(Model Test Paper) Engineering Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Mathematics)

Submitted by IITguru on Tue, 01/27/2009 - 10:33

Maths Papers Sample Paper Study Material

Test Paper : Engineering Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Mathematics) Question 1: If 300 jellybeans cost you x dollars. How many jellybeans can you purchase for 50 cents at the same rate? If 300 jellybeans cost you x dollars. How many jellybeans can you purchase for 50 cents at the same rate?

1. 150/x 2. 150x 3. 6x 4. 1500/x 5. 600x Correct Answer: 1.

Question 2: How many different necklaces can be formed with 6 white and 5 red beads? 1. 12 2. 21 3. 30 4. 32 5. 51 Correct Answer: 2.

Question 3: For what values of 'm' is y = 0, if y = x2 + (2m + 1)x + m2 - 1? x is a real number. 1. m -2 2. m < 0 3. m = 0 4. m -1.25 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 4: In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC? Ans. . 1. BC = 4 cm 2. BC = 4.1 cm 3. BC = 4.2 cm 4. BC = 3.9 cm 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 5: In case of induction motor the torque is 1. Directly proportional to slip 2. Inversely proportional to slip 3. Directly proportional to square of the slip 4. Inversely proportional to square of the slip 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 6: If the sum of n terms of two series of A.P are in the ratio 5n+4:9n+6 .find the ratio of their 13th terms If the sum of n terms of two series of A.P are in the ratio 5n+4:9n+6 .find the ratio of their 13th terms 1. 129/231 2. 1/2 3. 23/15 4. None of the above 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 7: What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a perfect square ? 1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. 6 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 8: there is one no which is formed by writing one digit 6 times such a no is always divisible by

1. 7 only 2. 11 only 3. 13 only 4. all of them 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 9: The population of a certain town increases by 50 percent every 50 years. If the population in 1950 was 810, in what year was the population 160? 1. 1650 2. 1700 3. 1750 4. 1800 5. 1850 Correct Answer: 3.

Question 10: 80.40/20+(-4.02)=? 1. -0.82 2. 0 3. 8.22 4. 8.4 5. None Correct Answer: 5.

Question 11: Two cyclists start biking from a trail's start 3 hours apart. The second cyclist travels at 10 miles per hour and starts 3 hours after the first cyclist who is traveling at 6 miles per hour. How much time will pass before the second cyclist catches up with the first from the time the second cyclist started biking? Two cyclists start biking from a trail's start 3 hours apart. The second cyclist travels at 10 miles per hour and starts 3 hours after the first cyclist who is traveling at 6 miles per hour. How much time will pass before the second cyclist catches up with the first from the time the second cyclist started biking? 1. 2 hours 2. 4.5 hours 3. 5.75 hours 4. 6 hours 5. 7.5 hours Correct Answer: 2.

Question 12: If we write all the whole no from 200 and 400,then how many of these contain the digit 7 once and only once

1. 32 2. 34 3. 35 4. 36 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 13: (8.2% OF 365) - (1.75% OF108) = ? 1. 16.02 2. 28.04 3. 42.34 4. 53.76 5. NONE Correct Answer: 2.

Question 14: what will be the resultant of 1/loga abc +1/logb abc+1/logc abc? 1. log a*logb*logc 2. log a+log b+log c 3. logabc abc =1 4. log 1 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 15: The some of exterior angles of a hexagon is 1. 360 2. 540 3. 720 4. none of these 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 16: The angel which exeeds it's complement by 20 degree is 1. 45 2. 55 3. 70 4. 110 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 17: A parabola has the origin as its focus and the line x = 2 as the directrix. Then the vertex of the parabola is at 1. (0, 2) 2. (1, 0) 3. (0, 1) 4. (2, 0) 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 18: The sum of 2 numbers is 84, if one of them exceeds the other by 12.Find the numbers? 1. 40,52 2. 1,13 3. 36,48 4. 72,84 5. 71,80 Correct Answer: 3.

Question 19: Find the greatest number of five digits, which is exactly divisible by 7, 10, 15, 21 and 28. 1. 99840 2. 99900 3. 99960 4. 99990 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 20: How many words of 4 consonants and 3 vowels can be made from 12 consonants and 4 vowels, if all the letters are different? 1. 16C7 * 7! 2. 12C4 * 4C3 * 7! 3. 12C3 * 4C4 4. 12C4 * 4C3 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 21: In an examination paper there are two groups each containing 4 questions. A candidate is required to attempt 5 questions but not more than 3 questions from any group. In how many ways can 5 questions be selected? 1. 24 2. 48

3. 96 4. None of these 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 22: Intersections C is a circle and P is a point exterior to it. Several lines are drawn through P such that Each line has nonempty intersection with C. If 2005 points of intersection are formed, then among the lines 1. There need not be een one tangent 2. There may be two tangents 3. There may be three tangents 4. There has to be precisely one tangent 5. None of these Correct Answer: 4.

Question 23: A basket contains 3 blue, 5 black and 3 red balls. If 3 balls are drawn at random what is the probability that all are black? 1. 2/33 2. 1/11 3. 3/11 4. 8/33 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 24: Find the number of different chains can be prepared using 7 different coloured beads. 1. 360 2. 720 3. 240 4. 680 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 25: Which of the following is equivalent to (x)(x)(x)(x), for all x ? 1. 4x 2. x ^ 4 3. x + 4 4. 4 ^ x 5. 2 x ^ 2 Correct Answer: 2.

Question 26: An anti aircraft gun can fire four shots at a time. If the probabilities of the first, second, third and the last shot hitting the enemy aircraft are 0.7, 0.6, 0.5 and 0.4, what is the probability that four shots aimed at an enemy aircraft will bring the aircraft down 1. 0.084 2. 0.916 3. 0.036 4. 0.964 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 27: Let x, y and z be distinct integers. x and y are odd and positive, and z is even and positive. Which one of the following statements cannot be true? 1. (x-z)2 y is even 2. (x-z)y2 is odd 3. (x-z)y is odd 4. (x-y)2z is even 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 28: how many solutions are there for consistent dependent lines? 1. Unique 2. Infinite many solutions 3. No solutions 4. none of the above 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 29: The average of (54,820)2 and (54,822)2 = 1. (54,821)2 2. (54,821.5)2 3. (54,820.5)2 4. (54,821)2 + 1 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 30: 6,30,260,3130.....? ? 1. 5782 2. 56442 3. 107662

4. 46662 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 31: If Steven can mix 20 drinks in 5 minutes, Sue can mix 20 drinks in 10 minutes, and Jack can mix 20 drinks in 15 minutes, how much time will it take all 3 of them working together to mix the 20 drinks? If Steven can mix 20 drinks in 5 minutes, Sue can mix 20 drinks in 10 minutes, and Jack can mix 20 drinks in 15 minutes, how much time will it take all 3 of them working together to mix the 20 drinks? 1. 2 minutes and 44 seconds 2. 2 minutes and 58 seconds 3. 3 minutes and 10 seconds 4. 3 minutes and 26 seconds 5. 4 minutes and 15 seconds Correct Answer: 1.

Question 32: If both x and y are prime numbers, which of the following CANNOT be the difference of x and y? 1. 1 2. 3 3. 9 4. 15 5. 23 Correct Answer: 5.

Question 33: Anita had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as one of the multipliers, she took 53. As a result, the product went up by 540. What is the new product? 1. 1050 2. 540 3. 1440 4. 1590 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 34: What largest number of five digit is divisible by 99? 1. 99909 2. 99981 3. 99990 4. 99999 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 35: (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ? 1. 99/(10)20 2. 99/10 3. 0.9 4. none of these 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 36: Two unbiased dice are thrown together. What is the probability that total of the numbers on the dice is greater than 10. 1. a. 1/12 2. b. 5/12 3. c. 5/6 4. d. 1/18 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 37: If one of the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + mx + 24 = 0 is 1.5, then what is the value of m? 1. -22.5 2. 16 3. -10.5 4. -17.5 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 38: What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream (2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal) 1. 16 2. 24 3. 30 4. 64 5. 13 Correct Answer: 4.

Question 39: In a single throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting at least one ace? 1. a. 1/12 2. b. 1/36

3. c. 5/36 4. d. 11/36 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 40: 12345679 * 72 is equal to : 1. 88888888 2. 888888888 3. 898989898 4. 999999998 5. Correct Answer: 2. Question 41: 514789 317463 87695 11207 = ? 1. 96584 2. 98242 3. 96845 4. 98424 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 42: 0.005 x 0.5 x 0.05 = 1. 0.00125 2. 0.000125 3. 0.0000125 4. 0.125 5. 0.0125 Correct Answer: 2.

Question 43: trignometry if sin46=2;thencos44=? 1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3 5. none of these Correct Answer: 3.

Question 44: Each of 435 bags contains at least one of the following three items: raisins, almonds, and peanuts. The number of bags that contain only raisins is 10 times the number of bags that contain only peanuts. The number of bags that contain only almonds is 20 times the

number of bags that contain only raisins and peanuts. The number of bags that contain only peanuts is one-fifth the number of bags that contain only almonds. 210 bags contain almonds. How many bags contain only one kind of item? 1. 256 2. 260 3. 316 4. 320 5. It cannot be determined from the given information. Correct Answer: 4. Question 45: If the function f(x) = 2x3 9ax2 + 12 a2 x + 1, where a > 0, attains its maximum and minimum at p and q respectively such that p2 = q, then a 1. 2 2. 1 3. 6 4. 4 5. 5 Correct Answer: 1.

Question 46: If w is 10% less than x, and y is 30% less than z, they wy is what percent less than xz? 1. 10 2. 20 3. 37 4. 40 5. 100 Correct Answer: 5.

Question 47: The value of variate that occur most often is called 1. median 2. mean 3. mode 4. none 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 48: A carton contains 10 boxes,each box containing one dozen cubes.How many cartons are needed to fill 960 cubes? 1. 7 2. 8 3. 9

4. 12 5. 10 Correct Answer: 2.

Question 49: If y = 3, then y3(y3-y)= ? If y = 3, then y3(y3-y)= ? 1. 300 2. 459 3. 648 4. 999 5. 1099 Correct Answer: 3.

Question 50: Find the number of ways of arranging 4 boys and 3 girls so that the row begins with aboy and ends with a girl 1. 1440 2. 1340 3. 1240 4. 1150 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 51: A boy was asked to multiply a certain number by 53. He multiplied it by 35 and got his answer less than the correct one by 1206. Find the number to be multiplied. 1. 37 2. 67 3. 87 4. 97 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 52: Free International CallsSMS & Call Friends for Free across the World. Call Now! Safe Feed Of My BabyFor Safe Feeding And Healthy Baby, visit.Your Ad HereA conical tent of radius 12m and height 16m is to be made. Find its cost if canvas is Rs. 10 per m2 1. (a) Rs 7543 2. (b) Rs 7445 3. (c) Rs 7342 4. (d) 7600 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 53: Number of ways of selecting 4 letters from the word EXAMINATION: 1. 136 2. 163 3. 170 4. 63 5. 172 Correct Answer: 1.

Question 54: The angle between the two tangents to the parabola y 2 = 4x drawn from the point (1, 4) is 1. n/4 2. n/6 3. n/2 4. n/3 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 55: What is the sine of the angle whose tangent is the square root of 7? What is the sine of the angle whose tangent is the square root of 7? 1. .93 2. 1.0 3. .85 4. .60 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 56: If the mean of 5 observations x,x+2,x+4,x+6,x+8, is 11 then the mean of first 3 observations is : 1. 9 2. 14 3. 18 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 57: If 8x + 5x + 2x + 4x = 114, the 5x + 3 = ? If 8x + 5x + 2x + 4x = 114, the 5x + 3 = ? 1. 12 2. 25 3. 33

4. 47 5. 86 Correct Answer: 3. Question 58: What is the value of C in the system of Roman numerals? 1. 50 2. 100 3. 1000 4. 1200 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 59: -----------is the most stable of all the measures of cetral tendency. 1. G.M 2. H.M 3. A.M 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 60: How many equal sides are there in a heptagon? 1. 5 2. 7 3. 6 4. 8 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 61: What is the name of device used to survey the petroleum? 1. Flowmeter 2. Resistivity meter 3. Magnetometer 4. Galvanometer 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 62: Turn odd man out: 1,4,9,16,25,35,49 1. 49 2. 35 3. 25

4. 16 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 63: For the values of a variable 3,1,5,2,6,8,4 the mean is 1. 3 2. 5 3. 4 4. none 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 64: In a drawer of shirts, 8 r blue, 6 r green, and 4 r magenta. If Mason draws 2 shirts at random, what is the probability that at least one of the shirts he draws will be blue? 1. 25/153 2. 28/153 3. 5/17 4. 4/9 5. 12/17 Correct Answer: 5.

Question 65: A ball is drawn from an urn containing one red ball and one black ball. If the ball drawn is red, a coin is tossed; if it is black, a die is thrown. What is the probability of getting a head? 1. a. 1/2 2. b. 1/12 3. c. 1/4 4. d. 1/3 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 66: polynomials Divide the polynomial x^3-27x^2+8x+18 by x-1 by long division method? 1. x^2+26x+18 2. x^2-18x+26 3. x^2-26x-18 4. x^2 -26x+18 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 67: Which of the following is incorrect?

1. An incentre is a point where the angle bisectors meet. 2. The median of any side of a triangle bisects the side at right angle. 3. The point at which the three altitudes of a triangle meet is the orthocentre 4. The point at which the three perpendicular bisectors meet is the centre of the circumcircle. 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 68: Write down the sum of first eight even natural numbers: 1. 56 2. 48 3. 62 4. 72 5. 88 Correct Answer: 4.

Question 69: The distance between Athens and Carthage is 120 miles. A car travels from Athens to Carthage at 60 miles per hour and returns from Carthage to Athens along the same route at 40 miles per hour. What is the average speed for the round trip? 1. 48 2. 50 3. 52 4. 56 5. 70 Correct Answer: 1.

Question 70: If chocolate, nuts and caramel are to be mixed in the ratio 3:5:7 respectively, and 5 tons of chocolate are available, how many tons of the mixture can be made? (Assume there is enough nuts and caramel to use all the chocolate.) 1. 15 2. 20 3. 25 4. 30 5. 75 Correct Answer: 1.

Question 71: An ice-cream company makes a popular brand of ice-cream in a rectangularshaped bar 6 cm long, 5 cm wide and 2 cm thick. To cut costs, the company has decided to reduce the volume of the bar by 20%. The thickness will remain the same, but the length and width will be decreased by the same percentage amount. The new length L will satisfy ? 1. 5.5 < L < 6

2. 5 < L < 5.5 3. 4 < L < 4.5 4. 4.5 < L < 5 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 72: Frances can complete a job in 12 hours, and Joan can complete the same job in 8 hours. Frances starts the job at 9 a.m., and stops working at 3 p.m. If Joan starts working at 4 p.m. to complete the job, at what time is the job finished? 1. 6 p.m. 2. 7 p.m. 3. 8 p.m. 4. 10 p.m. 5. 12 p.m. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 73: If the length of rectangle A is one-half the length of rectangle B, and the width of rectangle A is one-half the width of rectangle B, what is the ratio of the area of rectangle A to the area of rectangle B? 1. 1/4 2. 1/2 3. 1/1 4. 2/1 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 74: If the difference between 5 times and 9 times of a number is 24 ,the number is: 1. 4 2. 3 3. 6 4. 8 5. 5 Correct Answer: 3.

Question 75: What is the value of 1*1! + 2*2! + 3!*3! + ............ n*n!, where n! means n factorial or n(n-1)(n-2)...1 1. n(n-1)(n-1)! 2. (n+1)!/(n(n-1)) 3. (n+1)! - n! 4. (n + 1)! - 1! 5.

Correct Answer: 4.

Question 76: Two unbiased dice are thrown together. What is the probability that getting a sum of 10 or more if 5 appears on the first die ? 1. a. 1/12 2. b. 5/12 3. c. 5/6 4. d. 1/18 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 77: A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to Rs. 800 in 3 years and to Rs. 840 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum (in percentage) is 1. 2 1/2 2. 4 3. 5 4. 6 2/3 5. Correct Answer: 3. Question 78: The two lines x = ay + b, z cy + d and x = a y + b, z = cy + d will be perpendicular, if and only if 1. aa + bb + cc = 0 2. (a + a) (b + b) + (c + c) = 0 3. aa + cc + 1 = 0 4. aa + bb + cc + 1 = 0 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 79: A lattice point is a point (x, y) in the plane A lattice point is a point (x, y) in the plane such that x and y are integers. The number of rectangles with corners at lattice points, sides parallel to the axes, and center at the origin which have precisely 2004 lattice points on all of its sides put together is 1. 0 2. 501 3. 499 4. 500 5. 2004 Correct Answer: 4.

Question 80: The speed of a car is 30km first hour and 32 km in the second hour .Its average speed is: 1. 30 km 2. 31 km 3. 2 km 4. 32 km 5. 33 km Correct Answer: 2.

Question 81: Two cards are drawn simultaneously from a pack of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting both red cards ? 1. a. 25/102 2. b. 12/102 3. c. 12/51 4. d. 25/51 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 82: The surface area of the three coterminous faces of a cuboid are 6, 15, 10 sq.cm respectively. Find the volume of the cuboid. 1. 30 2. 20 3. 40 4. 35 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 83: A number when divided by 899 gives a remainder is 29.When the same number is divided by 16,what will be remainder? 1. 11 2. 13 3. 15 4. data inadequate 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 84: An integer is chosen at random from the first 200 positive integers. What is the probability that the integer is divisible by 6 or 8 ? 1. a. 1/2 2. b. 1/3 3. c. 1/4

4. d. 2/5 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 85: LCM of 2/3 and 4/9 =? 1. 2/9 2. 2/3 3. 4/9 4. 4/3 5. none Correct Answer: 3.

Question 86: A and B throw a dice. The probabilty that A's throw is not greater than B's is 1. 5/12 2. 7/12 3. 11/12 4. 5/36 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 87: In the diagram above, AD = BE = 6 and CD = 3(BC). If AE = 8, then BC = ? 1. 6 2. 4 3. 3 4. 2 5. 1 Correct Answer: 5.

Question 88: (24x3-18x3)/(8x7-23.5x2)=? 1. 2 2. 1 3. 1/2 4. 6 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 89: The ratio compunded of 2:3, 9:4, 5:6, and 8:10 is 1. 1:1 2. 1:5 3. 3:8

4. none of these 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 90: One number is chosen at random from the numbers 1 to 21. Find the probability that it may be a prime number. 1. a. 1/13 2. b. 4/21 3. c. 8/21 4. d. 1/7 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 91: 3,12,27,48,75,108,? 1. 147 2. 162 3. 183 4. 192 5. 197 Correct Answer: 1.

Question 92: Who is the Indian mathematician who invented Calculus long before Newton and Leibniz? 1. Aryabhatta 2. Brahmagupta 3. Bhaskaracharya 4. Bhaskaracharya II 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 93: Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-6, -2), (-4, -6), (-2, 5). 1. 36 2. 18 3. 15 4. 30 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 94: sin 45 = _________. 1. 1

2. cos 45 3. 0 4. undefined 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 95: You get a wage increase of 4% plus an extra 5 per week. Your present wages are 250 per week. What will your new wage be? 1. 260 2. 265 3. 270 4. 275 5. 280 Correct Answer: 2. Question 96: Arabic Numerals werent developed by Arabs. Which nation contributed this concept of numeral system? 1. India 2. Greece 3. Rome 4. Persia 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 97: 11.12% 650 + ? % of 400 = 110 1. 25 2. 18 3. 8 4. 80% 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 98: Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary to the original level is Ravi's salary was reduced by 25%.Percentage increase to be effected to bring the salary to the original level is 1. 20% 2. 25% 3. 33 1/3% 4. 30% 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 99: The letters of the word VARIETY are placed at random in a row. What is the probability that three vowels come together ? 1. a. 2/7 2. b. 3/7 3. c. 4/7 4. d. 1/7 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 100: If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/ 1. 8/27 2. 4/9 3. 2/3 4. 75% 5. 4/3 Correct Answer: 2.

(Model Test Paper) Engineering Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Physics)
Submitted by IITguru on Tue, 01/27/2009 - 10:35

Papers Physics Sample Paper Study Material

Test Paper : Engineering Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Physics) Question 1: Which factor determines the e.m.f. between the two metal plates placed in an electrolyte.

1. Distance between the plates 2. Strength of electrolyte 3. Nature of electrolyte 4. None of the above 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 2: Flat topped rectangular pulses must be transmitted in radar to make the returned echoes to distinguish from --1. noise 2. velocity 3. power 4. voltage 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 3: In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse-biased p-n junction, the 1. potential is zero 2. electric field is zero 3. potential is maximum 4. electric field is maximum 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 4: Work has the same dimensional formula as 1. Torque 2. Momentum 3. Force 4. Angular acceleration 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 5: If the 1.5 nm range is selected by the operator, the long pulse short pulse control line from the display unit will select a PRT of --- and a pulse length of --1. 1500 Hz, 0.55 micro seconds 2. 750 Hz, 0.08 micro seconds 3. 1500 Hz, 0.08 micro seconds 4. 750 Hz, 0.55 micro seconds 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 6: Above the critical point the substance exsists as : 1. vapour 2. liquid 3. solid 4. liquid & solid 5.

Correct Answer: 1.

Question 7: The Reynold's number for fluid flow in a pipe depends on 1. Viscosity of the fluid 2. Velocity of the fluid 3. Diameter of the pipe 4. all (1), (2) ans (3) 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 8: An approach which consider a point (x,y) and a straight line in slope-intercept form y=ax + b for edge linking and boundary detection 1. hough transform 2. hamdand transform 3. graph theoretic 4. fourier transform 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 9: The following type of amplifier is used to couple the output impedance of the first stage is different from the input of second stage 1. tapped single capacitance coupled amplifier 2. single tuned resistive coupled amplifier 3. Inductively coupled amplifier 4. single tuned capacitive coupled amplifier 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 10: A convex lens causes rays of light to converge . For this reason , it may be used to correct 1. short sight 2. long sight 3. astigmatism 4. squint 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 11: The source encoder is responsible for reducing or eliminating 1. coding redundancy 2. inter pixel redundancy

3. psycho visual redundancy 4. coding, inter pixel and psycho visual redundancy 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 12: Which of the following parameters is the same for molecules of all gases at a given temperature? 1. Mass 2. Momentum 3. Speed 4. Kinetic energy 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 13: The most common format for a home video recorder is VHS. VHS stands for 1. Video Home System 2. Very high speed 3. Video horizontal standard 4. Voltage house standard 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 14: The magnetization characteristic of the generator is also called as 1. Open circuit characteristics 2. Short circuit characteristics 3. Load characteristics 4. Starting characteristics 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 15: An erect image of half of the size of the object is formed by a lens, the focal length of the lens is 15 cm. The object distance from the lens is An erect image of half of the size of the object is formed by a lens, the focal length of the lens is 15 cm. The object distance from the lens is 1. 15 cm 2. 7.5 cm 3. 30 cm 4. 45 cm 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 16: The component of a vector is 1. Always less than is magnitude 2. Always greater than its magnitude 3. Always equal to its magnitude 4. Less than or equal to its magnitude 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 17: The unit of refractive index is? 1. metre 2. degree 3. dioptre 4. no unit 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 18: The shape of a spot of light produced when bright sunshine passes perpendicular through a hole of very small size is 1. Square, because the hole is a square 2. Round, because it is an image of the sun 3. Round with a small penumbra around it 4. Square with a small penumbra 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 19: When both noise and blur are presented the filter that achieves a compromise between the low pass noise smoothing filter and high pass inverse filter 1. wiener filtering 2. constrained least square filtering 3. mean filtering 4. inverse filtering 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 20: The high amplitude signals are measured using CRO by placing an attenuator between the 1. vertical input terminal and the input terminal of the horizontal amplifier 2. vertical input terminal and the input terminal of the vertical amplifier 3. horizontal input terminal and the input terminal of the vertical amplifier

4. horizontal input terminal and the input terminal of the horizontal amplifier 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 21: As an object falls freely, the kinetic energy of the object 1. decreases 2. increases 3. remains the same 4. first decreases then increases 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 22: Near and far points of a healthy human eye respectively are 1. 0 and 25cm 2. 0 and infinity 3. 25 cm and 100 cm 4. 25 cm and infinity 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 23: The set of quantities which can form a group of fundamental quantities in any system of measurement is 1. Velocity, Acceleration and Force 2. Energy, Velocity and Time 3. Force, Power and Time 4. all the above 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 24: Material dispersion which arises from the variation of the refractive index of the core material as function of _______ 1. Length 2. Wave Length 3. Spreading 4. Path 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 25: In modern oscilloscopes ________ is an additional focusing control 1. Graticule

2. Aquadag 3. Astigmatism 4. Focuse 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 26: The direction of rotation of rotating magnetic field gets reversed, when 1. Interchanging any two terminals of stator windings 2. Interchanging any three terminals of stator windings 3. Interchanging any two terminals of rotor windings 4. Applying supply voltage to rotor windings 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 27: The wall fo the hall built for music concert should 1. Transmit sound 2. Absorb sound 3. Reflect sound 4. Amplify sound 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 28: A telescope has an anguar magnification of 10. The eye piece has a focal length of 20 cm. The approximate distance between the objective and eye piece is A telescope has an anguar magnification of 10. The eye piece has a focal length of 20 cm. The approximate distance between the objective and eye piece is 1. 200 cm 2. 220 cm 3. 30 cm 4. 10 cm 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 29: The scale marked on the screw barrel is _________ 1. Main scale 2. Vernier Scale 3. Pitch Scale 4. Head Scale 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 30: Oil rises up the wick in a lamp. The principle involves 1. The diffusion of oil though the wick 2. The liquid state of oil 3. Capiillary action phenomenon 4. Volatility of oil 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 31: If the number of stages in stagger tuned amplifier is increased, then the resultant voltage gain is 1. decreases 2. increases 3. equal to single stage 4. number of stages times of single stage 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 32: The velocity of a stone thrown vertically upwards is halved in 1.5 seconds. The maximum height attained by the stone is 1. 20 m 2. 25 m 3. 30 m 4. 45 m 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 33: Which of the following characteristics influence(s) radar range performance? 1. Height of antenna 2. Peak power of the transmitted pulse 3. Receiver sensitivity 4. Resolution of transmitting Antenna 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 34: Seimen/metre is the unit of 1. Electric conductance 2. Resistivity 3. Electric conductivity 4. Electric resistance 5. None of the above

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 35: An electric geyser works: 1. only on DC 2. only on AC 3. on both AC and DC 4. none 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 36: n identical capacitors are connected in parallel to a p.d. of V volts. These are then reconnected in series, their charges being left undisturbed . The potential difference obtained is 1. V 2. nV 3. n2 V 4. n2/3 V 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 37: If the two voltage are not equal and out of phase difference are applied to a CRO, The trace on the screen is 1. Circle 2. Ellipse 3. Parabola 4. Sine wave 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 38: The weight of an object is greater at the poles than at the equator . This is because 1. Of the shape of earth. 2. The attraction of the moon is maximum at the poles. 3. The attraction of the sun is maximum at the poles. 4. The gravitational pull is maximum at the poles. 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 39: The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n=10 state is

1. 13.6 eV 2. 1.36eV 3. 0.136eV 4. 0.0136eV 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 40: The following general precautions should be observed when using a voltmeter (i) Always be aware of loading effect (ii) When using a multirange voltmeter, always use the highest voltage range and then decrease the range until a good up scale reading is obtained 1. Both are false 2. (i) is True, (ii) is false 3. Both are True 4. (ii) is True, (i) is false 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 41: The following unit measure energy: 1. Kilo-watt hour 2. Volt*volt/sec*ohm 3. Pascal*foot*foot 4. (Coulomb*coulomb)*farad 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 42: The sensitivity of a radar receiver is ultimately set by 1. high S/N ratio 2. lower limit of signal input 3. over all noise temperature 4. higher figure of merit 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 43: In voltage doubler circuit the load resistance is 1. large other wise the output capacitor charge quickly 2. large other wise the output capacitor discharge quickly 3. small other wise the output capacitor discharge quickly 4. small other wise the output capacitor charge quickly 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 44: PPI in a radar system stands for 1. plan position indicator 2. pulse position indicator 3. plan position image 4. prior position identification 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 45: Out of the following, which is a mechanical wave 1. Sound Wave 2. Radio Wave 3. Light Wave 4. Infrared Wave 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 46: What type of errors are due to largely human errors like misreading of instruments? 1. Gross errors 2. Systematic errors 3. Random errors 4. Environmental errors 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 47: Objects may acquire an excess or deficiency of free electrons by 1. rubbing them together 2. grounding them 3. grinding them 4. shielding them 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 48: A train goes past a railway station at a high speed. A young boy standing on the edge of the platform is likely to 1. Remain unaffected 2. Fall away from the train 3. Fall towards the train 4. Fall away from or towards the train depending on its speed 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 49: Fiber optic communication systems transmit near ________ light invisible to the human eye 1. Normal 2. Infrared 3. Alpha - Ray 4. Beta - Ray 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 50: A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower at 4.9 m/s. It strikes thepond near the base of the tower after 3 second. the height of the tower is 1. 29.4 m 2. 44.1 m 3. 73.5 m 4. 490 m 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 51: You are facing a coil through which a current is passing in the clock wise direction. The face of the coil towards you is a You are facing a coil through which a current is passing in the clock wise direction. The face of the coil towards you is a 1. North pole 2. Monopole 3. South pole 4. dipole 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 52: Band widths of multimode graded-index fibers are 1. 20-100 MHz-Km 2. 100-1000 MHz-Km 3. 1-10 GHz-Km 4. Over10 GHz-Km 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 53: Expansion for B.F.O

1. Beat frequency oscillator 2. Best frequency oscillator 3. Beat frequency osciloscope 4. Best frequency osciloscope 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 54: Method based on approximation of the histogram of an image using a weighted sum of two or more probability densities with normal distribution represent 1. adaptive thresholding 2. optimal thresholding 3. global thresholding 4. local thresholding 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 55: A spring of spring constant 5X103N/m is stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched position. Then the work required to stretch it further by 5cm is 1. 12.50 N-m 2. 18.75 N-m 3. 25.00 N-m 4. 6.25 N-m 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 56: The smallest measurable input is called _____ 1. Resolution 2. Threshold 3. Dead Zone 4. Drift 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 57: The connectors mechanically couple and align the cores of fibers so that _________ can pass 1. Water 2. Light 3. Current 4. Nothing 5.

Correct Answer: 2.

Question 58: Which of the following frequencies can not be heard 1. 10000Hz 2. 1000Hz 3. 100Hz 4. 1Hz 5. 10Hz Correct Answer: 5.

Question 59: The rise of a liquid due to surface tension in a narrow capillary tube of diameter d is h. If the diameter is reduced to d/2, the rise will be 1. h 2. 2h 3. h/2 4. h/3 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 60: If in a circular coil A of radius R, current / is flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a current 2 is flowing, then the ratio of the magnetic fields BAand BBproduced by them will be 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 61: In a terrestrial telescope the focal length of erecting lens is 5 cm. The length of the telescope is 100 cm. If the magnifying power of the telescope is 15. Then the focal lengths of eye piece and objective are respectively In a terrestrial telescope the focal length of erecting lens is 5 cm. The length of the telescope is 100 cm. If the magnifying power of the telescope is 15. Then the focal lengths of eye piece and objective are respectively 1. 5 cm and 75 cm 2. 6.25 cm and 93.75 cm 3. 7.25 cm and 92.75 cm 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 62: JPEG uses 1. hadmard transform 2. fourier transform 3. DCT 4. bit plane methods 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 63: A transformer converts 1. A.C voltage into D.C voltage 2. D.C voltage into A.C voltage 3. high A.C voltage into low A.C voltage and vice - versa 4. Low A.C power into high A.C voltage and vice - versa 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 64: What is a heliograph? 1. An instrument used to detect earth quakes. 2. An instrument used to generate electricity. 3. Another name for a lie detector. 4. An instrument used to communicate by light. 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 65: The horizontal amplifier should be designed for 1. high frequency signals with a fast rise time 2. high amplitude signals with a slow rise time 3. high amplitude signals with a fast rise time 4. low amplitude signals with a fast time 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 66: Two spheres of the same material have the same diameter ,but one is solid and the other is hollow.If they are heated through the same temperature ,the increase in volume will be 1. larger for solid sphere 2. larger for hollow sphere 3. same for both,but internal diameter of the hollow sphere increases 4. same for both,but internal diameter decreases 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 67: Two equal negative charges q are fixed at point (0,a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis. A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will 1. Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin 2. Move to the origin and remain at rest 3. Move to infinity 4. Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 68: ________ is defined as the nearness of the indicated value to the true value of the quantity being measured 1. Accuracy 2. Resolution 3. Reproducibility 4. Static error 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 69: A wobbulator circuit is used to 1. vary the radars pulse length 2. vary the radars PRT 3. increase peak power 4. generate the number of pulses 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 70: In semiconductor strain gauges, when tensile strain is applied 1. resistance increases in N type materials 2. resistance increases in P type materials 3. resistance decreases in both P and N type materials 4. resistance increases in both P and N type materials 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 71: X -rays are 1. Streams of negatively charged particles 2. Streams of protons 3. Stream of electromagnetic rediations of atomic origin

4. Streams of electromagnetic radiations of nuclear origin 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 72: Of the following the scalar quantity is 1. Moment of inertia 2. Moment of force 3. Moment of couple 4. Magnetic moment 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 73: Which of the following radar reference coordinates is the angle measured clockwise from the centerline of a ship or aircraft? 1. Relative bearing 2. Elevation angle 3. Azimuth angle 4. True bearing 2 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 74: The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends among the following on: 1. the angle of deflection 2. earths magnetic field strength 3. torsional constant of the suspension fibre 4. the material of the coil wire 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 75: Thermopile consists of a number of P thermocouples in: 1. series 2. parallel 3. both 4. none 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 76: The drop across SCR during conduction 1. 1.5

2. 2 3. 12 4. 1 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 77: A jet plane flies in the air because 1. the thrust of the jet compensates for the force of gravity 2. the weight of the air whose volume is equal to the volume of the plane is more than the weight of the plane 3. the flow of the air around the wings causes an upward force, which compensates for the force of gravity 4. gravity does not act on bodies moving at high speed 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 78: The bottom of a to be concavtank appears e due to The bottom of a to be concavtank appears e due to 1. Reflection 2. Refraction 3. Total internal reflection 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 79: In beta minus emission, the number of nucleons in the atom: 1. remains the same 2. increases by four 3. decreases by one 4. increases by one 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 80: The velocity of a body at the end of 5 sec is 30 m/s, at the end of 12 sec is 58 m/s and at the end of 22 sec, it is 98 m/s. The body is moving with 1. uniform velocity 2. uniform acceleration 3. uniform displacement 4. uniform retardation 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 81: If a body looses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block, then how much will it penetrate more before coming to rest? 1. 1 cm 2. 2 cm 3. 3 cm 4. 4 cm 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 82: Which is the fastest mode of transfer of heat? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation 4. All above 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 83: A solid which is transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with temperature is formed by 1. Metallic binding 2. Ionic binding 3. Covalent binding 4. Van der Waals binding 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 84: Synchronous generators are used to generate 1. Only alternating current 2. Only direct current 3. Both alternating and direct current 4. Either alternating or direct current 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 85: The resistive strain gauges are known as piezo resistive gauges because 1. there is a change in the value of strength when it is stretched or compressed 2. there is a change in the value of resistivity of the conductor when it is stretched or compressed 3. there is a change in the value of conductivity of the conductor when it is stretched or compressed

4. there is a change in the value of capacitivity of the conductor when it is stretched or compressed 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 86: An atom is paramagnetic if it has 1. An electric dipole moment 2. No magnetic moment 3. A magnetic moment 4. No electric dipole moment 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 87: How high could the temperature at the hypocenter of an atomic bomb blast reach? 1. 300 million degree Celsius. 2. 400 million degree Celsius. 3. 500 million degree Celsius. 4. 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 88: The effective focal length of Huygen's eye-piece is (suppose focal length of eye lens is f) The effective focal length of Huygen's eye-piece is (suppose focal length of eye lens is f) 1. 3 f / 4 2. 3 f / 2 3. 2 f 4. None 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 89: Choose the right answer in the following: When a graph of one quantity verses another quantity results in a straight line, the quantities are: 1. both constant 2. equal 3. directly proportional 4. inversely proportional 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 90: The workdone against gravity in taking 10 kg mass at 1m height in 1 sec will be 1. 49 J 2. 98 J 3. 196 J 4. none of these 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 91: The application of voltage multipliers is 1. increases the output voltage highly 2. lowers the output voltage 3. lowers the frequency range 4. provides matching 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 92: If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will 1. expand 2. compress 3. remains same 4. none of these 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 93: The SMPS operate at 1. any frequency 2. high frequencies 3. very low frequencies 4. tuned to a single frequency 5. Correct Answer: 2.

Question 94: A person in an earth satellite in orbit experiences weightlessness. This is because 1. Inside the satellite the person looses all weight 2. Inside the satellite the person acquires negative weight. 3. Gravity is zero. 4. The mass of the person inside the satellite becomes zero. 5.

Correct Answer: 3.

Question 95: When a source of sound is in motion towards a stationary observer , the effect observed is 1. increase in velocity of sound only 2. decrease in velocity of sound only 3. increase in frequency of sound only 4. none of these 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 96: What is the percentage of heat energy received by earth from the sun? 1. 0.00005% 2. 0.00004% 3. 0.00002% 4. 0.00003% 5. Correct Answer: 1.

Question 97: The Fluoroscope was an early version of which machine? 1. microscope 2. stethoscope 3. x-ray 4. gurney 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 98: A circular coil has one turn and carries a current I. The same wire is bound into a smaller coil of 4 turns and the same current is passed through it. The field at the centre 1. decreases to 1/4 of the value 2. is the same 3. increases to 1/4 times the value 4. decreases to 16 times the value 5. Correct Answer: 4.

Question 99: The bandwidth of a CRO is from 0-20mHz. The fastest rise time a sine wave can have to be accurately reproduced by the instrument is 1. 35 ns 2. 35 s

3. 17.5 ns 4. 0.175 s 5. Correct Answer: 3.

Question 100: A thermocouple can be used as: 1. thermometer 2. galvanometer 3. Both 1&2 4. none 5. Correct Answer: 3.

(Paper) IIT JEE 2009 - Model Questions Chemisty Sample Question paper online Free Resources Practice Set Model Paper
Submitted by IITguru on Sat, 01/31/2009 - 08:54

Chemistry IIT-JEE Study Material

Paper : IIT JEE 2009 - Model Questions Chemisty Sample Question paper online Free Resources Practice set Modal Queston
1.(NH42SO4.FeSO4.6H2O is a) Mohrs salt b) alum c) blue vitriol d) simple salt

2.When Cu reacts with AgNO3 solution, the reaction takes place is a) oxidation of Cu b) reduction of Cu c) oxidation of Ag d) reduction of No3

3.MnO4on reduction in acidic medium forms a) MnO2 b) Mn2 c) MnO42 d) Mn

4.The transition metals have a less tendency to form ions due to a) high ionisation energy b) low heat of hydration of ions c) high heat of sublimation d) all of the above

5.Common oxidation state of scandium, a transition element, is/ are (Ar. no. of Sc=21) a) +4 b) +1 c) +2 and +3 d) +4 and +1

6.Laughing gas is a) nitrous oxide b) nitric oxide c) nitrogen trioxide d) nitrogen pentoxide

7.Nitrogen is essential constituent of all a) proteins b) fats c) proteins and fats d) none of these

8.Nitric acid on standing develops brownish colour which may be attributed to the presence of a) NO2ions b) NO3ions c) NO2 d) HNO2 ] 9.When a mixture of air and steam is passed over red hot coke, the outgoing gas is a) producer gas b) water gas c) coal gas d) none of these gases

10.Which one of these is acidic? a) Al2O3 b) SnO2 c) PbO2 d) SiO2

11.An example of major air pollutant is a) O2 b) CO2 c) CO d) He

12.Which acts both an oxidising as well as reducing agent? a) HNO3 b) HNO2 c) H2SO4 d) HCl

13.Nitrogen is relatively inactive element because a) Its atom has a stable electronic configuration b) It has low atomic radius c) its electronegativity is fairly high d) dissociation energy of its molecule is fairly high

14.Incomplete combustion of petrol or diesel oil in automobile engines can be best detected by testing the fuel gases for the presence of a) carbon monoxide and water vapour b) carbon monoxide c) nitrogen dioxide d) sulphur dioxide

15.Water gas is produced by a) passing steam through a red hot coke bed b) saturating hydrogen with moisture c) mixing oxygen and hydrogen in the ration of 1 : 2 d) heating a mixture of CO2and CH4 in petroleum refineries

16.Three centred bond is present in a) NH3 b) B2H6 c) BCl3 d) AlCl3

17.A gas which burnswith a blue flame is a) CO b) O2 c) N2 d) CO2

18.n-Propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohols are examples of a) position isomerism b) chain isomerism c) tautomerism d) geometrical isomerism

19.Which of the following exhibit geometrical isomerism ? a) CH2CIBr b) CH3CH=CIBr c) CH3CHCCI2 d) (CH32CCCIBr

20.Which of the following compounds will show metamerism? a) CH3COC3H7 b) CH3SC2H5 c) CH3OCH3 d) CH3OC2H5

21.Which of the following compounds has zero dipole moment? a) cis-2-butene b) trans 2-butene c) 1-butene d) 2-methyl1-propene

22.Tautomerism is exhibited by a) (CH33CNO b) (CH32NH c) R3CNO2 d) RCH2NO2

23.The least number of carbon atoms in alkane forming optical isomer is a) 3 b) 5 c) 2 d) 7

24.The total number of possible isomeric trimethylbenzene is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

25.Which is the chiral molecule? a) CH3Cl b) CH2Cl2 c) CHBr3 d) CHClBrI

26.Which of the following molecule contains asymmetric carbon atom? a) CH3CHClCOOH b) CH3CH2COOH c) ClCH2CH2COOH d) Cl2CHCOOH

27.Which of the following is an isomer of propanal? a) acetone b) propane c) propanol d) propionic acid

28.Amongst the metals Be, Mg, Ca and Sr of group 2 of the periodic table, the least ionic chloride would be formed by a) Mg b) Be c) Ca d) Sr

29.Among the following oxides, the one which is most basic is a) zinc oxide b) magnesium oxide c) aluminium oxide d) nitrogen pentoxide

30.Presence of which of the following salt increases the rate of setting of Plaster of Paris a) NaCl b) KCl c) BaSO4 d) CuSO4

31.Which of the following is a true peroxide a) NO2 b) MnO2 c) BaO2 d) SO2

32.White enamel of our teeth is a) Ca3PO42 b) CaF2 c) CaCl2 d) CaBr2

33.Identify the correct statement a) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than Plaster of Paris b) Gypsum is obtained by heating Plaster of Paris c) Plaster of Paris can be obtained by hydration of gypsum d) Plaster of Paris is obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum

34.Epsom salt is a) MgSO4.7H2O b) CaSO4.H2O c) MgSO4.2H2O d) BaSO4.2H2O

35.The first ionisation energies of alkaline earth metals are higher than those of the alkali metals. This is because

a) there is increase in the nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metals b) there is decrease in the nuclear charge of the alkaline earth metals c) there is no change in the nuclear charge d) none of the above

36.The compounds of alkaline earth metals have the following magnetic nature a) diamagnetic b) paramagnetic c) ferromagnetic d) antiferromagnetic

37.Bleaching powder is obtained by the interaction of Cl2 and a) dry slaked lime b) hot Ca(OH2 c) cold Ca(OH2 d) conc. CaCl2

38.Which of the following is an example of body centered cube ? a) magnesium b) zinc c) copper d) sodium

39.Crystals can be classifieds into .. basic crystal habits a) 7 b) 4 c) 14 d) 3

40.A f.c.c. crystal contains how many atoms in each unit cell? a) 4 b) 6 c) 3 d) 8

41.The intermetallic compound LiAg crystallizes in cubic lattice in which both lithium and silver have co-ordination number of eight. The crystal class is a) simple cube b) body centred cube c) face centred cube d) none of the above

42.Potassium crystallizes with a a) face centred cubic lattice b) body centred cubic lattice c) simple cublic lattice d) ortho rhombic lattice

43.The ratio of close packed atoms to tetrahedral holes in cubic close packing is a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 3 d) 2 : 1

44.In a hexagonal close packed (hcp) structure of spheres, the fraction of the volume occupied by the sphere is A. In a cubic close packed structure, the fraction is B. The relation for A and B is a) A = B b) A < B c) A > B d) A is equal to the fraction in a simple cubic lattice

45.The three dimensional lattice of zeolites consists of a) Si2O76 b) SiO3n2n c) Si2O5n2n d) [AlSi3O8

46.Due to the Frankel defect, the density of ionic solids a) decreases b) increases c) does not change d) changes

47.Which of the following metal oxides is antiferromagnetic in nature ? a) MnO2 b) TiO2 c) NO2 d) CrO2

48.The IUPAC name of the compund CH3CHCH3CHCH2CH2CH3 is a) 2-Ethyl -3-methylbut-1-ene b) 2-Isopropylbut-1-ene c) 2-Methyl-3-ethyl-3-butene d) 2-(1Methylethyl)but-1-ene

49.The structure formula of cyclohexyl alcohol is a) b) c) d) none of these

50.The IUPAC name of CH3OC2H5 is a) methyl ethyl ether b) ehtyl methyl ether c) methosyethane d) ethoxymethane