Weight&Balance, Flightoperation, CRM, Meteorology

W e ig h t & B a la n c e ,Flig h t O p e r a t io n ,CRM ,M e t e o r o lo g y
Chapter 5. Weight and Balance 1. What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? A.Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability B.Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. C.Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. 2.What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range? A.Sluggish in aileron control. B.Sluggish in rudder control C.Unstable about the lateral axis 3.As the CG is moved forward, the stability A.Improves B.Decrease C.dose not change 4.In flight ,as the time goes on , the CG will A.change B.not change C.may change or may not change 5.In small airplanes, normal recovery form spins may become difficult if the A.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B.-CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C.-spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. Chapter 6. Flight Operations 1.Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines A.May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes B.May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing C.May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. 2.Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A.Who was responsible for any accident or incident B.Evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action C.Possible causes of accidents or incidents 3.Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: A.Of an intersecting taxiway only. B.Of some designated point on the runway. C.Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway. 4.Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than A.8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours B.10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours C.10 consecutive hours of duty 5.Northwest wind can be presented as A. 200or NW B. 315or NW C. 135or SE 6.Prior to listing an aircraft as an alternate airport in the dispatch release, weather reports must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A.during the entire flight. B.for the period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. C.when the flight arrives. 7.Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to A.the specific duties of any required crewmember. B.exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C.exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft. 8.Route that require a flight navigator are listed in the A.Airplane Flight Manual B.International Flight Information Manual C.Air Carrier's Operations Specifications 9.Series A NOTAMs is mainly released to A.domestic airport flight information office. B.foreign international NOTAMs office. C.domestic area flight information center. 10.Series C NOTAMs of Class 2 must be disseminated to domestic area flight information center NOTAMs office A.25 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.7 days ago. 11.The "runway hold position" sign denotes A.An area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway B.An entrance to runway from a taxiway C.Intersecting runways 12.The ATS unit must ensure that pilots are kept informed of any change in the status of airport facilities _____. A. at their destinations B. at their alternate aerodromes C. A and B 13.What terms could a ATC furnishes pilots' braking action reports using?
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A. "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" or a combination of these terms. B. the percentage of the proximate braking action. C. only use "good", "fair", "poor" and "nil" with no combination of these terms. 14.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, whose normal cruise speed is 150 knots? A. 150 knots B. 250 knots C. 330 knots 15.when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston aircraft departing an airport? A. 170 knots B. 150 knots C. 130 knots 16.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots 17.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots 18.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating except 20 miles from threshold? A. 200 knots B. 170 knots C. 150 knots 19.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a piston arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots B. 200 knots C. 150 knots 20.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turboprop arrival aircraft operating below 3,000 meters? A. 210 knots
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B. 200 knots C. 170 knots 21.when a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbojet aircraft departing an airport? A. 250 knots B. 230 knots C. 210 knots 22.What is the hijack code? A. 7200. B. 7500. C. 7777. 23.The fuel reserve required for a reciprocatingengine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the contiguous China is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. The fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 24.The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the contiguous China , after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less. 25.Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turboprop flag air carrier airplane? A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. B. 45 minutes at holding altitude. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less. 26.What phases is the Critical Flight Phases? A. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters, taxi, takeoff, and landing. B. climb and descent when below 3,000 meters. C. takeoff, and landing. 27.What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested. B. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary C. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
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28.What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route. C. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. 29.Instructions are directives issued by ATC for the purpose of? A.requiring a pilot to read back. B.keeping flight status. C.requiring a pilot to take specific action. 30.It should be reported without ATC request that A. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. B. When unable to descend at a rate of at least 1000 feet per minute. C. When unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 600 feet per minute. 31.The bottom of the Class B airspace is appropriate to A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. 32.The cruising speed of an aircraft is 800 kilometers, what should be entered in the CRUISING SPEED section of the flight plan? A.850. B.K0850. C.0850K. 33.The lowest ILS Category II minimums are A.DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. B.DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. C.DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet. 34.The propose of the speed adjustment issued by ATC to the radar-controlled aircraft are? A. to achieve the desired separation. B. to maintain enough separation; C. both A and B The top of Class D airspace corresponds to A.600m AGL. B.Final approach fix. C.The first holding pattern level. Under what condition does ATC issue safety alerts? A. When collision with another aircraft is imminent. B. If the aircraft altitude is noted to be in close proximity to the surface or an obstacle. C. When weather conditions are extreme and wind shear or large hail is in the vicinity. Under what condition should a pilot on IFR advise ATC of minimum fuel status? A. When the fuel supply becomes less than that required for IFR. B. If the remaining fuel suggests a need for traffic or landing priority. C. If the remaining fuel precludes any undue delay. What does the term "minimum fuel" imply to ATC? A. Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport. B. Emergency handling is required to the nearest suitable airport. C. Advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should an undue delay occur. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A.100 feet AGL. B.150 feet AGL. C.200 feet AGL. What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A.2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating. B.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C.1 hour at normal cruising speed in still air with both engines operating. What is the purpose of a prohibited airspace? A.To prohibit entry of any aircrafts. B.To prohibit entry of air force aircrafts only. C.To prohibit entry of civil aircrafts only. 35.What is the purpose of an ATC instruction? A.To require a pilot to take a specific action. B.To state some important information. C.To warn the pilot. 36.What is the purpose of danger airspace? A.To warn nonparticipating aircrafts of the potential danger. B.To prohibit nonparticipating aircrafts of entry. C.To protect military activities. 37.What is the time interval for filing flight plan? A.At least one hour prior to the departure time.
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B.At least 30 minutes prior to the departure time. C.At least one hour and a half prior to the departure time. 38.What is the time limitation for filing flight application? A.At least before 1500 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. B.At least before 1700 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. C.At least before 1200 Beijing Time prior to the departure date. 39.What report should the pilot make at a clearance limit? A. time and altitude/flight level arriving or leaving. B. time, altitude/flight level, and expected holding speed. C. time, altitude/flight level, expected holding speed, and inbound leg length. 40.When a flight plan indicates IFR for the entire route, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. 41.When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS. Which rule applies? A.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed. by means of VOR NAVIDS, to a suitable airport and land. B.The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. C.The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. 42.When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A.VOR B.ADF C.VOR and DME 43.When an ATC controller assigns a too low speed for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. reduce speed to the assigned speed. B. reduce speed to the minimum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used. 44.When can a pilot expect landing priority? A. on a first-come, first serve basis, because the Air Traffic Control towers handle all aircraft regardless of the type of flight plan. B. during emergency
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C. both A and B 45.When can an aircraft be expected of changing frequency from tower to ground control after landing? A. just after landing and stop taxiing on the runway. B. remain on the tower frequency until instructed to do otherwise. C. when exit the runway. 46.When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. 47.When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A.The alternate minimums calculated from the IAP chart. B.The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart. C.visibility 1,600m and ceiling 120m. 48.When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report A. within 10 days after the deviation. B. after returning home. C. after the flight is completed. 49.When the tower controller instructs the taxiway to the aircraft during landing taxi, which taxi way can an aircraft use? A. exit the runway at the nearest suitable taxiway without delay. B. exit the runway at the taxiway given by the tower controller. C. exit the runway at the suitable taxiway on the pilot's determination. 50.When vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than __and to provide at least __straight and level flight prior to ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track intercept. A.30degrees,2km B.40 degrees,2km C.30degrees,1.5km 51.Where does a danger airspace may be located? A.Over the territory only. B.Over the territory or open sea abut to China. C.Over the open sea only. 52.Where does a prohibited airspace be set up?
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A.Over domestic only. B.Over open sea. C.Over domestic or open sea. 53.Where does a restricted airspace be set up? A.Over open sea. B.Over domestic only. C.Over domestic and open sea. 54.Which altitude is appropriate for the ceiling of Class C airspace?(600--6000) A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. C.FL 6,600m. 55.Which altitude is appropriate for the floor of Class A airspace? A.FL 6,000m. B.FL 6,300m. 6600m C.The first holding pattern altitude. 56.Which altitude is appropriate to the top of Class B airspace?(600--6000) A.FL 6,300m. B.FL 6,000m. C.FL 600m. 57.Which letter do you select to fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box during IFR flight training? A.N. B.S. C.G. 58.Which of following might not normally need be reported without ATC request? A. expected holding speed B. vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned one. C. when unable to climb or descend at a rate of at least 500 feet per minute. 59.Which of following should be reported without ATC request as a compulsory report? A. passengers on board B. ordering galley supplies C. when an approach has been missed. 60.Which points should be reported to ATC without request? A. when leaving the final approach fix outbound. B. when leaving an assigned holding fix. C. when leaving the final approach fix outbound, or when leaving an assigned holding fix. 61.Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight? A.Increase speed for a headwind. B.Increase speed for a tailwind. C.Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a
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tailwind. 62.Which regulation does the pilot must comply with during operation within Class A airspace? A.Approach Control Regulation. B.Visual Flight Regulation. C.Instrument Control Regulation. 63.Which reports are required when operating IFR in radar environment? A. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared. B. Position reports, vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, and time and altitude reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, and a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots. C. Vacating an altitude, unable to climb 500 ft/min, reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared, a change in average true airspeed exceeding 5 percent or 10 knots, and leaving any assigned holding fix or point. 64.While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow? A. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. B. Advise ATC immediately. C. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency. 65.While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance? A. The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. B. An off-airway route to the point of departure. C. The route filed in the flight plan. 66.Who is responsible for the issue of Class 2 NOTAMs? A.Domestic flight information center NOTAMs office. B.ATMB NOTAMs office. C.International NOTAMs office of CAAC flight information center. 67.Who is responsible for the issue of Series D NOTAMs? A.CCAFC. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. 68.Who is responsible for the issue of SNOWTAM? A.ATMB NOTAMs office. B.Area flight information center. C.Airport flight information office. 69.Who is responsible of arranging the separation
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of the aircrafts within Class A airspace? A.Air Traffic Controller. (ATC) B.Pilot-in-command. C.Dispatcher. 70.Why the ATC ask the aircraft for speed adjustment? A. to check the performance of the aircraft; B. because ATC do think high speed is not good for safety; C. to achieve or maintain the desired separation. 71.You can't enter tower controlled airspace under IFR weather conditions unless you have filed an IFR flight plan and A.slowed down to the final approach IAS. B.received an ATC clearance. C.climbed to the appropriate altitude. 72.You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of runway when A.The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign B.The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line C.All parts of aircraft have crossed the hold line. 73.You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. A. This will ensure your priority handling by ATC. B. ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency. C. If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes. 74.Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Person who found the emergency. B. Person who heard the emergency. C. Pilot in command. 75.Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A.Aircraft dispatcher. B.Director of operations or flight follower. C.Pilot in command. 76.While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A.One engine, on a multiengine aircraft B.Airborne radar C.DME
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77.(1-1) At a waypoint , PTL 130 is notified that the Chongqing Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Chengdu Inti Airport.PTL 130 is operating under CCAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727. What are PICs minimums for the VOR/DME RWY 02 approach? A. MDH150m,VIS2400m. B.MDH120m,VIS1600m. C.MDH100m,VIS1600m. 78.(Refer to Figure 6-1) At what point must the missed approach be initiated on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R at CAPITAL, if still IMC? A.D0.3 PEK. B.Above PEK VOR. C.D0.2 PEK. 79.(Refer to Figure 6-1) During final approach, the altitude of LOM is 1,360 feet, the height of LOM to the touchdown zone is A.1,360 feet. B.1,245 feet. C.1,262 feet. 80.(Refer to Figure 6-1) During the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what was the appropriate rate of descent? A.632 feet per minute. B.843 feet per minute. C.737 feet per minute. 81.(Refer to Figure 6-1) How can the FAF on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R of CAPITAL be identified? A.11.7NM from PEK. B.11.7KM from PEK. C.11.7SM from PEK. 82.(Refer to Figure 6-1) If the pilot has identified PEK on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the touchdown zone does a Category C aircraft descend to in IMC? A.372 feet. B.470 feet. C.525 feet. 83.(Refer to Figure 6-1) The ATIS of CAPITAL airport is broadcast on the frequency of A.127.6MHz. B.127.6KHz. C.114.7MHz. 84.(Refer to Figure 6-1) The FAF is indicated with a cross in the profile view of the chart. To what height does the aircraft descend when it intercepts the final approach segment? A.1360 feet.
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B.3940 feet. C.3842 feet. 85.(Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.900 feet. C.1,244 feet. 86.(Refer to Figure 6-1) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach chart is 1,496 feet MSL, what is the height above the airport of this obstruction then? A.1,398 feet. B.1,026 feet. C.1,381 feet. 87.(Refer to Figure 6-1) What are the landing minimums for B737 with ALS out? A.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,600m. B.MDA 470 feet and VIS 1,500m. C.MDA 470 feet and RVR 1,500m. 88.(Refer to Figure 6-1) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the VOR/DME Rwy 36R approach at CAPITAL? A.308KHz. B.114.7MHz. C.240KHz. 89.(Refer to Figure 6-1) When the aircraft is intercepting R-188 HUR with an intercept angle of 45o during go-around, how much is the intercept heading? A.143o. B.233o. C.53o. 90.(Refer to Figure 6-1) Which approach lighting is available for VOR/DME Rwy 36R? A.HIALS. B.HIALS with PAPI. C.PAPI. 91.(Refer to Figure 6-1) While being turning from D34.0 HUR to D16.0 PEK for the VOR/DME Rwy 36R, Beijing Approach control tells pilot to contact the Tower, what frequency should be tuned? A.118.1KHz. B.118.5KHz. C.118.1MHz. 92.(Refer to Figure 6-2) During the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 150 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent? A.760 feet per minute.
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B.780 feet per minute. C.800 feet per minute. 93.(Refer to Figure 6-2) How can the FAF on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L of CAPITAL be identified? A.16.5KM from ILG. B.16.5NM from ILG. C.16.5SM from ILG. 94.(Refer to Figure 6-2) How much is the height from LOM to the touchdown zone while executing ILS/DME approach? A.762 feet. B.870 feet. C.755 feet. 95.(Refer to Figure 6-2) If an aircraft is cleared to circle-to-land on Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, and its maximum speed is approximately 180 knots, what height above the airport could it descend to? A.870 feet. B.762 feet. C.755 feet. 96.(Refer to Figure 6-2) If the pilot has identified IDK on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L straight-in land at CAPITAL, what height above the airport does a Category B aircraft descend to in IMC? A.308 feet. B.193 feet. C.200 feet. 97.(Refer to Figure 6-2) The aircraft has landed at 1100, pilot should contact with Ground Control on the frequency of A.121.7MHz. B.121.9MHz. C.121.7KHz. 98.(Refer to Figure 6-2) The glide slope angle of ILS/DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL is 3o, what is the corresponding rate of descent? A.5.2%. B.4.8%. C.5.5%. 99.(Refer to Figure 6-2) The highest terrain shown in the plan view section of the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach chart is A.1,496 feet. B.1,244 feet. C.900 feet. 100.(Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the frequency of the primary navaid facility on the ILS/DME Rwy 36L approach at CAPITAL? A.110.3MHz. B.114.7MHz. C.111.7MHz.
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101.(Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the identifier of HUAIROU VOR/DME? A.HUR. B.PEK. C.IDK. 102.(Refer to Figure 6-2) What is the procedure for initiating the missed approach on the ILS/ DME Rwy 36L at CAPITAL? A.Climb straight ahead to L NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. B.Climb straight ahead to 990 feet. C.Climb straight ahead to LG NDB, right turn, then select HUR VOR. 103.(Refer to Figure 6-2) Which approach lighting is available for ILS/DME Rwy 36L? A.HIALS with PAPI. B.HIALS. C.PAPI. 104.(Refer to Figure 6-3) If an aircraft has been aligned with the center line of Rwy 35 at PUDONG, the heading indicator should indicate A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. 105.(Refer to Figure 6-3) The magnetic direction of Rwy 17 at PUDONG is A.162o. B.172o. C.167o. 106.(Refer to Figure 6-3) The true direction of Rwy 35 at PUDONG is A.342o. B.347o. C.352o. 107.(Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of PUDONG airport? A.8 feet. B.10 feet. C.12 feet. 108.(Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.8 feet. B.12 feet. C.10 feet. 109.(Refer to Figure 6-3) What is the elevation of Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.10 feet. B.8 feet. C.12 feet. 110.(Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be checked first while asking for takeoff clearance at PUDONG airport? A.124.35MHz. B.127.85MHz. C.118.8MHz. 111.(Refer to Figure 6-3) Which frequency should be selected to check the airport and weather conditions prior to departure from PUDONG? A.127.85MHz. B.124.35MHz. C.121.65MHz. 112.(Refer to Figure 6-3) While requesting the start-up time at PUDONG airport, pilot should tune at first on the frequency of A.124.35MHz. B.121.65MHz. C.127.85MHz. 113.(Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for landing beyond on Rwy 35 at PUDONG? A.12,097 feet. B.12,093 feet. C.13,123 feet. 114.(Refer to Figure 6-3, 6-4) What distance is available for takeoff on Rwy 17 at PUDONG? A.12,093 feet. B.12,097 feet. C.13,123 feet. 115.(Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft of Category D with 4 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG with HIRL and CL operating? A.RVR 300m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 250m. 116.(Refer to Figure 6-4) For an aircraft with 2 turbo-powered engines, what is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 35 at PUDONG with only RL operating? A.RVR 250m. B.RVR 400m. C.RVR 200m. 117.(Refer to Figure 6-4) The color of Rwy 17 HIALS is A.blue. B.white. C.green. 118.(Refer to Figure 6-4) What is the takeoff minimum for Rwy 17 at PUDONG that applies to an aircraft with 2 propelled engines?
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A.VIS 1,600m. B.RVR 200m. C.RVR 250m. 119.(Refer to Figure 6-5) At the bottom of this enroute chart excerpt, ZHENGZHOU ACC's information is enclosed in a rectangle, what is the meaning of the asterisk symbol preceding 122.20? A.It means frequency 122.20 is very important. B.It means VHF communication is available on a parttime basis. C.It means 122.20 MHz is the major communication frequency. 120.(Refer to Figure 6-5) If an aircraft is estimated to arrive WEIXIAN at 1300z, pilot should contact ZHENGZHOU CONTROL on the frequency of A.122.20MHz. B.8897KHz. C.3016KHz. 121.(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the announced FL on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.9,000m. B.12,000m. C.3,100m. 122.(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MAA on the airway A461 between ZHOUKOU and WEIXIAN? A.FL 29,500 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. 123.(Refer to Figure 6-5) What is the MSA on the airway B215 between TAIYUAN and DAWANGZHUANG? A.FL 10,100 feet. B.FL 8,100 feet. C.FL 39,400 feet. 124.(Refer to Figure 6-6) After takeoff from Rwy 36L at CAPITAL, if the flight is cleared to depart via YV 4D, pilot must tune VHF NAV on the frequency of A.114.7MHz. B.514MHz. C.113.6MHz. 125.(Refer to Figure 6-6) Determine the VHF NAV frequency for the YV 14D after takeoff from Rwy 36R at CAPITAL on A.113.6KHz. B.113.6MHz. C.114.7MHz. 126.(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate
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of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 4.6% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.690 feet/minute. B.644 feet/minute. C.600 feet/minute 127.(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 150 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 5% to 4,930 as specified on the SID? A.760 feet/minute. B.851 feet/minute. C.699 feet/minute 128.(Refer to Figure 6-6) Using an average ground speed of 220 knots to depart along VY2D, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb gradient of 6.2% to FL148? A.1,320 feet/minute B.1,400 feet/minute C.1,364 feet/minute. 129.(Refer to Figure 6-6) What is the identifier of TANGHEKOU NDB? A.YV. B.WF. C.DK. 130.(Refer to Figure 6-7) For a CAT D aircraft arriving along 007o, the pilot-in-command could descend it to A.FL138. B.FL128. C.FL158. 131.(Refer to Figure 6-7) How should the pilot identify the position to leave the area control for the LR 2A? A.GUBEIKOU NDB. B.HUAIROU VOR/DME. C.The descent moment on the course of 227o. 132.(Refer to Figure 6-7) If an aircraft belongs to CAT B and is descending along the course of 227o, which altitude could it descend to? A.FL158. B.FL148. C.FL168. 133.(Refer to Figure 6-7) If the en route altitude of an aircraft is FL118, what is the altitude when the aircraft operates to DAWANGZHUANG along 007o A.FL118. B.FL128. C.FL138.
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134.(Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of KM 2A is at A.The point cleared by ATC. B.D38 to HUAIROU. C.HUAILAI. 135.(Refer to Figure 6-7) The initial point of VYK 2A is at A.D25 to PEK VOR/DME. B.DAWANGZHUANG. C.The point cleared by ATC. 136.A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. 137.A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. 138.A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A.entering approach controlled airspace. B.entering instrument meteorology conditions. C.takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums. 139.A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only 140.A plane, MH 160, receive this ATC clearance: "...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD SOUNTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only 141.A plane, MH 240, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE
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TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only 142.A plane, MH 300, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD WEST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only 143.A plane, MH 60, receive this ATC clearance: "... HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL...",What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A.Teardrop only B.Direct only C.Parallel only 144.A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of A.obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. B.having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). C.providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable. 145.Activities, which are prohibited during critical phases of flight, include that A. filling out logs B. making passenger announcements C. both a and b 146.After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3minutes. C. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. 147.An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:
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A.destination airport. B.provisional airport. C.alternate airport. 148.An alternate airport for departure is required A.if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B.when the weather forecast at the estimated time of departure is for landing minimums only. C.when destination weather is marginal IFR. 149.An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojetpowered airplane on an IFR outside the contiguous China, if enough fuel A. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. 150.An alternate airport must be listed in the dispatch and flight release for all international operation air carrier flights longer than A.7 hours. B.8 hours. C.6 hours. An ATC "instruction" A.must be read back in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming effective. B.is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take specific action. C.is the same as an ATC clearance. 151.Below that altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crew members prohibited? A. 3,000 meters. B. B. 3,600 meters. C. C. 6,000 meters. 152.Class 2 NOTAMs could be divided into 2 A.Series A and Series C. B.Series A, Series C and Series D. C.Series A and Series D. 153.During the period of Spring Festival, if you are assigned to an additional flight, you should fill in the TYPE OF FLIGHT box with letter A.N. B.M. C.X. 154.Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is
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expected to notify ATC and A.Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATS has radar contact B.Request a new ATC clearance C.Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory , after the conflict is resolved 155.How many days ago does a Class 1 NOTAM must be disseminated before it becomes effective? A.7 days ago. B.15 days ago. C.28 days ago. 156.How often is SNOWTAM broadcast to distant centers? A.Hourly. B.One hour and a half a time. C.30 minutes a time. 157.If a flight has not been cleared for approach while on a radar vector and it becomes apparent that the current vector will take it across the final approach course A. the pilot should advise ATC of the situation. Do not turn to intercept the approach course unless cleared to do so. B. after advising ATC of the situation, the pilot may turn to intercept the approach course. C. the pilot may make a chance between A and B 158.If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. B. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. 159.If a pilot suspects that he/she is suffering the effects of hypoxia, the most appropriate remedy would be A.use supplement oxygen or descend immediately to a low level B.voluntarily increase the depth of breathing to induce more oxygen into the lungs C.voluntarily increase the breathing rate to increase the oxygen uptake 160.If a received ATC clearance seems to be conflict to a regulation, the pilot should A.Do not accept the clearance. B.Read the clearance back entirely. C.Request a clarification from the ATC immediately. 161.If an aircraft is operating within Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed greater than 250 knots, the elevation of the highest mountain from left 25 kilometers to right 25 kilometers along the
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route is 2,650 meters, the minimum safe altitude is A.3,250m. (+600m) B.3,050m. C.2,950m. 162.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, can the pilot received landing clearance from ATC? A. yes. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. B. no. At this time it is the pilot's responsibility for the landing safety if the pilot decide to land. C. no. the aircraft is prohibit for landing by the ATC. 163.If an aircraft requests to land on a closed or unsafe runway, the pilot will be informed by ATC as A. no aircraft are allowed to land. B. clear to land with caution. C. runway is closed or unsafe runway. 164.If an ATC controller assigns a speed, which is too fast for the aircraft's operating limitation under the existing circumstance, what should the pilot do? A. increase speed to the assigned speed. B. increase speed to the maximum speed at that circumstance. C. advise ATC of the speed that will be used and expect the controller issue new speed. 165.If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with0.70,CRUISING SPEED A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. AX 166.If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 0.70 Marh, pilot may enter the CRUISING SPEED box with A.M070. B.070M. C.M0070. 167.If the cruising speed of an aircraft is 420 nautical miles, pilot should fill in the CRUISING SPEED block with A.420N. B.N420. C.N0420. 168.If the earliest takeoff time is 0800z, the first SNOWTAM must be sent out prior to A.0600z. B.0630z. C.0700z. 169.If the estimated time of departure is 1400
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Beijing Time, pilot should file flight plan at least before A.1330 Beijing Time. B.1300 Beijing Time. C.1230 Beijing Time. 170.If the first portion of the flight is under IFR and the latter portion is under VFR, pilot should fill the FLIGHT RULES box with letter A.Y. B.I. C.Z. 171.If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 10,200 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F1020. B.S1020. C.L1020. 172.If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 25,600 feet, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.F256. B.F0256. C.M256. 173.If the flight level of an aircraft is desired to be 9,000 meters, pilot should fill in the LEVEL block of the flight plan with A.M9000. B.S9000. C.M0900. 174.If the landing minimums for a NDB approach shown on the IAP chart are visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.Visibility 2,800m and MDA 180m. B.Visibility 3,600m and MDA 240m. C.Visibility 2,000m and MDA 120m. 175.If the landing minimums for an ILS approach shown on the IAP chart are RVR 550m and DH 60m, which minimums apply when you actually divert to this airport? A.RVR 800m and DH 60m. B.RVR 550m and DH 60m. C.RVR 1,600m and DH 120m. 176.If the pilot decided to land on a closed or unsafe runway in emergency, who is responsible for the safety in controlled airport? A. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and the separations between other aircraft. B. it is the pilot's responsibility for the operating of the aircraft and it is the ATC's responsibility for the separations between other aircraft. C. no one have the responsibility during emergency
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situation. 177.If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 180,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is A.from south to north B.from west to east C.from north to south 178.If the wind direction measured by the weather station is 270,the optimum takeoff and landing direction is A.from east to west B.from west to east C.from north to south Chapter 7. Emergency, Physiology and CRM 1.Night vision is enhanced by A.looking slightly to one side of objects you wish to view B.fixing your gaze director on the object you wish to view. C.ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated 2.One of the effects of hypoxia is a degradation of night vision. This effect begins at about A.5000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet 3.Relying on the instruments and believing what they tell you, are the keys to avoid vestibular illusion. The statement is A.right B.wrong 4.Scanning procedures for effective collision avoidance should constitute A.looking outside for 15 seconds, then inside for 5 seconds, then repeat. B.1 minute inside scanning, then 1 minute outside scanning, then repeat. C.looking outside every 30 seconds except in radar contact when outside scanning is unnecessary. 5.Some hazardous attitudes may affect pilot decision making. One of the characteristic of "Anti-authority" is A.refuses to listen to the advice or suggestions of others B.adopt all rules, regulations, and procedures as far as possible C.does the first thing that comes to mind. 6.The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmember serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 250.
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7.The fuel reserve required, for a turboprop supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal consumption no wind condition. B. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 2 hours at normal cruising furl consumption. 8.The fuel reserve required for a turbine-enginepowered (other than turboprop) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous China is A. 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft over the airport. B. 30 minutes over airport at 1,500 ft at cruising speed. C. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate. 9.The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 10.What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-enginepowered airplane flying within contiguous China upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to to the alternate. B. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 11.When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of an aircraft operating above 3,000 meters, whose normal cruising speed is 350 knot? A. 350 knots B. 330 knots C. 250 knots 12.The average time of useful consciousness when engaged in moderate activity following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet is closest to A.25 seconds B.45 seconds C.1 minute 13.The blind spot is A.the area of the lens which is screened by the iris. B.at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina C.an area on the cornea which does not respond to light.
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14.The brain perceives the body's orientation in space by A.processing information from the eyes. B.processing information from the inner ear. C.by combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues. 15.The captain of a multi-crew aircraft rarely consults other members of the crew and discourages any verbal input from them in the course of a flight. This situation could be described as A.a shallow authority gradient B.a steep authority gradient C.strong leadership 16.The component of blood which is most directly involved in the transport of oxygen throughout the body is A.the red blood cells B.the plasma C.hemoglobin 17.The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when A.the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight B.the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight C.an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight 18.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first D is A.Detect the fact that a change has occurred B.Do the necessary action to adapt to the change C.Do what we must to do in the situation 19.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into six elements, using the acronym DECIDE. The first E is A.Estimate the other pilots' ability of dealing with this problem B.Evaluate the effect of the action C.Estimate the need to counter or react to the change 20.The decision-making process is quite complex; however, it can be condensed into the following six elements, A.DICIDE B.DECIDE C.DECIED 21.The function of the eyes ciliary muscles is to A.move the eyes from left to right in the socket B.change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye.
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C.alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances. 22.The illusion of being in a nose-up attitude which may occur during a rapid acceleration take off is known as A.inversion illusion. B.autokinesis. C.somatogravic illusion. 23.The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to A.keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside B.rely absolutely on the aircraft instruments C.keep the control column central and maintain a constant power 24.The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to A.move the head in a continuous arc from side to side. B.do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement. C.move the head about 20 or 30 at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement. 25.The perception of color is a function of the A.cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. B.rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting. C.cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions. 26.The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the A.pilot in command and chief pilot. B.pilot in command and director of operations. C.pilot in command and the flight follower. 27.The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. in the interest of safety. C. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the CAAC. 28.The position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. While remaining overall leader of the flight crew, the captain might not be the leader in a specific A.circumstance in which another member of the team has great knowledge. The statement is right. B.wrong
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29.The proprioceptive system generates sensation from A.the semicircular canals B.the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons C.the otolith 30.The somatogravic illusion (falsely identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb), is most likely to be encountered A.during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually B.during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night C.during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night 31.The static organ is responsible for the perception of linear acceleration. The statement is A.right B.wrong. 32.The time of useful consciousness (TUC) is the maximum time that pilot has to make a rational, lifesaving decision and carry it out following A.a lack of oxygen at a given altitude. Statement is right. B.wrong 33.The time of useful consciousness while cruising at an altitude of 30,000 feet and sitting quietly would be about A.40 seconds B.3 minutes C.1 minute and 15 seconds 34.The time of useful consciousness(TUC) is affected by many factors, such as flight altitude, climbing rate, pilot's activity level, pilot's A.health and whether the pilot smoking or not. Statement is right. B.wrong 35.The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as A.rods which are sensitive to color and cones which work best in dim light. B.cones which are sensitive to color and rods which work best in dim light. C.rods and cones both of which are responsible for color vision. 36.What cause hypoxia? A.Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. B.An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes. C.A decrease of oxygen partial pressure. 37.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights.
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B.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. 38.What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing. B.Scan fast to permit off-center viewing. C.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. 39.What illusion can rain on the screen create? A.Does not cause illusions. B.Lower than actual. C.Higher than actual. 40.What is a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.Rapid, shallow breathing. B.Pain and cramping of the hands and feet. C.Dizziness. 41.What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? A.Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. B.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. C.Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. 42.What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time? A. occasional light chop. B. Moderate chop. C. Intermittent light turbulence? 43.When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the A.retina B.cornea C.iris 44.Which of the following is considered a primary flight control ? A. Slats B. Elevator C. Dorsal fin 45.Which of these is an auxiliary flight control? A. Ruddervator B. Upper rudder C. Leading-edge flaps 46.Which of the following is not a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? A.headache and fatigue B.a feeling of euphoria C.impairment of vision and mental confusion
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factors concepts to improve the pilots' performance. 47.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.increased visual field B.An increase in breathing rate C.Sleepiness or frequent yawning 48.Which of the following is not normally a symptom of hypoxia? A.severe headache B.reduced visual field C.a feeling of euphoria 49.Which of the following is not the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Failure to meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. 50.Which of the following is not the right description about CRM? A.CRM uses the crew as the unit of training. B.CRM embraces some of operational personnel only. C.CRM concentrates on crew members' attitudes and behaviors and their impact on safety. 51.Which of the following is not the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Resolve discrepancies- contradictory data or personal conflicts. B.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. C.Monitor and evaluate current status relative to our plan. 52.Which of the following is the clue of SA weaken or loss during the flight A.Fixation-focusing on any one thing to the exclusion of everything else. B.Adhere to standard operating procedures. C.Meet expected checkpoint on flight plan or profile-ETA, fuel burn, etCas far as possible. 53.Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation? A.a change in the information coming from the inner ear. B.a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues. C.poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received. 54.Which of the following is the right description about CRM? A.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve crew performance. B.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human factors concepts to improve the captain's performance. C.CRM is a comprehensive system of applying human
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55.Which of the following is the right description about feedback in the communication process? A.Feedback is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our message as ordinary intended. B.We can use feedback to put the message back into the system as a check against misunderstanding. C.A and B 56.Which of the following is the right description about the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body ? A.An individual can speed up the rate at which alcohol leaves the body. B.Alcohol can affect the semi-circular canals, which leads to an increase in susceptibility to disorientation and motion sickness. C.Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abilities. 57.Which of the following is the tip for good SA management during the flight A.Focus on the details and scan the big picture. B.Solicit input from all crew members including cabin, ATC, maintenance, dispatch, etC C.A and B 58.Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance? A.Eustachian tube B.the cochlea C.the semicircular canals 59.Which of the following will increase susceptibility to hypoxia A.smoking and alcohol B.fatigue C.both A and B 60.Which of the following would be suitable treatment for a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning? A.administer oxygen B.have them re-breathe their exhaled breath from a bag placed over the nose and mouth C.give plenty of water 61.Which of the following would most likely lead to carbon monoxide contamination of the cockpit atmosphere? A.excessive use of carburetor heat B.fly low in a very thick smoke haze C.a leak in the engine exhaust system 62.Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A.Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. B.Increased vision keenness.
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C.Decreased breathing rate. 63.Which of the following techniques would contribute most to good team problem solving performance? A.stands steadfastly by your own aims and opinions and don't be swayed by others B.don't say nothing just to "keep the peace" when you are genuinely unhappy about a planned course of action C.trust you personal opinion, at the same time, adopt the other flight crews' ideas partially 64.Which procedural is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A.Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent. B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense. C.Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments. 65.Which most likely results in hyperventilation? A.A stressful situation causing anxiety. B.The excessive consumption of alcohol. C.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. 66.who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground (beach sand or snow), which would help to enhance night vision? A.don't read small print within one hour of flying. B.wear good quality sunglasses during the day. C.avoid using contact lenses 67."Authority gradient" is an important factor that can have an effect on communication in a multi-crew environment. In a flight crew, an apt arranging is A.the captains power, ability, longevity and status are higher much more than the other members of the flight crew. B.the captains power, ability, longevity and status are equal to the other members of the flight crew. C.the captains power, ability, longevity and status is somewhat higher than other members of the flight crew. 68."Do something quickly!" is the expression of pilots who have the following attitude? A.Macho B.Invulnerability C.Impulsivity 69."The leans " is a state of disorientation which often occurs in A.an abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight B.an aircraft in a shallow turn rolls back to level flight C.an abrupt recovery or a rapid correction is made. 70.A common source of human error is the false hypothesis. Under certain conditions this is more
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or less likely than at other times. From the following list, select the situation least likely to A.result in a person arriving at a false hypothesis when expectancy of an event is high B.after a period of intense concentration C.during normal operation 71.A good leader also has the ability to act as a good follower. The statement is A.right B.wrong 72.A good team member will not agree with a plan of action just to "keep the peace" if he/she is feeling uneasy about it. The statement is A.right B.wrong 73.A pilot is subject to spatial disorientation when A.ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear. B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments. C.body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes. 74.A pilot who was worried about the condition of the left engine in a twin-engine airplane experienced an engine failure on take -off and feathered the left engine, only to find that it was the right A.engine which failed. This pilot has been a victim of expectancy producing a false hypothesis B.expectancy producing a mental block C.a motor program producing a false hypothesis 75.After been in exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation(night vision)returns after a recovery period of about A.30 minutes B.1 hours C.5 minutes. 76.An absence of visible ground feature, such as when landing over water, darkened areas or terrain made featureless by snow A.can create the illusion the aircraft lower than is the case, which may lead to descending too low on approach. B.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, which may lead a pilot descends too low on approach. C.the aircraft is at a higher altitude than is the case, , which may lead a pilot descends too high on approach. 77.An authoritative leader A.tends to make final decisions in an emergency, but seldom in other situations B.tends to make team decisions and control all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences.
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78.As a general rule, supplement oxygen should be provided and used by the pilot in the day if the flight is above A.15000 feet B.10000 feet C.8000 feet 79.Carbon monoxide is dangerous because A.it displace oxygen from the blood's red cells B.it is highly acidic and attacks the lining of the lungs C.it displaces oxygen from the lungs causing suffocation 80.Crew resource management is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and A.efficient flight operation. The statement is right. B.wrong 81.Deference is one of the "hazardous thoughts" which affect human behavior and decision making. It refers to A.the tendency to resist authority and object to regulation B.the tendency to believe that "it can not happen to me" C.the tendency to blame another person or circumstance for whatever goes wrong 82.During the flight, a good leader... A.communicates with the team and keep them informed of intentions before acting on those decisions B.cannot recognize different behavioral styles and balance concern for people with concern for performance. C.involves the team in most decision making processes. 83.During the flight, the position of leader and the follower may be changed in some special conditions. The statement is A.right B.wrong 84.Effective CRM has some characteristics, which of the following is right description about it? A.CRM is a process using all available information and resources, i.e. equipment, procedures and people, to achieve a safe and efficient flight operation. B.CRM can be blended into all forms of aircrew training C.A and B 85.Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close objects in the field of view. A.This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately one to two meters. B.five meters. C.infinity. 86.Factors that can inhibit effective communication can be external or internal.
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External factors include A.high environmental noise levels B.a busy work environment or mental discomfort C.the receiver's expectancy 87.Good leadership in a group is characterized by A. high personal attention and high task orientation B.medium personal attention and high task orientation C.medium personal attention and medium task orientation 88.Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is A. Developing lift. B. Operating at high airspeeds. C. Using high power settings. 89.Heavy coffee or tea, can stimulate the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity, produce anxiety and A.drastic mood swings at one time. The statement is right. B.wrong 91.Hypoxia is always accompanied by A. dizziness B.a degradation in the performance of a pilot C.vomiting 92.Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A.Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. B.Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. C.Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles. 93.Hypoxia may be caused by A.fly with a head cold B.breathing too quickly and/or too deeply for the requirements of the body C.flying at an altitude where the partial pressure of oxygen is too low 94.If a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be reestablished is most likely to be A.3 minutes. B.15 minutes. C.30 minutes. 95.If the authority gradient is too steep A.the first officer may be unlikely to contribute anything to the decision making processeven when he is sure that the captain has made a mistake! B.The first officer respects the captain's command status but feels free to contribute. C.the first officer may be likely to contribute anything to the decision making process
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96.In a communication process, some characteristics of the sender may affect the encode message. These conditions include A.the sender's knowledge, personality, and the ability of he/she make use of the language B.the sender's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the social culture system C.the sender and the receiver's skill, attitudes, knowledge, and the workload 97.In a decision-making process , a participatory leader A.allows each team member to have a say and to participate in team processes. B.tends to make all decisions and control all resources C.may ultimately decide the team's actions, but seldom takes into consideration the team members' experience, knowledge, and preferences. 98.In a highly successful effort to better analyze SA incidents, Mica Endsley developed a 3-level taxonomy in 1995. Using the taxonomy, ASRS reviewed 113 SA A.incidents that were reported it and found 169 SA errors. Most Of them were classified as Level 1 Failure to correctly perceive the situation B.Level 2 Failure to comprehend the situation C.Level 3 Failure to comprehend the situation into the future 99.In flight, a good leader should A.set high standards of performance by demonstrating a high level of personal performance B.involve the team in most decision making processes C.A and B 100.In order to make an effective communication, what type leader the captain should be? A.a participatory leader B.an authoritative leader C.a leader can balance act between the two types management style, authoritative and participatory. 101.In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from A.the eyes B.the inner C.the proprioceptive system Chapter 8. Meteorology 1.In the SIGMET 8 of the Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described. A. Severe mountain wave, obscured TS with hail B. Severe turbulence, embedded TS C. Severe mountain wave, embedded TS with hail 2.In which condition is possible to present very
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serious icing conditions for protracted flight? A. associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds. B. associated with thick extensive stratified clouds that produce continuous rain such as altostratus and nimbostratus. C. a cold-soaked aircraft descends into warm, moist air. 3.Just prior to takeoff, the captain learns that an unstable fast cold front is passing his destination airport, and he can realize that the current weather may be A.thunderstorm, shower and high wind B.clear, high wind, good visibility C.nimbostratus, light rain, poor visibility 4.On the weather chart of ground, the area which has great difference in temperature between cold and warm air mass is A.front B.low pressure center C.shear line 5.Radiation fog usually appears in A. spring and summer. B. winter and autumn. C. summer and autumn. 6.Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of A.pitching up. B.pitching down. C.leveling off. 7.The abbreviation "WS WRNG" means A. Wind shear warning B. Aerodrome warning C. Hazardous weather warning 8.The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and A. increased thrust. B. A decreased stall speed. C. An increased stall speed. 9.What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope? A. 3 per 1,000 feet. B. 2 per 1,000 feet. C. 4 per 1,000 feet. 10.The tropopause at middle latitude area usually reaches. A. 8 to 9 km B.10 to 12 km C.15 to 17 km 11.What feature is associated with a temperature
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inversion? A. A stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms. 12.Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast A. Altocumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Stratocumulus 13.Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind? A. Altitude increase; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease. B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease. C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase. 14.What are basic conditions to form a thunderstorm? A. an unstable lapse rate and terrain lifting force B. an unstable lapse rate, an initial lifting force, and sufficient water vapor. C. sufficient water vapor and front area 15.What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. beginning of rain at the surface B. frequent lightning C. continuous updraft 16.To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly A. Below the established glide path and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline. B. On the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended. C. Above the established glide path and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline. 17.Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds? A. clear ice. B. Frost ice. C. Rime ice. 18.The blowing dust or sand usually appear in A. summer in northern areas. B. spring in northern areas. C. spring in southern areas. 19.The Federal Aviation Administration's Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) provides the following products: A.METARS, SIGMETS, PIREP'S and AIRMETS.
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B.SPECIS, SIGMETS, NOTAM'S, and AIRMETS. C.Convective SIGMET, PIREP, AWW etc. 20.The flight crew learn that there is a stationary front over their destination airport. Therefore, they can conceive the present weather at the destination as A.cumulus, shower, thunderstorm , good visibility B.stratus, light rain, poor vis caused by low clouds or fog C.cirrus, radiation fogs or strong turbulence. 21.The heat of the stratosphere air is chiefly from A.absorption of sun radiation by the water vapor B.absorption of sun ultraviolet ray radiation by the ozone C.the absorption of ground radiation by the air. 22.The heaviest icing that easy to accumulate in flight is associated with A.in cumuliform clouds B.in high clouds, such as cirrus. C.In altocumulus cloud. 23.The clouds which can produce thunderstorm and hail are A.nimbostratus B.cumulonimbus C.altostratus. 24.The property change of the airmass is chiefly due to A.the change of sun radiation B.the property change of the underlying cushion C.the movement of the weather system 25.There is ribbon like precipitation under the clouds but it evaporated before reaching the ground. This phenomenon is referred to as A.plume B.virga C. downdraft 26.Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as A. convective turbulence. B. High altitude turbulence. C. Clear air turbulence. 27.What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported clear air turbulence? A.Extend flaps to decrease wing loading. B.Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability. C.Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. 28.What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported? A. Light and variable. B. Wind shear.
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C. Frontal passage. 29.What characterizes a ground-based inversion? A. Convection currents at the surface. B. Cold temperatures. C. Poor visibility. 30.What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight? A. flying in any clouds. B. Flying in rain. C. the temperature of the aircraft surface is 0oC or colder and supercooled water drops. 31.What condition produces the most frequent type of ground-or surface-based temperature inversion? A. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air. B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression. C. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night. 32.What is a characteristic of the troposphere? A. It contains all the moisture of the atmosphere. B. There is an overall decrease of temperature with an increase of altitude. C. The average altitude of the top of the troposphere is about 6 miles. 33.What is a feature of supercooled water? A. the water drop sublimates to ice particles upon impact. B. The unstable water drop freezes upon striking an exposed object. C. The temperature of the water drop remains at 0 until it impacts a part of the airframe, then clear ice accumulates. 34.What is a likely location of clear air turbulences? A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream. B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow. C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream. 35.What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms. B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion. C. it may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere. 36.What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. 2 mins with maximum winds lasting about 1 min. B. one microburst may continue for as long as 2to 4 hours. C. seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst
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strikes the ground until dissipation. 37.What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave? A. rotor cloud. B. Standing lenticular. C. Low stratus. 38.What temperature condition is indicated if precipitation in the form of wet snow occurs during flight? A. the temperature is above freezing at flight altitude. B. The temperature is above freezing at higher altitudes. C. There is an inversion with colder air below. 39.What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct tailwind. B. Light quartering tailwind. C. Light quartering headwind. 40.When advection fog has developed, what may tend to dissipate or lift the fog into low stratus clouds? A. Temperature inversion. B. Wind stronger than 15 knots. C. Surface radiation. 41.When flying over the nimbostratus clouds, the pilot finds that there are towering clouds on the thick layer. Top of the towering clouds extends to 9000 meters high and are blown to one side by the strong wind like horse's mane A.He predicts there must be CBs within the sheet cloud B. altocumulus clouds C. false cirrus clouds 42.When takeoff or landing at the airport on the edge of thunderstorm region, which of the following weather should you watch out for? A. visibility and low clouds B. windshear at low altitude C. hail and rainstorm 43.When warm wet airflow flows to the cold ground, it will usually produce A. layer clouds B. smooth airflow and advection fog C. warm front clouds 44.Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by windshear associated with a TS be found? A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side of the cell. B.. ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud. C. on all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
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45.Where do squall lines most often develop? A.in an occluded front B.ahead of a cold front C.behind a stationary front 46.Which condition is present when air is stable? A. The parcel of air resists convection. B. The parcel of cannot be forced uphill. C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the surrounding air. 47.Which condition will favor the formation of advection fog? A.Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind B.A clear sky, little or no wind, and high relative humidity. C. Moist air moves over colder ground or water. 48.Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear? A.the temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10. B.a calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion. C.a wind direction difference of at least 30 between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion. 49.Which of the following area has the highest probability to produce low level windshear? A.Area with strong cold advection B.Area where the sea and the land meet C. Area near the front with thunderstorms 50.Which of the following illustrates an airplane's entry one type of air mass to another one? A. The airplane flies through high level turbulence B. Obvious change of temperature and wind direction within a short period of time C. The airplane meets rolling airflow when crossing mountainous areas 51.Which of the following cases provides impulse force for forming heat thunderstorm? A. Water vapor coagulating and then releasing latent heat B. Rising terrain C. Uneven heat on the ground 52.Which of the following characteristics heat thunderstorm? A.It moves with the weather system. B.It covers small area and is isolated with openings C. It strengthens at night and weakens in the day on land 53.Which of the following differs most greatly at the two sides of the front? A.wind speed B.air temperature
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C.air pressure 54.Which INITIAL indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind? A. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases B. indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases C. indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases 55.which of the following statements about "hailstone" is correct? A.ground rain means that hailstone disappears in the air B.towering clouds usually produce hailstones C.the hail can be thrown several kilometers out of the thunderstorm. 56.Which of the following weather phenomenon symbols that thunderstorm is at its mature phase? A. The appearance of disordered low clouds B. The appearance of anvil clouds top C. It begins to rain on the ground 57.Which process causes adiabatic cooling? A. Expansion of air as rises. B. Movement of air over a colder surface. C. Release of latent heat during the vaporization process. 58.Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed A. Katabatic. B. Advection. C. Adiabatic. 59.Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence? A. nimbostratus. B. Standing lenticular. C. Cirrocumulus 60.Which type of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Embedded thunderstorms, severe turbulence B. Cumulonimbus clouds, light turbulence C. severe icing, surface visibility lower than 5000 meters 61.Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present? A. wet snow. B. Freezing rain. C. Ice pellets. 62.Which types of weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET A. Strong wind, volcanic ash B. Fog, embedded thunderstorms with hail C. Severe mountain wave, isolated cumulonimbus
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63.Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed? A. Headwind or tailwind decrease B. Decrease headwind and increasing tailwind C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. 64.Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed? A. Increase tailwind wind and decreasing headwind. B. Headwind or tailwind increase C. Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind. 65.(According to Figure 1) How much is the vertical visibility at Chengdu (ZUUU) A. 50 metres B. 500 metres C. 150 metres 66.(According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Shanghai (ZSSS) A. Potential visibility is 3200 meters B. Visibility is 10 kilometers or the above C. Visibility is 5 kilometers or the above; 67.(According to Figure 1) How much is the visibility at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. 300 metres B. 900 metres C. 3000 metres 68.(According to Figure 1) which station reports the max wind speed A.ZSSS B.ZUUU C.ZWWW 69.(According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the icing? A. ZSSS B. ZUUU C. ZHHH 70.(According to figure 2) , which of the following forecast stations predicts the turbulence? A. ZUUU B. ZHHH C. ZSSS 71.(figure 2) The weather at ZSSS before 0500Z is A. Scattered clouds, visibility 5000m and fog B. West wind at 4 m/s, mist and broken clouds C. East windat 4 m/s, rain and broken clouds 72.(figure 2), at ZBAA, the max predicting wind speed is___. A. 17 m/s B. 8 m/s C. 6 m/s
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73.(figure 2), the forecast visibility at ZSSS is____ A. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, and 3000 m at other time B. 5000 m between 00Z-09Z C. 5000 m between 00Z-05Z, 5000 m above at other time 74.(figure 2)An airplane is estimated to arrive at ZUUU at 1000Z, and the weather then is ____. A. Light fog, vis 4 km. B. Southwesterly 6 m/sec, light rain shower, vis 4 km C. Southeast wind at 24 m/sec, heavy rain, vis 4000 m 75.(According to figure 4) at Lanzhou, which description is correct A. Smoke with overcast B. Strong wind with sand storm C. Strong wind and total sky obscuration 76.(figure 4) at Lanzhou, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. Strong wind, bad visibility B. Dust, thunderstorm, C. Low cloud with strong wind 77.(figure 4) at Shanghai, which is correct? A. The vis is 800 meters, the sea level pressure is 996 hPa, B. The vis is 8 kilometers, the QNH is 999.6 hPa, C. The vis is 8 kilometers, sea level pressure is 999.6 hPa 78.(figure 4) at Shanghai, what weather is shown? A. Low cloud and perhaps icing B. Strong wind with bad visibility C. Snow shower 79.(figure 4) The cloud condition at Shanghai is A.altocumulus,stratocumulus with base of 600m B.altostratus, stratocumulus with base of 1 200m C. cirrostratus , stratus with base of 1 200m 80.(figure 4) The weather at Lanzhou is A. Smoke B. Sand C. Sand storm 81.(figure 4) The weather at Shanghai is A. Rain and snow B. Drizzle C. Continuous snow 82.(figure 6) At point B wind direction, speed and temperatures is A. Southwest wind at 14 KT, temperatures is -52 B. Northeast wind at 35 KT, temperatures is 52 C. Southwest wind at 35 KT, temperatures is -52 83.(figure 6) The position of the upper jet is A. From A to B then to C B. From A to C then to D C. From A to B then to D
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84.(figure 6) What changes take place from point B flying to point D A. The wind speed increases, temperature rises B. The wind speed increases, temperature reduced C. The wind speed and wind direction is no changes, temperature reduced 85.(Figure 1) According to the aeronautical weather report the QNH for ZUUU is A.998 hPa B.1099.8 hPa C.999.8 hPa 86.(Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Guangzhou (ZGGG) A. Heavy TS, shower of rain and towering cumulus clouds B. Heavy TS with rain and cumulonimbus clouds C. Bad visibility and strong wind 87.(Figure 1) What weather condition is reported at Urumchi (ZWWW) A. Strong wind with shower B. Snow and rain C. Strong west wind and blowing snow 88.(Figure 1) which station has the best visibility A.ZBAA B.ZSSS C.ZUUU 89.(Figure 3) In the telegram (3), which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described A. The surface wind is heavier than the wind at heights of 60 m above runway level B. There are wind shears from place of 60 meters of end of the runway C. There are wind speed and wind direction shears between the surface and the height of 60 meters 90.(Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather might be met? A. Rain shower and thunderstorm B. Rain and fog C. Strong wind and thunderstorm 91.(Figure 5) Flying from Shenzhen to Zhengzhou, which weather system is crossed? A. It is a warm front. B. It is a stationary front C. It is a Cold front 92.(Figure 5) What meaning is expressed on the area pointed out at K? A. The area arrow K pointed is a center of low pressure B. For past 3 hours, the air pressure have reduced 1.7hPa. C. For past 3 hours, the air pressure have reduced 17hPa. 93.(Figure 5) what weather is east of zhengzhou?
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A. Rain B. Light fog C. Fog 94.(Figure 5) what weather north of zhengzhou? A. North wind at 12 m/s, dust B. Strong wind with sand C. Strong wind with haze 95.(Figure 6) At point A, the wind direction, wind speed and temperatures is A. West wind at 60 KT, temperatures is -48 B. Northwest wind at 60 KT, temperatures is 48 C. West wind at 24 KT, temperatures is -48 96.(Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, what significant weather may be encountered? A. TS, Rain shower, mountain wave, moderate CAT B. Rain shower, freezing rain, mountain wave, severe CAT C. Rainfall, freezing rain, mountain waves, severe icing 97.(Figure 7) Flying from Guangzhou to Chengdu, which weather system we would encountered? A. A cold front and a upper jet B. A worm front and a upper jet C. Mountain waves and severe turbulence 98.(Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which significant weather may be encountered? A. Severe turbulence, moderate icing, rain shower, TS B. Moderate turbulence, severe icing, freezing precipitation, severe CAT C. Moderate turbulence, moderate icing, rain, severe CAT 99.(Figure 7) Flying from Kunming to Chengdu, which weather system we would we encounter? A. A warm front and mountain waves B. A cold front and moderate icing C. A stationary front and a upper jet 100.(Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/ XXX means... A. Some places have CBs, CBs with little or no separation B. Isolated cumulonimbus embedded in layers of other clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown C. The airplane is embedded in layers of clouds, the top of the cumulonimbus is 34000 feet, the base is unknown 101.(Figure 7) In this chart, ISOL EMBD CB 340/ XXX means... (same question) 102.(Figure 7) Height and speed of the upper jet is A. The height is 3500 feet, the wind speed is 120 km/h B. The height is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 120 knots C. The height is 35000 feet, the wind speed is 48 km/h 103.____prevents air flowing directly from the
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high pressure area to low pressure area when air moves in a level direction. A. Friction force. B. Inertial centrifugal force C. Coriolis deflecting force 104.A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates A. the absence of clouds in the area B. an area of no convective turbulence C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected 105.Airplanes may encounter heavy turbulence in A. Cumulonimbus and towering cumulus B. Stratocumulus and altocumulus C. Altocumulus and cumulonimbus 106.An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots 107.An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 knots B. 80 knots C. 90 knots 108.At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow across isobars into a low because the friction. A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force. B. decreases pressure gradient force. C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure. 109.At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind direction? A. At the poles. B. Middle latitudes(30o to 60o). C. At the equator. 110.Before takeoff, the pilots find the cloud is very low and thick with a flat gray base and light rain: A. stratus or nimbostratus B. altostratus or stratocumulus C. cumulonimbus or altocumulus 111.Before takeoff the captain sees that on the map a stable cold front is moving towards his arrival: A.He predicts the weather at the arrival airport might be cloudy with drizzle, low clouds and weak turbulent current B. cumulonimbus clouds, shower and gale C. clear after rain, north deflecting wind and strong turbulent current 112.Convective clouds that penetrate stratus layer
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can produce what threat to instrument flight? A. freezing rain B. clear air turbulence C. embedded thunderstorms 113.During the life cycle of a TS, what stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C. mature 114.How is smoke cleared or dispersed? A. By wind or the movement of air. B. By convective mixing in cool night air. C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog. 115.How can the stability of the atmosphere be determined? A. Ambient temperature lapse rate. B. Atmospheric pressure at various levels. C. Surface temperature/dew-point spread. 116.How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? A.An abrupt change in relative wind. B.A decrease in angle of attack. C.Sudden decrease in load factor. 117.How does Coriolis force affect wind direction in the Southern Hemisphere? A. Causes clockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has the same effect as in the Northern Hemisphere. 118.How does Coriolis affect wind direction in the northern Hemisphere? A. Causes counterclockwise rotation around a low. B. Causes wind to flow out of a low toward a high. C. Has the same effect as in the Southern Hemisphere. 119.If airplane enters to the undershoot airflow under thunderstorm clouds, it will encounter___. A. head windshear B. turbulence C. vertical windshear 120.If the aircraft enters the strong downdraft burst, where is the aircraft expected to meet the strongest downdraft? A. in the center of strong downdraft burst B. when it enters the strong downdraft burst C. when leaves the strong downdraft burst 121.If the airplane flies through a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes. A. from headwind to tailwind. B. from left crosswind to right crosswind. C. from right crosswind to left crosswind
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122.If the airplane fly through a low pressure center in the northern hemisphere, the wind direction usually changes . A.from left crosswind to right crosswind. B.from headwind to tailwind. C.from right crosswind to left crosswind 123.If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude? A.They are both the same 31,000 feet. B.True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. C.Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude. 124.If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude? A.Lower than pressure altitude. B.Higher than pressure altitude. C.Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes. 125.On average for every 1,000 feet increase in the troposphere, the temperature of the air will: A. descend 2 B.descend 3 C. descend 4 126.In aeronautical weather reports VCTS means: A. There are thunderstorms in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport B. There are rains in the vicinity of the airport but no thunderstorms over the airport. C. There are thunderstorms over the airport. 127.In en route flight, the altimeter setting is A. QNE B. QNH C. QFE 128.In flight pilots find piled clouds on a flat base: A. cumulus congestus B. cumulostratus C. towering clouds 129.Flying in the northern hemisphere from high to low pressure at 6000 meters the wind is: A.right crosswind B.tailwind C. left crosswind 130.In the northern hemisphere cyclonic flow is: A. outward, downward and clockwise B. outward, upward and clockwise C. inward, upward and counterclockwise 131.In stable air associated with a high pressure system what usually occurs?
0 1 / 1 2 / 2 0 1 1
A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Frontal fog. 132.In summer, when warm air mass is unstable, what may occur in layer clouds of cold front? A. cumulonimbus B. front fog C. layer clouds 133.In the AIRMET 6 of Figure 3, which weather phenomenon that influence fly be described? A. Lines of thunderstorms, fog and rain B. Nimbostratus, obscured thunderstorms C. Low ceiling cloud and moderate icing 134.In the dark, a stationary light appears to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is A.somatogravic illusion. B.ground lighting illusion. C. autokinesis. 135.In the friction layer of the northern hemisphere, the wind of low pressure area is A. clockwise inbound wind B.counter clockwise outbound wind C. counter clockwise inbound wind 136.In the Northern hemisphere, a pilot making a long-distance flight from east to west may encounter tailwind formed by air pressure system A. When the airplane is in the south of high pressure system and in the north of low pressure system. B. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure system and in the south of low pressure system. C. When the airplane is in the north of high pressure and low pressure systems . 137.In the SIGMET 8 of Figure 3, what is the valid period of time. A. From 08Z to 22Z. B. From the 22nd 08Z to the 22nd at 14Z. C. From 14Z to 22Z 138.In the SIGMET 8 of Figure 3, which station predict the dangerous weather at first A. ZULS B. ASSS C. ZUUU 139. Baffle plates in wing fuel cells prevent A. Fuel moving from one tank to another in turbulence. B. Over pressure in the fuel tank. C. movement of the fuel (surging) in the tanks during acceleration/deceleration ,and in turbulent conditions.
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Weight&Balance, Flightoperation, CRM, Meteorology

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Weight&Balance, Flightoperation, CRM, Meteorology

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W e ig h t & B a la n c e ,Flig h t O p e r a t io n ,CRM ,M e t e o r o lo g y