FIRE ASSAYING

1. 2. 3.
Assay of Au bullion is expressed as: a) percent a) Sio2 b) gr./MT b) flour c) PPM c) niter d) fineness d) aqua regia

One of these does not belong to the group: The slag 2Feo.SiO2 is a a) monosilicate b) bisilicate

c) subsilicate

d)sesquisilicate

4.

Reducing power is a) gr. Pb reduced for PbO/gr

b) gr. PbO produced for Pb/gr.

c) gr. Au metalized/gr.

d) gr. Au & Ag converted to metal/gr

5.
6.

In the fusion process the reagents that enhance fluidity is a) soda ash b) PbO c) SiO2 Step in assaying wherein dore is formed is: a) inquartation b) cupellation Gold is soluble in: a) H2S04 b) HCl

d) borax

c) parting c) aqua regia

d) annealing

7. 8.
9.

d) hydrofluoric acid

This ore is reducing a) quartz b) sulfide ore c) mixed oxide-sulfide d) calcareous ore The chiddy method is used to analyze: a) cyanide b) protective alkalinity

c) cyanicides

d) Au & cyanides

10. Slag factors refers to:

a) quantified amount of oxygen b) ratio of oxygen in acid to base component c).weight of oxide mineral to silica d) borax to silica ratio in the charge

11. Alloy sufficient in precious metals bearing economic significance is called: a) bullion b) amalgam c) button d) dor 12. Artificial sulfide formed in the dry way:
a) slag b) matte c) speiss d) button

13. The method of assaying dore in a shallow clay dish is called: a) scorification b) wet analysis c) inquartation d) solid-solvent extraction 14. The element that causes frequent trouble in Au assaying is:
a) Bi b) Sb c) Cu d) Zn a) 20 gr. b) 29.199 gr. c) 26.93gr. d) 30 gr.

15. An assay ton is:

a) control size of button

16. Purpose of charge calculation is to:

b) reduce PbO c) produce glassy slag d) increase life of crucible

17. Slag becomes viscous due to:

a) low fusion temperature b) insufficient fusion time c) lack of acid flux d) excess of silica

18. Inquartz is added to:

a) control size of button 19. Remaining silica is: a) silica in the ore b) unreacted silica a) 60 c) silica to be deducted b) 48 c) 29 c) flux d) 52 d) fluidity enhancer. d). silica content of the charge less calculated bisilica equivalent b) obtain an ideal Ag to Au ratio c) button Pb to be malleable d) ductile dore

20. The molecular weight of silica is: 21. Niter is a:

a) reducing agent

b) oxidizing agent

22. Loaded carbon is a strong:

a) oxidizing agent 23. The slag FeO.SiO2 is a: b) sulfurizing agent a) monosilicate, a) 50% Au, b) bisilicate, c) reducing agent c) trisilicate, d) subsilicate. d) 80% Au. d) flux

24. A 12 karat gold is a:

b) 60% Au,

c) 70% Au,

25. .Fire assaying is considered: a) volumetric

b) gaseous c) gravimetric b) dore

d) dry method d) speiss

26. Fusible compound of metallic oxide and silica is: a) flour 27. Used as a reducing agent:
28. Mercury vaporizes at: a) flour b) niter b) 450C b) 12 c) litharge

c) slag

d) matte d) 350C

a) 1000C

c) 369C c) 15

29. The reducing power of flour is: a) 10

a) cement b) clay

d) 20

30. To prepare a cupel, the principal component must be:

c) bone ash d) alumina

31. Used in heavy media separation of chromite:

a) silica b) silicon c) lime d) ferrosilicon

32. Used to separate Au and Ag is:

a) sodium cyanide b) nitric acid c) silica d) ferrosilicon

33. Used in commercial recovery of Au and Ag from its ore is:

a) sodium chloride b) sodium cyanide c) aqua regia d) HCL

34. Alloying additive in production of stainless steel:

a) chromite b) ferrochrome c) lime d) silica 35. Commonly used as flux in iron blast furnace: a) coke b) charcoal c) lime d) limestone

ORE DRESSING
1.
Sluice boxes are used in: a) de-watering process a) de-watering process c) sizing d) solid to solid separation

2.

One of these is not a parameter in flotation process: a) percent solid b) flotation time

c) reagent dosage

d) settling ratio

3. 4.
5.

Process used in recovering Au and Ag in pregnant solution for heap leaching operation: a) carbon-in-leach b) carbon-in-pulp c) carbon-in-solution A jaw crusher is a _______ crusher. a) primary b) secondary c) tertiary d) fourth stage The copper mineral that has the highest copper content: b) chalcocite c) chalcopyrite a) bornite One of these mineral of iron, is not considered a valuable mineral: a) hematite b) limonite c) magnetite d) siderite The process in ore dressing which consist of crushing and grinding is called a) agitation b) comminution c) concentration d) sizing The purpose of comminution is: a) establish homogeneity

d) in-situ leaching

d) enargite

6. 7. 8. 9.

b) mineral liberation

c) sizing

d) segregation

The method of separating mixtures of minerals into two or more products on the bases of velocity at which the grains will fall trough a fluid medium is called: a) agitation b) classification c) concentration d) elutriation

10. Pulp density is: a) the unit weight of solid in the pulp c) ratio of solid to water by weight

b) the ratio of water to solid by weight d) weight of a unit volume of pulp

11. Leaching of gold is considered as:

a) extractive metallurgy b) ore dressing c) pyrometallurgy d) liquid-liquid separation

12. Ore dressing is considered as:

a) conventional process b) extractive process c) physical process d) metallurgical process

13. The most common method of concentrating chromite is by:

a) classifying b) elutriation c) jigging d) sluicing

14. The feed to the concentrating system is called:

a) concentrate b) head c) middling d) tails

15. In ore dressing, assay head is:

a) actual assay of the head b) assay of mineral present in the feed c) assay of concentrate less assay of tails d) calculated assay of products

16. The percentage of metal in the concentrate against the total metal contained in the ore is called: a) concentration ratio b) distribution c) grade of concentration d) recovery 17. The ratio of the weight of the head to the weight of the concentrate is called:
a) concentration ratio b) concentration efficiency c) relative up-grading d) concentration criteria

18. A ratio of concentration of 50 to 1 means that: a) 1 ton of metal is in the concentrate for every 50 tons of metal in the ore
b) 50% of metal is in the concentrate c) 50 tons of ore produced 1 ton conc. 50% a) 1 ton of metal is in the b) 50% of metal is in the c) 50 tons of ore produced concentrate for every 50 concentrate 1 ton of concentrate tons of metal in the ore d) the efficiency of operation is d) the efficiency of operation is 50%

19. In the two product formula, (c-t)/(f-t), represents:

a) metal in concentrates against metal in tails b) recovery a) gape c) concentration ratio b) set c) mouth d) metals in the testing process

20. The width of the opening at the discharge of a crusher is:

Law b) Kicks Law c) Rittingers Law

d) stroke or throw a) B onds

21. The law that states that the energy consumed in grinding is proportional to the new surface area created is:
d) Newtons Law

22. The process of separating the ore minerals from the gangue minerals is: a) ore dressing b) extractive metallurgy c) milling d) leaching
23. Bessemer ores contains less than 1/1000 parts of: a) Manganese b) Phosphorous c) Molybdenum d) carbon

24. The most common method used in gold recovery in the Philippines is: a) Merille Crowe b) carbon-in-leach c) carbon-in-pulp d) carbon-in-solution 25. The purpose of close-circuit grinding is to: a) lengthen the residence of the ore inside the mill
c) reduce oversize in the product b) prevent over-grinding d) reduce energy consumption

26. In primary grinding the ideal circulating load ratio is: a) 150% b) 200% c) 250% d) 300% 27. The aluminum mineral that has the highest percentage of Al2O3 is: a) bauxite b) gibbsite c) corundum d) kaolinite 28. If f, c & t are corresponding metal assays of feed, concentrate and tails, then the ratio of concentration may be expressed as:
a) c/f x t b) (ct)/(ft) c) (ft)/(ct) d) c (ft)/f(ct) 29. Calculated head refers to: a) assay of feed b) grams of metal recovered in concentrate c) grams of metal in product per 100 grams feed d) metal in by-product 30. The conditioner used to regulate alkalinity of the pulp is: a) NaCN, b) CaO, c) soda ash, d) Na2S

MINING LAWS
1. 2.
The maximum area allowed to be held by an individual in any one province for exploration purposes onshore is:. a) 1620 has. b) 3240 has. c) 1540 has. d) 1460 has. The maximum area that a qualified corporation may hold at any one time in any one province under mineral agreement onshore is _______ blocks. a) 10 b) 100 c) 50 d) 500 The maximum area under a quarry permit which a qualified person may hold at any one time is : a) 3 has. has. d) 10 has. b) 15 has. c) 5

3. 4.

Refers to water, sea bottom and substratum measured 24 nautical miles seaward from the base line of the Philippine Archipelago. a) Off shore zone b) Exclusive economic zone c) Off shore d) contiguous zone IRR of RA 7942 which revised DAO No. 96-23. Series of 1996: a) DENR Administrative Order (DAO) No. 96-30 b) DENR Administrative Order (DAO) No. 96-40 c) DENR Administrative Order (DAO) No. 96-50 d) DENR Administrative Order (DAO) No. 96-60 Governing law on surface rights and compensation to damages. a) CA 137 b) PD 512 c) PD 463 d) PD 421 In exclusive economic zone, bottom and subsurface is measured from the baseline of Philippine Archipelago up to _____ nautical miles. a) 200 b) 225 c) 230 d) 150 Ore transport permit shall be issued by the: a) MGB Director b) Mines Regional Director c) DENR Secretary d) PENRO Mineral processing permit shall be issued by the: a) MGB Director b) Mines Regional Director

5.

6. 7.

8. 9.

c) DENR Secretary d) CENRO

10. The share of the government under an MPSA is _________. a) excise tax b) incentive share c) profit

d) gross output

11. The maximum area under industrial sand and gravel permit which a qualified person may hold at one time that may be issued
by the Provincial/City Mining Regulatory Board is: a) 3 has. b) 5 has c) 7 has d) 10 has.

12. The permit that is granted by the provincial governor to extract sand and gravel, quarry or loose unconsolidated materials
needed in the construction of building / infrastructure for public use or other purposes for a period coterminous with said construction. a) sand and gravel permit b) commercial permit c) quarry permit d) government gratuitous permit

13. In question no. 12, the maximum area that may be held is:
a) 2 has. b) 3 has. c) 4 has. d) 5 has.

14. The annual small-scale mining production under RA 7076 must not exceed______MT of ore a) 30,000 b) 50,000 c) 70,000 d) 90,000

15. All submerged lands in the exclusive economic zone of the Philippines are declared as:
a) Off-shore reservation b) Aquatic reservation c) Mineral reservation d) Marine reservation

16. The New Mining Act, R.A. No. 7942, states that small scale mining shall continue to be governed by _____ , and other
pertinent laws. a) R.A. No.7160 b) R.A. No.7076 c) R.A. No. 6076 d) R.A. No. 1899

17. No person under ____ years of age shall be employed in any phase of mining operations.
a) 16 b) 18 c) 20 d) 22

18. The New Mining Act was passed by the ______ Congress in 1995.
a) eight b) ninth c) tenth d) eleventh

19. The mining law that preceded the New Mining Act was: 4

a). Presidential Decree No. 463

b) Executive Order No. 279

c) Republic Act No. 7076

d) Republic Act No. 7160

20. Referred to as the Mining Engineering Law of the Philippines:

a) Republic Act No. 4272 b) Republic Act No. 7160 c) Republic Act No. 7942 d) Presidential Decree No. 463

MINE ECONOMICS
1.
The ratio of the earnings from an investment to amount invested for a specified period: a) Interest ratio b) current ratio c) equity ratio d) quick ratio

2.

The rate of interest which deducts all the earnings of a future sum to time is: a) internal rate of interest b) rate of investment c) simple interest d) discount rate

3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

The accounting process of converting the cost of an asset into an expense account or cost over its estimated useful life. a) salvage value b) depreciation c) capital cost d) direct cost The sum of money that is invested today that would be equivalent to a future sum. a) profit b) sinking fund c) present value d) net present value The cost which is dependent upon the output or volume of production. a) direct cost b) operating cost c) capital cost Is the worth of an asset at the end of its economic life. a) depreciation b) salvage value

d) indirect cost

c) depletion

d) gross income

The volume of production at which total revenue equals the total cost. a) break-even stripping ratio b) break-even volume c) tonnage factor d) stripping ratio

8. 9.

The present value will always be _________ the future sum or value. a) less than b) equal to c) greater than

d)

The compensation of an exhaustible natural resource to produce products or services. a) depreciation b) royalties c) depletion d) amortization

10. It refers to the money necessary to operate a business on a day to day basis and includes raw material inventory, accounts
receivable and ready cash. a) current assets b) capitalization c) capital cost d) working capital

11. Investment cost that is written off for the purpose by way of depreciation, depletion or amortization over a period of time.
a) operating cost b) non-cash cost c) cash cost d) capitalized cost

12. Voids/pore spaces within a material expressed as a percentage of the total volume of material is called.
a) porosity b) moisture c) voids ratio d) specific gravity

13. The effect of porosity in the ore:

a) decrease in volume without any addition in weight b) decrease in volume with increase in weight c) increase in volume without any addition in weight d) increase in volume

14. These mine assets are considered to be valuable when they are able to produce and process the ore to a marketable/salable
form. a) land b) working capital c) power d) plant and equipment

15. An amount of money or cash needed to finance or take care all of the expenses for the purchase of supplies and materials,
payment for labor and other operating expenses needed to keep the mine operating daily. a) interest b) capitalization c) working capital d) equity

16. A prediction that involves the explanation of events which will occur at some future time.
a) secular trend b) time table c) forecasting d) time series

17. Method or tool of forecasting that consists of finding the equation of a line.
a) straight line method b) least square method c) moving average d) method of moment

18. It is a list of prices and of the corresponding quantities that consumers are willing and able to buy over a period of time.
a) quantity b) price c) supply d) demand

19. It is a list of prices and the quantities that a supplier or group of suppliers would be willing and able to offer for sale over a
period of time a) supply b) price list c) quantity d) demand

20. When price is below equilibrium, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied resulting to:
a) surplus b) exact quantity c) shortage d) ceiling price

21. When price is above the equilibrium price, the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded resulting to:
a) surplus b) exact quantity c) shortage d) equilibrium price

22. It is the minimum price set on a good or commodity.

a) floor price b) ceiling price c) surplus d) equilibrium price

23. The density of ore in which the voids are considered but excluding the moisture content :
a).porosity b) rock specific gravitydried c) rock specific gravitynatural c) rock specific gravitynatural

24. The average/mean value that is based upon the most number of occurring values:
a) mode b) median c) modified mean d) standard deviation

25. The expression x + 1.96 is known as the:

a) confidence interval b) 95% confidence interval c) 99% confidence interval d) 100% confidence interval

26. The expression 1/( 1+ r )n is known as the:

a. discount factor b. sinking fund factor c. capital recovery factor d. SYF

27. The accelerated depreciation that is based upon the ratio of the remaining years of useful life to the sum of the years of useful
life is called: a) declining balance b) sinking fund c) sum of the year digit (SYD) d) depreciation

28. Rentals, taxes, interest, depletion are examples of:

a) direct cost b) overhead cost c) fixed cost d) indirect cost

29. The difference between total revenue and direct cost is termed:
a) gross margin b) net income c) interest c) interest

30. The financial report which compares the revenues and the related expenses for a particular period is known as:
a) statement of retained earning b) balance sheet c) cash flow statement d) income statement

31. The financial report which shows the financial position of a business entity by summarizing all its assets, liabilities and o wners
equity is the: a)cash flow statement b) balance sheet c) income statement d) statement of retained earning

32. The obligations of a business entity that may be paid within one year or within the operating cycle are known as:
a) Current Assets b) Owners Equity c) Current Liabilities d) Account Payable

33. The valuation method which considers uniform earnings during the life of the mine and provides for the redemption of the
capital investment at the end of the life of the mine is known as: a) Future Value b) Net Present Value c) Discounted Cash Flow d) Hoskold Present Value

34. The percentage of income earned by a project to the capital invested in the project is known as the:
a) ROI b) ROTA c) IRR d) Interest Rate

35. The practice of financing assets with borrowed capital is termed:

a) stock trading b) leverage c) stock transfer d) dividend

MINERALOGY
1.
Chemical formula for orthoclase: a) [ KAl2 (AlSi3O10) OH 2] c) KAlSi3O8 Chief ore of lead: a) bornite c) galena b) NaAlSi3O8 d) CaAl2Si2O8

2.

b) argentite d) stibnite

3.

It has dogtooth flat hexagonal crystals with excellent cleavage, hardness if 3; sp. gr. 2.72; colorless or white. Impurities show colors of yellow, orange, brown and green. Transparent to opaque with vitreous or mill luster. Major constituents of limestone and reacts strongly in dilute hydrochloric acid. a) gypsum b) calcite b) mica d) quartz An amorphous mineral that occurs in compact, smooth, rounded mass or in soft earthly mass, no cleavage, it has a hardness of 5 to 5.5, sp. gr. of 3.5 to 4, rusty or blackish color, earthly luster and gives a yellow brown streak. a) siderite b) limonite c) biotite d) kaolinite Alumino-silicate minerals or either potassium, sodium and calcium well formed monoclinic or triclinic crystals with good cleavage. It has a hardness of 6 to 6.5 and sp. gr. of 2.5 - 2.7. a) micas b) pyroxenes c) olivine e) feldspar Major ore of iron: a) Fe3O4 c) Fe2O3

4.

5.

6.

b) FeS2 d) Fe2O3.n2H2O

7.

Its major use is in the manufacture of porcelain, glass, and glazing of ceramics: a) feldspar b) quartz c) gypsum d) calcite A mineral with a golden yellow color, black streak, no cleavage, and hardness of 3.5. a) malachite b) chalcopyrite c) native sulfur d) limonite A mineral with a black to gray streak; cleavage at 90 in 3directions, hardness of 2.5, sp. gr. of 7.4 and color of silver gray. a) galena b) magnetite c) graphite d) ferrite

8.

9.

10. Chemical formula for calaverite:

a) FeC03 b) AuTe2 c) Cu3AsS4 d) Ag2SbS2

11. The resistance of mineral to breaking, crushing, bending or tearing.

a) cleavage b) parting c) hardness d) tenacity

12. A mineral that can be hammered into thin sheets is said to be:
a) sectile b) ductile c) malleable d) brittle

13. Minerals that contain iron and are attracted to a hard magnet.
a) diamagnetic c) paramagnetic b) ferromagnetic d) hematite

14. Three unequal system and mutually perpendicular axes.

a) isometric system c) orthorombic system b) tetragonal system d) hexagonal system

15. Resembling slender, needle-like crystals.

a) columnar b) filiform c) bladed d) acicular

16. Crystals are formed by:

a) by increasing the pressure c) by lowering the temperature b) by increasing the temperature d) by sublimation

17. A Rhombohedral crystal system has: a) 3 axes equal, 3 equal inclination b) 3 axes equal, 3 axes with equal inclination but less than 90 c) 3 axes equal, 3 axes with equal inclination but greater than 90 d) 3 axes equal, 2 axes perpendicular to each other, the other is acute. 18. The chemical formula for siderite:
a) FeTiO3 c) FeO.OH.n H2O b) FeCO3 d) (Fe,Ni)9S8

19. The chemical formula of dolomite:

a) CaMg(CO3)2 c) PbS b) CaWO4 d) NiAs

20. The chemical formula of anglesite:

a) CaSO4 c) PbSO4 b) SrSO4 d) BaSO4

BLASTING & EXPLOSIVES

1. An explosive made by mixing sulfuric acid , nitric acid and glycerin. A) nitrocellulose B) nitroglycerin C) TNT D) nitrostarch 2. The following are the effects of blasting on rock except one. A) crushing B) vibration propagation C) cracking D) weathering 3. It is the distance between rows of blastholes parallel to the major free face. A) burden B) spacing C) blast rows D) subgrade 4. Produces least poisonous fumes than any high explosives. A) PETN B) nitroglycerin C) blasting gelatin D) gelatin dynamites 5. A method of loading blasthole in which the explosive charge are separated by stemming or air cushion. A) deck loading B) column charging C) charge pouring D) explosive charging

6. A wall rock, usually vertical, either naturally formed or formed by blasting. A) strike B) plane C) face D) outcrop 7. Rock which is thrown an excessive distance from the blast site. A) muck B) fly rock C) throw D) heave 8. Method of blasting in coal mines where hollow cylinder are charged with liquid CO2 under a pressure of 2000 lb./ in.2 A) airdox B) cardox C) Hercudet D) hydrox 9. It is a mixture of 90 % nitroglycerin and 10 % guncotton. A) gelatin C) nitrostarch

B) nitrocellulose D) gun powder

10. Portion of blasthole which remain in the face after blasting. A) misfire B) overbreak C) bootleg D) burden

11. Nearly horizontal hole drilled at the bottom of the face of a bench. A) snake holes B) glory hole C) blasthole D) gopher hole 12. Inert materials placed after the explosive charge used to confine explosive materials. A) drill cuttings B) sand C) stemming D) fuel 13. The rock which is broken by blasting outside the intended area of line of break. A) back break B) bootleg C) under break D) misfire 14. A quarry blasting method wherein succession of charges are fired in a borehole to open up a chamber A) chambering B) ditching C) krigging D) capping 15. A detonator which explodes after a pre-determined fraction of a second. A) delay detonator B) shunk C) delay D) primer 16. The detonation of explosives to break rock. A) explosion C) throw

B) blast D) yield

17. The distance of an explosive charge to the nearest free or open space. A) spacing B) blasthole distance C) burden D) bench 18. The main explosive charge in a detonator. A) base charge C) initiator

B) delay element D) primer

19. The head on pressure created by the detonation proceeding down the explosive column. A) borehole pressure B) detonation head C) deck pressure D) detonation pressure 20. A detonation of an explosive charge at a time after its designed firing time. A) premature detonation B) flashover C) hangfire D) hercudet 21. A slot cut in a coal or soft rock face by a mechanical cutter to provide a free space for blasting. A) kerf B) snakehole C) sub cut D) undercut 22. An overbreak control in which a series of very closely spaced uncharged holes are drilled at the perimeter. A) line drilling B) preshearing C) cushion blasting D) presplitting

23. Holes adjacent to the cutholes in a heading round. A) rib holes B) relievers C) lifters D) stope holes

24. The ratio of the volume of a material in its solid state to that when broken. A) swell factor B) powder factor C) volume ratio D) weight ratio

25. A firing device that burns with the flash. A) safety fuse B) safety lighter C) squib D) shunt

MINING METHOD
1. Lateral or panel opening like ramp and crosscut. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) tunnel 2. Level or zone opening like drifts and entry. A) primary B) secondary

C) tertiary

D) tunnel

3. The roof , top, overlying surface of an underground excavation. A) back B) bottom C) floor D) gob

4. Waste material overlying mineral deposits. A) host rock B) gossan 5. Broken, caved, in mined out portion of the deposits. A) muck B) rib C) gob

C) capping

D) footwall

D) stope

6. The portion of the deposit underlying an excavation and left as a pillar. A) crown pillar B) sill pillar C) wall rock D) skarn 7. Toward the working face, away from the mine entrance. A) inby B) outby C) breast D) overhand 8. Away from the working place , toward the entrance. A) inby B) outby C) breast

D) underhand

9. A funnel-shaped excavation formed at the top of a raise to move bulk material by gravity from a stope to a drawpoint. A) winze B) grizzly C) shaft D) bell 10. Secondary horizontal or near horizontal opening usually driven in multiple. A) adit B) drift C) entry D) ramp 11. Opening or connection to the surface from an underground excavation. A) portal B) adit C) level D) entry 12. Narrow vertical or inclined opening excavated in a deposit at the end of a stope to provide a face . A) raise B) winze C) slot D) shaft 13. Vertical or near vertical opening through which bulk material flows by gravity. A) raise B) slot C) ramp D) orepass 14. Horizontal opening used primarily for materials handling. A) tunnel B) drift C) crosscut D) haulage way

15. Advancing in a near horizontal direction; also the working face of an opening. A) breast B) inby C) outby D) underhand

STRUCTURAL GEOLOGY
1. In a region of no relief a conglomerate bed strikes N 60o E and dips 40o SE. The top and bottom of the conglomerate are 4500 M apart as measured along an East-West line on the surface. Calculate the thickness of the conglomerate. A) 1600 M B) 1300 M C) 2000 M D) 3000 M 2. A vein that strikes N 80o E and dips 45o NW is exposed on the NW side of a mountain. Its lower surface outcrops at an elevation of 2000 M while its upper surface outcrops at an elevation of 1680 M. The slope distance between outcrops measured perpendicular to its strike is 750 M. What is the thickness of the vein? A) 350 M B) 255 M C) 200 M D) 285 M 3. Using the data in the above problem. Calculate the depth to the top of the bed at a point 500 M of where it outcrops; this point is at an elevation of 1380 M. A) 210 M B) 150 M C) 300 M D) 100 M 4. Two apparent readings on a coal bed were taken; 28o to the S 80o W & 37o to the S 20o W. What is its strike? A) N 57o E B) N 57o W C) N 33o E C) N 33o W 5. What is the dip of the coal bed in problem # 4 ? A) 37o SW B) 47o SE C) 50o SE D) 65o SW 6. A vein outcropping at A strikes N 45o W and dips 75o SW. What will be its apparent dip in a N 20o W section? A) 59o B) 57.5o C) 54o D) 55.7o 7. In what direction would the vein in problem # 6 if the apparent dip is 30o ? A) N 81o W B) N 8o E C) N 81o E D) N 36o W 8. The upper surface of the bed that strikes N 30o W and dips 45o SE outcrops at A. The thickness of the bed measured eastward is 100 ft from point C, 400 ft S 45o W and at the same elevation , an inclined drill hole 40o to the N53o E was drilled through the bed . At what length did it make contact with the bed ? A) 275 ft B) 230 ft C) 300 ft D) 225 ft

10

9. How much bed material did the drill hole in No. 8 penetrate? A) 100 ft B) 70 ft C) 80 ft D) 90 ft 10. A bed outcrops at three points A, B, & C. Point B is 300 M lower than A, and C is 200 M lower than B. Point B is 400 M N30E of A and C is 500 M S60E of A. Determine the strike of the vein. A) N 65o E B) N 35o E C) N 50o W D) N 8o W 11. What is the dip of the bed in problem # 10.? A) 32o SW B) 50o SW C) 53o NE D) 65o NE

12. A vein was located by three drill holes A, B, and C. B is 600 M N 20 o E of A; both B and A are vertical drill holes and intersected the vein at depths of 900 M and 300 M respectively. C, an inclined drill hole located N 80o E and 440 M from A, intersected the vein at an inclination of 50o to the N 30o E at a length of 460 M. What is the strike of the vein? A) N 80o E B) N 10o E C) N 40o W D) N 70o W

13. Find the dip of the vein in problem # 12. A) 45o SW B) 30o NW

C) 45o NE D) 50o NW

14. A 500 M long pipeline AB is inclined 60o to the N 30o W from point A. Point C which is 400 M ( map distance) due North of A and 200 M lower than A, a horizontal connecting tunnel is to be constructed to connect with AB. What is the direction of the connecting tunnel? A) N 80oE B)N 80o W C) N 10o E D)N 10o W 15. From prob. # 14 find the length of the connecting tunnel ? A) 350 M B) 275 M C) 250 M D) 310 M 16. A 100 ft tunnel is inclined 30o to the N 70o W was constructed from point A whose elevation is 90 ft. From point C, 60 ft S 45o W of A, it is desired to construct a horizontal tunnel to connect with the inclined tunnel having an elevation of 65 ft. What is the direction of the desired tunnel? A) N 3o E B) N 10o W o C) N 30 E D) N 15o W 17. Find the length of the horizontal tunnel in problem # 16. A) 75.5 ft B) 57.5 ft C) 77.5 ft D) 50 ft 18. Using the same data in problem # 16, [18A]. Find the length of the shortest connecting tunnel. A) 55.5 ft B) 70 ft C) 40.5 ft D) 37.7 ft [18B]. What is the direction of the shortest tunnel? A) N 20o W B) N 20o E C) N 45o W [18C]. Determine the inclination of the shortest tunnel. A) 15o B) 25o C) 35o D) N 50o E D) 5o

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