists of values
d). Comparing one column value to another within the same table

142. What is an advantage of placing computations in SQL views?
a) To save users from having to write an expression.
b) To ensure that the results are consistent.
c)To accomplish both of the above.
d) None of the above is correct - computations cannot be placed in a view.

143. Views constructed from SQL SELECT statements that conform to the SQL-92 standard may not
contain:
a) GROUP BY. b) WHERE. c) ORDER BY. d)FROM.

144.In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:
a) Number of tuples. b) Number of attributes.
c)Number of tables. d)Number of constraints.

145.Relational calculus is a
a) Procedural language. b) Non- Procedural language.
c)Data definition language. d)High level language.

146.The view of total database content is
a) Conceptual view. b) Internal view. c)External view. d)Physical View.

147.Cartesian product in relational algebra is
a) a Unary operator. b) a Binary operator. c)a Ternary operator. d)not defined.

148.DML is provided for
a) Description of logical structure of database.
b) Addition of new structures in the database system.
c)Manipulation & processing of database.
d)Definition of physical structure of database system.

149.AS clause is used in SQL for
a) Selection operation. b) Rename operation.
c)Join operation. d)Projection operation.

150.ODBC stands for
a) Object Database Connectivity. b) Oral Database Connectivity.
c)Oracle Database Connectivity. d)Open Database Connectivity.

151.Architecture of the database can be viewed as
a) two levels. b) four levels. c)three levels. d)one level.


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152.In a relational model, relations are termed as
a)Tuples. b)Attributes c)Tables. d)Rows.

153 The database schema is written in
a)HLL b)DML c)DDL d)DCL

154.In the architecture of a database system external l evel is the
a)physical level. b)logical level. c)conceptual level d)view level.

155.An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a
a)strong entity set. b)weak entity set. c)simple entity set. d)primary entity set.

156.In aHierarchical model records are organized as
a)Graph. b)List. c)Links. d)Tree.

157.In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
a)rectangle. b)square. c)ellipse. d) triangle.

158.In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be
a)not Null b)Null c)both Null & not Null. d)any value.

159.The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the
a)DML b)DDL c)VDL d)SDL

160. A logical schema
a)is the entire database.
b)is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
c)describes how data is actually stored on disk.
d) both (A) and (C)

161.Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
a)data file. b)data record. c)menu. d)bank.

162.The database environment has all of the following components except:
a)users. b)separate files. c)database. d)database administrator.

163.The language which has recently become the defactostandard for interfacing application programs
with relational database system is
a)Oracle. b)SQL. c)DBase. d)4GL.

164.The way a particular application views the data from the database that the applicationuses is a
a)module. b)relational model. c)schema) d)sub schema)



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165.In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a
a)rectangle. b)ellipse. c)diamond box. d)circle.

166. report generator is used to
a)update files. b)print files on paper. c)data entry. d)delete files.

167.The property / properties of a database is / are :
a)It is an integrated collection of logically related records.
b)It consolidates separate files into a common pool of data records.
c)Data stored in a database is independent of the application programs using it.
d)All of the above.

168.The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is
a)The data definition language (DDL). b)The data manipulation language (DML).
c)The database administrator (DBA). d)A query language.

169.A relational database developer refers to a record as
a)a criteria) b)a relation. c)a tuple. d)an attribute.

170.Which of these query will display the the table given above ?
a) Select employee from name b) Select name
c) Select name from employee d) Select employee

171. Select ________ dept_name from instructor;
Here which of the following displays the unique values of the column ?
a) All b) From c) Distinct d) Name

172. The ______ clause allows us to select only those rows in the result relation of the ____ clause that
satisfy a specified predicate.
a) Where, from b) From, select c) Select, from d) From, where

173. Select ID, name, dept name, salary * 1.1 where instructor;
The query given below will not give an error. Which one of the following has to be replaced to get the
desired output?
a) Salary*1.1 b) ID c) Where d) Instructor
.
174. The ________ clause is used to list the attributes desired in the result of a query.
a) Where b) Select c) From d) Distinct

175. Select name, course_id from instructor, teaches where instructor_ID= teaches_ID;
This Query can be replaced by which one of the following ?
a) Select name,course_id from teaches,instructor where instructor_id=course_id;
b) Select name, course_id from instructor natural join teaches;
c) Select name ,course_id from instructor; d) Select course_id from instructor join teaches;

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176. Select * from employee where salary>10000 and dept_id=101;
Which of the following fields are displayed as output?
a) Salary, dept_id b) Employee c) Salary d) All the field of employee relation

177. The union operation is represented by
a) n b) U c) - d) *

178. The intersection operator is used to get the _____ tuples.
a) Different b) Common c) All d) Repeating

179. The union operation automatically __________, unlike the select clause.
a) Adds tuples b) Eliminates unique tuples
c) Adds common tuples d) Eliminates duplicate

180. If we want to retain all duplicates, we must write ________ in place of union.
a) Union all b) Union some c) Intersect all d) Intersect some

181. (Select course id from section where semester = Fall and year= 2009)
Except (select course id from section where semester = Spring and year= 2010);
This query displays
a) Only tuples from second part
b) Only tuples from the first part which has the tuples from second part
c) Tuples from both the parts
d) Tuples from first part which do not have second part

182. For like predicate which of the following is true.
i) % matches zero of more characters. ii) _ matches exactly one character.
a) i-only b) ii-only c) Both of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned

183. The number of attributes in relation is called as its
a) Cardinality b) Degree c) Tuples d) Entity

184. _____ clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
a) Select b) Group-by c) Having d) Order by

185. _________ joins are SQL server default
a) Outer b) Inner c) Equi d) None of the mentioned

186. The _____________ is essentially used to search for patterns in target string.
a) Like Predicate b) Null Predicate c) In Predicate d) Out Predicate

187. A _____ indicates an absent value that may exist but be unknown or that may not exist at all.
a) Empty tuple b) New value c) Null value d) Old value
188. If the attribute phone number is included in the relation all the values need not be entered into the
phone number column . This type of entry is given as
a) 0 b) - c) Null d) Empty space
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189. The predicate in a where clause can involve Boolean operations such as and.The result of true and
unknown is_______, false and unknown is _____, while unknown and unknown is _____.
a) Unknown, unknown, false b) True, false, unknown
c) True, unknown, unknown d) Unknown, false, unknown

190. The result of _____unknown is unknown.
a) XOR b) OR c) AND d) NOT

191. Count function in SQL returns the number of
a) Values. b) Distinct values. c) Groups. d) Columns.

192. Which one of the following statements is false?
a) The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator.
b) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.
c) The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.
d) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.

193. An advantage of the database management approach is
a) Data is dependent on programs.
b) Data redundancy increases.
c) Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
d) None of the above.

194. A DBMS query language is designed to
a) Support end users who use English-like commands.
b) Support in the development of complex applications software.
c) Specify the structure of a database. d) all of the above.

195. The method of access which uses key transformation is known as
a) Direct. b) Hash. c) Random. d) Sequential.

196. The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
a) Alter. b) Update. c) Create. d) Select.

197. Relational Algebra is
a) Data Definition Language. b) Meta Language
c) Procedural query Language d) None of the above

198. Key to represent relationship between tables is called
a) Primary key b) Secondary Key
c) Foreign Key d) None of these




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198. DBMS helps achieve
a) Data independence b) Centralized control of data
c) Neither (A) nor (B) d) Both (A) and (B)

199. Which of the following are the properties of entities?
a) Groups b) Table c) Attributes d) Switchboards

200. Which of the following is correct?
a) A SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
b) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.
c) A SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations
d) None of these

201. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are
a) Stringent real-time requirements. b) Multiple users wish to access the data)
c) Complex relationships among data) d) All of the above.

202.Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
a) CHARACTER b) NUMERIC c) FLOAT d) All of the above

203. Which of the following is an advantage of view?
a) Data security b) Derived columns
c) Hiding of complex queries d) All of the above

204. Which database level is closest to the users?
a) External b) Internal c) Physical d) Conceptual

205. A set of possible data values is called
a) Attribute. b) Degree. c) Tuple. d) Domain.

206.Which of the following is another name for weak entity?
a) Child b) Owner c) Dominant d) All of the above

207. Which of the following database object does not physically exist?
a) Base table b) Index c) View d) None of the above

208. A data dictionary is a special file that contains:
a) The name of all fields in all files. b) The width of all fields in all files.
c) The data type of all fields in all files. d) All of the above.



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209. A primary key is combined with a foreign key creates
a) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.
b) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect.
c) Network model between the tables that connect them.
d) None of the above.

210. Which one of the following is not true for a view:
a) View is derived from other tables.
b) View is a virtual table.
c) A view definition is permanently stored as part of the database.
d) View never contains derived columns.

211. Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?
a) Query languages and utilities b) DML and query language
c) Data dictionary and transaction log d) Data dictionary and query language

212.which data type can store unstructured data
a) RAW b) CHAR c) NUMERIC d) VARCHAR

213. In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:
a) Number of tuples. b) Number of attributes.
c) Number of tables. d) Number of constraints.

214. Relational calculus is a
a) Procedural language. b) Non- Procedural language.
c) Data definition language. d) High level language.

215. The view of total database content is
a) Conceptual view. b) Internal view.
c) External view. d) Physical View.

216. The SQL command to create a table is:
a) MAKE TABLE. b) ALTER TABLE. c) DEFINE TABLE. d) CREATE TABLE.