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Stage Exam Critiques

CHAPTER 5
STAGE EXAM CRITIQUES
INTRODUCTION
This chapter provides you with critiques for the Instrument and Commercial Guided Flight Discovery Stage Exams as well as the Multi-Engine End-of-Course Exam. Each critique contains the correct answer choice and a brief explanation of the answer. The answer choices correspond to those in the answer keys in Section D. Each time you review a Stage Exam with a student, be sure to go over each incorrectly answered question and satisfy yourself that the student fully understands the material before moving on to the next stage. These critiques will be helpful in your dialogue with students, but they are not meant to replace thorough discussion.

Instrument Rating Critiques Stage I


1. CHOICE 3 75% of aviation accidents can be attributed to human factors-related causes. Some sources of pilot error in the instrument and commercial environments include; misinterpretation of a chart, failure to understand a clearance, inability to use equipment properly, and lack of coordination among crewmembers. 2. CHOICE 2 Readback of ATC clearances is crucial in the IFR environment. You should not assume controller silence after a readback is verification of your transmission. If you are unsure if ATC understood your communication, ask for a verbal confirmation. 3. CHOICE 3 Your vestibular system is sending an incorrect message to your brain during a rapid acceleration, making you believe you are in a nose up attitude. The best way to overcome this is to rely on your instruments, since they are your only accurate source of information. 4. CHOICE 3 Acceleration or deceleration can induce precession errors within the attitude indicator. Deceleration causes the attitude indicator to give a temporary, false indication of a descent. 5. CHOICE 1 Due to internal friction within the gyroscope, precession is common to heading

indicators. Precession causes the selected heading to drift from the set value. You should align the heading indicator with the magnetic compass before flight and check it at 15-minute intervals during flight. 6. CHOICE 3 During a turn, the rudder controls the quality of the turn as indicated by the position of the ball in the inclinometer. If the ball is right of center, add right rudder pressure; if the ball is left of center, add left rudder pressure. 7. CHOICE 2 The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator are the three pressure-sensitive pitot-static instruments. Each of these instruments is connected to a static source, however, only the airspeed indicator is connected to the pitot source, which is the source of impact or ram air pressure. 8. CHOICE 2 Initially, you should establish the attitude for a climb or descent by reference to the attitude indicator. 9. CHOICE 1 Normally, you correct minor deviations from altitude with only pitch changes. However, if your altitude changes more than 100 feet, you should make adjustments in both pitch and power. 10. CHOICE 3 A useful guide for leveling off from a climb or descent is to lead the desired altitude by approximately 10% of the vertical speed.

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11. CHOICE 2 The attitude indicator has failed and is giving false indications of a left turn with nose-low pitch attitude. 12. CHOICE 3 To avoid a stall, add power, decrease pitch to reduce the angle of attack, and roll the wings level. 13. CHOICE 3 When you are cleared for an approach while being radar vectored, you must maintain your last assigned altitude until established on a segment of the published route or instrument approach procedure. 14. CHOICE 3 To solve this problem, divide the time (in seconds) by the degrees of bearing change between the radials used for timing (165 10 = 16.5 minutes). Next, use your flight computer to determine the distance of approximately 29 n.m. to the station. 15. CHOICE 2 When you are using a fixedcompass-card instrument, the ADF pointer indicates relative bearing. In this case, the relative bearing is 190. 16. CHOICE 3 The correct formula is: RB + MH = MB. The magnetic bearing to the station is 190 + 80, or 270. 17. CHOICE 2 The correct formula is: MB MH = RB. The magnetic bearing to the station is 180 minus the magnetic heading of 045 which equals 135. 18. CHOICE 3 Relative bearing is the number of degrees between the nose of the aircraft and the station, measured clockwise. Regardless of the number of degrees you are correcting left or right, you are on course when the wind correction angle equals the number of degrees a station is to the left or right of the aircrafts nose. 19. CHOICE 2 With an RMI, the magnetic heading appears under the top index and the ADF and VOR bearing pointers give a direct reading of magnetic bearing to the station. The VOR pointer shows the station behind and slightly to the right (225 magnetic bearing). The ADF pointer shows the station to the right (140 magnetic bearing). Position B fits these conditions. 20. CHOICE 1 For groundspeeds below 150 knots, a one-half nautical mile leadpoint is adequate. 21. CHOICE 2 FAR 91.171 lists the procedures available to test the accuracy of VOR receivers, regardless of the type of equipment. After you select the appropriate frequency, all you need to do is make sure the bearing pointer of the RMI displays the proper indications. 22. CHOICE 2 A second-class medical certificate is required for all commercial operations. For commercial operations, the second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of the twelfth month after the month of the date of examination. 23. CHOICE 1 FAR 61.51 states that you may log as instrument flight time only the time you operate the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated flight conditions. 24. CHOICE 3 FAR 61.57 states that at least six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems, must be performed and logged in actual flight or in a simulator or flight training device representative of the aircraft category. 25. CHOICE 2 To regain instrument currency after 12 months have elapsed, FAR 61.57 requires that you pass an instrument proficiency check with an FAA-approved check pilot or a certified instrument flight instructor. 26. CHOICE 3 FAR 91.107 and 91.109 states that an appropriately rated pilot must occupy the other control seat as a safety pilot during simulated instrument flight. 27. CHOICE 1 No action is required by regulation. FAR 91.205, which lists instrument and equipment necessary for IFR flight, does not include a vertical speed indicator. However, as a practical matter, you should make sure the instrument error is corrected before you conduct IFR operations. 28. CHOICE 3 FAR 91.205 states that, for IFR flight, the aircraft must have two-way communications and navigational equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used. 29. CHOICE 3 As noted in FAR 91.211, between 12,500 feet MSL and 14,000 feet MSL cabin

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Stage Exam Critiques


pressure altitude, the flight crew must use oxygen for that portion of the flight that exceeds 30 minutes. The use of supplemental oxygen by flight crewmembers is required at all times above a cabin pressure altitude of 14,000 feet MSL. 30. CHOICE 2 The required inspections include the annual aircraft inspection, pitot-static and altimeter inspections, and the VOR equipment check. In addition, the transponder must have been inspected within the preceding 24 calendar months. 31. CHOICE 3 NTSB 830.15 specifies that the operator of an aircraft must file a written report with the NTSB within 10 days of an accident. 32. CHOICE 3 Since runway 4 has only a runway number and a centerline, it is a basic VFR runway. The distance markers added to the threshold markings on runway 36 indicate it is a precision instrument runway. 33. CHOICE 3 Yellow chevrons leading to the threshold of runway 4 mean the area is a blastpad, stopway, or overrun and it cannot be used for taxi, takeoff, or landing. White arrows leading to the threshold of runway 36 mean it can be used for taxi, takeoff, and landing rollout. 34. CHOICE 2 While flying a light aircraft on a three-bar VASI approach, you should use the lower glide path provided by the near and middle bars. The indications are the same as those on a normal two-bar VASI. The far bar will indicate red since the lower glide path is approximately one-half degree below the upper glide path. 35. CHOICE 2 Land and hold short lights are a row of flush-mounted flashing white lights installed at the hold short point, perpendicular to the centerline of the runway on which they are installed. 36. CHOICE 2 Class D airspace, which exists only when the control tower is in operation, normally includes the airspace within approximately four nautical miles of the geographical center of the airport and extends from the ground up to and including 2,500 feet above the airport. You must maintain two-way communications with ATC while within Class D airspace. 37. CHOICE 2 As indicated in FAR 91.155, the minimum visibility required for flight under day VFR in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL is one statute mile. IFR flight in Class G airspace, although legal, is risky. Since ATC had neither the responsibility nor the authority to exercise control over aircraft in Class G airspace, the main traffic separation procedure is adherence to IFR cruising altitudes. 38. CHOICE 2 The airspace surrounding Phoenix Sky Harbor International Airport is designated as Class B airspace. This is indicated in the listing under communications. 39. CHOICE 3 You should comply with the requested speed, if able, and reduce your indicated airspeed to 160 kts. When within 20 miles of your destination airport, ATC must obtain pilot concurrence to reduce propeller aircraft speed below 150 knots. You should maintain the assigned airspeed within 10 knots. 40. CHOICE 3 The ATIS broadcast is updated upon the receipt of any official hourly and special weather. A new recording will also be made when there is a change in other pertinent data, such as a change of runway or the instrument approach in use. 41. CHOICE 3 Traffic advisories are based on the observation of your ground track on the radar. Radar cannot tell which way the nose of your aircraft is pointed. Position of traffic is called in terms of the 12-hour clock. In this example, the aircrafts nose is pointed 20 right of its ground track to compensate for a strong crosswind. In a no-wind situation, the 2 oclock position would be 60 to the right of the nose. Since the nose is already pointed toward the 2 oclock position by 20, you would only have to look further right by 40 to see the controllers advisory. Remember, the controller only sees the ground track on the radar display, not the aircrafts nose position. 42. CHOICE 1 Local airport advisory (LAA) service is provided by as FSS physically located on an airport which does not have a control tower or where the tower is operating parttime. 43. CHOICE 2 You are expected to climb (or descend) at an optimum rate consistent with your airplanes performance characteristics to within 1,000 feet of your assigned altitude, then at 500 to 1,500 f.p.m. An exception is when ATC uses the term at pilots discretion.

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In this event, you may climb (or descend) at any rate you wish to use. 44. CHOICE 3 If you do not have at least the textual description of the instrument departure procedure (DP) or standard terminal arrival route (STAR), or if you do not wish to use either of these procedures, you should make a notation of this effect in the remarks section of your flight plan. 45. CHOICE 1 A cruise clearance includes an authorization for you to fly to and use any published approach procedure at your destination airport. 46. CHOICE 2 ATC may issue an abbreviated clearance by using the phrase cleared as filed. This clearance will contain the name of your destination airport or clearance limit, the assigned enroute altitude, and DP information if appropriate. 47. CHOICE 2 VFR-on-top allows you to fly in VFR conditions and at appropriate VFR cruising altitudes while on an IFR flight plan. In addition to compliance with VFR visibility, cloud clearance, and cruising altitude requirements, you also must observe minimum IFR altitudes. 48. CHOICE 3 While operating with a VFR-ontop clearance below FL180, use the appropriate VFR cruising altitude. In this case, you should use an odd-thousand foot altitude plus 500 feet. 49. CHOICE 3 When a composite flight plan is filed, the IFR portion must include all fixes indicating transitions from one airway to another, those defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit. 50. CHOICE 2 If you do not depart prior to the void time in this situation, you must advise ATC of your intentions as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes after the void time. Failure to take this action can result in costly delays and rerouting of other IFR traffic because ATC will assume that you have departed on time as cleared. In addition, expensive search-and-rescue operations may be initiated.

Instrument Rating Critiques Stage II


1. CHOICE 1 To determine the climb gradient in feet per minute, divide the groundspeed by 60 (180 60 = 3) and multiply the result by the required climb gradient (3 200 = 600 f.p.m.). 2. CHOICE 2 First, find the climb gradient (4,994 feet 11 miles) for a climb gradient of 454 feet per mile. Then, divide the groundspeed by 60 (95 60 = 1.58 nautical miles per minute) and multiple this by the climb gradient to get a minimum climb rate of 717 feet per minute. You also can find the approximate rate of climb required by referring to climb rate tables which are published by both NACO and Jeppesen. 3. CHOICE 2 The two basic types of instrument departure procedures (DPs) are instrument departures procedures (DPs) developed in graphic form to enhance the air traffic control system, and obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) developed as text or graphics to assist pilots in obstruction avoidance. 4. CHOICE 3 If the changeover point from one VOR to another is at a point other than halfway between the two facilities, it is indicated by this symbol. The mileage breakdowns indicate the proper distance for changing to the next VOR. 5. CHOICE 2 Availability and coverage of an area chart for a terminal area operation is outlined by a thick, dashed line on the enroute chart. This dashed line is blue on Jeppesen charts, and light gray on NACO charts. It also is indicated by the front panel index. 6. CHOICE 3 On your initial call to departure control, you normally are required to give only your aircraft or flight number, the altitude you are climbing through, and the altitude to which you are climbing. By doing this, the controller can verify that your reported altitude agrees with the altitude being displayed by your Mode C transponder equipment. 7. CHOICE 2 If you cannot establish communications on the newly assigned frequency, return to the previous frequency for further instructions. 8. CHOICE 3 ATC must be notified if you are unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute, unless the instruction is

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qualified by the term climb (or descend) at pilots discretion. 9. CHOICE 2 When ATC requests a speed adjustment for spacing, they expect you to maintain a specified speed within 10 knots. When a speed adjustment is no longer needed, ATC will advise you to . . . resume normal speed. 10. CHOICE 2 If the indicated airspeed of your aircraft exceeds the applicable maximum holding speed, ATC expects you to reduce speed from the clearance limit. Basically, this means you should start the speed reduction soon enough to make sure you pass over the fix at or below the maximum holding speed. 11. CHOICE 2 Your aircrafts magnetic heading when you arrive at the fix determines the type of entry to use. Since aircraft B is approaching the station with a heading between 020 and 090, a teardrop entry is appropriate. The teardrop entry, in this case, provides the most convenient way to maneuver the aircraft to intercept the holding course on the proper inbound course of 270. 12. CHOICE 3 A parallel entry is appropriate for aircraft C because the aircrafts heading is between 090 and 200. 13. CHOICE 1 DPs and STARs are published in chart form by both NACO and Jeppesen. The charts normally include narrative descriptions of the applicable procedures. 14. CHOICE 2 As you depart CLEFT intersection, you should be on a heading of 297. It is indicated on the chart and in the textual description of the procedure. 15. CHOICE 3 STARs are primarily used to simplify clearance delivery procedures for pilots and controllers. 16. CHOICE 1 The thick arrow between the two navaids indicates a feeder route between the Santa Fe VORTAC and the DOMAN IAF. Feeder routes provide a transition from the enroute structure to an initial approach fix. They include heading, distance, and altitude information appropriate to the route. 17. CHOICE 2 On a VOR/DME approach, the missed approach point is usually based on DME distance rather than time. 18. CHOICE 2 Since both VOR and DME are specified in the title to this instrument approach procedure, a VOR receiver and DME are required for the approach. 19. CHOICE 1 As indicated by the MSA circle, the minimum safe altitude between the 200 radial clockwise to the 110 radial within 25 nautical miles of the Humble VORTAC is 1,800 feet MSL. 20. CHOICE 3 The symbol indicates that nonstandard takeoff minimums and/or departure procedures apply. This symbol indicates you should consult the IFR Takeoff Minimums and Departure Procedures listing in the front of the NACO approach chart binder. 21. CHOICE 2 If you fly the approach as a circling maneuver, the circling minimums apply until the aircraft is continuously in a position from which you can descend to a landing on the intended runway at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers even if you started it as a precision approach procedure. In this case, the Category A circling MDA of 960 feet MSL applies. 22. CHOICE 2 Visual illusions are a product of various runway features, terrain features, and atmospheric conditions which can create the sensation of incorrect height above the runway or incorrect distance from the runway threshold. An upsloping runway or terrain can give you the sensation that you are at a greater height above the runway than you actually are. 23. CHOICE 1 During a circling approach, you are provided obstacle clearance as long as you maneuver within the protected circling approach area. Generally, the higher the category of aircraft making the circling approach, the larger the protected area has to be and the higher the MDA. For a Category A aircraft at the circling MDA, you must remain within a 1.3 nautical mile radius from the ends of the runways during the circling maneuver. 24. CHOICE 1 In VFR conditions, ATC may initiate visual approaches to expedite the flow of traffic to an airport. You may initiate or be given a visual approach clearance if you have the airport or the aircraft in front of you in sight. 25. CHOICE 3 Contact approaches are issued only for airports with published approach procedures. ATC may issue a contact approach

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clearance upon pilot request when the reported ground visibility at the destination is one statute mile or greater. ATC cannot initiate a contact approach. 26. CHOICE 2 Since this approach is based on a facility located on the airport, the missed approach point is located over that facility. In this case, it is the Twin Falls VOR. The position of the MAP is indicated on this chart in the lower left corner. 27. CHOICE 3 The profile view details the procedure for the missed approach segment. This procedure requires a climbing left turn to 6,000 feet outbound on the TWF VOR 293 radial within 10 nautical miles, return to the VOR, and hold. 28. CHOICE 3 Holding instructions are included in the missed approach procedure. Since a left turn is not specified, a standard holding pattern on the 293 radial of the TWF VOR is required. The heavy dashed line in the plan view provides a pictorial representation of the missed approach procedure to the 293 radial outbound. 29. CHOICE 2 Your magnetic bearing (or course) from the ARROE IAF to the Shawn NDB is 330, and the minimum altitude between these two fixes is 2,300 feet MSL. The magnetic bearing and minimum altitude for this segment of the approach are shown in both the plan view and the profile view. 30. CHOICE 2 Usually, on an NDB approach where the NDB is not located on the airport, you may begin your descent to the MDA after passing the NDB. This is clearly indicated in the profile view. 31. CHOICE 1 When inbound to the NDB from the Wichita Falls VORTAC, you should fly a magnetic bearing of 114 at a minimum altitude of 3,000 feet MSL. The distance for this feeder route, 8.4 nautical miles, also is indicated. 32. CHOICE 1 ILS marker beacons provide range information with respect to the runway during the approach. 33. CHOICE 1 Passage of the ILS outer marker is indicated aurally by a series of dashes and visually by illumination of a blue light. An amber light indicates the middle marker, and a white light identifies the inner marker. 34. CHOICE 2 Without a glide slope receiver, the approach becomes a nonprecision, localizeronly approach with an MDA of 860 feet MSL. To determine the increased minimum for loss of the approach light system, you would normally refer to the Inoperative Components or Visual Aids Table for a localizer approach. However, the note on the approach chart indicating that you must increase the visibility by one-quarter mile if the approach light system becomes unusable, supercedes the note in the table. 35. CHOICE 2 The missed approach points are different for the complete ILS and for the localizeronly approach. The MAP for the ILS is at the decision height, while the localizer-only MAP is usually over the (straight-in) runway threshold. In some nonprecision procedures, the MAP may be prior to the runway threshold in order to clear obstructions in the missed approach climbout area. For nonprecision procedures, you normally determine when you are at the MAP by timing from the FAF. The FAF is clearly identified by the cross symbol in the profile view. The distance from the FAF to the MAP (4.6 nautical miles) and time and speed tables are included below the airdrome sketch on the NOS charts. This does not apply to VOR/DME instrument approach procedures or when the facility is on the airport and the facility is the MAP. 36. CHOICE 3 When a course reversal is necessary, you should maneuver within protected airspace during a procedure turn. Make the procedure turn in the direction depicted on the approach chart. In addition, you should complete the course reversal within the specified distance. In this example, you should remain within 10 nautical miles of the fix, which is the DOMAN LOM for this approach. 37. CHOICE 2 The profile view indicates the altitude you should be at upon reaching the DOMAN LOM if you are on the glide slope centerline, 7,561 feet in this case. On Jeppesen charts, the letters GS accompany the altitude. 38. CHOICE 1 You must descend below the decision height (DH) of 6,553 feet MSL until you see the necessary visual references associated with the runway. In addition, your aircraft must continually be in a position from which you can make a descent to a landing on the intended runway at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. Specific requirements for operation below the MDA or DH are listed in FAR 91.175.

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39. CHOICE 3 Without a glide slope, you must determine the missed approach point by time. Therefore, if you have noted the time over the nonprecision FAF, which is the DOMAN LOM, and then experience glide slope failure, you can continue the approach to the MDA. 40. CHOICE 1 TAAs do not describe specific routes of flight, but rather describe a volume of airspace within which an aircraft proceeds inbound from the 30-nm arc boundary toward an appropriate IAF. The altitudes shown within the TAA icons provide minimum IFR obstacle clearance. is generally smooth and, when moisture is present, layered or stratiform clouds form. Visibility often is restricted, with widespread areas of clouds and steady rain or drizzle. 7. CHOICE 3 As a front approaches, atmospheric pressure usually decreases, with the area of lowest pressure lying directly over the front. The most reliable indications that you are crossing a front are a change in wind direction and, less frequently, wind speed. Although the exact new direction of the wind is difficult to predict, the wind always shifts to the right in the northern hemisphere. 8. CHOICE 1 There are three conditions necessary to create a thunderstorm air that has a tendency toward instability, some type of lifting action, and a relatively high moisture content. 9. CHOICE 1 Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the mature stage, which is signaled by the beginning of precipitation at the surface. 10. CHOICE 2 To avoid wake turbulence when you land behind a large aircraft, you should plan to stay above the large airplanes glide path and touch down beyond its touchdown point. If a large airplane has just taken off as you approach to land, you should plan to touch down well before the large aircrafts liftoff point. 11. CHOICE 2 When a tailwind shears to calm conditions or to a headwind, your indicated airspeed and pitch attitude both increase, and you may have a tendency to go above the correct glide path. Initially, you should reduce power to slow your airspeed and descend to the glide path, but be ready to increase your power again. Without a tailwind, you need more power and a slower rate of descent. 12. CHOICE 1 Clear ice is the type of icing with the fastest accumulation rates. It is found in cumulus clouds or in freezing rain beneath a warm front inversion. Clear ice is the most serious of the various forms of ice because it has the fastest rate of accumulation, adheres tenaciously to the aircraft, and is more difficult to remove than rime ice. 13. CHOICE 2 The METAR code indicates visibility of 1/2 statute mile, vertical visibility 500 feet, light snow and fog, and sky 500 feet overcast.

Instrument Rating Critiques Stage III


1. CHOICE 3 The primary cause of atmospheric circulation is uneven heating of the earths surface by the sun. 2. CHOICE 2 The atmosphere accumulates moisture through evaporation and sublimation. Evaporation is the process where water vapor (a gas) is added to the atmosphere. Sublimation is the changing of ice (solid water) directly into water vapor, or water vapor into ice. In sublimation, the liquid state is bypassed. 3. CHOICE 1 You can anticipate the formation of fog or very low clouds by monitoring the temperature/dewpoint spread. When the spread reaches 4F (2C) and continues to decrease, the air is nearing the saturation point and conditions are favorable for the formation of fog or low clouds. 4. CHOICE 3 The greatest instability occurs when air is both warm and moist. Tropical airmasses, which produce frequent thunderstorms, are a good example. Air that is both cool and dry resists vertical movement and is very stable. 5. CHOICE 1 The rate at which temperature decreases with an increase in altitude is referred to as its lapse rate. As you ascend through the atmosphere, the temperature decreases at an average rate of 2C (3.5F) per 1,000 feet. The lapse rate of dry air is greater than the lapse rate of moist air. 6. CHOICE 1 Stable air tends to inhibit vertical cloud development. Because of this, stable air

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14. CHOICE 2 The KLAR METAR shows visibility 1/2 statute mile, vertical visibility 400 feet, heavy snow, and 400 feet overcast. 15. CHOICE 2 The last group of alphanumeric data for KDEN is A3012. This is the altimeter setting, 30.12 inches of mercury. 16. CHOICE 2 Radar weather reports (SDs) describe areas of precipitation, along with information on the type and intensity. These reports are routinely transmitted on weather service circuits, and some are included in FSS weather broadcasts. 17. CHOICE 2 Terminal aerodrome forecasts generally are issued four times each day and are valid for a 24-hour period. 18. CHOICE 1 A terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF), often includes expected changes during the 24-hour valid time period. FM1700 indicates that from 1700Z, until the end of the forecast period, the wind will be from 290 at 25 knots, visibility greater than six statute miles, and scattered sky conditions at 12,000 feet. 19. CHOICE 3 Between 0300Z and 1200Z, a broken ceiling is forecast at 14,000 feet. This is indicated by BKN 140. Cloud heights are AGL. 20. CHOICE 3 The Synopsis and VFR Clouds/Weather sections indicate 2,000 feet scattered to broken, 5,000 feet broken with tops between 8,000 and 10,000 feet MSL between 1700 and 2100. Also widely scattered light rainshowers with tops at 18,000 feet MSL are forecast. 21. CHOICE 1 The forecast outlook indicates VFR conditions for Oregon both east and west of the Cascade mountain range. 22. CHOICE 2 The two conditions necessary for structural icing moisture near freezing temperatures exist between 6,000 and 9,000 feet over Shreveport. 23. CHOICE 2 You can estimate the values for wind direction, speed, and temperature at 10,000 feet by interpolation. Since 10,000 feet falls one-third of the way between 9,000 and 12,000 feet, the values are one-third of the difference between the 9,000-foot and 12,000foot values added to the 9,000-foot values. The wind direction, speed, and air temperature at 10,000 feet MSL over DAL are 287, 33 knots, and -7C. 24. CHOICE 1 The symbol at station A indicates broken sky cover for this station. The base of the broken ceiling is at 1,100 feet AGL. 25. CHOICE 1 At station D, the ceiling is above 1,000 feet but the visibility is less than three miles. A ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than three miles is indicated by a shaded area. 26. CHOICE 2 The 700-millibar chart shows weather data in the vicinity of the 10,000-foot level. It shows wind conditions associated with heavy clouds and rain, but only welldeveloped fronts appear on this type of chart. 27. CHOICE 3 Freezing level height contours are represented by irregular lines and are labeled in hundreds of feet above mean sea level. Therefore, the freezing level here is at 4,000 feet. 28. CHOICE 3 The area is enclosed with lines on the upper left panel. This indicates marginal VFR conditions on Wednesday. The upper right panel for the next 12-hour period indicates that conditions are expected to remain. This is shown by the scalloped lines, as well as some areas enclosed by smooth lines. 29. CHOICE 2 On the observed winds and temperatures aloft chart, a filled in station model indicates the temperature/dewpoint spread is 5C or less. 30. CHOICE 3 A feature of the high-level prog is that scalloped lines are used to enclose areas that have sandstorms, duststorms, and cumulonimbus clouds. Enclosed areas of cumulonimbus clouds also imply the presence of moderate or greater turbulence and icing conditions. 31. CHOICE 3 A vertical wind shear of six knots or more per 1,000 feet generally indicates moderate or greater turbulence. 32. CHOICE 1 Federal Aviation Administration FSS telephone numbers are listed in the Airport/Facility Directory. 33. CHOICE 3 If you squawk code 7700 on your transponder, an alarm or special indicator is triggered in radar facilities. You should not

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change your transponder code from its current setting when in radio and radar contact with ATC unless you are instructed to do so. 34. CHOICE 3 If your communications radio fails while you are in VFR conditions, or if you encounter VFR conditions at any time after the failure, you should continue the flight under VFR, if possible, and land as soon as practical. 35. CHOICE 3 According to FAR 91.185, the altitude you fly after a communications failure must be the highest of the following altitudes for each route segment flown: 1. 2. 3. The altitude assigned in your last ATC clearance. The minimum altitude or flight level for IFR operations. The altitude ATC has advised you to expect in a further clearance.

Commercial Pilot Critiques Stage IV


1. CHOICE 3 On sectional charts, maximum elevation figures are centered in quadrangles bounded by ticked lines of latitude and longitude. The highest known feature, including terrain and obstructions, is displayed in thousands and hundreds of feet above mean sea level. In this question, it is 10,800 feet MSL. 2. CHOICE 3 IR indicates IFR military training routes (MTRs) for operations that are conducted under instrument flight rules, regardless of the weather conditions. Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. You should contact an FSS within 100 nautical miles of a particular MTR to obtain current information on route usage. 3. CHOICE 2 Use the given wind, true course, TAS, and a flight computer to determine the true heading (005) and groundspeed (116 knots). 4. CHOICE 1 First, use the given values for pressure altitude, temperature, and calibrated airspeed to compute your TAS (140 knots). Then, figure your groundspeed using the given values for true course, wind, and your computed TAS. Your groundspeed is 146 knots. Next, figure how much fuel is required for the day VFR reserve. At a consumption rate of 11.5 g.p.h., it is 5.75 gallons. Subtracting this from the fuel on board leaves 56.25 gallons for the flight. Compute the time in hours that this amount of fuel will allow (56.25 11.5 = 4 hours, 53 minutes, 29 seconds). At a ground speed of 146 knots, with 4 hours and 53 minutes of fuel available, you can fly a distance of 714 miles. 5. CHOICE 2 To convert true heading to magnetic heading, determine the magnetic variation from the isogonic lines on the aeronautical chart, and subtract easterly or add westerly variation (east is least and west is best) to the true heading. 6. CHOICE 3 When you scan for traffic, move your eyes slowly and in small sectors. For maximum scanning efficiency at night, use offcenter viewing and avoid staring in one place for too long.

36. CHOICE 2 During a no-gyro approach, make all turns at standard rate before turning final. You will be advised when you have been turned onto final and told to make all turns at one-half standard rate throughout the rest of the approach. 37. CHOICE 1 Macho is the hazardous attitude indicated by this statement. People with this type of attitude attempt to prove that they are better than anyone else by taking risks and by trying to impress others. The antidote is to remember that taking chances is foolish. 38. CHOICE 2 Preferred IFR routes are listed in the Enroute section of the Jeppesen Airway Manual and in the Airport/Facility Directory. If one is not listed, consult the enroute chart to find the most practical route for the flight. 39. CHOICE 3 An alternate airport is required to be listed on your IFR flight plan unless your destination is forecast to have at least a 2,000foot ceiling and three miles visibility at your ETA plus or minus one hour. 40. CHOICE 1 The altitude listed in block 7 of the flight plan should be your initial cruising altitude. If you want to change the cruising altitude, direct your request to the controller during flight.

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Instrument/Commercial Instructors Guide


7. CHOICE 2 Above featureless terrain, or at night, there is a natural tendency to fly lowerthan-normal approaches. To reduce the effect of landing illusions, attempt to fly your approaches at night the same as during the day. You also should take advantage of electronic or visual glide slope systems when they are available. 8. CHOICE 2 Medical oxygen contains too much moisture, which can collect in the valves and lines of the system and freeze. This may stop the flow of oxygen. 9. CHOICE 2 To avoid the effects of hypoxia, do not fly for prolonged periods above 10,000 feet MSL during the day or 5,000 feet MSL at night without using supplemental oxygen. 10. CHOICE increase and out sciously stressful 1 Hyperventilation is an abnormal in the volume of air you breathe into of your lungs. It can occur subconduring flight when you experience a situation. must consider the alternatives available if a flight cannot be completed as planned. 16. CHOICE 3 As specified in FAR 91.111, formation flight while carrying passengers for hire is prohibited. In other situations, the pilot in command of each aircraft must make prior arrangements before conducting formation flights. 17. CHOICE 3 As noted in FAR 91.123, if you are given priority handling by ATC, you must submit a report to the chief of the ATC facility involved within 48 hours, if requested. 18. CHOICE 3 FAR 91.157 stipulates that no person may operate under a special VFR clearance at night unless the pilot in command is instrument rated and current. In addition, the aircraft must be equipped for IFR flight. 19. CHOICE 3 According to FAR 91.205, anytime an aircraft is flown for hire over water beyond the power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear must be readily available to each occupant. 20. CHOICE 1 According to FAR 91.215, whenever you are in controlled airspace, you must have your transponder turned on if it is operational. Aircraft operating in all airspace in the contiguous 48 states and the District of Columbia at or above 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with an operable Mode C transponder. This rule also applies to all airspace within 30 nautical miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL. In addition to FAR 91.215, references to transponder requirements for Class C and Class B are included in FAR 91.130 and 91.131. 21. CHOICE 2 FAR 91.315 states that no person may operate a limited category civil aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire. 22. CHOICE 3 According to FAR 91.413, ATC transponders must be tested and inspected every 24 calendar months. In this case, the next transponder inspection will be due May 31, two years later. 23. CHOICE 1 In addition to the instrument and equipment required for day VFR, night VFR also requires position lights, anti-collision lights, landing light (only when the flight is operated for hire), an adequate source of elec-

11. CHOICE 1 According to the general abbreviations and symbols in FAR 1.2, VF is the design flap speed. It is defined more specifically in FAR 23.345 and 23.457. VFE is the maximum flap extended speed. 12. CHOICE 2 According to FAR 61.23, for operations requiring a commercial pilot certificate, a second-class medical certificate expires at the end of the twelfth month after the month of the date of the examination. The earliest date this medical could have been issued was December 1 of the previous year. 13. CHOICE 3 According to FAR 61.51, you must maintain a reliable record of the aeronautical training and experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating. You must also maintain a record of the flight time necessary to meet the recency of experience requirements. You are not required to log other flight time. 14. CHOICE 2 According to FAR 61.56, any pilot who has not completed a flight review (or fulfilled the requirement by an alternative method) within the preceding 24 calendar months may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft. 15. CHOICE 2 FAR 91.103 specifies the actions required before each flight. For any flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot in command

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Stage Exam Critiques


trical energy, and a spare set of fuses when applicable. 24. CHOICE 1 An aircraft accident is defined by NTSB Part 830 as an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft for the purpose of flight which results in death or serious injury to any person or substantial damage to the aircraft. Serious injury and substantial damage are further defined in NTSB 830.2. 25. CHOICE 3 Rules for reporting accidents and incidents are included in NTSB Part 830. All accidents must be reported immediately to the nearest NTSB field office. NTSB 830.5 also lists certain incidents that must be reported immediately. Incidents not listed in NTSB 830.5 require you to submit a report only if requested to do so. After this point, any increase in altitude will require an increase in throttle setting to maintain the desired manifold pressure. 4. CHOICE 2 Above the critical altitude, any change in r.p.m. results in a change in manifold pressure. When the waste gate is closed, a decrease in r.p.m. produces a decrease in manifold pressure. This is the opposite of what normally occurs when the waste gate is open. 5. CHOICE 2 To decrease power, you should reduce manifold pressure then decrease the r.p.m. You should avoid situations with high manifold pressure and low r.p.m. because this situation produces excessive cylinder pressure and can lead to overheating or detonation which can severely damage the engine. 6. CHOICE 1 The pilots mask plug-in usually has a red band to denote its greater flow rate. This distinguishes it from other oxygen masks which are marked with gold or orange bands. 7. CHOICE 1 At FL260, the standard pressure is 5.2 p.s.i. Adding this to the differential pressure of 5.7 p.s.i. gives a total pressure of 10.9 p.s.i. which correlates to a cabin pressure altitude of approximately 8,000 feet. 8. CHOICE 2 VLE is the maximum speed at which you can fly an aircraft safely with the landing gear extended. Landing gear limitations are due to the additional operating loads which may be placed on the landing gear or associated gear doors by maneuvers and airstream forces. 9. CHOICE 3 When practical, you should avoid taxiing through slush in an airplane with a retractable landing gear. After takeoff, the slush may freeze to the gear. If the slush is unavoidable, it is advisable to cycle the gear several times after takeoff to reduce the chance of ice adhering to movable parts. 10. CHOICE 2 When you change the angle of attack, the pressure distribution of the wing also changes. With an increase in the angle of attack, the center of pressure moves forward, and lift, airspeed, and drag forces change. 11. CHOICE 1 The lift formula verifies that, at a constant angle of attack, lift varies in proportion to the square of velocity. 12. CHOICE 3 If you double the airspeed, the result is the production of four times as much lift, assuming you use the same angle of attack. Parasite drag also increases in proportion to the velocity squared. Eventually, you will reach a

Commercial Pilot Critiques Stage V


1. CHOICE 2 When you shut down a fuelinjected engine, the air temperature inside the cowling increases rapidly. Within approximately 10 to 15 minutes, the temperature inside the fuel flow divider, distribution lines, and injector nozzles reaches a point where the fuel vaporizes and creates a vapor lock. Any attempt to start the engine under these conditions would be unsuccessful, since there is not enough fuel for combustion. 2. CHOICE 1 Detonation is the result of fuel exploding within the cylinder. It is most likely to occur with an overheated engine and when operating at high power settings. Some common causes of overheating include using a grade of fuel lower than that recommended, operating with extremely high manifold pressure and extremely low r.p.m., and operating at over 75% power with a lean mixture setting that produces high exhaust gas temperature. 3. CHOICE 3 When you set the manifold pressure to the desired climb power, a mechanism senses the manifold pressure requirements for various altitudes and regulates oil pressure to the actuator, which adjusts the waste gate. As you climb, the waste gate gradually closes and the turbine speed increases to maintain MAP. The altitude where the waste gate is fully closed and the turbine is operating at its maximum speed is called the critical altitude.

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Instrument/Commercial Instructors Guide


point where the total drag equals the maximum thrust available and the airplane cannot be accelerated further in straight-and-level flight. 13. CHOICE 2 The coefficient of lift is a mathematical expression of the lifting efficiency of an airfoil. It is the ratio of airstream dynamic pressure to static pressure generated by the wing. It is determined by both the angle of attack and the airfoil design. 14. CHOICE 2 Parasite drag increases with speed and varies as the square of the velocity; induced drag decreases with speed and varies inversely as the square of the velocity. Because of the manner in which both types of drag vary with speed, the minimum total drag occurs when they are equal. The speed at which this occurs provides the maximum lift-to-drag ratio (L/Dmax). This is an important performance speed. 15. CHOICE 3 Drag retards the motion of an aircraft and decreases its efficiency. Since parasite drag varies with the square of the airspeed, it is a major limiting factor at high airspeeds. Power available to overcome this drag is the other limiting factor. The maximum level flight speed is obtained when the power required to overcome total drag equals the maximum power available. 16. CHOICE 3 The total drag of an airplane is the sum of induced and parasite drag. Induced drag is predominant at low airspeeds and parasite drag is predominant at high airspeeds. On a graph, the intersection of the induced and parasite drag lines corresponds to a point on the total drag line where drag is at a minimum. This also is the point where the aircraft is operating at L/DMAX. Flying your aircraft at L/DMAX provides both maximum range and the best power-off glide speed. 17. CHOICE 2 If an airplane has negative static stability, it will have a tendency to move farther away from the original point of equilibrium when it is displaced. 18. CHOICE 1 Two variables determine the rate and radius of a turn. A steeper bank reduces turn radius and increases the rate of turn, but produces higher load factors. Reducing airspeed does the same thing, but without increasing the load factor. 19. CHOICE 3 At any angle of attack beyond CLMAX the airflow can no longer follow the upper surface of the wing, and the flow separates, resulting in a stall. 20. CHOICE 2 Enter the chart at 80 F and move up to intersect the 4,000-foot pressure altitude line; go horizontally to the right to the reference line. From here, draw a line parallel to the diagonal weight lines. Now, enter the chart from the right at the 1,390-foot takeoff distance line. Since there is no wind, proceed horizontally to the left until you intersect the line you drew parallel to the weight lines. Then, proceed vertically downward and read the takeoff weight limit of approximately 2,875 pounds. 21. CHOICE 3 Use the same initial reference lines you drew for the previous problem. After entering the chart from the right, intersect the 20-knot headwind line and proceed up and to the left, paralleling the diagonal headwind lines, to the reference line. Then move horizontally to your original weight line and downward to read a takeoff weight of about 3,150 pounds. The difference between this weight and the previous problem is 275 pounds. 22. CHOICE 1 First, enter the graph with the temperature which is 14 C above the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) value. Based on the standard lapse rate, the standard temperature at 7,000 feet would be +1C; at 11,000 feet, it would be 7C. However, with the temperature 14 above ISA, the respective values would be +15C at 7,000 feet and +7C at 11,000 feet. From the intersection of these temperatures and the respective altitudes, proceed right until you intersect a weight of 3,400 pounds (interpolation between 3,000 and 3,600 pounds required). Then, move vertically down to find the rate of climb for 7,000 and 11,000 feet. At 7,000 feet, the rate of climb is 1,000 f.p.m.; at 11,000 feet, it is 960 f.p.m. The average (1,000 + 960 2) is 980 f.p.m.; but according to the note, you must subtract 60 f.p.m. because wheel fairings are not installed. 23. CHOICE 2 You can use a flight computer to solve this problem. For a climb of 4,000 feet at an average rate of 920 f.p.m. (4,000 920 = 4.35), it will take 4 minutes, 21 seconds. 24. CHOICE 1 Enter the chart with the given conditions and obtain a fuel flow rate of 103 pounds per hour. According to FAR 91.151, a 45-minute fuel reserve is required for night

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Stage Exam Critiques


operations under VFR. Therefore, you must multiply 103 pounds per hour by 45 minutes (or 0.75 hours) and subtract the result (77.3 pounds) from the usable fuel. The fuel remaining is 212.3 pounds. Use a flight computer to determine the flight time available, 2 hours, 4 minutes. 25. CHOICE 2 Enter the chart at 90F and intersect the 4,000-foot pressure altitude line. Move horizontally to the right to the reference line and parallel the diagonal lines up and to the right. Then enter the chart at the right at the 1,400-foot line, make no adjustment for wind, and proceed left until you reach your diagonal weight line. Now go vertically downward to obtain a landing weight of 2,600 pounds. Convert the fuel burn to pounds (204 pounds), and add this to the landing weight to determine your maximum takeoff weight (2,600 + 204 = 2,804 pounds). 26. CHOICE 1 First, determine the fuel burned in the time given using a flight computer. Convert the answer (32.9 gallons) to pounds (197.6 pounds). Then, subtract the weight of the fuel burned from the total aircraft weight and insert the known values into the CG shift formula. Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations 28. CHOICE 2 Because of reduced distances within which to stop at an airport with a short runway, it is important to check the engine performance before you begin the takeoff roll. In addition, short-field takeoff data are usually based on use of full power prior to brake release. 29. CHOICE 3 To provide the best climb performance, use VX or the speed recommended by the manufacturer for obstacle clearance during a short-field takeoff. Precise airspeed control is essential for an optimum performance climb. 30. CHOICE 1 During a short-field landing, you should lower the nose as soon as it is practical and apply maximum effective braking. Avoid locking the brakes or skidding. If you lowered the flaps during the approach, follow the manufacturers recommendations for flap retraction. In most cases, braking is more effective when you apply back pressure to the control wheel. 31. CHOICE 1 If you are losing altitude because of a nose-low attitude, trying to stop a descent by pulling back on the control wheel simply tightens the turn and may cause an accelerated stall. The proper correction from a nose-low attitude is to decrease the angle of bank first. 32. CHOICE 2 According to the Commercial Practical Test Standards, the bank angle required for a steep turn is 50, 5. 33. CHOICE 2 After you establish the bank angle in a chandelle, you must constantly increase back elevator pressure to maintain the climbing pitch attitude as airspeed gradually decreases. 34. CHOICE 2 After you have established the correct bank angle, pitch attitude is your main concern during the first 90 of turn. Therefore, the requirement for changes in aileron and rudder control pressures are comparatively small. During the second 90 of turn you begin to roll out of the bank, and more back elevator pressure, as well as rudder pressure, is required as the airspeed decreases. 35. CHOICE 2 Throughout the first 90 of turn, you increase the bank angle at a constant rate so you reach the maximum bank angle of approximately 30 at the 90 point of the first 180 turn.

Insert the known values and solve for the unknown. 197.6 3770 197.6 = X 73 72

X = .0553

The new CG is 72 .0553, or 71.94 inches aft of the datum. 27. CHOICE 2 Use the weight shift formula: Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations

Insert the known values and solve for the unknown. X 3,850 = 3.0 179-42

X = 84 lbs.

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Instrument/Commercial Instructors Guide


36. CHOICE 3 On the upwind side of the turn in a steep spiral, you are at the shallowest bank angle, and you are exerting the least amount of back pressure on the flight controls. Your bank angle and back pressure increase as you continue a turn toward the downwind side of the spiral. 37. CHOICE 2 Pivotal altitude is determined by the aircrafts groundspeed. As groundspeed increases during downwind portions of the maneuver, pivotal altitude increases, and as groundspeed decreases, pivotal altitude decreases. Pivotal altitude does not change as you vary the bank angle, unless the bank angle is steep enough to affect your groundspeed. 38. CHOICE 3 Pilots typically try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, and meet schedules. This can have an adverse effect on safety and can impose an unrealistic assessment of piloting skills under stressful conditions. 39. CHOICE 1 Following is an explanation of the six steps: 1. 2. 3. Detect: The decision maker detects the fact that change has occurred. Estimate: The decision maker estimates the need to counter or react to the change. Choose: The decision maker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight. Identify: The decision maker identifies actions which could successfully control the change. Do: The decision maker takes the necessary action. Evaluate: The decision maker evaluates the effect(s) of his/her action countering the change.

Multi-Engine Rating Critiques Stage VI


1. CHOICE 3 Traditional multi-engine aircraft displace the engines symmetrically away from the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. The displacement of the engines from the longitudinal axis can cause a more pronounced left-turning tendency due to the offset thrust moments. 2. CHOICE 3 The engine torque tends to roll a conventional twin-engine airplane opposite to the direction of engine and propeller rotation. This rolling tendency, which is common to single-engine aircraft, is compounded by the size of the propellers and more powerful engines. 3. CHOICE 1 The absolute altitude is the maximum density altitude the airplane is capable of attaining or maintaining. At this altitude the VX speed reaches its peak and VY speed reaches its lowest at the same speed. This altitude also assumes gross weight in a clean configuration, and maximum continuous power. When determining single-engine absolute altitude the propeller of the critical engine is feathered. 4. CHOICE 3 Banking toward the operating engine during engine-out operations reduces the amount of rudder deflection needed to maintain directional control. This technique will reduce VMC and ensure stall characteristics will not be degraded. 5. CHOICE 3 During engine-out operations, greater caution is required when turning away from the operating engine. Flight tests have shown that banking toward the inoperative engine can actually increase VMC by 20 knots in some aircraft. 6. CHOICE 3 When an engine fails at the multi-engine service ceiling, the aircraft will initially descend to the single-engine absolute ceiling. The single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude at which the singleengine best rate-of-climb airspeed VYSE will produce a 50 f.p.m. rate of climb. 7. CHOICE 3 VYSE will achieve the minimum rate of descent when an engine failure occurs above the single-engine service ceiling. Since conserving altitude is generally important, the airspeed should never be reduced below VYSE during the descent.

4.

5. 6.

40. CHOICE 3 FAR 121.542 and 135.100 specifically prohibit crewmember performance of nonessential duties or activities while the aircraft is involved in taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, except cruise flight.

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Stage Exam Critiques


8. CHOICE 2 Depending on the aircraft type, the greatest amount of drag may be full flap extension, or a windmilling propeller. In any case, the manufacturers recommended procedure to streamline the aircraft or feather and secure the inoperative engine when restarting is not possible should be followed as soon as the engine is identified. 9. CHOICE 3 The singe engine best rate-ofclimb speed produces the maximum climb rate or the minimum rate of descent with one engine inoperative. This airspeed is normally used when altitude is the prime consideration after engine failure. 10. CHOICE 3 FAR Part 23 has established minimum control speed (VMC) with the critical engine inoperative and the other engine developing takeoff power. The wing and the cowl flaps are in the takeoff position with the landing gear retracted. The airplane is loaded to maximum takeoff weight with the most unfavorable, usually most aft, center of gravity. Finally, a bank of not more than five degrees is established toward the good engine. 11. CHOICE 3 After takeoff, the first power reduction should be made upon reaching a safe maneuvering altitude and airspeed. The reduction of power prior to this will lengthen the time to climb to a safe altitude leaving less time and altitude should an emergency situation arise. 12. CHOICE 3 A go-around from the final approach with both engines operating should be initiated by increasing to full power then reducing drag by raising the flaps to the takeoff setting and retracting the landing gear. As always, you should follow the manufacturers recommended procedure. A go-around with one engine inoperative is advisable under only the most favorable conditions of weight, altitude, and temperature. A single engine approach should be planned carefully so a goaround is not required. 13. CHOICE 3 If an engine failure occurs on takeoff prior to VMC, the pilot should retard both throttles immediately and stop the aircraft with braking action. The primary objectives during engine failure on the takeoff roll are to maintain control and stop the aircraft on the runway. 14. CHOICE 2 If an engine is producing partial power, the pilot should delay feathering the propeller until a thorough review of the appropriate checklist is complete and the prospect of regaining power is lost. As always, the manufacturers recommendations should be followed. 15. CHOICE 3 To recover from an engine-out VMC demonstration, retard the throttle on the operating engine, decrease the angle of attack to regain control and, if necessary, adjust power on the operative engine to maintain control and conserve altitude. Emphasis should be placed on the minimum loss of altitude. 16. CHOICE 1 Counterweights on propellers aid in feathering by overcoming the propellers centrifugal twisting force by redistributing the weight of the propeller. The counterweights change the propellers center of mass, allowing the centrifugal force to actually aid in feathering. Other systems, such as a mechanical spring or compressed air, can also help move the propeller to a higher pitch angle. 17. CHOICE 2 A maximum zero fuel weight is applicable on some airplanes to limit the ratio of loads between the fuselage and wings. The maximum load that an airplane can carry also depends on the way the load is distributed. The weight of an airplane in flight is supported largely by the wings; therefore as the load carried in the fuselage is increased, the bending moment of the wings is increased. 18. CHOICE 1 To find the highest pressure altitude at which 75 percent BHP is available, find the 75% BHP line and follow it diagonally to the 2,500 RPM Full Throttle line. The intersection of the 75% BHP line and the Full Throttle line corresponds to the pressure altitude on the left at 7,800 feet. 19. CHOICE 1 Start by finding the point on the graph where the 9,000 foot pressure altitude line and the diagonal 65% BHP line meet. Follow this point straight down to the line charts below the graph. Notice that there are really three lines to choose from (978 lbs., 600 lbs., and 1,218 lbs.). Use the 600 lbs. usable fuel line and interpolate to find the approximate range to be 535 nautical miles.

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Instrument/Commercial Instructors Guide


20. CHOICE 1 Use the weight shift formula: Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations 7. Insert the known values and solve for the unknown. X 5,700 = 1.5 153-15 6. CHOICE 2 Nosewheel steering can be used without assistance with great effectiveness during most ground operations. Using differential braking or power can be used to augment nosewheel steering when sharp turns are required. CHOICE 2 Multi-engine airplanes require special pretakeoff planning in order to mentally and physically prepare for the numerous scenarios if an engine failed during the takeoff phase. These contingencies should be exercised mentally well before beginning the takeoff roll. CHOICE 1 The fuel-flow gauge is a good indication of proper engine function and proper power development. The airspeed indicator is also important in order to monitor acceleration and help attain maximum performance during normal and engine-out operations. CHOICE 1 After the landing gear and flaps have been retracted the airplane should be accelerated to VY in order to gain the maximum amount of altitude in the shortest time.

X = 62 lbs.

Multi-Engine Rating Critiques End-of-Course Exam


1. CHOICE 1 A factor that contributes to leftturning tendency is the asymmetrical loading of the propeller. The descending blades produce more thrust than the ascending blades causing the thrust to be displaced to the right of the engines center. Because the thrust is not centered, the resulting total thrust moment tends to turn the airplane to the left. 2. CHOICE 3 The multi-engine service ceiling is the maximum density altitude where the best rate of climb speed will provide 100 f.p.m. climb. The single-engine service ceiling is that altitude at which the rate of climb is 50 f.p.m. with one engine inoperative. 3. CHOICE 1 The safest procedure to follow when the accelerate-stop distance is longer than the available runway and the existing airport density altitude is higher than the single-engine service ceiling is to off-load fuel, baggage, or passengers to reduce weight and/or wait for more favorable winds and density altitude conditions. 4. CHOICE 3 VYSE is shown on the airspeed indicator by the blue radial line. This speed produces the most altitude gain in a given time with one engine inoperative. 5. CHOICE 1 VX is commonly called the obstruction clearance speed because it produces the most altitude gain over a given distance with both engines operating.

8.

9.

10. CHOICE 2 During a normal landing approach power is gradually reduced to idle as the airplane approaches touchdown. The reduction of power too early may create a dangerously low approach. 11. CHOICE 1 Stall recovery is initiated at the first aerodynamic indication of a stall (buffeting or decay of control effectiveness) unless the pilots operating handbook specifies recovery prompted by an artificial warning system, such as a stall warning horn. 12. CHOICE 1 Shutting off the electric fuel pumps after engine starting is done for the same reason it is done in single-engine aircraft, to confirm the reliability of the engine-driven pumps. 13. CHOICE 2 Generator systems typically require a minimum engine r.p.m. of 1,000 before they supply power to the electrical system. During low engine r.p.m.s alternators will provide adequate electrical power. 14. CHOICE 2 With an aft CG, regardless of airspeed, the aircraft is very unstable in pitch. If the CG is too far aft, it may not be possible to lower the nose during a stall recovery.

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Stage Exam Critiques


15. CHOICE 2 The following formula is used to determine the amount of weight to be moved: Weight of Cargo Moved Weight of Airplane Distance CG Moves Distance Between Arm Locations 19. CHOICE 2 VMC is determined with the aircraft in the following configuration: Takeoff or maximum available power on the operating engine, critical engine windmilling (or feathered if autofeather device is installed), landing gear retracted, flaps in takeoff position, and CG in the most unfavorable position (usually at the aft limit). 20. CHOICE 3 The purpose of the engine-out VMC demonstration is to show the control pressures necessary to maintain directional control with one engine inoperative. Below a specified airspeed (VMC), these control pressures become inadequate, and directional control is lost. The pilot must also learn the correct recovery procedures. 21. CHOICE 1 As in single-engine aircraft, departing when conditions are below landing minimums should be avoided in the event it becomes necessary to return to the departure airport because of an emergency. 22. CHOICE 3 Flying slower in a holding pattern will conserve fuel, decrease the distance traveled in the pattern, and make it easier to maintain assigned altitude. 23. CHOICE 3 By providing accurate glide path information to touchdown and minimizing the need to maintain altitude for an extended period of time, a precision approach is the best option when faced with an engine-out IMC situation. 24. CHOICE 1 In light multi-engine aircraft, the pilot should attempt to fly the approach like a normal multi-engine procedure, with the exception of gear and flap extension. Landing gear should only be lowered when landing is assured. 25. CHOICE 2 As with landing gear, flaps should only be lowered when landing is assured during an engine-out instrument approach. While this is typically the procedure for multi-engine aircraft, the POH for the specific airplane should always be consulted.

In the example: Weight of Cargo Moved = unknown Weight of Airplane = 4000 lbs. Distance CG Moves = 0.5 in. (Current CG location minus Aft CG limit) Distance Between Arm Locations = 120 in. (Aft baggage compartment arm minus Forward baggage compartment arm) Weight of Cargo Moved = 2000 120 or 16.7 pounds 16. CHOICE 2 The accelerate-stop distance is the distance required under given conditions to accelerate to liftoff speed, experience an engine failure at that point, immediately discontinue the takeoff, and bring the airplane to a full stop. 17. CHOICE 2 Begin in the lower left corner of the chart with an OAT of 70F. Follow that line vertically to the 6,000 ft. pressure altitude line. From this point continue horizontally to the Reference Line, then diagonally down to a weight of 3,750 pounds. Next, move horizontally from this point to the second Reference Line, then diagonally down to compensate for the 10 knot headwind. Finally from this point proceed horizontally to determine a landing distance of approximately 2,465 feet. 18. CHOICE 3 FAR 23.67(a) states, in the pertinent part, for airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less maximum weight or a VSO of 61 knots or less, must have a positive climb gradient determined at a pressure altitude of 5,000 feet, with the critical engine inoperative, the propeller in the minimum drag position, landing gear retracted, and wing flaps in the most favorable position.

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Instrument/Commercial Instructors Guide

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