Quiz Anatomy Part 3 of 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3
14Mar2009
ricardcontreras
Gross Anatomy #46 Cranial Nerves 1) What cranial nerves are both sensory and motor (contain a GSA component)? functional a) III, IV, VI I, II, V, XI, b) XIIV, VII, IX, c) X d) XII e) V 2)only What cranial nerves carry GVE-P axons (preganglionic parasympathetic)? a) X only VII, IX, b) III, X III, IV, VI, c) X VI, X, XI, d) e) I, XII II, III, VI, X A patient presents in the Emergency Room with a possible aneurysm. You can test 3) CN CN IV, and CN VI by having them follow a target through the six principle III, positions covering all the muscles involved. Which shape should you have them of gaze; trace? a) T b) P c) O d) AH e) 4) What cranial nerve provides general visceral afferent innervation to root of the a) CN V tongue? b) CN VII CN c) IX CN d) X e) CN XII What cranial nerves innervate tongue 5) a) X, muscles? XII XI, b) XII IX, c) X d) XII e) VII, IX, only X A patient presents with a traumatic head injury. The neurologist strikes a tuning 6) fork places it on the middle of the patients forehead. The neurologist says he is and checking for unilateral neurosensory loss and unilateral conductive loss. What nerve is she testing?CN a) VIII CN b) c) CN VII V d) CN II CN e) I ) What cranial nerve has a special somatic efferent (SSE) 7 a) CN component? I ) CN b II CN V c)
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d) CN VII e) CN VIII brain freeze is a phenomenon that some people experience after consuming 8) A beverages. As the cold beverage hits the roof of the mouth, the vasculature contracts cold to conserve heat. As the arteries return to size (vasodilate) the nerves in this region senseand transmit the sensation to the associated ganglia. This pain is referred pain to pain the forehead, below the orbits, and some other surrounding regions. Which cranial nerve is associated with this phenomenon? a) CN b) CN VII IXCN V c) d) CN XII CN e) 9) X What cranial nerve innervates the palatoglossal muscle of the tongue? a) CN V b) CN VII CN c) IX CN d) X e) CN 10) XII What cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the sublingual salivary gland? a) Oculomotor b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 11) A patient presents with unilateral arm drive, unilateral facial droop, and mumbled physician asks a nurse to go into the break room for vanilla words. The extract, peppermint, or coffee grounds. What nerve does this physician plan to a) test? CN VIII CN b) VII V c) CN d) CN e) CN II I 2) What cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal 1 gland?CN a) XII CN b) X c) CN IX d) CN e) VII CN III Where are the neurons situated that provide GSE innervation to the pharynx 13) and larynx muscles? a) Brainstem b) Superior ganglion of the vagus c) Inferior ganglion of the vagus d) Trigeminal ganglion DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -2
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e) Jugular ganglion 14) What cranial nerve provides general sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3s of the tongue? a) V b) VII c) IX d) X e) XII Suicide disease is a historical name for a cranial nerve neuralgia that causes 15) of intense pain in the eyes, lips, nose, scalp, forehead, and jaw. Prior to episodes effective for this neuralgia, a significant percentage of people took their own treatments lives. cranial nerve is associated with suicide What disease? a) Optic b) Trigeminal c) Facial d) Glossopharyngeal e) Vagus 16) You are testing a patients corneal reflex by gently touching each cornea with aotton wisp and observing any asymmetries in the blink response. This tests the c portion sensory of which nerve: a) CN II b) CN IVCN V c) d) CN VI e) CN VII Corneal reflex testing tests the motor portion of which 17) nerve: a) CN III CN b) IVCN V c) d) CN VI e) CN VII What cranial nerve has sensory components (proprioceptive) that do NOT go to 18) a anglion but relay information directly to the g a) CN brainstem? I ) CN b II CN V c) d) CN VII CN e) X 19) What cranial nerve innervates muscles of facial a) CN expression? VII V b) CN c) CN IX CN d) e) CN III XII A patient presents post-surgery for an examination. The clinician asks the patient 20) to their head away as the clinician resists the motion. The clinician then palpates turn the DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -3
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prominent neck muscle, doing the same test on the other side and noting any deficits.cranial nerve is the clinician What testing? a) CN b) XII CN XI CN c) IX d) CN VII V e) CN 21) The facial cranial nerve has all of the following ganglion EXCEPT: a) Geniculate b) Submandibular c) Ptergopalatine d) Chorda tympani sensation from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue goes to what ganglion? 22) Taste a) Otic b) Trigeminal c) Geniculate d) Superior glossopharyngeal Inferior e) glossopharyngeal 23) You are checking on a patient with metastatic squamous cell cancer of the head neck. and While testing their cranial nerves, you notice their left eye is deviating inward (esotropic). The patient complains of double vision that gets worse as they gaze to the left (horizontal diplopia). The image below shows the patient trying to look to the left.
Which nerve do you suspect is injured? a) CN III Right CN b) c) IV Left CN IV Right CN d) VI Left CN e) VI A patient presents with a history of meningitis. There is eyelid ptosis and the 24) right is more dilated than the left. The patient presents as shown in the image pupil below.
Which nerve do you suspect is a) CN injured? IV Right CN b) III Left CN c) III Right CN d) VI Left CN e) 25) VI GVA innervation to the middle ear and auditory tube (internal surface of tympanic membrane) is associated with what cranial nerve? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -4
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a) Olfactory b) Auditory c) d) Vagus Glossopharyngeal e) Hypoglossal information from the dura mater of the posterior cranial fossa is 26) Sensory associated with what cranial nerve? a) Olfactory b) c) Auditory Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal is being shown a set of colored slides. What cranial nerve allows them 27) A patient see to the different colors? a) CN II b) CN III CN c) IV CN d) VI e) CN 28) VII Which of the following cranial nerves is necessary for depression of the eyeball? a) CN III CN b) IV CN c) d) VICN V e) None of the above patient presents after having a stroke. You ask them to open their mouth and 29) A say Ahh. You notice that their uvula is deviated to their right side. The left side of their is at a lower level than the right side. Which nerve do you suspect is palate injured? CN a) Left b) X Right CN X Left CN c) IX Right CN d) IX e) CN 30) Which of the following cranial nerves is necessary for elevation of the VII eyeball? a) CN III CN b) IV CN c) VICN V d) e) None of the 31) Which of the following is NOT a function of CN above III? Elevation of a) eyes b) Constriction of pupil c) Adduction of d) Dilatation of pupil eyes e) Changing the shape of the lens
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32) Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of dysfunction of CN III? Downward and outward deviation of the a) eyeball b) Loss of papillary light c) Constricted pupil (miosis) reflex d) Ptosis (drooping of the upper lid) 33) A patient presents with damage to CN III on the left side due to cavernous sinus syndrome. Which of the following muscles on the left side will still be functional? a) Ciliary muscle b) Lateral c) Superior oblique rectus d) Superior rectus e) Superior oblique and lateral rectus 34) Which of the following statements is true? a) All cranial nerves carry motor, sensory, and parasympathetic fibers cranial nerves have sensory ganglia attached to b) All them cranial nerves carry sympathetic preganglionic c) All fibers spinal nerves carry motor d) All fibers spinal nerves carry parasympathetic e) All fibers The 35) trigeminal a) Has a sensory nerve: ganglion mixed cranial nerve with both motor and sensory b) Is a functions c) Innervates the muscles of mastication d) Does not carry preganglionic parasympathetic e) All of the fibers above 36) Damage to the motor fibers in the trigeminal nerve may cause: a) Flattening of the side of the jaw due to atrophy of the masseter muscle b) Difficulty in closing the eyes c) Slight deviation of the jaw toward the affected side when the mouth is open d) Both A & e) B Both A & C7) A patient presents after having a stroke. You ask them to stick out their tongue 3 and it is deviated to their left side. Which nerve do you suspect is notice inured? CN a) Left b) Right CN XII XII Left CN c) IX Right CN d) IX e) CN VII Which of the following is NOT supplied by the vagus nerve (along with the 38) cranial accessory a) Mucous membrane of the nerve)? larynx b) Mucous membrane of the nasal cavity c) Muscles of the larynx d) Muscles of the soft e) Constrictor muscles of the palate pharynx 39) A normal gag reflex is dependent on which of the following nerves being intact? a) CN V only DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -6
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b) CN IX only IX, CN c) CN X CN V, CN d) e) IX CN V, CN IX, CN XI Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry motor fibers to 40) skeletal muscle? a) Optic b) Facial c) d) Vagus Hypoglossal e) Mandibular branch of trigeminalfacial nerve contains all of the following types of fibers 41) The EXCEPT: a) Motor b) Parasympathetic preganglionic c) Special sensory from taste buds d) General sensory from the facial skin General sensory from the mucous e) membranes 42) Parasympathetic fibers contained in the facial nerve are responsible for innervating all of the following EXCEPT: a) Lacrimal gland b) Nasal and oral mucous glands c) Submandibular salivary glandSublingual salivary d) e) glandParotid salivary gland The 43) glossopharyngeal nerve innervates: a) Taste buds in the posterior third of the tongue b) General sensory receptors in the posterior third of the tongue Stylopharyngeus c) muscle d) Baroreceptors in the carotid e) sinusAll of the above ask a patient to stick out their tongue. Upon doing so, you notice their tongue 44) You deviates to the right side and has wasting (atrophy) of the right half. Which of the following nerves would you expect NOT to be fully a) functional? Left hypoglossal Right b) hypoglossal c) Left glossopharyngeal Right d) glossopharyngeal e) Vagus Gross Anatomy #47 Fascia & Spaces 1) The Sellick Maneuver is performed during endotracheal intubation to prevent regurgitation. It is done by applying direct pressure to the cricoid cartilage. What anatomical structure can be palpated directly superior to the cricoid cartilage to accurate ensure location? a) Epiglottis b) Hyoid bone DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -7
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c) Thyrohyoid ligament Thyroid d) cartilage e) Tracheal 2) A rings medical examiner is performing an autopsy and finds a fractured hyoid bone. What finding a strong indicator of? is this a) Drowning b) Hangmans fracture c) Strangulation d) Cervical e) CPR spondylolisthesis being performed 3) The thyroid cartilage projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)? a) C3 b) C4 c) C3-C4 d) C5 e) C4-C5 4) The hyoid bone projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)? a) C3-C4 b) C4-C5 c) C5-C6 d) C2 e) C6 5) The cricoid cartilage projects back to what cervical vertebral a) C3-C4 level(s)? b) C4-C5 c) C5-C6 d) C2 e) C6 6) What fascial layer of the neck contains lymph nodes and the platysma a) Superficial cervical muscle? fasciaDeep investing b) fasciaDeep infrahyoid c) fasciaDeep cervical d) e) Deep prevertebral fascia fascia fascial layer completely surrounds the neck and spans from the superior 7) What to inferior border of the neck? a) Superficial cervical fasciaDeep investing b) fasciaDeep infrahyoid c) d) fasciaDeep cervical fasciaDeep prevertebral e) fascia 8) What fascial layer attaches to the base of the skull and encloses the deep muscles? a) Superficial cervical b) fasciaDeep investing fasciaDeep infrahyoid c) fasciaDeep cervical d) fascia DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -8
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e) Deep prevertebral fascia 9) During a surgical dissection of the neck, the cervical branch of the facial nerve is damaged. Post-surgery, the skin of the patient has fallen away from the neck in folds. What muscle is slack paralyzed? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Digastric c) Platisma d) Trapezius e) 10) What fascia connects the two carotid sheaths together Masseter (transversely)? a) Pretracheal fascia Prevertebral b) fascia Alar c) d) fasciaDeep investing fascia Bucchopharyngeal e) fascia 11) Which of the following is NOT contained in the carotid sheath? a) Common carotid artery b) External jugular vein Internal jugular c) d) Vagus vein nerve Internal carotid e) artery 12) What fascial layer has specializations forming the axillary sheath and Sibsons fascia? a) Superficial cervical fasciaDeep investing b) fasciaDeep infrahyoid c) fasciaDeep cervical d) fasciaDeep prevertebral e) fascia 13) The infrahyoid fascial sling holds the ____ muscle to the hyoid and the fascial sling pretracheal holds the ____ muscle to the clavicle and first rib. a) Digastric; Omohyoid b) Sternocleidomastoid ; Scalenus anterior c) Mylohyoid; d) Sternohyoid Sternocleidomastoid; Omohyoid e) Digastric; Scalenus anterior pretracheal (visceral) space allows infection in the neck anterior to the trachea 14) The to travel inferior to the top of: a) The cupula of the lungs b) The c) The scapular sternum spines d) The pericardium The e) diaphragm 15) A patient presents with an abscess tooth. The infection has spread from the neck the into space bounded by alar fascia anteriorly and prevertebral fascia posterioly. The infection could possibly descend to the level of: The cupula of the a) lungs DO NOT DISTRIBUTE -9
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b) The sternum c) The scapular spines d) The e) pericardium The diaphragmspace is located posterior to the retropharyngeal visceral space, which 16) What is bounded anteriorly by buccopharyngeal fascia? Masticatory a) space Pretracheal b) space Danger c) d) space Suprasternal space Visceral e) space Gross Anatomy #48 Triangles & Superficial 1) Which Structuresof the following is NOT part of the deep wall of the posterior neck triangle? Omohyoid a) muscle b) Levator scapulae muscle c) Digastric muscle d) Splenius capitus muscle e) Scalene 2) What muscles nerve innervates the muscles that border the posterior triangle anteriorly and posteriorly? a) Cervical nerves b) Ansa c) Dorsal scapular cervicalis nerve Axillary d) nerve CN e) XI A patient presents with a history of Parkinson disease and current, 3) spasmodic,Their head is tilted to the left side with the chin elevated and turned toward torticollis. the right side. What muscle is causing these a) Left sternocleidomastoid symptoms? b) Right sternocleidomastoid c) Left levator scapulae and right splenius capitus d) Right levator scapulae and left splenius e) Left Platisma capitus 4) What muscle forms the border between the carotid triangle and the muscular triangle? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Omohyoid c) Trapezius d) Digastric e) Scalenes 5) Which of the following triangles is NOT bilateral? a) Muscular b) Carotid c) Occipital d) Submental e) Supraclavicular
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6) What two veins come together to form the external jugular vein? a) Communicating vein and common facial vein b) Common facial vein and facial c) Facial vein and posterior auricular vein vein d) Posterior auricular vein and retromandibular vein e) Anterior jugular vein and communicating vein patient is being seen by a cardiologist to measure their right atrial pressure 7) A to determine the effectiveness of a cardiac pacemaker during vagal stimulation. The patient has carotid disease on their left side. Which vessel on the right side would be the option for catheterization to measure pressure? best a) Common carotid b) Internal carotid c) External carotid d) Internal jugular e) External jugular 8) What vein fuses with the facial vein to form the common facial vein? a) Posterior auricular vein b) Communicating vein Retromandibular c) d) vein Anterior jugular vein Internal jugular e) vein male patient presents to the Emergency Department with a great deal of bleeding 9) A on lateral aspect of their neck after accidentally cutting themselves while shaving. the vein What was likely damaged and what pressure-related complication should considered? a) External jugular; Air embolism b) Internal jugular; Air embolism jugular; Pulmonary clot embolism c) External d) Internal jugular; Pulmonary clot embolism jugular; Pneumothorax e) External 10) All of the following dermatome areas (nerves) meet at the nerve point of the neck directly behind the sternocleidomastoid EXCEPT: auricular (C2-3) a) Greater b) Dorsal rami (C3-5) c) Transverse cutaneuous (C2-3) d) Lesser occipital (C2) e) Supraclavicular (C3-4) 11) An anesthesiologist is prepping a patient for a superficial cervical plexus nerve block carotid endarterectomy. Where should the physician inject the for a anesthesia? to the sternocleidomastoid at the midpoint of the a) Anterior b) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the lower border of the muscle muscle c) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the upper border of the muscle d) Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the midpoint of the muscle e) Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the lower border of the muscle 12) What muscles do the trunks of the brachial plexus pass between? a) Sternocleidomastoid and anterior scalene b) Anterior scalene and middle scalene DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 11
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c) Middle scalene and posterior scalene d) Posterior scalene and levator scapulae e) Levator scapulae and 13) The trapeziussuperficial lymph nodes make a ring around the head passing through the occipital nodes at the back of the skull and through what other anatomical area? a) Subnasal b) Suborbital c) Supraorbital d) Apex of e) head Submental left side, lymph ultimately drains into the ____ prior to entering the 14) On the venous system .) a Thoracic b) Jugulo-omohyoid node duct c) Jugulo-digastric monster node d) Lymphatic angle Stellate e) node 15) What nerve is the cutaneous sensory innervation for the angle (corner) of the mandible? a) Supraclavicular b) Transverse cutaneous occipital c) Greater d) Lesser e) Great occipital auricular 16) What nerve is the cutaneous sensory innervation for most of the anterior triangle? a) Supraclavicular b) Transverse cutaneous occipital c) Greater d) Lesser e) Great occipital auricular Gross Anatomy #49 Posterior & Anterior Triangles of the following is NOT true about the posterior scalene 1) Which a) Attaches to the second muscle? rib Is adjacent to the levator scapulae b) muscledeep to the trapezius muscle and sternocleidomastoid c) Is muscle brachial plexus passes directly anterior to d) The it Is part of the posterior neck e) triangleof the scalene muscles attach superiorly 2) All a) Spinous to: processes Transverse b) processes c) The atlas The hyoid d) e) boneThe nuchal lineWhat is the relation of the subclavian vein to the scalene 3) muscles? to the posterior scalene muscle a) Posterior
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b) Between the posterior and middle scalenes c) Through the middle scalene muscle d) Between the middle and anterior e) Anterior to the anterior scalene scalenes muscle landmark can be used to find the descending scapular artery when it is a 4) What branchthe of subclavian artery? on top of the clavicle a) Runs b) Runs along sternocleidomastoid on the anterior border of the posterior triangle c) Runs through the brachial plexus d) Runs out between anterior and middle scalene muscles then dives deep between middle and posterior scalene muscles e) Runs along trapezius on the posterior border of the posterior triangle are performing neck surgery and cannot find a superficial cervical artery or 5) You d a escending scapular artery. What artery would you find in place of these? a) Transverse cervical artery Suprscapular b) arteryDeep cervical c) artery Occipital d) arteryDorsal e) scapular 6) What artery runs along the superior part of the posterior artery triangle? a) Transverse cervical artery Suprscapular b) arteryDeep cervical c) d) artery Occipital arteryDorsal e) scapular artery 7) Which of the following is NOT a direct branch off of the thyrocervical trunk? a) Ascending cervical arteryTransverse cervical b) arteryInferior thyroid c) d) arterySuperficial cervical artery Suprascapular e) artery 8) Which of the following nerves is NOT in the posterior triangle? a) CN b) XI Subscapular c) Phrenic d) Nerve to subclavius e) Long thoracic nerve runs out of the jugular foramen with the internal jugular 9) What vein? CN a) b) XIDorsal scapular c) Brachial plexus d) Suprascauplar e) Long 10) The thoracic cervical plexus provides proprioceptive fibers to what nerve? a) CN XIDorsal scapular b)
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c) Accessory phrenic d) Suprascauplar e) Long 11) What thoracic muscle does the dorsal scapular nerve pierce through in the posterior triangle? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Anterior scalene Middle c) scalene d) Posterior scalene e) 12) A volleyball player presents with difficulty moving her rotator cuff. She said Trapezius the problem was getting worse with each serve and eventually she stopped playing completely. It has been over a month since she has last played. Upon examination, the posterior scapular muscles show signs of wasting on the affected side. What nerve likely is damaged? Long a) thoracic b) Median c) Axillary d) Suprascapular e) Dorsal scapular 13) All of the following muscles elevate the hyoid bone EXCEPT: a) Digastric b) Sternohyoid c) d) Stylohyoid Mylohyoid e) Geniohyoid of the following muscles has the same function as the omohyoid 14) Which muscle? a) Stylohyoid b) Plastisma c) Digastric d) Scalenus anterior e) Thyrohyoid 15) The thyroid is an ____ shaped gland sitting on the front of the ____. a) O; b) Trachea H; Trachea L; c) Trachea d) O; Esophagus H; e) Esophagus 16) The thyroid gland is supplied by ____ arteries and ____ veins. a) 2; 2 b) 2; 3 c) 2; 4 d) 3; 2 e) 4; 2 17) What variable artery runs superiorly off the internal carotid artery to the thyroid? a) Superior thyroid arteryInferior thyroid b) artery DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 14
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c) Posterior thyroid arteryMiddle thyroid d) artery Thyroid e) 18) ima A patient presents with lateral masses over the sternocleidomastoid in the area of the and 3rd tracheal cartilage rings. Which of the following is most 2nd likely? a) Branchial cleft cyst Thyroglossal duct b) cyst Pyramidal lobe c) cyst Hyoid d) bone e) Glottic degeneration fracture 19) A patient presents with a history of differentiated thyroid cancer. The reason for this is their hoarse voice. They noticed a twang in their voice over the last couple visit of weeks and it has gotten much worse recently. What nerve do you suspect is impinged? being a) Dorsal scapular b) Long thoracic c) Recurrent laryngeal Ansa d) cervicalis e) Facial 20) During a thyroidectomy, the surgeon is making extra sure not to cause trauma to nerve a erve that causes a hoarse voice. The surgeon needs to completely remove the artery n that in that vicinity. What artery is she going to runs ligate? a) Superior b) thyroid Inferior thyroid Thyrocervical c) trunk Superior laryngeal d) arteryDorsal e) scapular artery patient presents with a minor cut in the middle of their neck near the 21) A superiorof the thyroid gland. The cut appears is red, puffy, pus filled, and painful. portion what nodes is the lymph from this injury initially To draining? a) Prelaryngeal nodes Pretracheal b) nodes c) Parotid nodes d) Bucchal nodes Submandibular e) nodes 22) During a thyroidectomy, the surgeon inadvertently removes all of the parathyroid glands. Without intervention, what is the likely outcome for the patient? goiter will a) A develop b) System c) Denervation of the neck infection muscles d) Respiratory failure e) Hypovolemic shock what vertebral level does the pharynx end and the esophagus 23) At a) T1 begin? b) C7 c) C6
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d) C5 24) In the neck, what is the arterial supply to the esophagus? a) Aortic esophageal b) Superior thyroid branches arteryDeep cervical c) artery Occipital d) arteryInferior thyroid e) artery 25) During a tracheostomy procedure, the patient begins to bleed from the neck. The is deep blue in color and flows constantly. What vessel was likely blood a) Superior thyroid severed? artery b) Superior thyroid vein Inferior thyroid c) artery d) Inferior thyroid e) vein Thyroid ima Gross Anatomy #50 Area Under the Sternocleidomastoid 1) The carotid sheath contains all of the following EXCEPT: cervical lymph a) Deep nodes b) Superior root of ansa cervicalis c) Phrenic nerveInternal jugular d) vein Common and internal carotid e) arterieswhat level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and 2) At a) C1 external? b) C2-C3 c) C4-C5 d) C6-C7 3) At what location does the external carotid artery terminate (bifurcate)? superior border of the parotid a) At the b) At gland the apex of the ear At the middle of the c) temple the superior border of the posterior d) At triangle e) At the posterior occipital 4) You are thinking about a question during an anatomy exam with your hand under protuberance yoursupporting the weight of your head (The Thinker). You feel your pulse against jaw the ramus of your mandible. What branch of the carotid artery is this? a) Buccal b) Lingual c) d) Facial Maxillary e) Occipital 5) A patient presents the day after a tonsillectomy with complaints of a metallic taste and tarry, stools (melana). The physician thinks there is an open bleed at the black, site. What artery is likely surgical bleeding? Deep a) lingual b) Sublingual
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c) Dorsal lingual d) Ascending palatine e) Tonsillar 6) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the facial artery? a) Tonsillar b) Sublingual c) Glandular d) Muscular e) 7) What branch of the occipital artery provides an anastamoses with the cervical artery Submental as well as the vertebral artery? a) Meningeal b) Auricular c) Descending d) Mastoid e) Muscular 8) What nerve runs over the top of the occipital artery? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 9) The carotid sinus (baroreceptor) is a dilation at the ____ end of the internal where carotid the tunica intima is ____ and adventitia is ____. The tunica adventitia includes nerve endings (mainly CN IX). Lower; a) Thinner; Thicker b) Upper; Thinner; Thicker c) Lower; Thicker; Thinner d) Upper; Thicker; e) Lower; Thinner; Thinner Thinner carotid body (chemoreceptor) is located at the ____ and is innervated by CN 10) The IX, CN X, and pre-ganglionic sympathetics. a) Carotid sinus b) Carotid crotch (bifurcation) c) Mid-common carotid d) Mid-internal carotid Mid-external e) carotidpatient presents with a knife wound to the neck. The subclavian artery has 11) A been severed proximal to the thyrocervical trunk. The patient feels tingling in his arm, there but is still adequate perfusion for the limb to survive. What vessel is providing circulation to the upper limb? collateral a) Occipital branch of posterior auricular artery b) Auricular branch of occipital c) Descending branch of occipital artery artery d) Superior thyroid artery from non-damaged sideFacial artery from non-damaged e) side DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 17
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12) A patient presents with an industrial machine injury to the neck and face. A piece of metal shrapnel has penetrated the patients neck, severed the right external hot carotidproximal to the bifurcation, and seared the vessel shut. Which of the following artery the is most likely anastamose for the right side of the head? a) Occipital branch of posterior auricular artery b) Auricular branch of occipital artery c) Descending branch of occipital artery d) Superior thyroid artery from non-damaged sideFacial artery from non-damaged e) 13) A patient is undergoing a carotid endarterectomy (CEA) to relieve side atherosclerotic obstruction. Although all of the following cranial nerves could possibly be damaged during the procedure, which one is the most likely to be damaged? a) CN b) CN X XII CN c) IX CN d) XI You are viewing a left common carotid arteriograph (lateral view) for a patient 14) with possible arterial occlusion. You see a branch coming off of the external carotid taking aortuous, transverse path. What is it? t a) Lingual b) Occipital c) Ascending palatine d) Facial e) Superior thyroid 15) What vessel begins at the jugular foramen? a) Brachicephalic vein External jugular b) vein Internal jugular c) vein External d) carotid e) arteryInternal carotid artery 16) The internal jugular vein receives all of the following tributaries EXCEPT: a) Inferior thyroid vein Middle thyroid b) c) vein Lingual vein d) Pharangeal veins e) Facial vein 17) After an internal jugular vein puncture procedure, the patient is having difficulty tasting when they drink from a straw. They say they can taste normally when sipping when they use a straw the taste is diminished. What nerve may have juice, but damaged during the been procedure? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) d) Vagus Hypoglossal e) Ansa cervicalis
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18) What nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle and is closely associated with the superior thyroid artery? a) Vagus b) Internal laryngeal (from superior) c) External laryngeal (from superior) Inferior d) laryngeal e) Recurrent laryangeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the 19) What larynx? a) Vagus b) Internal laryngeal (from superior) c) External laryngeal (from superior) Inferior d) laryngeal e) Recurrent 20) After laryangeal an internal carotid artery puncture procedure, the patient is having difficulty talking and cannot depress their hyoid bone. What nerve was likely damaged? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Hypoglossal d) Vagus e) Ansa cervicalis nerve lies on top of the carotid sheath and passes into the mandibular 21) What region the tongue? towards a) b) Facial Trigeminal c) Hypoglossal d) Vagus e) Ansa cervicalis first cervical nerve hitches a ride with what cranial nerve before 22) The innervating the thyrohyoid and geniohyoid a) muscles? Trigeminal b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 23) What lymph nodes running along the internal jugular vein would be enlarged with an infection to the face, scalp, tongue, mouth, tonsils, or pharynx? Deep a) cervical b) Retropharyngeal c) d) Submandibular Tracheal e) Parotid Gross Anatomy #51 Root 1) All of the following are borders of the root of the neck EXCEPT: a) 1st ribs b) 1st costal cartilages
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c) Body of C7 d) Manubrium e) Sternum 2) Which of the following muscles is the most superficial? a) Longus capitus b) Longus colli c) Rectus capitus anterior d) Rectus capitus lateralis e) Splenius 3) Which of the following muscles can rotate the vertebra to the same side with capitis its superior fibers and the opposite side with its inferior fibers? a) Rotatores b) Rectus capitus lateralis c) Rectus capitus anterior d) Longus colli e) Longus capitus 4) What veins do the inferior thyroid veins drain into? a) Brachiocephalic b) c) Subclavian Axillary Internal d) jugular e) External jugular 5) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a subclavian a) The suprapleural fascia is very close to the puncture venipuncture? siteSubclavian arteriopuncture is not a direct b) risk c) The vein runs over the first rib The vein runs under the d) clavicle insertion site is just below the e) The clavicalthree parts of the subclavian artery are named based on their anatomical relation 6) The what to muscle? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Anterior scalene Middle c) d) Posterior scalene scalene e) Levator scapulae 7) The internal thoracic artery and thyrocervical trunk are branches off of the: a) Aorta b) First part of subclavian artery c) Second part of subclavian d) Third part of subclavian artery artery Axillary e) artery 8) What artery runs backwards behind the anterior scalene over the dome of the pleura? a) Descending scapular b) artery Vertebral artery c) Costocervical trunk d) Deep cervical artery DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 20
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e) Suprascapular artery 9) Preglanglionic sympathetic fibers destined for viscera in the head arise from: a) C1-C4 b) C4-C7 c) T1-T4 d) T4-T7 e) T1-L2 10) All sympathetic fibers going to the head are ____ and synapse in the ____. a) Postganglionic; Cervical sympathetic b) chain Postganglionic; IMLPreganglionic; Cervical sympathetic c) chain Preganglionic; d) IML Which of the following cervical sympathetic chain levels is NOT 11) a) Superior cervical C1-C4 correct? b) Middle cervical C4Inferior cervical C7-C8 c) d) Stellate C8-T1 12) The small deep petrosal nerve (caroticotympanic) has sympathetic nerve branches coming from around what vessel? a) Common carotid arteryInternal carotid b) arteryExternal c) carotid artery d) Internal jugular e) External jugular vein vein 13) The pterygopalatine ganglion (PPG) is an autonomic motor ganglia associated with what cranial nerve? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) d) Vagus Glossopharyngeal e) Hypoglossal 14) A pancoast tumor could interrupt the thoracic chain at the inlet, leading to Horners All of the following are signs of a disruptions of the cervical syndrome. trunk EXCEPT: sympathetic a) Constricted pupil (miosis) b) Drooping eyelid (ptosis) c) Increased vagus nerve activityRed/flushed d) face No sweating of the face e) (anhydrosis) Gross Anatomy #52 & 53 Skull & Cranial Vault 1) Which of the following bones can be seen in an anterior, inferior, and lateral view of skull? the a) Frontal b) Occipital c) Sphenoid DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 21
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d) Nasal e) Vomer 2) What is the name of the craniometric point formed by the left and right parietal with the bones occipital bone? a) Pterion b) Nasation c) Glabella d) Bregma e) 3) What is the name of the suture formed by the parietal bone and temporal Lambda bone? a) Coronal b) Lambdoidal c) d) Squamosal Saggital 4) A patient arrives in the Emergency Department with trauma to the lateral side of their near the temple. The physician determines that the pterion has been damaged head and bleeding is taking place inside of the head. What artery is the most likely to have been damaged in this area? Superficial a) temporal b) arteryMiddle meningeal arteryInferior c) alveolar artery d) Anterior deep temporal artery e) Posterior deep temporal 5) Which part of the sphenoid bone can be seen in an anterior view of the skull artery through the orbit? a) Greater wing Lesser b) wing c) Body d) Sphenoidal e) conchae Vaginal process many bones articulate to form the orbit? 6) How a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) 8 7) Which of the following foramen does NOT contain an artery, vein, and nerve with the name? same a) Mental b) foramen Infraorbital foramen Mandibular c) foramen Zygomaticotemporal d) foramen e) Posterior ethmoidal foramen 8) Which of the following contains the second branch of the trigeminal nerve? Optical a) canal b) Supraorbital foramen
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c) Superior orbital fissure d) Infraorbital foramen orbital fissure e) Inferior 9) What view of the skull is necessary for seeing the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone? a) Superior b) Inferior c) Lateral d) Anterior e) Posterior 10) A patient presents with a superficial laceration that starts at the apex of the skull and travels two inches along a line to the external occipital protuberance. The bleeding is constant and dark blue in color. Which of the following vessels was most likely damaged a Occipital ?) vein b) Occipital artery c) Parietal vein d) Parietal artery Lambdoidal e) vein Which of the following sits directly in the hypophyseal fossa on the sella 11) (Turkish turcica saddle)? a) Pons b) Medulla c) d) Substantia Hypothalamus nigra Pituitary e) gland 12) Which of the following could be seen the best in multiple views due to its radiodensity? a) Foramen magnum b) Cribriform plate c) Nasal bone d) Crista gali e) Petrose bone 13) Which of the following foramen can NOT be seen from an inferior a) Rotundum view? b) Ovale c) Spinosum d) Magnum e) Lacerum lies in the channel between the meningeal and periosteal 14) What a) Arterial blood dura? b) Venous blood c) Lymph d) Cerebral spinal e) Nervous tissue fluid 15) The arachnoid granulations allow for some drainage of:Arterial blood a)
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b) Venous blood c) Lymph d) Cerebral spinal e) Nervous tissue fluid 16) Where does the falx cerebri attach anteriorly? a) Crista galli b) Sella turcica c) Lesser wing of sphenoid d) Greater wing of e) Diploe sphenoid 17) The dural venous sinus, between the two dural layers, drains all of the following EXCEPT: a) Diploe b) Vertebral column c) Face, orbit, nasal cavity d) Meninges e) Internal jugular vein Most of the arachnoid granulations are located in 18) the: a) Tentorium cerebelli b) Superior sagittal sinus c) Sigmoid sinus d) Intercavernous sinus e) Basilar plexus 19) Which of the following is located at the posterior inferior border of the falx cerebri? a) Internal jugular vein b) Sphenoparietal sinus c) Confluens of sinuses d) Superior petrosal sinus e) Inferior petrosal sinus 20) A patient presents with an infection that has traveled from his scalp into the dura. veins have communications that allow for this to What happen?Cerebral a) veins Meningeal b) c) Diploe veins veins d) Emissary veins e) Parietal veins 21) A patient presents with a traumatic head injury after a motor vehicle crash. The attending physician is concerned about swelling and mentions the sharp tentorial notch the brain. What structure is at risk from being severed by this notch as the within swells? brain a) Circle of Willis b) Brain stem c) Facial d) nerve Trigeminal nerve Optic e) nerve
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22) All of the following are within the cavernous sinus. Which of the following is NOT outer wall of the cavernous sinus? in the a) CN b) III CN IVCN V1 c) d) CN V2 e) CN VI Thrombophlebitis of a facial vein within the Danger Triangle of the Face can 23) travel intracranially via the ____ to the cavernous sinus. This could lead to thrombophlebitis the cavernous sinus which is fatal in more than 1/3 of of cases. a) Superior ophthalmic vein Superior b) ophthalmic artery c) Anterior ethmoidal d) vein Anterior ethmoidal artery Nasolacrimal e) vein All of the supratentorial dura is supplied 24) by: Anterior a) meningeal arteries b) Middle meningeal arteries c) Accessory meningeal d) Posterior meningeal arteries arteries 25) Because of the shape of the dura, ____ hematomas are crescent-shaped, usually and have a center of radius on the ____ side of the venous, skull. a) Epidural; Contralateral b) Epidural; Ipsilateral Contralateral c) Subdural; d) Subdural; Ipsilateral 26) An infant presents in the Emergency Department with a babysitter who says the child crying or moving much anymore. The child appears very listless and doesnt isnt track well. Radiographic imaging shows a subdural hemotoma, which can occur objects shaken baby syndrome. What vessels were likely damaged to cause this with problem? a) Middle meningeal arteries b) Middle meningeal veins c) Cerebral d) arteries Cerebral veins Emissary e) veins patient presents in the Emergency Department (ED) with a headache. 27) A Records were in the day before and received a spinal tap. Notation on the patient show they care does not show explanation of what to expect after they left the ED last night. report You explain to the patient that headaches can be expected and to get into the ____ position help relieve the to pain. a) Fowler position (sitting at 45 angle, semi-upright) b) Trendelenburg position (lying with feet up) Left lateral recumbent (recovery c) d) Right lateral position) recumbent e) Prone
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Gross Anatomy #54 & 55 Scalp & Face/Parotid 1) What layer of the scalp is considered the danger layer as infection can spread easily? a) b) Connective tissue Skin c) Aponeurosis d) Loose connective tissue e) Pericranium 2) Scalp lacerations can bleed profusely due to abundant anastomoses. Arteries that are lacerated are held open, and thus bleed from both ends, by what layer of the a) scalp? Skin b) Connective tissue c) Aponeurosis d) Loose connective e) Pericranium tissue 3) The supratrochlear and supraorbital arteries come off of the: Superficial a) temporal artery b) Posterior auricular artery c) Opthalmic artery Occipital d) e) carotid arteryExternal artery 4) Which of the following nerves is NOT a branch of the trigeminal nerve? a) Supratrochlear b) Supraorbital c) Zygomaticotemporal d) Auriculotemporal e) Lesser occipital of the following veins drains to the deep cervical and deep vertebral 5) Which veins? a) Occipital b) Posterior auricular c) Superficial temporal d) Supraorbital e) Supratrochlear 6) The veins that drain into the superior ophthalmic vein then drain into a) External jugular vein the: b) Internal jugular vein c) Cavernous sinus d) Subclavian vein Vertebral e) vein 7) Which of the following facial sensory nerves comes from C2-3 of the cervical a) Great plexus? auricular b) Mental c) Buccal d) Infraorbital e) Supratrochlear 8) The trigeminal ganglion houses ____ of pseudounipolar ____ neurons. a) Cell bodies; motor
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b) Cell bodies; sensory c) Nerve fibers; motor Nerve d) fibers; 9) A patient presents with stabbing, lightning bold-like pain in their face when sensory applying makeup. After several tests, the clinician suspects the middle meningeal powdered artery is constricting the sensory root of a nerve. What nerve could this be? a) C2 b) C2-C3 c) C3-C4 d) Trigeminal e) Facial 10) Which of the following arteries covers the area over the nasolacrimal duct heading toward the a) labial eye? Superior arteryInferior labial b) arteryLateral nasal c) arteryTransverse facial d) arteryAngular facial e) artery 11) Which of the following is supplied by the internal (NOT external) carotid a) Forehead artery? b) Temple c) Cheeks d) Upper e) lipChin 12) Which of the following veins drains into the common facial vein? a) Occipital b) Posterior retromandibular c) Anterior retromandibular d) Posterior auricular e) Superior opthalmic 13) A patient presents with impingement of the lesser petrosal nerve after the nerve has exited foramen ovale and before it has reached the otic ganglion. Which of the following most is the likely clinical a) Increased presentation? salivation Reduced b) salivation c) Increased lacrimation Decreased d) lacrimation e) Denervation of the platisma muscle 14) Since the ____ artery branches from the internal carotid artery near the sinus, a cavernouscavernous sinus thrombus or thrombophlebitis could cause enlarged arteriole the ____. vessels in a) Posterior communicating; cerebral arterial circle (of Willis) b) Anterior cerebral; cerebral arterial circle (of c) Ascending pharyngeal; Willis) throat Opthalmic; d) eyes e) Lingual; tongue DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 27
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15) How many (paired) lymph nodes are there in the scalp? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 e) 0 16) Most of the motor innervation to the face (muscles of facial expression) arises from branchial arch: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 6 17) Which of the following muscles raises the eyebrows, as seen in disbelief or surprise? a) Epicranius (occipitofrontalis) b) Obicularis oris c) Procerus d) Zygomaticus major e) Nasalis 18) Which of the following muscles puckers the lips, as in making a kissing face? a) Epicranius (occipitofrontalis) b) Obicularis oris c) Procerus d) Zygomaticus major e) Nasalis 19) This variable muscle draws the corner of the mouth laterally when grinning, such as during a weak or incencere smile that does not involve the skin around the eyes. a) Mentalis b) Frontalis c) Risorius d) Procerus e) Nasalis 20) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the facial a) Temporal nerve? b) Zygomatic c) Lingual d) Mandibular e) Cervical 21) At what point does the facial nerve bifurcate into its two major a) branches?Temporal region b) Superior to the parotid gland the parotid c) In gland d) Anterior to the parotid e) Buccal region gland 22) What component of the facial nerve is motor to the muscles of facial expression? a) SVA DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 28
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b) GVE c) SVE d) e) GSA GVA 23) Which of the following would NOT occur with a CN VII lesion (Bell Palsy)? a) Eyelid droop and inability to close eyelid b) Atrophy of facial expression muscles falls out of mouth due to orbicularis oris muscle c) Food d) Chewing is inefficient due to buccinator e) Sounds may appear quieter due to stapedius muscle muscle 24) Which of the following is the largest structure running transversely across the face? Transverse facial a) artery b) Transverse facial c) Facial vein artery Facial d) vein e) Parotid duct 25) Which of the following is the least likely to be damaged during a paratoidectomy? and a) Facial artery vein b) Transverse facial artery and c) vein CN VII d) Retromandibular vein External e) carotid artery 26) Parasympathetic innervation (GVE-P) to the parotid gland comes a) CN from: V b) CN VII CN c) IX CN d) X e) CN XII Gross Anatomy #56 Muscles of Mastication & Infratemporal Fossa 1) Which of the following is NOT a motion of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)? a) Torsion b) Gliding (side to c) Protrusion side) d) Retraction e) Hinge (elevation and depression)ligament covers the loose TMJ capsule 2) What laterally? a) Temporomandibular b) c) Stylomandibular Sphenomandibular 3) What TMJ ligament attaches from the base of the skull to the lingual of the mandible? a) Temporomandibular b) c) Stylomandibular Sphenomandibular 4) When you put your teeth together and clench your jaw, what muscle can be felt protruding on the sides of your cheeks? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 29
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a) Temporalis b) Lateral pterygoid Medial c) d) pterygoid Masseter e) Buccinator 5) The deep arteries that supply the temporalis muscle are branches from what artery? a) Facial b) Maxillary c) Temporal d) Lingual e) Mandibular 6) What muscle is involved in protrusion of the mandible as well as side-to-side motion? a) Temporalis b) Pterygoids c) Stylomandibular d) Masseter e) Buccinator 7) All of the following are involved in depression of the mandible EXCEPT: a) b) Digastric muscle Gravity c) Geniohyoid muscle Mylohyoid d) muscle e) Lateral and medial pterygoid 8) All muscles of the following are at the roof of the infratemporal fossa EXCEPT:Petrotympanic a) fissure b) Greater wing of the sphenoid rotundum c) Foramen d) Foramen ovale e) Foramen spinosum 9) The infratemporal fossa contains all of the following EXCEPT: tympani (CN a) Chorda VII) Mandibular nerve b) (V3)Mandibular artery and its c) d) Pterygoid venous branches plexus e) Lesser petrosal nerve (CN IX) The lower head of the lateral pterygoid muscle is ____ to the deep head of the 10) medial pterygoid muscle and ____ to the superficial head of the medial pterygoid muscle. Deep; a) Deep b) Deep; c) Superficial Superficial; Superficial d) Superficial; Deep 11) All of the following are branches off the first part of the maxillary artery EXCEPT: a) Buccal b) arteryMiddle meningeal arteryInferior c) alveolar arteryDeep d) auricular artery DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 30
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e) Anterior tympanic artery of the following are branches off the third part of the maxillary artery 12) All EXCEPT: a) Pharyngeal b) artery Masseteric arteryDescending palantine c) artery d) Posterior superior alveolar arteries e) Sphenopalatine artery 13) Which of the following veins originates in the pterygoid venous plexus?Supraorbital a) b) vein Angular vein Retromandibular c) vein Superifical temporal d) vein Deep facial e) 14) vein The recurrent meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve re-enters the cranial cavity what foramen? through a) Foramen magnum rotundum b) Foramen c) Foramen ovale d) Foramen spinosum e) Foramen lacerum 15) All of the following mandibular nerve branches are primarily motor EXCEPT: Deep a) temporal b) Lateral c) Buccal pterygoid d) Masseteric of the following branches of the mandibular nerve (V3) often pierces 16) Which the tendon of the temporalis muscle? a) Recurrent meningeal branch b) Medical pterygoid c) nerve Masseteric nerveLateral pterygoid d) nerve Buccal e) nerve 17) What branch of the mandibular nerve (V3) is sensory for the lower a) Inferior alveolar teeth? nerve Lingual b) nerve c) Auriculotemporal nerve d) Buccal nerve Masseteric e) nerve 18) The chorda tympani nerve always merges with what other a) nerve? Incisive b) Mental alveolar c) Inferior d) Lingual e) Nerve to mylohyoid chorda tympani nerve innervates the sublingual glands, the 19) The submandibular glands, and carries taste from what part of the tongue? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 31
Gross Anatomy Part 3 a) Anterior 1/3 b) Anterior 2/3 c) Posterior 1/3 d) Posterior 2/3 e) Entire tongue
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Gross Anatomy #57 Pharynx 1) What structure marks the beginning of the laryngopharynx? a) Torus tubarius b) Palatine tonsil c) Palatopharyngeal arch d) Epiglottis e) Laryngeal 2) What structure marks the opening to the auditory inlet tube? tubarius a) Torus b) Salpingopharyngeal fold Salpingopalantine c) fold Adenoids d) (pharyngeal tonsils) tonsils e) Tubule 3) The oropharynx is bounded posteriorly by the bodies of what vertebra? a) C1 b) C2-C3 c) C4-C5 d) C6 e) C7 4) The palatopharyngeal muscle and palatoglossus muscle are innervated by: V a) CN b) CN VII CN c) d) IX CN X e) CN XII 5) Damage to what nerve would result in sagging of the palatine arch and the uvula to point to the ipsilesional side? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal patient presents with middle ear pain and extensive palatine tonsil 6) A teenage What nerve is referring pain from the adenoids to the middle swelling. ear? V a) CN b) CN VII CN c) d) IX CN X e) CN XII
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7) A patient is having their palatine tonsils surgically removed. During the procedure the patient begins to bleed profusely. The bleeding is rhythmic and bright red in color. What should the surgeon put pressure on to slow the vessel a) Facial bleeding?vein b) Facial artery Maxillary c) vein d) Maxillary artery Tonsillar e) vein 8) Waldeyers ring is a ring of ____ in the area of the a) Lymphatic tissue; Vertebral column (C1____. C4) b) Arteries; Oropharynx and laryngopharynx c) Lymphatic tissue; Oropharynx and laryngopharynx Nasopharynx d) Arteries; and e) Lymphatic tissue; Nasopharynx and oropharynx oropharynxendotracheal intubation, an anesthesiologist uses a MacIntosh (curved) 9) During blade laryngoscope to hold open and visualize the airway. The tip of the blade on a should into the recess anterior to the laryngeal opening. What is this recess extend called? a) Median glossoepiglotic fold b) Lateral glossoepiglotic fold c) Piriform recess d) Epiglottis e) Valleculae 10) A patient presents with severe pain in their neck. They say they were eating fish a recent fishing trip and felt as if a piece of bone got stuck on the way down. They from are to breath, but with pain. The patient tries to drink fluid, but cannot keep it down able and to cough violently. Which of the following is the most likely obstructed starts area? a) Median glossoepiglotic fold b) Lateral glossoepiglotic fold c) Piriform recess d) Valleculae e) Inside the trachea stylopharyngeus, stylohyoid ligament, and CN XI connect at the 11) The larynx: a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the trachea e) Inferior to the trachea internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve and the superior laryngeal 12) The artery traverse the a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle larynx: b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the e) Inferior to the trachea trachea recurrent laryngeal nerve and inferior laryngeal artery traverse the 13) The larynx: a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle
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b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the e) Inferior to the trachea trachea of the following arteries supply the pharynx 14) All EXCEPT: Inferior a) thyroid b) Ascending pharyngeal c) Superior thyroid d) Facial e) Maxillary the back of the oropharynx initiates the gag reflex. Sensory for this reflex 15) Poking is: CN V a) b) CN c) VII CN IX CN d) X e) CN XII The cough reflex is a vital part of the bodys defense mechanism with the 16) function dislodge foreign objects. Some cough lozenges incorporate a mild anesthetic being to to help reduce sensory innervation of what a) CN nerve: V b) CN VII CN c) IX CN d) e) CN X XII Gross Anatomy #58 Larynx 1) Which of the following cartilages is the most prominent (Adams Apple)? a) Thyroid b) Cricoid c) Arytenoid d) Cuneiform e) Corniculate 2) In subglottic stenosis, there is a congenital narrowing of the entire ring of associated with the disorder. What cartilage does this cartilage affect? a) Thyroid b) Cricoid c) Arytenoid d) Cuneiform e) Corniculate 3) What nerve pierces the thyrohyoid membrane? branch of the superior laryngeal a) External nerve b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerveRecurrent laryngeal c) d) nerveInferior laryngeal nerve Hypoglossal e) nerve 4) What structure ends inferiorly as the vestibular ligament? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 34
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a) Conus elasticus b) Superior cricothyroid ligament c) Inferior cricothyroid d) Aryepiglottic ligament fold e) Quadrangular membrane 5) What holds the epiglottis to the tongue? a) Vocal ligament b) Quadrangular membrane glossoepiglotic fold c) Median d) Rima vestibuli e) Rima glottis 6) A laryngocele is a mucus-filled cysts that can arise from pathological blockage of the larynx ventricle. Infection in this area can ascend the larynx and enter the fascial space. surrounding Once in this space, how far can the infection descend inferiorly? a) Sternum b) Vertebral level C6 c) Diaphragm mediastinum d) Superior e) It cannot 7) What descend nerve innervates the infraglottic laryngeal mucosa? a) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerveRecurrent laryngeal c) d) nerveInferior laryngeal nerve Hypoglossal e) nerve 8) Where does lymph drainage from the supraglottic laryngeal mucosa go? Upper deep cervical a) nodes b) Lower deep cervical nodes c) Upper superficial cervical d) Lower superficial cervical nodes nodes nodes e) Facial 9) What nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle? a) External branch of the superior laryngeal b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve nerveRecurrent laryngeal c) nerveInferior laryngeal d) nerve Hypoglossal e) nerve 10) Contraction of which of the following muscles would give your voice a high pitch? a) Transverse b) arytenoid Oblique arytenoid c) Cricoarytenoid d) Cricothyroid e) 11) The lateral Thyroarytenoid arytenoids close the rima glottis when they contract. a) True b) False
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Gross Anatomy #59 & 60 Palate and Sphenopalatine fossa 1) Which of the following is situated in the saggital a) Palatine rugae plane? b) Incisive papilla Palatine c) raphe d) Incisors e) Molars 2) Which of the following is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve of the nerve (V3)? mandibular a) Tensor veli palitiniLevator b) veli palatini c) Musculus uvulae d) Palatopharyngeus e) Palatoglossus 3) What muscle originates at the posterior nasal spine of the hard palate? a) Tensor veli palitiniLevator b) veli palatini c) d) Musculus uvulae Palatopharyngeus e) Palatoglossus 4) While testing the vagus nerve, a patient is asked to say Ah. It is noted that the patients palate deviates toward the right side, suggesting a left side lesion. What on the muscle left side is not functioning properly? a) Tensor veli palitiniLevator b) veli palatini c) Musculus uvulae d) Palatopharyngeus e) Palatoglossus 5) What two muscles narrow the isthmus faucium and depress the soft palate? a) Palatopharyngeus and Tensor veli palitini b) Palatoglossus and Tensor veli palitini c) Palatopharyngeus and Levator veli d) Palatoglossus and Levator veli palatini palatini Palatopharyngeus e) and Palatoglossusthe following muscles opens the pharyngotympanic tube (yawning 6) Which of and swallowing)? a) Palatoglossus b) c) Musculus uvulae Palatopharyngeus d) Tensor veli palitini e) Levator veli palatini nerve innervates the gingiva anterior to the first 7) What a) Nasopalatine premolar? nerve Greater palatine b) nerveLesser palatine c) nerve DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 36
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d) Glossopharyngeal nerve Hypoglossal e) nerve 8) What nerve innervates the glands of the posterior 2/3s of the hard a) palate? Nasopalatine nerve Greater palatine b) nerveLesser palatine c) nerve Glossopharyngeal d) nerve Hypoglossal e) nerve 9) What type of fibers are carried by the petrosal a) Preganglionic nerves? sympathetics Postganglionic b) sympathetics c) Preganglionic parasympathetics Postganglionic d) 10) What artery parasympathetics gives a branch to the incisive canal for the nasal cavity? a) Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery b) Lesser palatine branch of the descending palatine artery c) Palatine branch of the ascending palatine arteryAscending palatine artery d) branches e) Ascending pharyngeal 11) What artery loops over the top of the superior constrictor muscle? artery a) Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery b) Lesser palatine branch of the descending palatine artery c) Palatine branch of the ascending palatine d) arteryAscending palatine artery branches e) Ascending pharyngeal artery 12) What makes up the medial wall of the spenopalatine fossa ? Maxilla a) bone Sphenoid b) bone c) Palatine bone d) Infratemporal fossa e) Molars 13) Which of the following is situated before the entrance to the nasal cavity? Sphenopaltine a) b) fossa Infratemporal fossa c) Sphenopaltine foramen Pterygomaxillary d) fissure e) Mandibular foramen 14) Which of the following is NOT contained within the sphenopalatine fossa? Maxillary a) b) Sympathetic fibers from nerve T1 c) Pterygoid nerve branches d) Parasympathetic fibers form trigeminal nerve Pterygoid venous plexus e) 15) Which of the following communicates with the branches nasopharynx? a) Foramen rotundum b) Pterygoid canal DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 37
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c) Palatovaginal canal Palatine d) canal e) Pterygomaxillary 16) Which of the following communicates with the nasal fissure cavity? a) Foramen rotundum b) Inferior orbital fissure c) Palatine canal d) Sphenopalatine foramen Pterygomaxillary e) 17) Which of the following communicates with the infratemporal fossa? fissure a) Foramen rotundum b) Inferior orbital fissure c) Palatine d) Sphenopalatine canal foramen Pterygomaxillary e) fissure 18) Which of the following communicate with the middle cranial fossa? a) Foramen rotundum and pterygoid canal b) Pterygoid canal and palatovaginal canal c) Palatovaginal canal and sphenopalatine d) Sphenopalatine foramen and Palatine foramen canal e) Palatine canal and pterygomaxillary fissure 19) Maxillary nerve (V2) fibers in the sphenopalatine fossa are: a) Preganglionic b) sympathetics Postganglionic sympathetics c) Preganglionic parasympathetics Postganglionic d) parasympathetics (V2) fibers in the sphenopalatine fossa going to salivary glands 20) Maxillary nerve of nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, and lacrimal glands the are: a) Preganglionic b) sympathetics Postganglionic sympathetics c) Preganglionic parasympathetics Postganglionic d) parasympathetics of the maxillary nerve (V2) supplies the mucosa after entering 21) What branch nasopharynx the ?) a Nasal nerve Pharyngeal b) nerve Zygomatic c) nerve Infraorbital d) nerve e) Posterior superior alveolar nerve 22) What branch of the maxillary nerve (V2) supplies the posterior upper teeth? Nasal a) nerve Pharyngeal b) nerve Zygomatic c) d) nerve Infraorbital nerve e) Posterior superior alveolar nerve
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23) A patient presents with extremely dry eyes. They have been using eye drops constantly over the past day. Upon examination, the clinician believes damage has occurred in the pterygoid canal and is concerned as the patient could eventually lose vision. What type of fibers are the most likely their affected? a) Preganglionic sympathetic Postganglionic b) sympathetic c) Preganglionic parasympathetic Postganglionic d) parasympatheticpetrosal nerve fibers 24) The deep a) Preganglionic are: sympathetic Postganglionic b) sympathetic c) Preganglionic parasympathetic Postganglionic d) 25) What artery supplies the upper teeth through its parasympathetic branches? superior alveolar artery a) Posterior b) Infraorbital arteryDescending palatine c) artery Sphenopalatine d) artery e) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary 26) What artery anastomoses with the terminal branch of the greater palatine artery artery? a) Posterior superior alveolar artery b) Infraorbital arteryDescending palatine c) d) artery Sphenopalatine artery e) Artery of the pterygoid canalWhat artery supplies the posterior part of the nasal 27) cavity? a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery b) Artery of the pterygoid canal Descending palatine c) d) artery Sphenopalatine artery e) Posterior superior alveolar artery 28) What artery supplies the medial and lateral walls of the nasal cavity? a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary b) Posterior superior alveolar artery artery c) Artery of the pterygoid canal Descending palatine d) artery Sphenopalatine e) artery 29) What artery, along with the greater petrosal nerve, pierces the cartilage of the foramen lacerum? a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery b) Posterior superior alveolar artery c) Artery of the pterygoid canal Descending palatine d) e) artery Sphenopalatine artery 30) What structure do the veins of the sphenopalatine fossa associate with before entering pterygoid the plexus? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 39
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a) Infratemporal fossa b) Orbits of the eye c) Pterygomaxillary d) fissure Nasal cavity Hard e) palate Gross Anatomy #61 Oral & Nasal 1) What nerve innervates the cheek (mucosa) within the oral cavity? a) Posterior superior alveolar nerve b) Zygomaticofacial nerve c) Anterior superior alveolar nerve Buccal d) nerve e) Middle superior alveolar 2) The nerve fungiform papillae are mainly found in what part of the tongue? a) Anterior 1/3 b) Middle 1/3 c) Posterior 1/3 d) Root e) 3) What Undersidenerve senses heat and pain for the anterior 2/3s of the tongue? Chorda a) tympani b) Lingual c) CN d) IX CN X e) CN XII What nerve is involved in sticking out the 4) tongue? a) Hypoglossus b) Genioglossus c) Styloglossus d) Geniohyoid e) Mylohyoid 5) After surgery involving dissection of the internal carotid artery, a patient is seen by a eurologist. The patient is instructed to stick out their tongue and it is noted to deviate n the left side. It is most likely that the ____ is injured on the ____ to side. a) Hypoglossal; Right Hypoglossal; b) Left c) Glossopharyngeal; Right Glossopharyngeal; d) Left stroke patient is being seen by a neurologist the day after treatment. The patient 6) A instructed to stick out their tongue and it is noted to deviate to the left side. It is is most that the ____ is injured on the ____ side. likely a) Hypoglossal; Right Hypoglossal; b) c) Glossopharyngeal; Left Right Glossopharyngeal; d) Left 7) Which of the following muscles is innervated by C1 via the hypoglossal nerve? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 40
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a) Hypoglossus b) Genioglossus c) Styloglossus d) Geniohyoid e) Mylohyoid 8) What artery supplies the tip of the tongue and anastmoses the left and right sides?Superior a) alveolar arteryInferior b) alveolar artery Sublingual c) d) lingual artery Dorsal arteryDeep e) lingual artery 9) Sublingual drug administration is a good option for drugs with a displeasing taste, such as nitroglycerine. It is also a good option for drugs with a high first-pass metabolism. idea The is that drugs can bypass what metabolic organ? a) Spleen b) Kidneys c) Liver d) Gallbladder e) 10) Where Pancreas does lymph from the tip of the tongue initially drain? a) Superior deep cervical nodes b) Inferior deep cervical nodes Submental c) d) Buccal nodes nodes e) Parotid nodes 11) Where does lymph from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue drain? a) Superior deep cervical nodes b) Inferior deep cervical nodes Submental c) d) Buccal nodes nodes e) Parotid nodes 12) What makes up the floor (deep) of both the submandibular and submental triangles? a) Anterior belly of the digastric b) Posterior belly of the digastric muscle muscle c) Inferior margin of the mandible d) Cervical (investing) fascia e) Mylohyoid muscle 13) Which of the following is NOT contained in the paralingual space? Lingual a) b) Stylohyoid nerve muscle Submandibular c) duct d) Sublingual gland Hypoglossal e) 14) What structure crosses the submandibular duct twice? nerve a) Mylohyoid muscle Omyhyoid b) muscle DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 41
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c) Lingual nerve Facial d) arteryInferior alveolar e) 15) Which branch of the facial artery to the sublingual gland ascends between nerve the styloglossus muscle and the stylopharyngeus muscle (also arches over superior muscle)? constrictor a) Ascending palatine b) Tonsillar c) d) Glandular Submental 16) Secretions of the submandibular gland are decreased by ____, which are associated with the ____ ganglion. a) Sympathetics; b) Submandibular Parasympathetics; Submandibular c) Sympathetics; Superior cervical d) Parasympathetics; Superior cervical 17) What cartilage forms the tip of the nose? a) Lateral cartilage b) Greater alar c) Lesser alar cartilage cartilage Quadrangular d) cartilage Vomernasal e) cartilage 18) What three components make up the nasal a) septum? Ethmoid bone, internal part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular vomer plate of the bone b) Ethmoid bone, external part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular vomer plate of the bone c) Vomer bone, internal part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular plate ethmoid bone of the d) Vomer bone, external part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular ethmoid plate of the bone e) Choanae, hard palate, paranasal sinuses superior and middle nasal conchae are part of which 19) The a) Vomer bone bone? b) Maxillary bone c) Frontal bone d) Zygomatic bone e) Ethmoid bone 20) Which of the following does NOT open into the semilunar a) Frontal hiatus? sinus b) Ethmoidal cells c) Maxillary sinus Sphenoid d) 21) A sinus patient is undergoing an operation on their pituitary gland. To access the gland, the surgeon will enter through the nose, break through a sinus, and break through the sella tursica. What sinus is being pierced prior to the sella tursica? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 42
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a) Orbital sinus b) Ethmoid air cells c) Maxillary d) sinus Sphenoid sinus e) Frontal sinus 22) A physician numbs the back of a patients throat for a posterior rhinoscopy. Which of following structures is least likely to be seen during the procedure from the the posterior view? a) Nares b) Nasal conchae (inferior, middle, superior) Pharyngeal c) tonsils Tensor d) veli palatini e) Levator veli 23) Which of the following is NOT part of the Kiesselbach plexus (arterial plexus on palatini the septum)? nasal a) Greater palatine arteryLesser palatine b) arteryAnterior ethmoidal c) arterySuperior d) labial e) artery Sphenopalatine artery 24) Blood from the internal nose area closest to the nares would drain to the: a) Cavernous sinus b) Pterygoid c) Facial plexus vein d) Lesser palatine vein e) Infratemporal fossa patient presents with a nosebleed where blood flows down into their throat. 25) A Which following is the most likely artery of the involved? a) Greater palatine b) arteryLesser palatine arteryAnterior ethmoidal c) arterySuperior d) labial artery Sphenopalatine e) 26) What GVE-P nerve branch provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to artery the mucosal glands? nasal a) Chorda tympani Lesser b) petrosal petrosal c) Greater d) Vagus e) Oculomotor 27) Lymph from the posterior nasal cavity would initially travel to what area? a) Facial nodes b) Submandibular c) Submucosal plexus nodes d) Jugulodigastric nodes e) Superior deep cervical nodes DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 43
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Gross Anatomy #62 & 63 Orbit & Eye 1) A young boy is playing monster by flipping his eyelids upward and chasing after sister. What structure is being locked upon itself to keep the boys eyelids his inverted? a) Tendon of levator palpebrae superioris muscle septum b) Orbital c) Superior conjunctival fornix d) Conjunctiva e) Tarsal 2) Horner syndrome leads to ptosis due to sympathetic nervous disruption. Lesion to plate what nerve would lead to an even more severe cranial ptosis? a) Optic b) Oculomotor c) Trochlear d) Abducens e) Facial 3) Which of the following is associated with tarsal (meibomian) gland blockage? a) Stye b) Hordeolum c) Chalazion d) Blepharitis e) Conjunctivitis 4) Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland is accomplished by the ____ which nerve, hitches a ride on the trigeminal nerve on its way to the gland. a) Optic b) Oculomotor c) Facial d) Vagus e) 5) What edge of the orbit contains the puncta and Hypoglossal canaliculi? a) Superior b) Inferior c) Lateral d) Medial structure is a thickening of fascia that supports the underside of the 6) What eye? a) Suspensory ligament b) Lateral check ligament c) Medial check ligament Tenons d) e) Tendon of levator palpebrae capsule superioris of the following best describes the location of the superior rectus muscle on 7) Which the common tendinous ring (annulus) of the eye?Between superior rectus and levator palpebae a) b) Between superior rectus and medial superiors rectus c) Between superior rectus and lateral rectus d) Between inferior rectus and medial rectus DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 44
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e) Between inferior rectus and lateral rectus main motion of the inferior oblique muscle is: 8) The a) Intorsion b) Extorsion c) Abduction d) Adduction e) Elevation 9) The superior rectus muscle moves the eye in which two directions? a) Superior and b) Superior and medial lateralInferior c) and medial d) Inferior and lateral Anterior e) and 10) To test posterior the medial rectus muscle, the physician should ask the patient to look in what direction? a) Superior b) Inferior c) Lateral d) 11) To Medial test the inferior rectus muscle, the physician should ask the patient to look in what directions? a) Look medial then lateral b) Look in then up (elevation & c) Look abduction) in then down (depression & abduction) then up (intersion & adduction) d) Look out e) Look out then down (extorsion & adduction) 12) To test the superior oblique muscle, the physician should ask the patient to look in directions? what a) Look medial then b) Look in then up (elevation & lateral abduction) in then down (depression & c) Look abduction) then up (intersion & adduction) d) Look out e) Look out then down (extorsion & adduction) 13) A patient presents with complains of diplopia (double vision). They have their head toward the left side because it helps them see straight. When the head is level, tilted the eye appears slightly higher than the left eye. What do you suspect the problem right is? CN III right a) side CN IV left b) sideCN IV right c) d) side CN VI left sideCN IV right e) side A patient presents with their right eye deviated medially when looking forward. 14) Youthe patient to gaze to their right. The left eye gazes to the nose and the right eye ask to midline. What do you suspect the problem gazes is? CN III right a) side CN IV left b) side DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 45
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c) CN IV right side CN VI left d) sideCN IV right e) 15) side A patient presents with right-sided ptosis secondary to a cavernous sinus infection. Upon lifting their eyelid, you notice the right eye is deviated laterally and dilated. What do you suspect the problem is? CN III right a) side CN IV left b) sideCN IV right c) d) CN VI left side sideCN IV right e) side Parasympathetic fibers associated with CN III (intrinsic eye muscles) involve 16) what ganglion? a) Ciliary b) Otic c) Ptergyopalatine d) Submandibular e) Sphenopalatine 17) The main sensory nerves within the orbit are from the ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve. Which of the following is NOT a sensory nerve in the the orbit? a) Nasociliary b) Frontal c) d) Optic Lacrimal e) CN III A patient presents with difficulty seeing colors after a traumatic head injury. 18) You a light in the patients right eye and neither pupil constricts. You shine a light in shine the eye and both pupils constrict. What do you suspect the problem left is? CN II right a) b) side CN II left sideCN III right c) side CN III left d) side e) Horner 19) A patient presents after a stroke for a neurological examination. You shine a light syndrome in patients right eye and the left eye constricts. You shine a light in the left eye and the it constricts but the right eye does not. What do you suspect the problem is? CN II right a) side CN II left b) sideCN III right c) d) side CN III left side e) Horner syndrome coat of the eye contains the sclera and cornea, where a contact lens 20) What would touch? a) Fibrous b) Vascular c) Nervous
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21) What is the likely result of blockage of the sclera venous sinus (aqueous humor drainage)? a) Cataract b) Myopia c) Nystagmus d) Glaucoma e) Papilledema 22) Creating a more disc-shaped (flattened) lens requires ____ of the zonular fibers and is to accommodate for ____ objects. used a) Tension; Near b) Tension; Distant Laxity; c) Near d) Laxity; 23) Which of the following is NOT associated with improved Distant vision? lutea a) Macula b) Fovea centralis c) Optic (nerve) disc Increased number of d) cones Increased e) number of 24) A patient photoreceptorspresents with an occlusion of the central retinal vein. When looking into eye with an opthalmoscope, you see a donut-shaped mound around the their fovea centralis. What condition does this patient likely have? a) Cataract b) Myopia c) Nystagmus d) Glaucoma e) Papilledema 25) What condition involves clouding of the lens? a) Cataract b) Myopia c) Nystagmus d) Glaucoma e) Papilledema 26) Which of the following describes the accommodation reflex (near triad)? a) Accommodation of the lens, divergence of the eyes, constriction of the pupil b) Accommodation of the lens, divergence of the eyes, dilation of the pupil c) Accommodation of the lens, convergence of the eyes, constriction of the pupil d) Accommodation of the lens, convergence of the eyes, dilation of the pupil patient presents with ptosis of the right eye. Upon lifting the eyelid, you note 27) A the that eye is constricted. What do you suspect the problem is? CN II right a) side CN II left b) sideCN III right c) d) side CN III left side e) Horner syndrome
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Gross Anatomy #64 Ear 1) A college student visits a tattoo shop on their 18th birthday to get a piercing. When what they want pierced the student points to the small, cartilaginous asked eminence pointed anterior to the auditory canal. What structure is this? a) Helix b) Antihelix c) Tragus d) Concha e) Lobule 2) The extrinsic ligaments of the ear connect cartilage to what bone? a) Sphenoid b) Parietal c) Occipital d) Temporal e) Mandibleanimals are able to swivel their ears toward sounds of interest. In humans, 3) Some this feature is diminished and usually only seen as a feeble wiggle. What nerve is involved in moving these muscles? a) b) Facial Trigeminal c) Auditory d) Vagus e) 4) What Accessorymakes up the lateral 1/3 of the external auditory meatus? cartilage a) Elastic b) Fibrous cartilage c) Hyaline cartilage d) Bone e) 5) A child Ligaments is brought to the primary care clinic by a concerned mother. Whenever the mother uses a cotton swab to clean the childs ear, the child vomits. What nerve innervating the auditory canal is responsible for this response? a) Auriculotemporal (V3) b) CN VII CN c) IX Auricular branch of d) X Great auricular (C2-3) e) 6) What structure is associated with the middle cranial fossa and located just inferior to the tegmen a) Tympanic cavity tympani? proper b) Facial nerve canal c) Styloid Epitympanic d) e) Tympanic recess membranebone pushes directly on the tympanic membrane (only bone you can 7) What visualize)? a) Malleus
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b) Incus c) Stapes bone is NOT crossed by the chorda tympani 8) What a) Malleus nerve? b) Incus c) Stapes 9) Originating near the area of the umbo on the tympanic membrane, the cone of light through an otoscope will point anteriorly seen and: a) Superiorly b) Inferiorly c) Laterally d) Medially of the external surface of the tympanic membrane is innervated by ____ and 10) Most internal surface is innervated by the ____. V3; CN V3 a) CN b) CN IX; CN X CN X; CN c) IX CN IX; CN d) V3 CN V3; CN e) 11) IX The pyramidal eminence is: The entryway to the mastoid a) process b) Where the stapedius muscle sits Where the malleus c) d) sits Where the incus sits Where the stapes e) sits A child presents with a middle ear infection (otitis media) with inflamed 12) auditory infection just entered the aditus ad antrum. Where can the infection tube. The progress into next? a) Jugular foramen b) Tympanic nerve foramen canal c) Carotid d) Mastoid cells e) Stylomastoid 13) What wall of the middle ear is pierced by chorda tympani and has openings for foramen the auditory tube and tensory tympani muscle? a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Lateral d) 14) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the pharyngotympanic Medial tube? a) The tube connects the tympanic cavity and the nasopharynx b) Innervation is by the tympanic plexus c) Innervation is by pharyngeal branches from the d) PPGThe tube courses in an anteromedial direction) The bony parts starts from the posterior tympanic wall and is medial to e the carotid canal
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15) A SCUBA diver is descending from the surface to a shipwreck. The diver plugs their and blows into it to help equalize air pressure as it changes. What structure nose is involved in opening the pharyngotympanic tube to equalize a) pressure? Tensor tympani b) Levator veli palatini c) Tensor veli palatini d) Mastoid air cells e) Mastoid antrum 16) A fracture of which of the following leads to a rupture of the tympanic a) External meatus membrane? b) Incus c) Stapes Middle d) e) Internal fossa meatusfracture of which of the following results in bleeding from the ear and leakage 17) A of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)? a) External meatus b) Incus c) d) Stapes Middle fossa e) Internal meatuschild presents with an infection of the nasopharynx. The infection has spread to 18) A the mastoid antrum and closed behind itself due to inflammation. Which of the following the is only escape for the infection now? Auditory a) tube b) Tympanic membraneforamen c) Jugular d) Carotid canal e) Stylomastoid 19) There foramen are two synovial joints associated with the ear ossicles (incudomallealar and incudostapedial). There are also a number of ligaments that hold the ossicles in place the middle ear. Paralysis of these ligaments and muscles of the ossicles would within lead to what clinical presentation? a) Difficulty hearing high frequencies b) Difficulty hearing low frequencies c) Hyperacusis d) Hypoacusis e) Deftness 20) The handle of the ____ ossicle attaches to the ____ muscle, which is innervated the by mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve. Malleus; a) Tensor tympani b) Incus; Tensor tympani c) Stapes; Tensor d) Malleus; Tensor veli tympani palatini e) Stapes; Tensor veli palatini
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21) The tympanic arterial branch, which supplies the middle ear, comes directly from which artery? a) b) Posterior Maxillary auricular c) Middle meningeal d) Occipital e) Internal carotid Gross Anatomy #65 Autonomics 1) Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT have an autonomic component? a) CN III CN V b) c) CN d) VII CN IX CN e) X Which of the following ganglia is not involved in parasympathetic 2) innervation? a) Ciliary b) Otic c) Geniculate d) Pterygopalatine e) Submandibular petrosal nerve is associated with what cranial 3) The greater nerve? a) CN b) III CN V c) CN VII CN d) IX CN e) X The lesser petrosal nerve is associated with what cranial 4) nerve? a) CN b) III CN V c) CN VII CN d) IX CN e) 5) How many sympathetic fibers synapse within ganglia in the X head? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 e) 0 6) Autonomic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion to the lacrimal gland hitch a ride with: a) CN VII CN b) c) IXV1, V2 d) V3 e) CN XII DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 51
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7) Salivary gland are innervated by: CN V and CN a) VIICN VII and CN b) c) IX CN IX and CN X CN V and CN d) IX CN VII and CN e) XII 8) Incomplete Horner syndrome (ptosis and miosis without anhidrosis) would involve aympathetic s lesion at what location? a) Superior to the superior cervical b) Between the superior and middle cervical ganglion ganglia c) Between the middle and inferior cervical ganglia d) Between the inferior cervical ganglion and the stellate ganglion level of T1e) At the T4 Gross Anatomy #66 CN Review 1) A 37-year-old female presents with the chief complaint of difficulty walking. History that she is a heavy crack user and supports her habit through prostitution. reveals Physical exam reveals a gait ataxia; patellar reflex is 1/4 bilaterally. Examination of the eye shows no direct or consensual response to light shined in both eyes individually. convergence of the eyes, the pupils constrict. What is the most likely Upon diagnosis? a) CN II damage b) CN III damage c) CN IV d) CN VI damage damage e) Syphilis 2) Anesthesia at the angle of the mandible involves which of the following? a) Facial nerve V1 b) CN c) CN V2 d) CN V3 e) Cervical plexus 3) A patient is asked to open their mouth and the physician taps on their chin. The jaw slightly closed reflexively. Which of the following is involved as both the jerks and afferent limb of this efferent reflex? Facial a) nerve V1 b) CN c) CN V2 d) CN V3 e) Cervical 4) If the plexus facial nerve is damaged in the temporal zone (after geniculate ganglia), which of following would NOT occur? the a) Dry mouth b) Dry c) Expression eyes diminished d) Hyperacusis
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5) If the facial nerve is damaged as it leaves the skull, which of the following would be seen? a) Dry mouth b) Dry eyes c) Expression diminished d) Hyperacusis sensation in the e) Loss of ear A patient presents to the neurologist for a follow-up exam. A tumor in the 6) patients the jugular foramen has grown large enough to affect other nerves in the neck near (all of the following options are possible). The neurologist has the patient stick out area their and say Ah, during which a tongue depressor is used to better visualize the tongue oral structures. When the clinician pushes the depressor into the back of the throat, no reflex is seen. Which of the following is most likely a) CN damaged? IX CN b) X c) CN XI d) CN XII Superior e) cervical ganglion 7) The tearing reflex involves ____ as the afferent limb and ____ as the efferent which limb, is the same as the corneal reflex. V1; CN a) CN VII CN V2; CN b) VII CN V3; CN c) d) VII CN II; CN VII CN III; CN e) VII Gross Anatomy #67 Radiology 1) In a PA straight-on (Caldwell) radiograph, what structure is between the frontal sinus slightly inferior to and a) Ethmoid bone them? b) Temporal bone (petrous) gali c) Crista d) Superior orbital fissure e) Vomer bone 2) Which of the following could be a reason to do an AP radiograph of the skull when structures need to be facial viewed? a) Better view of the frontal sinuses b) Better view of the vomer bone c) Better view of the ethmoid d) Better view of the sinuses maxilla e) Patient is strapped to a backboard (Caldwell) radiograph, you see two black lines that begin medial above 3) In a PA the frontal air sinuses and traverse inferiorly and laterally. What structure is a) Vomer bone this? b) Temporal bone (petrous) gali c) Crista
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d) Superior orbital fissure e) Lambdoidal sutures 4) You are looking at a PA (Caldwell) radiograph and see a white structure midline the frontal sinuses. It looks similar to the crista gali, but is not in the right location. above You determine that it is a pathologic calcification of the: a) Faux cerebri b) Tentorium cerebelli sinus c) Straight d) Transverse e) Faux cerebelli sinus 5) You are looking at a radiographic scan of the orbit (PA view). What muscle in the orbit is seen superiorly and medially? Levator a) b) Superior palpebrae rectus c) Medial rectus d) Superior oblique e) Inferior oblique 6) During a bar fight, a 24-year-old male was punched in the zygomatic process. Upon radiographic examination, an orbit blowout fracture is seen. Blood from the orbit flow will into what sinus? a) Frontal b) Ethmoid c) d) Maxillary Sphenoid James Lamberg
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Gross Anatomy Part 3 AnswerKe y Anat #46 1) C 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) A 6) A 7) E 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) E 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) E 23) E 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) E 36) E 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) D 42) E 43) E 44) B
14Mar2009 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) E 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) D Anat #50 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) C 22) E 23) A Anat #51 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) C Anat #52 53 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) E 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) B Anat #54 55 1) D 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) A 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) E 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) E 24) E 25) A 26) C Anat #56 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) E 14) D 15) C 16) E 17) A 18) D 19) B
Anat #47 1) D 2) C 3) E 4) A 5) E 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) D 15) E 16) C Anat #48 1) C 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) D 7) E 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) E 14) A 15) E 16) B Anat #49 1) D 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) A
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Gross Anatomy Part 3 Anat #57 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) E 9) E 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) D Anat #58 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) E 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) A Anat #59 60 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) E 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) B 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) E 29) C 30) C
14Mar2009 15) C 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) E Anat #65 1) B 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) E Anat #66 1) E 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) A Anat #67 1) C 2) E 3) E 4) A 5) D 6) C
Ana #61 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) E 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) E 26) C 27) C
Anat #62 63 1) E 2) B 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) C 14) E 15) A 16) A 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) E 25) A 26) C 27) E Anat #64 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) E 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) E
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Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

Gross Anatomy Part 3

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