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HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

WORKSHEET CHAPTER 915

CHAPTER 9
I. KEY TERMS A. norms E. assertiveness I. self-disclosure B. roles F. commitment J. Intimacy C. social setting G. Dominance D. Interpersonal communication H. dialectical approach

(1) is in many ways a microcosm of all larger groups and thus encompasses many kinds of relationships from the most casual to the most intimate and long lasting. Our first major topic was the (2) within which interpersonal communication must be viewed. Members of a relationship are strongly influenced by the (3) . they have already adopted, and they also establish some normative agreements of their own as they interact. In addition, the roles they enact affect how they will respond to each other; we examined some consequences of conflicts within and between (4) . We also looked at the (5) , which views human relationships in terms of tensions between contradictory impulses. Because quality is so frequently an issue in assessing relationships, we suggested several measures of high quality. We first discussed the importance of (6) .., its relationship to trust, and the reasons people choose to self-disclose or to avoid disclosures. (7) . was seen as a process-one that has to be developed and maintained. We also looked at a theory about attachment styles and at research findings on intimacy between siblings. Affiliative need and willingness to make commitments were also seen as important variables. We considered two theories about love involving (8) . and other variables that we had discussed. (9) .., status, and power were examined as other important variables. In closing, we looked at (10) .. as a means of establishing equality in relationships and looked briefly at some of the differences between assertive, nonassertive, and aggressive behaviors. II. MULTIPLE CHOICES 1. A prenuptial contract A) attempts to make the norms of the relationship explicit. B) may bring an element of mistrust into a relationship. C) undoubtedly impacts the communication of a couple. D) is described by all of the above statements. 2. Which statement about roles is incorrect? A) There are both expected and enacted roles. B) We tend to enact more intensely those roles that are concerned with conflict. C) A role is a set of norms that applies to a specific subclass within a society. D) Conflict may occur when the same person occupies roles with different expectations. 3. Which of these is NOT an assumption of the dialectical approach of relationships? A) It is best to eliminate whenever possible the tension inherent in a relationship. B) All social systems have a tension between stability and change. C) We all make choices but we are also reactive to the choices of others. D) Contradictions result in change and vitality in a relationship. 1

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4. Which of the following dialectics is the most powerful in a relationship? A) Autonomy/connection B) Certainty/uncertainty C) Openness/closedness D) Expected/enacted 5. Which of the following concepts does NOT accurately define a qualitatively high relationship? A) Information about the other person is mostly sociological rather than psychological. B) Rules are developed by the individuals, rather than being established by tradition. C) The roles are defined by the personal characteristics of the two people, not by the situation. D) The emphasis is on individual choices. 6. Which statement does NOT describe the Johari window? A) The four quadrants are interdependent. B) The four quadrants are rigid. C) The figure is designed to conceptualize levels of self-disclosure. D) A large "open" quadrant indicates a person with a healthy self-concept. 7. Reciprocal self-disclosure A) is the opposite of authentic self-disclosure. B) usually leads to a basic level of trust in the dyad. C) tends to develop gradually. D) is described by all of the above statements. 8. Which statement concerning self-disclosure is wrong? A) We may selectively self-disclose in order to create an impression. B) Disclosing only to strangers is as authentic as sharing within a dyad. C) Disclosing only about the past and never the present is less authentic. D) Fear of projecting a negative image may prevent us from disclosing. 9. Studies have found that intimacy is closely correlated with A) sexuality and physical closeness. B) marriage. C) prototypes. D) behaviors and expectations. 10. The styles of "secure," "avoidant," and "anxious-ambivalent" refer to A) the dialectic approach. B) the issue of "connected" or "independent." C) attachment. D) intimacy between siblings. 11. Sibling intimacy A) is closest in sister pairs. B) is closer in younger siblings than older ones. C) is more often hostile in brother pairs. D) decreases when the partners of the married siblings die. 12. Commitment is A) the resolve to continue a relationship indefinitely. B) more likely to occur when people have a strong need for affiliation. C) often avoided by people who may not have formed a bond with their initial caretaker. D) described by each of the above statements. 13. Which of these is not a component of Sternberg's triangular theory of love? A) affiliation B) intimacy C) passion D) commitment 14. Researchers who are studying dominance have defined several relationship structures. Which is the most common and also the most satisfactory? A) Complementary structures. 2

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HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

B) Symmetrical structures. C) Parallel structures. D) Status structures. 15. When considering status and power, A) usually the person who has more of one has more of the other. B) power is usually more obvious to the outside observer than status. C) our self-perception has a greater impact on power than on status. D) all of the above statements are correct. 16. Disruptive power is wielded by one person in order to keep the other person under control and limit his/her freedom. A) True B) False 17. An interrole conflict occurs when there are contradictory expectations within a single role. A) True B) False 18. Self-disclosure is an important concept because it is linked to mental health, self-concept development, and marital satisfaction. A) True B) False 19. The "blind" quadrant of the Johari window indicates the extent of information known to the self but not known to others. A) True B) False 20. Affiliation can be represented by a continuum that ranges from highly affiliative to antisocial behavior. A) True B) False III. ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. What are the four means by which we can assess the quality of an interpersonal relationship? 2. Indentify five characteristics of appropriate self-disclosure. 3. What are two ways in which status affects interpersonal communication? 4. What is the difference between dominance and power in an interpersonal relationship? 5. Explain the differences between nonassertive, assertive, and aggressive behavior. Give an example of each.

CHAPTER 10
I. KEY TERMS Match each word on the left with its definition on the right. 1. Collectivism 2. Individualism 3. Culture 4. Ethnocentrism 5. Power distance A. The degree to which people accept authority and hierarchical organizations as a natural part of their culture. B. The belief that one culture is superior or better than the other. C. A generalization, based on limited experience, about a class of people, objects, or events that is widely held by members of a given culture. D. A measure of the extent to which members of a culture attempt to avoid ambiguity about others. E. The tendency of people in a given culture to value individual identity over group identity, individual rights over group objectives, and 3

CMU Academic Year: 20092010 6. Stereotype 7. Group polarization 8. Uncertainty avoidance 9. Low-context culture 10. High-context culture

HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA personal needs and desires over those of the group. F. A culture whose members tend to emphasize verbal messages and stress direct and explicit communication. G. A culture whose members tend to be more skilled in reading nonverbal behaviors and to be more indirect and less explicit. H. A way of life developed and shared by a group of people and passed down from generation to generation. I. After deliberation, people are more likely to move toward a more extreme point in direction in which the groups members were originally inclined. J. The tendency of people in a given culture to value group identity over individual identity, group objectives over individual rights, and group-oriented concerns over individual wants and desires.

II. MULTIPLE CHOICES 1. Which of the following statements describes culture? A) It consists of many aspects of life agreed upon by members of a racial, socioeconomic, or ethnic group. B) Because it is learned, parents who emigrate to another country can consciously teach their original culture to their offspring. C) Aspects of a culture are passed down from one generation to the next, thus guaranteeing consistency and an absence of change. D) Culture provides a coherent framework for organizing our behavior and values. 2. Which of the following statements concerning the three approaches to studying culture is correct? A) The social science approach assumes that behavior is too subjective to be studied; its goal is to understand rather than to predict. B) The interpretative approach is based on anthropology and field studies; individuals are important sources of information. C) The critical approach is based on psychology and sociology and studies behavior as a means to discover universals. D) The interpretative approach is concerned with the use of power in culture and in producing change, not just understanding a culture. 3. Which statement does NOT describe a collectivist culture? A) People are more likely embarrassed by social errors. B) There are many ingroups but their influence is usually limited to specific situations. C) The self is interdependent rather than autonomous. D) Personal goals are deemphasized. 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of people in a low-context culture? A) They speak less and listen more. B) They are skilled at reading non-verbal behavior. C) They value direct and explicit communication. D) They are often linked with a collectivist culture. 5. In addition to high and low-context cultures, there are three other dimensions that measure cultural variation. Which of the following is not one of these? A) verbal/non-verbal B) masculinity/femininity C) uncertainty/avoidance D) power distance 6. Which of these conditions contributes the least to achieving effective communication between people of two different cultures? A) Knowing and accepting each other's beliefs and behaviors. B) Using the same types of non-verbal gestures. C) Being able to predict each other's response. 4

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D) Having a shared code system. 7. Styles of conflict, tone of voice in a conversation, and making eye contact are examples of A) non-verbal messages. B) coping mechanisms. C) roles. D) norms. 8. Which of these styles of conflict would be most likely seen in a low-context culture? A) Openly disclosing feelings. B) Involvement of others, even to the point of resolving the conflict. C) Using discretion and indirect expression of feelings. D) Reaching consensus and putting the group ahead of personal feelings. 9. Intercultural misunderstandings that may arise between marriage partners or between student and teacher in the classroom are basically the result of different A) styles of conflict. B) coping mechanisms. C) roles. D) norms. 10. Truth-telling, respect for the dignity of other human beings, and nonviolence are examples of A) ethical mandates. B) roles. C) ethnocentrism. D) master norms. 11. Which of these is a subtle but pervasive example of ethnocentrism? A) Maps that consistently show the host country in the center of the world. B) Sporting events where the rules of the host country are applied to the game. C) Local productions of mass media exported to other countries. D) Ethnic restaurants that promote their own cuisine as superior to that of the host culture. 12. The most helpful thing in enabling a person to get beyond ethnocentrism is A) to identify the various roles and stereotypes common to most cultures. B) to recognize the way differing roles and norms can lead to cultural misunderstanding. C) to be especially sensitive to different interpretations of non-verbal messages. D) to recognize that any particular culture is neither universal nor authoritative for others. 13. Our main and widespread source of information about other ethnic and racial groups is A) tourists. B) personal experience. C) mass media. D) the Internet. 14. The Internet has the potential to bring about polarization of groups by A) creating chat rooms where people can have their views reinforced. B) providing links to other web sites with similar views. C) reinforcing negative stereotypes. D) doing all of the above. 15. Cultural homogenization A) is more controversial in industrialized countries than in developing countries. B) describes the tendency for cultures in contact with one another to become increasingly similar. C) is universally recognized among scholars as a controversial concept. D) is described by all of these statements. 16. According to the authors, African Americans and Asian Americans are examples of subcultures. A) True B) False 17. Power distance refers to the degree to which people see authority and a hierarchical organization as part of their culture. 5

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A) True B) False 18. In intercultural communication, misunderstandings often arise because non-verbal gestures have different meanings in different cultures. A) True B) False 19. A generalization about a particular race, ethnic group, or profession based on limited experience is the definition of a protonorm. A) True B) False 20. Our perceptions of fear are based on mass media and communication as much as on reality. A) True B) False III. ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. Describe the three major approaches to the study of intercultural communication, and give an example of each. 2. Explain at least three ways in which language can be an obstacle to intercultural communication. 3. How can cultural roles and norms affect communication between cultures? 4. What is ethnocentrism? Why does it interfere with interfere with intercultural communication? Give an example. 5. Explain the concept of group polarization.

CHAPTER 11
I. KEY TERMS Match each of the following words or phrases with its definition on the right. 1. Advice giving 2. Closed question A. Stacking the deck by implying the correct answer to the question. B. Resembles an essay question on a test. it places no restrictions on the length of the answer. 3. Funnel sequence C. An interview that allows the interviewer as well as the respondent considerable latitude. 4. Leading question D. A type of secondary question intended to follow up on earlier questions. 5. Loaded question E. A judgment method of counseling implying the other person cant find the solution. 6. Neutral question F. Suggesting the desired answer to the question.. 7. Open question G. A form of question requiring a short answer such as a yes or no. 8. Probe H. A set of prepared questions from which an interview is not allowed to deviate. 9. Unstandardized interview I. A method of interviewing in which an interviewer begins with broad questions and gradually proceeds to more specific questions. 10. Standardized interview J. Asking a question that does not suggest the desired answer. II. MULTIPLE CHOICES 1. An interview can fulfill many functions. Which of the following functions is NOT correctly described? A) A research tool: gathering information from an interviewee. 6

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B) An appraisal tool: an interviewee requests a salary increase from an employer. C) A problem-solving tool: a parent and teacher discuss a children's school achievement. D) A persuasive tool: a student wants an extension on a deadline for an academic project. 2. The STAR approach (Situation / Task / Action / Result) is used in an interview A) with an objective of identifying and solving a problem. B) with the purpose of challenging a group to action. C) to determine how a candidate fits with the characteristics of a specific job. D) to plan and organize a company-wide strategy for growth. 3. Strategic interviewing and the STAR approach are based on the fact that the best predictor of future behavior is A) a first impression. B) past behavior. C) instinctive reactions. D) a combination of the above. 4. Which statement best describes the standardized interview? A) Considerable latitude is allowed in both questions and responses. B) Spontaneous questions may lead to the discovery of important side issues. C) The responses of various candidates may be more easily compared. D) It is effective in dispelling anxiety or mistrust. 5. The funnel sequence approach to interviewing involves A) following a primary question with a probing question. B) adapting the STAR method to a specific task. C) alternating open and closed questions. D) using more open questions at the start of the interview and more closed questions to focus the conversation as the interview proceeds. 6. "How many years did you work for Company X?" is an example of A) a funnel sequence. B) a probing question. C) an open question. D) a closed question. 7. A follow-up to a primary question that is intended to elicit further information is termed a A) loaded question. B) neutral question. C) secondary question. D) leading question. 8. In a job interview, which of the following questions is legal? A) Have you ever been arrested for and/or convicted of a crime? B) Where were you born? C) Do you own or rent? D) How long did you work for your previous employer? 9. The authors list several types of inadequate responses in an interview. In the long run, which response will be the most damaging to the interviewee? A) the inaccurate answer B) the irrelevant answer C) no answer D) a partial answer 10. Which of the following is not an objective that the interviewer wants to achieve in the opening of an interview? A) Providing continuity with any previous interviews B) Stating the purpose of the interview C) Establishing rapport with the interviewee D) Motivating the respondent to answer questions 11. The book advises that when planning the sequence of topics and questions in an interview, those that should be placed last are 7

CMU Academic Year: 20092010 A) B) C)

HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

the easiest questions, since the respondent may be getting tired. the most demanding questions, since the respondent may be ready for commitment. the riskiest questions, since a refusal to answer them would end the interview without limiting the information gained in the process. D) the sequence of topics or questions is determined more by the situation than by the progression of the interview. 12. In a nondirective interview the best response is A) paraphrasing. B) giving advice. C) giving reassurance. D) interpreting. 13. In a situation where someone expresses feelings about a problem situation, which response is correctly described? A) Offering reassurance may tend to smooth over and minimize the situation. B) Paraphrasing tends to offer judgment of the situation. C) Giving advice will place unneeded stress on the person who is experiencing the problem. D) Interpreting the situation demonstrates that you understand the problem. 14. Which behavior by an interviewer is least likely to demonstrate empathy? A) probing questions. B) appropriate silence. C) taking the time to respond carefully. D) restatements. 15. What type of interview would be likely to have a discussion of performance problems and goal setting by a subordinate? A) a job interview B) a performance appraisal C) a counseling session D) a research interview 16. Strategic interviewing is a form of job interview where the objective is to hire the best candidate to fill a specific job. A) True B) False 17. The standardized interview is flexible and yields uniform responses. A) True B) False 18. The leading question is potentially more hostile than the loaded question. A) True B) False 19. In a job interview, questions pertaining to marital status or personal plans are illegal. A) True B) False 20. If further action is needed to follow up on an interview, it is best to determine this in the body of the interview. A) True B) False III. ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. What are five different types of interview questions? Give an example of each. 2. What are five types of questions the interviewer should not ask for job applicants? 3. What are five types of responses in a counseling interview? Give an example of each. 8

CMU Academic Year: 20092010 4. Identify five specific hints for success in a selection interview.

HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

CHAPTER 12
I. KEY TERMS 1. Brainstorming 2. Cohesiveness 3. Consensus 4. Consideration function 5. Majority vote 6. Private acceptance 7. Public compliance 8. Railroading 9. Storming 10. Task function A. A role intended to build the rapport with other group members. B. A true measure of a persons level of commitment to an idea. C. A style of group decisionmaking in which one person may force the rest of the group to go along. D. A group of techniques designed to create as many ideas as possible. E. The second phase of group development. F. The total field of forces of acting on members to remain in a group. G. A role designed to help a group accomplish work. H. A method of decision-making in which the decision is determined by a simple majority votes. I. Agreement among all members of a group concerning a given decision. J. Forcing a person to go along with the group. This may be quite different from their private acceptance.

II. MULTIPLE CHOICES 1. Why is the study of small groups important? A) The number of careers requiring group work is increasing. B) The amount of work time spent in meetings may be as much as 50% or more. C) It has been reported that up to half of the time spent in meetings is unproductive. D) All of the above are reasons to study small groups. 2. The part of a person's self concept that derives from membership in a social group is termed A) primary identity. B) social identity. C) social categorization. D) self-directed evaluation. 3. Which statement does not describe a self-directed work team (SDWT)? A) It is a short-term approach to solving specific goals. B) It provides a sense of ownership in their jobs to those employees who participate. C) It recognizes that those performing a specific job have the best understanding of its needs and problems. D) It enhances the sense of empowerment felt by its members. 4. Considering the pressure to conform in small groups, the person most likely to change his/her opinion to agree with that of the group (private acceptance) is one who A) highly values membership in the group. B) is more likely a male with a high need for social approval. C) is less likely submissive or a conformist. D) is described by all of the above factors. 5. Social comparison theory claims that A) there is an inverse correlation between group cohesiveness and group conformity. B) we all need to evaluate our own opinions and behavior in reference to objective standards, and when this is impossible, we use other people as a basis of comparison. 9

CMU Academic Year: 20092010 C)

HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

newcomers to a group are under the most pressure to conform to group norms of behavior and group opinions. D) when one person holds a deviant opinion, other group members will make repeated efforts to change this person's opinion. 6. Which of the following is NOT a component of "groupthink"? A) Members are prone to choose less risky behavior. B) Alternative solutions are not carefully considered. C) Members are less likely to consider all sides of an issue. D) Contradictory information is ignored or rationalized away. 7. Which of the following would actually impede the process of brainstorming? A) encouraging quantity rather than quality. B) a person with a low tolerance for ambiguity. C) a leader who creates a non-judgmental climate. D) "igniter phrases" such as "I agree." 8. The "Interaction Process Analysis" (IPA) developed by Bales provides an instrument to measure A) the degree to which group tasks are achieved. B) the process by which group-building is achieved. C) patterns of communication within a group. D) cohesiveness and its effect on group maintenance roles. 9. Contributions such as giving information or opinions or seeking information or opinions are directed towards A) satisfying the needs of an individual more than those of the group. B) maintaining the group. C) accomplishing the group's objectives. D) promoting cohesiveness. 10. In the life cycle of a group, which is the correct sequence? A) Forming, norming, storming, performing. B) Forming, storming, norming, performing. C) Forming, performing, storming, norming. D) Forming, performing, norming, storming. 11. Which of the following things occur as a group increases in size? A) The satisfaction of group members also increases. B) Decisions are reached more quickly. C) Cohesiveness and unity increase. D) A few people tend to dominate discussion. 12. Which statement concerning communication networks is INCORRECT? A) The All-Channel network is the most decentralized and also the most desirable in the long run. B) The Wheel is the most centralized and also produces the fastest results when solving simple problems. C) Decentralized networks operate better when they are faced with complex tasks. D) All of the models are based on a group of six, which is the optimum size. 13. Which statement concerning leadership is INACCURATE? A) Leaders are born, not made. B) Task functions are activities that help a group reach its goal. C) Consideration functions are related to morale and emotional climate. D) Leadership and popularity are not synonymous. 14. Which device is effective in improving group performance? A) Social learning is effective: that is, productive behaviors are reinforced, and unsuccessful behaviors are extinguished. B) The brainstorming technique is limited in its ability to improve performance because of the problem of "groupthink." C) The Nominal Group Technique (NGT) is effective only when the task is fact-finding. D) The standard agenda is most effective when brainstorming occupies a major part of group time. 10

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15. Which statement concerning patterns of decision-making is correct? A) Consensus is important because group members are expected to implement their decisions. B) A common feature of high-consensus groups is that they have developed a successful strategy and use it repeatedly. C) Railroading is an effective technique when decisions are made by majority vote. D) Statements that contained more self-referent words such as "I," "me," and "I think" are more effective in moving a group to consensus. 16. When considering the pressure to conform to a group decision, a member will change his/her opinion to agree with the group if the issue is ambiguous and group opinion is unanimously against his/her position. A) True B) False 17. The more cohesive a group is, the more freedom individual members feel that they can express deviant opinions or practice behavior that deviates from group norms. A) True B) False 18. A decision that results from group communication is more likely to be risky. A) True B) False 19. As group size increases, the level of satisfaction with process and communication within the group also increases. A) True B) False 20. The characteristics of a leader include having good ideas, being able to express them well, and caring about the group. A) True B) False III. ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. Identify the four phases of group development, and describe briefly the type of communication characteristic of each. 2. What is the relationship between group size, membership satisfaction, and group performance? 3. What are six common difficulties that small groups encounter in developing ideas and solving problems? 4. What are four ways of arriving at a decision in a group? What are some relative advantages and disadvantages of each.

CHAPTER 13
I. KEY TERMS 1. Assimilation effect 2. Backlash 3. Intensity 4. Casual organization 5. Climax order A. A mode of speech delivery in which minimal notes are used and that combines the advantages of careful speech outlining and planning with the spontaneity of impromptu speaking. B. A measure of the power of words. C. An organization pattern that is based on locations. D. A mode of delivery requiring no advance planning. E. A mode of delivery in which the speaker commits the entire speech to memory. 11

CMU Academic Year: 20092010 6. Extemporaneous 7. Impromptu delivery 8. Memorized speech 9. Spatial organization 10. Topical organization II. MULTIPLE CHOICES

HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA F. An effect that occurs when a listener tends to accept a change in attitude urged by a sneaker and perceives the speakers position as closer to his or her preferred position than it really is. G. A pattern of organization that tries to identify causes of problems. H. A method of arranging a presentation in which a speaker moves from one topic to the next in a way that clearly demonstrates how the topics are related. I. When a person reacts in the opposite way intended by the speaker J. A way of ordering main points in a speech that builds from weaker arguments to the strongest.

1. Which of the following aspects does NOT correctly describe public communication? A) Feedback is more restricted. B) Audience analysis is more difficult because of greater diversity. C) Casual or personal language is still important because of the need to overcome distractions. D) The message must be relevant to the audience as a whole. 2. Which two components of credibility do NOT vary? A) character and authoritativeness B) character and topic C) competence and topic D) objectivity and character 3. Which statement about source credibility is inaccurate? A) Dynamism is important in conferring credibility on a speaker. B) Women tend to be perceived as more competent and men as more trustworthy. C) People with higher status are often viewed as more credible. D) Ultimately, credibility is determined by the perception of the listener more than by any other factor. 4. The impression that the audience has of a speaker prior to a presentation is called A) intrinsic credibility. B) perceived credibility. C) conferred credibility. D) extrinsic credibility. 5. Which of the following variables is least likely to increase source credibility? A) eloquence B) use of humor C) establishing common ground D) apparent sincerity 6. Which of the following cues has the least impact on good delivery, and, in turn, least enhances credibility? A) volume and pitch of voice. B) bodily movements that convey poise. C) direct eye contact. D) animated and varied facial expression. 7. Which of the following forms of delivery is most satisfactory for the classroom? A) impromptu B) manuscript C) memorized D) extemporaneous. 8. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of doing a demographic audience analysis? A) It is easier to establish common ground. B) Supporting material can be made more appropriate to the audience. C) Stage fright can be reduced. 12

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D) Language use can be tailored to the audience. 9. Which is the correct order for the steps in Monroe's Motivated Sequence? A) Attention, need, satisfaction, visualization, action B) Attention, need, visualization, action, satisfaction C) Attention, visualization, need, action, satisfaction D) Attention, visualization, need, satisfaction, action 10. In a speech discussing the probable causes of the terrorist attack of Sept. 11, 2001, the most effective organizational pattern would be A) chronological B) spatial C) problem/solution D) causal. 11. Which description of a type of supporting evidence is false? A) An analogy is a partial comparison of two things or situations. B) An example is a hypothetical case to give an overview of a topic. C) Statistics, when presented visually, can make a point succinctly. D) Quotations from experts on the topic add validity to an argument. 12. The statement "serving time in prison is an education in the art of committing crimes" is an example of A) an analogy B) a metaphor C) satire D) an appeal to fear. 13. Which statement about appealing to fear to produce attitudinal or behavioral changes is true? A) Moderate appeals to fear are most effective. B) The credibility of a speaker who uses an appeal to fear is not relevant to the effectiveness of the appeal. C) Studies on the effectiveness of an appeal to fear have yielded consistent results. D) An appeal to fear based on emotion is less effective than one based on rational arguments. 14. In which circumstances would a two-sided approach be more effective in persuading an audience? A) When the listeners are less intelligent or less educated. B) When the audience is initially receptive to the speaker's position. C) When the listeners are skeptical or hostile. D) In all of the above situations. 15. In which situation should the concept of primacy versus recency be considered? A) When deciding whether to present the strongest argument first or last. B) When deciding whether to state or imply a conclusion. C) When determining which of two speakers has an advantage when audience retention and memory are measured. D) When determining if a presentation would be more effective by presenting one side of the topic or both sides. 16. In an impromptu speech, there is a maximum of spontaneity but a lack of advance planning. A) True B) False 17. The "sleeper effect" refers to the diminishing impact of a speaker's credibility on attitude change over time. A) True B) False 18. Several studies have shown that a listener more likely to be persuaded is probably a female with a strong selfimage and a rebellious inclination. A) True B) False 19. Visual aids may enhance a presentation if they suit the topic and the setting and hold the attention of both the speaker and the audience. A) True 13

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B) False 20. When a speaker considers what degree of attitude change he/she should attempt to achieve, it is important to know the latitude of acceptance and latitude of rejection of the listeners. A) True B) False III. ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. Discuss five possible ways of organizing speech materials. 2. How do speaker identify the audience prior to deliver the speech? Briefly explain it. 3. What are the methods to support you idea. Briefly explain each one. 4. What should you consider during the delivery stage? Explain briefly each one.

CHAPTER 14
I. KEY TERMS 1. Downward communication A. A type of power based on a persons job position. 2. Expert power B. A type of personal power that has the ability to influence someone because of his or her desire of identify with the power source. 3. Forming of coalitions C. A part of rumors in which details are exaggerated or distorted. 4. Ingratiation D. Communicating to those higher in the organization. 5. Legitimate power E. A type of power in which knowledge is used to influence someone. 6. Referent power F. A limit on the authority of an individual supervisor in an organization. 7. Reward power G. Communication initiated by an organizations upper management, which then filters downward through the chain of command. 8. Sharpening H. Joining forces with others. 9. Span of control I. A type of power in which rewards or incentives are used to gain cooperation. 10. Upward communication J. A method of influencing others by complimenting them. II. MULTIPLE CHOICES 1. The "chain of command" in an organization refers to the flow of communication within A) the "span of control." B) the "pyramid of control." C) each degree of specialization. D) the organizational culture. 2. "An organization that focuses on sales and meeting the needs of the customer" is labeled as a ________ culture. A) Tough-Guy-Macho B) Work-Hard-Play-Hard C) Bet-Your-Company D) Process 3. Numerous studies have indicated that communication skills are A) important at an entry-level position. B) qualities most frequently valued in applicants. C) an important factor in promotions. D) described by all of the above statements. 4. Which of these is NOT one of the functions identified by Conrad that communication performs in an organization? 14

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HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

A) The command function B) The relational function C) The ambiguity-management function D) The supervisory function 5. Current research has focused on LMX, or Leader-Member Exchange. This refers to the A) process of decision-making within an organizational hierarchy. B) level of support which the leader communicates to employees. C) relationship between the leader and the employees. D) extent to which trust develops between the leader and the employees. 6. Which of the following factors is least likely to lead to high employee creativity and productivity? A) A leader who inconspicuously checks up on employees' work. B) A leader who encourages employee participation in decisions. C) A leader who develops trusting relationships. D) A leader who is involved with employees in solving problems. 7. Which statement describes trust? A) It is based on an assessment of a person's competence and character. B) It has a cognitive component. C) It has a affective component. D) All of the above are aspects of trust. 8. Which of the following is NOT a behavior involved in establishing a trusting relationship? A) integrity B) consistency C) delegation of control D) downward communication 9. Omission (failing to handle all the material), queuing (letting things pile up), and escape (refusing to handle material) are all strategies that people use to deal with A) information overload. B) downward communication. C) a climate of mistrust. D) inappropriate supervisory communication. 10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of downward communication? A) More is better up to a point. B) Messages may frequently become distorted. C) Coalitions are formed. D) Power often becomes an important issue. 11. Cooptation is A) a form of personal power available to a supervisor. B) bringing individuals opposed to a policy into a position of responsibility for determining or implementing that policy. C) an abuse of power in upward communication. D) an abuse of power in downward communication. 12. Which of the following is NOT a function of upward communication? A) to communicate changes that management wants to institute B) to help employees relieve frustrations C) to enhance employees' sense of participation in the enterprise D) to indicate the effectiveness of downward communication and suggest future improvement 13. Which of these behaviors does NOT promote ingratiation? A) maintaining an open door policy B) using flattery C) practicing self-disclosure D) stressing similar attitudes and beliefs 14. When a subordinate wants to create change in an organization, which of the following strategies would be least effective? 15

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HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

A) Packaging an idea with effective data and charts. B) Enhancing horizontal communication. C) Involving a number of key people in the movement towards change. D) Choosing the right process, such as good timing and cutting through red tape. 15. Which of the following is NOT a function of horizontal communication? A) implementing change B) solving problems C) sharing information D) coordinating tasks 16. The "span of control" in an organization refers to the order in which people report to others. A) True B) False 17. Demographic changes in the workforce include a greater proportion of minorities and falling union membership. A) True B) False 18. Using more than one channel for downward communication is effective because it creates redundancy. A) True B) False 19. The "linking-pin function" refers to the problem of loyalty among employees within a department that hinders horizontal communication. A) True B) False 20. Horizontal communication within an organization is made more difficult when people or groups are rewarded on a competitive basis. A) True B) False III. ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. What are three functions performs in organizations? 2. Discuss and illustrate the five types of power. 3. What are the five functions of upward communication? 4. What are two barriers to upward communication?

CHAPTER 15
I. KEY TERMS 1. Active audience 2. Cultivation theory 3. Convergence 4. Diffusion of information 5. Digital divide 6. Embeds A. The dissemination of news or information through communication channels to a community of receivers. B. Journalist placed within individual military units who live and travel with troops and whose work is censored by the military. C. Programming designed to target a specific segment of the media audience. D. The use of a broad organizing theme to select, emphasize, and link the elements of a news story. E. The concept that receivers of mass communication seek out and select the media content that they want. F. Journalists who are independent, do not travel within an individual military unit, and are not protected or or censored by the military. 16

CMU Academic Year: 20092010 7. Framing 8. Narrowcasting 9. Selective exposure 10. Unilaterals II. MULTIPLE CHOICES

HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA G. The tendency to choose communication that will confirm your own opinions, attitudes, or values. H. The view that through the stories it tells, television cultivates or promotes common world views, values, and perspectives on how we should think and behave. I. The gap between those who can use, afford, and understand technology and those who cannot. J. The merging or coming together of computing, telecommunications, and media in a digital environment.

1. Which of the following descriptions of mediated communication is false? A) Feedback is mostly direct, rather than delayed. B) The audience is unknown to the source. C) The source includes a number of individuals and/or groups. D) Patterns of ownership increase the possibility of ethical conflicts. 2. Which of these is NOT a function of the gatekeeper? A) Selecting those stories from a wire service to be printed in the evening paper. B) Editing individual scenes and assembling them into a feature-length film. C) Selecting the television shows during which an advertiser will buy time. D) Choosing manuscripts to be reviewed by an editor of a publishing company. 3. Which of the following variables would NOT have a general effect on the choices made by a gatekeeper? A) competition among media B) audience feedback C) deadlines D) quality of sound 4. Two important deterrents to investigative reporting are A) the fear of lawsuits and loss of advertising. B) the possibility of losing audience to competing media or to the Internet. C) insufficient collaboration with the subject of the investigation and misrepresentation of the subject. D) invasion of privacy and digital manipulation. 5. Which of these factors is, or should be, a concern to the news media in war coverage? A) Not disclosing confidential military information B) Maintaining its role as a watchdog C) Balanced reporting that does not unduly influence public opinion D) Each of these factors should be a concern. 6. In determining the impact of media messages on audience, which theory is the most satisfactory? A) The hypodermic needle model B) The watchdog role model C) The two-step flow model D) The multiple-step flow model 7. Which description best suits today's mass communication audience? A) They are often passive, since they are interested in being entertained. B) They are active receivers, choosing what they will view or read. C) They are consciously distorting messages to fit their own biases. D) They typically expose themselves to a variety of opinions in order to evaluate carefully the diverse ideas that are being portrayed. 8. Which is the correct order for the three stages of news diffusion identified by Dominick? A) Newsbreak, saturation, dissemination B) Saturation, dissemination, newsbreak C) Dissemination, newsbreak, saturation. D) Newsbreak, dissemination, saturation 17

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HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

9. Which statement concerning the influence of political coverage and debates on voters' attitudes is incorrect? A) A debate usually favors the incumbent. B) In general, voters' opinions are reinforced rather than changed. C) Media coverage of politics has contributed to a "spiral of cynicism." D) Political advertising plays an important role in "packaging" a candidate. 10. Which of the following is NOT a finding in content analyses of women's roles on television from the 60's to the current time? A) Women tend to have less exciting and lucrative jobs than men. B) Married women tend to be portrayed as having fewer career options. C) Minority women, particularly, are shown to be victims whereas white women are more often heroines. D) Female computer users more likely hold clerical jobs and are not shown as having mastered technology. 11. George Gerbner's Cultivation Theory holds that A) television, as a major storyteller, shapes our values, beliefs, and attitudes to conform to those it presents. B) there is an inverse correlation between the amount of viewing and the similarity between the values, beliefs, and attitudes presented on television and those held by viewers. C) television, as a major storyteller, distorts its portrayal of our culture, thus cultivating in its viewers a critical mind which is subtly trained to see the distortions. D) heavy television viewers are less susceptible to the "mean world syndrome" than light viewers. 12. Which of the findings is NOT a credible result of studies on media and violence? A) Viewers become desensitized to violence and its consequences. B) Viewers are able to release their hostility and aggression through viewing (catharsis). C) The correlation between media violence and aggression exists in both boys and girls. D) The relationship between televised violence and aggressive behavior holds from preschoolers to late adolescents. 13. Narrowcasting refers to A) narrow applications of new technologies. B) narrow interpretations of the application of Gerbner's theories. C) specific segments of an audience being targeted by specific programming. D) the merging of telecommunications and computing into an integrated whole. 14. Which statement best describes the results of recent studies on Internet use? A) Being more comfortable with technology, men are more likely to use e-mail to maintain relationships. B) Studies consistently point to social isolation as a result of heavy Internet use. C) Studies do not always agree on how Internet use impacts personal contact with others. D) The biggest increase in the use of e-mail and instant messaging is among the elderly. 15. Which statement about technology and the global community is wrong? A) The digital divide, as it concerns access in rural and urban areas, is becoming narrower. B) The digital divide, as it concerns usage among Blacks and Hispanics, is still wide. C) The Internet enables refugee communities to maintain their home culture more easily. D) The Internet makes it more difficult for users to practice selective exposure. 16. Mediated communication differs from personal communication in several important ways; perhaps the most important is the motivation for profits A) True B) False 17. Media coverage of public figures may often result in invasion of privacy. A) True B) False 18. The concept of a passive audience is the most appropriate description of today's media consumers. A) True 18

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HU 127HUMAN COMMUNICATION LECTURER: NORNG SOKHA

B) False 19. People tend to use the Internet in the same ways and for the same motivations as they use more traditional media. A) True B) False 20. The "third person effect" refers to the concept that viewers believe that others are affected by television to a greater extent than they are. A) True B) False III. ESSAY QUESTIONS 1. Identify three aspects of mass communication that are mediated. 2. What are four distinguishing characteristics of mass communication? 3. What is meant by the concept of the active audience? 4. What are the functions of advertising and public relations, how do they differ, and what is the relationship of both to mass communication?

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