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SAMPLE PAPER FOR PRACTICE

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam


For Class 10 going to 11
Paper 1
I.Q, Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics
Time: 3 Hours

Maximum Marks: 270

Important Instruction
Question Paper Code (Q.P Code as Mentioned on Top) MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Mentioning wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
1. This Question Paper contains 5 Sections. All questions will be Multiple Choice questions out of four choices
with marking scheme in table below:
Section

Subject

Question Nos.

Section - I

I.Q
Physics
Chemistry
Mathematics

Q. No. 1 to 30
Q. No. 31 to 50
Q. No. 51 to 70
Q. No. 71 to 90

Section - II

2.
3.
4.
5.

Marking Scheme for each questions


Correct Answer
Wrong Answer
+3
-1
+3
-1
+3
-1
+3
-1

The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices,
in any form, are not allowed.
Write your Name, Registration No. and Test Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet.

Name of the Candidate

______________________________________________________________

Exam Centre

_________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

Registration Number

______________________________________________________________

Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

Page - 2

Section I

IQ

Straight objective Type


This section contains 30 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 30. Each question has 4 choices
(A) (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.
1.

In the following number sequence how many 4s are there that are immediately preceded by 6 and
immediately followed by 5?
34265436459864538746821764586459745
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) none of these

2.

Given below is a sequence in which some letters are missing. From the choices, select the choice that
gives the letters that can fill the blanks in the given series.
(A) bbdcbac
(B) bbcdabc
(C) bcbbabc
(D) bcdbabc

3.

If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain code, then how will JUNGLE be written in that code?
(A) ITMFKD
(B) ITNFKD
(C) KVOHMF
(D) TIMFKD

4.

If air is called green, green is called blue, blue is called sky sky is called yellow, yellow is called
water and water is called pink, then what is the colour of clear sky?
(A) green
(B) sky
(C) pink
(D) water
Directions (Q.No. 5 to 7). In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term
missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark
in the given series.

5.

6.

7.

2, 12, 36, 80, 150 ?


(A) 194

(B) 210

(C) 252

(D) 258

34, 18, 10, 6, 4, ?


(A) 3

(B) 2

(C) 1

(D) 0

(C) 3624

(D) 6763

3624, 4363, 3644, 4563, 3664, ?


(A) 4763
(B) 3763

8.

How many pairs of letters are there in the word BUCKET which have as many letters between them in
the word as in the alphabet?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

9.

In the certain code, RABBIT is RBDEMY, then HBRSISY is the code of


(A) HAPPENS
(B) HATTERS
(C) HAPPINESS

(D) HAMBUGS

10. Pointing to a photograph Ramesh said, She is the sister of my fathers motherss only childs son How
is the person in the photograph related to Ramesh?
(A) sister
(B) Aunt
(C)Mother
(D)Cousin
11. Starting from his house Ram travelled 10m towards West, then turns towards the right and travels, 40m.
He then travels 25m East followed by 50m towards the south to reach his college. What is the approximate
distance between his house and the college?
(A) 10m
(B) 50m
(C) 20m
(D) 18m
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Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

12. How is my sisters husbands fathers wifes only daughter-in-laws father related to me?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Cannot be deterimined
13.

Find the total number of triangles in the following


figure

(A) 25
(C) 21

(B) 18
(D) 20

14. Looking into a mirror, the clock shows 9:30 as the time. The actual time is
(A) 3 : 30
(B) 2 : 30
(C) 4 : 30

(D) 6 : 30

15. One night, three naughtly boys stole a basket full of apples from the garden, hid the loot and went to
sleep. Before retiring they did some quick counting and found that the fruits were less than a hundred in
number. During the night one boy awoke, counted the apples and found that he could divide the apples
into three equal parts if he first took one for himself. He then took one apple, ate it up and took 1/3 of the
rest, hid them separately and went back to sleep. Shortly thereafter, another boy awoke, counted the
apples and he again found that if he took one for himself the loot could be divided into three equal parts.
He ate up one apple, bagged 1/3 of the remainder, hid them separately and went back to sleep. The third
boy also awoke after sometime, did the same and went back to sleep. In the morning, when all woke up
and counted apples, they found that the remaining apples again totalled 1 more than what could be
divided into three equal parts. How many apples did the boys steal?
(A) 67
(B) 79
(C) 85
(D) none of these
16.

Study the pattern of the arrangement of numbers and


find out how would you get the number in the middle
using the four numbers around it. Hence find out, what
number would come in place of ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4

12

72

3
6

17. Which year will have the same calendar as that of 2001?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007

(D) 2009

18. If 9 * 3 = 729 and 5 * 4 = 625, then 8 * 2 =


(A) 64
(B) 85

(D) 68

(C) 16

19. Among B, F, J, K and W each having a different weight. F is heavier than only J. B is heavier than F and
W but not as heavy as K. Who among them is the third heaviest?
(A) W
(B) F
(C) K
(D) B
20. Unscramble the letters in the words given in this question and find the odd one out
(A) UPJM
(B) WKLA
(C) PEELS
(D) UNR

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Directions (Q.No. 21 to 24) Six dice with their upper faces erased are as shown:

The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite faces is 7.

21. If the dice I, II and III have even number of dots, on their bottom faces, then what would be the total
number of dots on the top faces?
(A) 7
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 21
22. If the dice I, II and III have even number of dots on their bottom faces and the dice IV, V and VI have odd
number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the difference in the total number of top face dots
between these two sets?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
23. If odd numbered dice have odd number of dots on their bottom faces, what would be the total number of
dots on the top faces of these dice?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 10
(D) 12
24. If even numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, what would be the total number of
dots on the top of these dice?
(A) 18
(B) 14
(C) 12
(D) 10
Directions (Q.No.25 to 27) Answer the questions on the basis of the
information given below. In the given diagram, the rectangle represents
females, the triangle represents uneducated, the circle represents rural
and the square represents teachers. Study the diagram carefully and
answer the following questions

7
9
10

2
8

12

4
11

13
14

25. Who among the following is an uneducated female, who is not a rural resident?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 9

(D) 11

26. Who among the following is a male, who is rural resident and also a teacher?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 12

(D) 10

27. Who among the following is an uneducated female, who belongs to rural area?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 11

(D) 5

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Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

Directions (Q.No. 28 to 30) Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Four persons teach different subjects to students of different classes. B does not teach Mathematics and
Science. C does not teach students of Standard I and IV. C does not teach Science. Students of Standard
below IV are too young to learn computers. A teaches students of Standard III. B does not teach students of
Standard II and IV. D and A donot teach English. Each person teaches a single subject.
28. Who teaches students of Standard II?
(A) A
(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

29. Who teaches English?


(A) A

(C) C

(D) D

(B) B

30. C teaches which of the following subjects and to which standard?


(A) Mathematics, III
(B) English, I
(C) Mathematics, II
(D) Science, II

Section II

PCM

Physics
Physics contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 31 to 50. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one is correct.

31. Calculate the current shown by the ammeter A in the given circuit.
(A) 3.6 A
(B) 4.6 A
(C) 5 A
(D) 6 A

32. A heater is designed to operate with a power of 1000 W in a 100 V


line. It is connected in combination with a resistance R, to a 100 V
mains as shown in the figure. What should be the value of R such
that the heater may operate with a power of 62.5 W?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 6
33. Magnetic field intensity B at the centre of the circular loop is
(A) 0
(C)

0 l
4 R

(B)
(D)

0 2 l
4R
0I2

O
I

R
I

4R

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34. Match list I with list II for a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm, and select the correct answer using the
code given below the list. List I contains object distance and List II contains Nature of its image.
COLUMN I

COLUMN II

10 cm

Magnified, inverted and real

30 cm

Equal size, inverted and real

40 cm

Smaller, inverted and real

50 cm

Magnified, erect and virtual

Codes :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

P
1
2
4
4

Q
2
4
1
2

R
4
1
2
3

S
3
3
3
1

35. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are present in the same direction. An electron is
projected in this region with a velocity in the same direction. Therefore,
(A) the velocity of electron will decrease in magnitude.
(B) the velocity of electron will increase in magnitude.
(C) the electron will turn to its right.
(D) the electron will turn to its left.
36. When an electron and a proton enter at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. (Given that

mp
me

= 1840)

Choose the INCORRECT statement.


(A) rp = 1840 re when velocity is same
(B) rp = re when momentum is same
(C) rp = 43 re when kinetic energy is same
(D) rp = 920 re when velocity is same
A

37. Three infinite straight wires A, B and C carry currents as shown in


figure. The resultant force on wire B per metre length is
(A) 40/d towards A
(B) 20/d towards C
(C) 40/d towards C
(D) zero

1A

2A

3A

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Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

38. A point source of light B is placed at a distance L in front


of the centre of a mirror of width d hung vertically on a
wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line
parallel to the mirror at a distance 2L from it as shown.
Find the greatest distance over which he can see the
image of the light source in the mirror.
(A) 2d
(B) 3d
(C) 4d
(D) none

39. Analyze following figures and find r.


(A) 30
(C) 60

30

glass

(B) 45
(D) 90

air

40. A light beam is traveling from Region I to Region


IV (Refer Figure). The refractive index in 4

air

60

4
1
(B) sin1
8
1 1
(C) sin
4
1 1
(D) sin
3
(A) sin1

n0

Region II

n0
2

glass

air

60

Region I

n n
n
Regions I, II, III and IV are n0, 0 , 0 and 0 ,
2 6
8
respectively. The angle of incidence for which
the beam just misses entering Region IV is

45

water

45

Region IV

Region III

n0
8

n0
6

0.2m

0.6m

41. The near point of a hyper metropic eye is 1 m. The near point of the normal eye is 25 cm. The power of
the lens required to correct this defect is P dioptre. Determine P.
(A) 4.0
(B) 3.0
(C) 2.0
(D) 0.5

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42. The diagram shows four systems of charged particles. Each system contains two charged particles at
point A and point B as shown in the figure. A third point charge q 0 is kept at point P in each system. The
direction of electrostatic force experienced by the charge q0 will be

System 1; AP = BP = r
and AB is a straight
line

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

System 1

System 2; AP = BP = r
and AB is a straight
line

System 3; AP = BP =
r and AB is a
circular arc of
radius r and
centre at P

System 2

System 3

43. The instrument for measuring a potential difference is


(A) voltmeter
(B) voltammeter
(C) ammeter

System 4; AP = BP =
r and AB is a
circular arc of
radius r and
centre at P

System 4

(D) none of these

44. Of the following, the copper conductor that has the least resistance is
(A) thin, long and hot
(B) thick, short and cool
(C) thick, long and hot
(D) thin, short and cool
45. An certain resistor dissipates 0.5 W when connected to a 3 V potential difference. When connected to a
1 V potential different, this resistor will dissipate :
(A) 0.5 W
(B) 0.167 W
(C) 1.5 W
(D) 0.056 W
46. Constant current is sent through a helical coil. The coil:
(A) tends to get shorter
(B) tends to get longer
(C) tends to rotate about its axis
(D) produces zero magnetic field at its center
47. A current is flowing in a circular loop of wire in clockwise direction. The magnetic field at the centre of the
wire is
(A) directed perpendicularly downward to the plane of loop.
(B) zero
(C) directly proportional to the radius of the loop
(D) directed perpendicularly upward to the plane of loop

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Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

48. There are four mediums, separated by three parallel


interfaces as shown in the figure. An incident ray strikes on
the point A of first medium with angle of incidence 60 and
emerges from point C as shown in the figure. Find the value
of

1 2
,
1 2

(A) 2.0
(C) 3.0

(B) 2.5
(D) 4.0

49. Two infinite long wires are carrying


current 2I and I respectively as shown in
the figure. Find the ratio of magnitude of
magnetic field at Q to P
(A) 1

P
I
Q

1
2
2
(C)
3

2I

(B)

(D) 2
2a

2a

50. Find the current through the battery when switch S is closed
(given R = 10 )
(A) 2A
(C) 1/2 A

(B) 1A
(D) 1/4 A

Chemistry
Chemistry contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 51 to 70. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one is correct.
51. The correctly balanced coefficients for the following reaction will be

FeS2 O2 Fe2O3 SO2


(A) 2,1,1,4

(B) 2,3,2,4

52. Conversion of sugar into CO2 is an example of


(A) Oxidation only
(B) Reduction only

(C) 4,4,2,2

(D) 4,11,2,8

(C) Redox change

(D)Physical change

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53. Which of the following is the smallest in size
(A) N3(B) O2-

Page - 10

(C) F-

(D) Na+

54. The number of electrons that take part in forming the bond in N 2 is
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 10

(D) 3

55. The pH of baking soda solution is


(A) > 7
(B) < 7

(C) 7

(D) 0

56. Which of the following is an acid salt?


(A) Na2S
(B) Na2SO3

(C) NaHSO3

(D) Na2SO4

57. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order of
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si
(B) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(C) Na < Mg < Al > Si
(D) Na > Mg > Al < Si
58. In the reaction, 3Cl2 + 6NaOH
NaClO3 + 5NaCl + 3H2O, which element loses as well as gains
electrons?
(A) Na
(B) O
(C) Cl
(D) None
59. Which of the following is a member of alkyne family?
(A) C7H14
(B) C10H22
(C) C9H16

(D) C16H12

60. The pH of a solution is 5.0. Its hydrogen ion concentration is decreased 100 times, the solution then will
be
(A) More acidic
(B) Basic
(C) Neutral
(D) Of the same acidity
61. Identify the pair of elements (At no.) representing s-block elements?
(A) 7,15
(B) 9,17
(C) 2,10
62. Identify the salt formed from strong acid and weak base
(A) Na2SO4
(B) (NH4)2SO4
(C) CH3COONH4
63. IUPAC name of chain isomer of butane is
(A) 2-methyl butane
(B) 2-methyl butane2
(C) 2-methyl propane
64. The molecule that deviates from octet rule is
(A) NaCl
(B) BF3

(C) MgO

65. Which set has the strongest tendency to form anions?


(A) Ga, In, Te
(B) Na, Mg, As
(C) N, O, F

(D) 11,12

(D) K2CO3
(D) 2,2-dimethyl propene

(D) NCl3

(D) V, Cr, Mn

66. Silicon has 4 electrons in the outer most orbit. In forming the bond:
(A) It gains electrons
(B) It looses electrons
(C) It shares electrons
(D) Either (A) or (B)
67. The number of chain isomers possible for a molecule having molecular formula C 5H12:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
68. The compound with highest boiling point is
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Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

(A) n hexane
(C) 2,2 dimethyl propane

(B) n pentane
(D) 2-methyl butane

69. The metal used as a catalyst for the hydrogenation of unsaturated hydrocarbon is
(A) Ni
(B) Cr
(C) V
(D) Zn
70. The pH of a solution formed by mixing 40 mL of 0.10 M HCl with 10 mL of 0.45 M of NaOH is
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) 6

Mathematics
Straight Objective Type
Mathematics contains 20 multiple choice questions numbered 71 to 90. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one is correct.
71. The value of cosec 65 sec 25 tan 55 cot 35 is
(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) -1

(D) 2

1
p2 1
is
, then 2
p
p 1
(A) cos
(B) sin
(C) cosec
(D) sec
r
73. A round balloon of radius
subtends an angle at the eye of the observer while the angle of elevation
2
of its centre is 2, then the height of the centre of balloon is
72. If sec tan

(A) r sin cos ec


(C)

cos ec
2
r

(D) cos ec sin


2
2
(B) r sin

cos ec sin2
2
2

2
74. If D is a point on the side BC of ABC such that ADC BAC, then CA is

(A) CB CD

(B) AB CD

(C) AD CD

(D) BD DC

75. ABC is a right triangle right angled at C. Let BC = a, CA =b, AB = c and let p be the perpendicular length
from C on AB, then
(A)

1
1
1
2 2
2
p
a
b

(B)

1
1
1
2 2
2
2p
a
b

(C)

1
1
1
2 2
2
p
a
b

(D) None of these

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76. A circle is inscribed in a triangle ABC having


sides 8 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm as shown in
the figure. Then AD, BE and CF are

C
F

10 cm

8 cm

D
12 cm

(A) 7, 5, 3

(B) 10, 5, 7

(C) 5, 3, 7

(D) 3, 5, 7

77. If and are the zeros of the quadratic polynomial f x kx2 4x 4 such that 2 2 24, then

2
3
2
(C) k 1 or k
3

2
3
2
(D) k 1 or k
3

(A) k 2 or k

(B) k 2 or k

78. If the H.C.F. of 210 and 55 is expressible in the form 210 5 55y, then y is
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) -19
79. If Sn nP

(D) -20

1
n n 1 Q where Sn denotes the sum of the first n terms of an A.P., then the common
2

difference is
(A) P + Q

(B) 2P + 3Q

(C) 2Q

(D) Q

99

80. The coefficient of x in (x + 1) (x + 3) (x + 5) (x + 199) is


(A) 1 + 2 + 3 + + 99
(B) 1 + 3 + 5 + + 199 (C) 1 . 3 . 5 . . . 199
81. If , are the zeros of the polynomial f x ax2 bx c, then
(A)

b2 2ac
a2

(B)

82. The value of x in the equation


(A) x = -5, 5/2

b2 2ac
c2

(C)

(D) None of these

1
1
is equal to

2 2

b2 2ac
a2

(D)

b2 2ac
c2

x 1 x 3
1

3 , x 2, 4 is
x2 x4
3

(B) 5, -5/2

(C) -5, -5/2

83. The 8th term from the end of the A.P. 7, 10, 13, , 184 is
(A) 161
(B) 162
(C) 163

(D) 5, 5/2

(D) 164

84. In a triangle ABC, O is a point inside of it. Bisectors of AOB, BOC and COA meet in sides AB, BC
and CA at points D, E and F respectively. Which of the following is correct?
(A)

AD BE CF

1
DB EC FA

(B)

DB BE CF

1
AD EC FA

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(C)

Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

AD EC CF

1
DB BE FA

(D)

AD BE FA

1
DB EC CF

85. If in a right angled triangle ABC, B 90, AC = 10 cm and radius of incircle is 1 cm, then the perimeter
of the triangle is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 22 cm
(C) 24 cm
(D) 26 cm

86. In the given figure, PAB and PCD are two secants
and PA = 5 cm, AB = x cn, PC = 7 cm and CD =
3cm. The value of x is

P
7

(A) 8 cm

(B) 12 cm

(C) 9 cm

(D) 16 cm
A

87. In the given figure, PA, PB and QR are the tangents


on the circle at point A, B and S respectively, Q and
R are the points at PA and PB respectively. If PA =
12 cm, then the perimeter of PQR is

(A) 20 cm

(B) 25 cm

(C) 22 cm

(D) 24 cm

2
88. If 2cos 1 0 and lies in 3rd quadrant, then the value of sin tan is

(A)

(B) -1

(C)

(D)

1
2

89. If the diagram shows the graph of

polynomial f x ax2 bx c, then

b D
21, 4a

(A) a < 0, b < 0 and c < 0


(B) a > 0, b < 0 and c > 0
(C) a < 0, b > 0 and c > 0
(D) a < 0, b > 0 and c < 0

f(x) ax2 bx c

90. If n is a natural number, then 9 4


(A) 5
(B) 13
2n

2n

is always divisible by
(C) both 5 and 13

(D) None of these

Regional Head Quarters:FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next to ApexPlaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai 600 034.

Sample Paper FTRE - PAPER - I X (IQ, PCM)

Page - 14

Regional Head Quarters FIITJEE TOWERS, No.3, First Lane, (Next to ApexPlaza), Nungambakkam High Road, Nungambakkam, Chennai 600 034.

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