Mock CAT

MOCK CAT
This is a three section test. Totally 150 questions. 1

st
section is Verbal,
2
nd
in Quant and last is DI (50 questions each)

Total time 2 hrs. 0.25 negative marking.

1
Direction for question: The following question consists of four
statements. You have to select the option representing the most
coherent sequencing of the given statements.

A. He was a socialist and had the reputation of being sympathetic to
the Indian cause.

B. The proposals he had brought were however, not so favourable.

C. Sir Stafford Cripps reached Delhi on March 22. 1942.

D. He was known to be a personal friend of J awahar Lal Nehru and
other Indian leaders.

CDBA
BCDA
CDAB
DCBA

2

A. It continued its deliberations for many days over Gandhijis new
slogan to the nation.

B. On J uly 14, 1942 the Committee passed a long resolution - "Quit
India" resolution.

C. The Working Committee of the Congress met at Wardha.

D. It demanded that the British rule in India must end.

BCDA
CABD
BCAD
ADBC

3

A. You may imprint it on your hearts and let every breath of yours give
expression to it.

B. We shall either free India or die in the perpetuation of our slavery.

C. Here is a "mantra", a short one that I give.

D. The "mantra" is: "Do or Die."

ACDB
BCDA
ACBD
CADB

4

A. His inner voice spoke two words "Quit India."

B. The failure of Cripps Mission disheartened the people.

C. The day Cripps left was Sunday.

D. Gandhiji pondered over the difficult situation, on Monday his
day of silence, as to what could be the solution?

BCDA
ACBD
DCBA
CBAD

5

A. All other developing nations fall far behind.

B. With a large and complex market like India, the report says
further, looking at averages can be deceptive.

C. China's parity is $ 2,870 billion, India's stands at $ 1,105 billion.

D. Among developing countries. India comes second after China
in terms of purchasing power parity.

ABCD
DCBA
DCAB
ABDC

6

A. Honesty, truth and loyalty have the foundation of Utopia strong.

B. In Utopia there is no black money, no transaction under table.

C. It is a self-sufficient country with abundant natural resources.

D. It imports less and exports more.

BCAD
ADBC
CDAB
ABCD

7

A. The cottage industries producing a variety of handicrafts boost the
country's exports.

B. The economy in Utopia is quite strong; the currency ratings do not
fall by the day.

C. There are no prominent classes in Utopian society.

D. It is, more or less, a homogeneous system.

ACDB
BCDA
ADBC
CDAB

8
Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given
between two statements 1 and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are
jumbled up. You have to select the option which indicates a logical
sequencing of the six taken together.

1. We must be aware that all private industries have not proved
successful: there are hundreds and thousand of sick units.

A. The problem is not choosing between Public Sector and private
industry.

B. If public sector is not doing well, we can find out the reasons and
remove the detects.

C. There is less chance for corruption and meddling with politics.

D. Some Public Sector units like the ONGC. LIC and other have done
quite well.

6. A constructive approach is needed.

ACBD
ADCB
ABDC
BCDA

9

1. In certain controversial issues the Board of Interview may be
interested in your personal views.

A. Let us take Stale autonomy, sons of the Soil policy. Non-alignment,
Prohibition, Public Sector. Gandhian economy etc.

B. Some simple controversial topics can be cited.

C. Here one must give his/her sincere preferences.

D. If one opposes he/she must say why with convincing and rational
reasons.

6. It is quite possible that some Members of the Board may hold rather
strong views to the contrary.

ADCB
BCAD
BACD
ACDB

10

1. The Chairman starts the interview with some general and casual
questions.

A. However, the Chairman and a member subsequently attempt to
probe the candidate at length.

B. The candidate answers the questions freely and frankly.

C. He is free of inhibitions.

D. He frankly admits his reading is not too extensive.

6. He subtly conveys that he reads newspapers and periodicals to keep
himself well-informed.

ABCD
DCBA
BCDA
BACD

11

1. The candidate reveals a selective approach and indicates his
preferences without hesitation.

A. He displays consistently a logical, rational and intelligent approach.

B. He is sure of himself.

C. His behaviour is natural and normal - no affectations, air or
superficiality.

D. He makes up his mind firmly when required to choose.

6. This indicates his mental stability and consistency.

ACDB
BDAC
ACBD
DBCA

12

1. Earlier, under cold war conditions we were enjoying the support of
Soviet Union.

A. It was the same case with many other countries like Iran, Iraq, Syria,
Vietnam etc.

B. Even before disintegration of Russia, America attacked Iraq and
liberated Kuwait.

C. We could stand upto American pressure to some extent.

D. The Soviet Union was a mute witness.

6. It allowed the onslaught of U.S. air, land and naval attacks on Iraq.

ACBD
BCDA
BDCA
CABD

13

1. He is able to think on his feet.

A. He is abreast of the international burning issues and their impact on
India.

B. He can think ahead and plan with imagination and enterprise.

C. He succeeds in presenting his views with force and sincerity.

D. He displays readiness to accept responsibility.

6. At the same time he is flexible and has no rigid or predetermined
views.

ACBD
DBAC
ACDB
BDAC

14
1. He is an intelligent and well-informed candidate.

A. He is able to decide on the priorities with speed and accuracy.

B. He has significant capacity to motivate and carry his team-mates
with him.

C. He is physically fit and mentally alert.
D. He takes reasonable risks unhesitantly.

6. He will prove a real asset to the organisation.

DCBA
DACB
DBAC
ACDB

15

1. More professional and responsible character should be bestowed
on our sports federation.

A. Some minimum criteria for selection to a post should be prescribed.

B. A healthy public opinion should be generated.

C. Government's interference should be cut to the roots.

D. This will leave little room for government to make vested
manoeuvres.

6. Exposure with the game should be the criteria for selection to a post
of office bearers.

ADCB
ACBD
BDCA
DBAC

16
Direction for question: Select the option representing the best
sequence of the four statements to make proper and coherent
paragraph.
A. to put pressure on the authorities in charge to

B. the inhuman treatment meted out to the inmates of

C. Indian prisons has once again forced the human rights activists

D. take steps to amend the same.

DACB
CABD
ABCD
BCAD
17
paragraph.

A. one day be able to distinguish between the two realities of

B. life which are

C. it seems, extremely difficult, if not impossible, that humans will

D. objective individualism and selfishness

DBAC
CABD
CBAD
CADB

18
paragraph.
A. cannot be done away with completely because of

B. the so called fear of foreign aggression and the simultaneous

C. the inborn tendency of man to involve himself in violence

D. desire to gain world supremacy

DABC
CABD
DACB
CBAD

19
paragraph.
A. need them or as usual will adorn the
B. it is still a moot point whether the fruits of

C. corridors of power and the elite abodes

D. economic reforms In India will reach those who most urgently

DACB
DABC
BADC
BDAC

20
Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given.
You have to select the option which indicates the most logical
sequencing.

A. A balanced diet is necessary for good health.

B. A balanced diet does not consist of vitamins only.

C. Vitamins prevent deficiency diseases.

D. Proteins too are important ingredient in a balanced diet.

E. Regular consumption of vitamins is essential.

F. Vitamins only are not necessary and sufficient for a good health.

BCD
ABC
CEF
ABF
21
sequencing.
A. A witty person need not be humorous.

B. A witty man is an intelligent man.

C. Humour is never sarcastic.

D. A witty man can be sarcastic.

E. Sarcasm is often bitter.

F. An intelligent man can be sarcastic.

BDF
ABC
CDE
DEF

22
sequencing.
A. Rubber trees ooze saps.
B. Tyres are made of sap from trees.
C. Rubber is made from tree-saps.
D. Rubber has been of many uses to mankind.
E. Rubber trees are an important source of raw material for industry.
F. Rubber may be an eco-friendly product.

ABC
ACF
ABE
DEF

23
sequencing.
A. Politicians are scoundrels.

B. Football is a game for Americans.

C. Politicians love to play soccer.

D. Americans love politicians.

E. Americans love scoundrels.

F. Scoundrels are prohibited from football field.

FED
ABE
DAF
DAE

24
sequencing.

A. Suresh is Sudhas grand father-in-law.

B. Naresh is Suresh's son.

C. Mohan is one of two grandsons of Suresh.

D. Kamla is Suresh's wife.

E. Kamla is Mohan's grand-mother.

F. Mohan may be Sudha's husband or brother-in-law.

BAF
BCD
ACF
DEF

25
Direction for question: Select the part that has an error.
(A) The Indian government's choice

(B) of the EEC as a partner

(C) stem from the fact

(D) that the community is the most important market for India.

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

26
(A) Privatisation generally represents

(B) an ideological response

(C) to the perceived problems

(D) in the public sector

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Directions for Q.27 - 34 : Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.
Many companies around the world believe that they have a moral duty to respond to
global problems such as Third world poverty, the deterioration of the natural
environment, and endless trade battles. But few have realized that their survival actually
depends on their response. Global corporations rely on educated workers, consumers with
money to spend, a healthy natural environment, and peaceful coexistence between
nations and ethnic groups. This reality is to me a great source of hope; at this watershed
period in history, it is in the interests of the worlds most powerful corporations to work
for the advancement of global peace and prosperity. To put it simply, global companies
have no future if the earth has no future.But how, many have asked, can global
corporations promote peace and prosperity and at the same time remain true to their
obligation to secure a profit? The answer, in my experience, is kyosei, which can best be
defined as a spirit of cooperation, in which individuals and organizations live and work
together for the common good. A company that is practicing kyosei established
harmonious relations with its customers, its suppliers, its competitors, the governments
with which it deals, and the natural environment. When practiced by a group of
corporations, kyosei can become a powerful force for social, political, and economic
transformation. At Canon, we have put kyosie at the heart of our business credo. For the
last ten years, it has been Canons most cherished principle.
I began to see Cannons need for a philosophy of kyosei when we started doing
business on a global scale. As we built plants, hired workers, and managed our finances
in foreign countries, we encountered a new set of business challenges. These challenges
were more than tactical business concerns such as responding to fierce competition,
managing suppliers, or dealing with currency risk, they were global imbalances. I
identify three-that continue to trouble us. They need our collective attention as
corporated leaders and as citizens of the world.
The first is the imbalance between countries with trade deficits and those with trade
surpluses. Trade imbalances lead to an unhealthy international business environment
rife with antidumping laws, rising tariffs, and endless trade disputes. The second is the
vast income imbalance between wealthy and poor nations. Among the many problems
generated by this inequality are widespread poverty, floods of economic and political
refugees, illegal immigration, and ethnic or civil wars. The third is an imbalance
between generations; the current generation is consuming the earths resources so fast
that little will be left for the next. The earths nonrenewable energy supplies, for
example, are in danger of running out, and the earths atmosphere is rapidly
deteriorating. If we look ahead into the middle of the twenty first century, we cannot be
sure that our planet will escape environmental ruin. Ultimately our work as companies
practicing kyosei should focus on finding solutions to those three major global
problems.
The kyosei journey begins by laying a sound business foundation and ends in political
dialogue for global change. The process is analogous to building a pyramid in that the
strength of each layer depends on the strength of the layers preceding it.
Economic survival Companies in this state work to secure a predictable stream of
profits and to establish strong market positions in their industries. They contribute to the
society by producing needed goods, purchasing locally produced raw materials, and
employing workers. In pursuing business goals, however, they tend to exploit their
staffs and create labour problems. For instance, I feel that some U.S. companies take the
profit motive too far when they lay off workers to increase profits and at the same time
pay large bonuses to their CEOs. There is nothing wrong with profit motive per se-even
companies in the later stages of kyosei must increase profits. But making profit is only
the beginning of a companys obligations. As they mature, businesses need to
understand that they play a role in a larger, global context.
Cooperating with Labour A company enters the second stage of kyosei when
managers and workers begin to cooperate with other. Each employee makes
cooperation a part of his or her own code of ethics. When that happens management and
labour start to see each other as vital to the company success. The two sides are in the
same boat, so to speak, sharing the same fate. This approach to management is popular
in J apan, where companies are well known for their commitment to workers salaries,
bonuses, and training. As important a step as it is, though, this stage of kyosei can
become so inwardly focused that it does little to solve problems outside the company.
Cooperating outside the Company When a company cooperates with outside groups,
such as customers and suppliers, it enters the third stage of kyosei. Customers are
treated respectfully and reciprocate by being loyal. Suppliers are provided with
technical support and, in turn deliver high quality materials on time. Competitors are
invited into partnership agreements and joint ventures, which result in higher profits for
both parties. Community groups become partners in solving local problems. Needless to
say, forming a kyosei partnership for the common good is very different from forming a
cartel and fixing prices. Companies at this state understand that a rising tide lifts all
ships. They know that by finding ways to collaborate with customers, suppliers, and
community groups, they are helping all parties. But third stage companies often focus
so much on local and national problems that they neglect global problems. For example,
in J apan, many companies contribute to J apanese society but continue to have
adversarial relations with foreign governments.
Global Activism When a company begins large scale business operations in foreign
countries, it is ready to enter the fourth stage of kyosei. By cooperating with foreign
companies, large corporations not only can increase their base of business but also can
address global imbalance. For example, a company can help reduce trade friction by
building production facilities in countries with which its home country has a trade
surplus. By setting up R & D facilities in foreign countries, companies can train local
scientists and engineers in cutting edge research work. By training local workers and
introducing them to new technology, corporations can improve the standard of living of
people in poor countries. And by developing and using technology that reduces or
eliminates pollution companies can help preserve the global environment.
The government as a Kyosei partner When a company has established a worldwide
network of kyosei partners, it is ready to move to the fifth state. Fifth-stage companies
are very rare. Using their power and wealth, fifth-stage companies urge national
government to work toward rectifying global imbalance. Corporations might press
government for legislation aimed at reducing pollution, for example. Or they might
recommend the abolition of antiquated trade regulations. This type of cooperation is
quite different from the traditional partnership between business and government in
which powerful corporations look to their own governments for help in trade deals or
for special subsidies and protective tariffs.
27
The statement Global companies have no future if the earth has
no future in the passage refers to :

the green revolution
the scarcity of natural resources
poverty eradication programmes
a healthy natural environment

28
The authors social inclination is obvious from the passage.

True
False
Indeterminate
None of these

29
Practicing kyosie leads to :

good international relations
a strong organizational structure
profitable market share
co-operative spirit in building a better world

30
Kyosei, as propounded by author, if followed by corporate houses
would lead to :

consumer-supplier synchronised relations
gains in the competitive international market for viable players
socio economic and political revolutions
renewal of the deteriorating environment
31
The need for kyosei in Canon was due to :

international trade developments
financial investment at global scale
need for internal corporate changes
none of the above

32
The authors Global Activism role can be best described as :

International outlook with a local feel
Local perspective for international edge
Managing technological strategies in the foreign market
Shifting the rules of competition

33
The cooperation within and outside the corporate organization
necessitates :

competitive salaries and recruitment
a need to increase profit
dedicated research of the labour problems
a collective integration of promoting the company
34
The theme of the passage is best reflected by the statement :

Global perspective for managing competitive industries
Building dynamic strategies around your organization
Canon, and the secret of its success by kyosei
Co-operation for the common good, through kyosei as shown by Canon

Directions for Q.35 - 41 : Read the following passage and answer the questions.
If the economics of land use is given a secondary status, the same piece of land can be
put to various uses such as agriculture, forestry, habitation and mining. But no human

activity is possible without economics. This has led to categorization of land. India has 16
percent of the worlds population and only 2.4 per cent of its land area. Of the total 329
m.ha. of land, it is estimated that only 266 m.ha. has any potential for production. Of this
143 m.ha. is agricultural land. 40 m.ha. is unproductive and the balance of 83 m.ha. is
classified as forest land, of which over half is in various stages of degradation.
The increase in population has led to the accelerated degeneration of forests. Apart from
ecological services, forests provide economic products and recreation. Those concerned
with the basic needs of the poor generally tend to ignore the fundamental importance of
forests to human well-being. The average Indian villager is still in the wood age. This
dependency is more severe and acute in developing countries like India though the
average American consumes about as much wood in the form of paper as the average
Indian burns as cooking fuel per year. This is subsistence dependency Forests are
evaluated by economists in terms of their ability to provide a dead product wood. But
for those residing in and around them, forests are a living, dynamic resource. These
dependency patterns make the need for managing this resource essential.
In India, wood is the preferred domestic fuel because to most who use it, it costs nothing
but the physical labour of procuring, it. Due to its easy availability, the consumption of
firewood exceeds the recorded production from forests. The colossal gap between actual
consumption and legitimate production of fuel wood is filled by pilferage. The enormity of
this pilferage leads to excessive cutting from the forests, which depletes forests and
reduces firewood for future generations. There are limits to the resilience of forests. Any
management approach must clearly understand these limits and formulate principles to
enhance various forest outputs through silviculture. There are many examples of
thinning, selective harvesting and manipulations of watershed forests to increase the
yield of wood, water and wildlife without any apparent negative ecological impact. On the
other hand, some industrial forestry activities create environmental stresses on forest
systems.
Any forest management strategy should prescribe harvesting (economics) within the
biological limits of productive capacity and renewal capacity as two extremes. No forest
resource should be tapped beyond the renewal capacity as otherwise the naturally
endowed land use will be changed.
There are three stages, in general, in the process of forest degradation. They are self-
renewal, rehabilitation and restoration. The self-renewal stage is the moderate level of
degradation in which, following the withdrawal of the stress factor, forest ecosystems are
able to renew themselves. The rehabilitation state is an intermediate level of degradation,
the forest ecosystem may require long periods to recover naturally but this period may be
shortened through human intervention. The restoration state is the one in which forest
degradation becomes virtually irreversible, and the result is a combination of total or near
total loss of forest cover.
Forests are unlike other land-based resources. They are dynamic living systems with
intense interactions among all the living and non-living components of the ecosystem.
Man is the only component of this ecosystem, who, in spite of being a part of the
dynamic milieu, tends to place himself apart from it and by doing so causes great
damage.
The management strategy must recognize the fact the fact that there is a symbiotic
relationship between the people and the forest ecosystem. The life of forest-dwellers is
woven round forest ecology and resources and ensures that the forest is protected
against depredation by man and nature. Directly or indirectly, in the tribal mind, forests
symbolise life in its many manifestations, i.e., home, worship, food, employment, income.
Tribal people are not only familiar with the biological species around them but they also
possess some understanding of ecological interrelationships of the various components
of forests. Thus, in the present context, sustainable exploitation of forests for meeting the
needs of the nation and the people is possible, provided sound management is practiced.
The present state of non-availability of potential alternatives to various uses of wood,
especially firewood, must from part of the strategy so that total withdrawal of use is not
visualised as a solution. The development of alternatives to forest uses is still in its
infancy and there is an impending need to mobilise resources for research and
development in this field.
35
As far as forests are concerned, there is a critical difference between the attitude of
economists and :

government officials
forest-dwellers
forest officials
forest animals

36
No forest resource should be tapped beyond the :

feasible limit
renewal limit
economic limit
None of these

37
The rehabilitation stage is a/an :

moderate level of degradation
extreme level of degradation
intermediate level of degradation
None of these

38
Pilferage of wood accounts for :

the gap between for legitimate production and legitimate consumption
the gap between actual production and legitimate consumption
the gap between the legitimate production and consumption
the gap between the legitimate production and actual consumption

39
Forests are resilient by nature.

True
False
Cant say
None of these

40
The restoration stage represents a/an :

reversible process
economically infeasible process
irreversible process
restoration process

41
At present, due to the huge population, sustainable exploitation of forest is :

impossible
possible
imperative
None of these

Directions for Q.42- 46: Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Secondly, whatever may be true of other countries, in India at any rate where more than
eighty per cent of the population is agricultural and another ten per cent industrial, it is a
crime to make education merely literary and to unfit boys and girls for manual work in after-
life. Indeed I hold that, as the larger part of our time is devoted to labour for earning our
bread, our children must from their infancy be taught the dignity of such labour. Our children
should not become useless, as he does become, as agricultural labourer. It is a sad thing
that our schoolboys look upon manual labour with disfavour, if not contempt. Moreover, in
India, if we expect, as we must, every boy and girl of school-going age to attend public
schools, we have not the means to finance education in accordance with the existing style,
be free. I fancy that, even under an ideal system of government, we shall not be able to
devote two thousand million rupees which we should require for funding education for all the
children of school-going age. It follows therefore that our children must be made to pay in
labour partly or wholly for all the education they receive. Such universal labour to be
profitable can only be (to my thinking) hand spinning and hand weaving. But for the
purposes of my proposition, it will be found upon examination, that on a practical, profitable
and extensive scale, there is no occupation other than the processes connected with cloth-
production which can be introduced in our schools throughout India.

42
The author objects to education being merely literary because :

80% of our people do not know to read or write
it makes the learners unfit for manual labour
Printing books is expensive
None of the above

43
The draflt5/wback of our education system is that :

it is confined to books
it gives no practical training to earn ones bread
in a country where majority of people subsist on manual labour it weens the children
away from labour
it is expensive

44
Pick out the statement that most closely expresses the sentiments of the author.

That education is best which makes a Tailors son a better tailor, a labourers son a
better labourer
Let them earn for whatever they learn
Education ought to produce the sons of the soil and not take sons away from the soil
Cloth production is the only way for universal education

45
The author is most likely a/an :

Social Scientist
Policy advisor in the PMO at Delhi
Social Psychologist
Educationist
46
The tone of the passage is :

harsh and critical
elucidatory and complacent
bitterly satirical
nostalgic

Directions for Q.47- 50: Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Thomas J efferson, one of the founders of the United States of America, remarked, If a

nation expects to be ignorant and free, it expects what never was and never will be.
When a republic comes to birth, it is the leaders who produce the institutions. Later, it is
the institutions which produce the leaders. The question where are the leaders of
tomorro ? can only be answered by the other question where are the nation
building institutions which can produce the leaders of tomorrow ?
Do we have educational institutions which aim at generating excellence, and which are
equipped to produce movers of people, mobilizers of opinion integrated personalities
whose minds, hearts and character have been developed in the noble traditions of our
invaluable heritage ?
I am using the word education in its profound sense. Animals can be trained; only
human beings can be educated. Education requires personal participation and
transformation. It cannot be given to anyone; it must be inwardly appropriated. It involves
cultivation of the mind, not merely with a view of offering it as a commodity for sale in the
marketplace.
H. G. Wells wisely observed that human history is becoming more and more a race
between education and catastrophe. This observation indicates what our people without
education are heading for.
The child is father of the man. The quality of education of the children of today will
determine the quality of life in India tomorrow.
In ancient shadows and twilights
Where childhood had strayed,
The worlds great sorrows were born
And its heroes were made.
In the lost boyhood of J udas
Christ was betrayed. .

47
J effersons statement can be best interpreted as :

Knowledge is contrary to slavery
Ignorance cannot lead to freedom
Freedom can not survive amidst ignorance of economy
Ignorance and Freedom cannot co-exist

48
The author quotes the remark of Thomas J efferson with the intent
of:

stressing the invalidity of Education in a free society.
stressing the crucial role of education in sustaining free
societies.
stressing the lack of good educational institutions in our
country.
stressing the importance of freedom.
49
Nations are built through institutions that :

give education
impart training in leadership
generate and preserve excellence
are founded by leaders

50

policy maker in defence
creative analyst
newspaper columnist
marketing guru

QUANTATIVE

51
If x is very large, then 2x/(1 +x) is

close to 0
arbitrarily large
close to 2
greater than 2 but less than 3

52
What is the smallest possible value of xy, if 2x 4 6 and 8 y 5?

30
150
15
52

53
A point on the line 3x +5y =15 and equidistant from the coordinate axes, lies in:

None of the quadrants
quadrants I and II only
quadrant I only
quadrants, I, II and III only
If and be roots + 6 =0; then
54

+ =0
=
+ =1
2
=

55
The following figure shows a set of concentric squares. If the diagonal of the innermost
square is 3 units, and if the distance between the corresponding corners of any two
successive squares is 1.5 unit, find the difference between the areas of the eighth and
the ninth square, counting from the innermost square.

67.5
76.5
3
153

56
A magazine distributor made 5500 copies of May issue of the magazine at a cost of Rs.
550,000. He gave 500 copies free to some libraries. He also allowed a 25% discount on
the market price of the magazine and gave one extra copy free with every 49 copies
bought at a time. In this manner, he was able to sell all the 5500 copies that were
produced. If the market price of a copy was Rs. 200, what is his gain or loss per cent for
the May issue of magazine?

25% gain
33.6% gain
40% loss
26.8% loss

57
The weight of an empty bucket is 25% of the weight of the bucket when filled with some
liquid. Some of the liquid has been removed. Then, the bucket, along with the remaining
liquid, weighed three-fifth of the original weight. What fractional part of the liquid has been
removed?

2/5
8/15
7/13
5/8

58
Let y =min {( x +6), ( 4 x)}. If x R, what is the maximum value of y?

4
5
6
10

59
A sphere of diameter 40 cm is completely enclosing a right circular cone of height not
more than 16 cm and base radius not more than 12 cm. The minimum volume of sphere
still outside to cone would be:

nearly 99% of the sphere's volume
nearly 92% of the sphere's volume
not more than 25% of the sphere's volume
not more than 33.33% of the sphere's volume

60
The following diagram represents a frustum of a cone whose bottom and top radii are 8
cm and 4 cm. Its height is 9 cm. There is a conical cavity to a height of 6 cm at the
bottom. What is the ratio of conical cavity to the material in the solid?

6 : 13
8 : 13
13 : 21
None of these

61
If + + +. =54. Where [ ] is the
greatest integer function .What is the value of n?

26
27
28
29

62
Mrs. Kapoor goes to the market and after hassling with the fruit vendor is able to get the
price of a dozen bananas reduced by Rs. 1, from the initial price. Thus she gets one
banana extra for every rupee saved. The initial and final prices of a dozen bananas are
(in Rs.) :

9, 8
12, 11
14, 13
24, 23

63
A company makes toy cars at a production cost of Rs 17.50 per unit. A market survey
reveals that 10% of the product will be lost, 5% will be rejected, 5% will decay and 5% will
be stolen. At what unit price must the company sell it to realize 28% profit?

Rs. 29.86
Rs. 28
Rs. 31.70
Rs. 20.5

64
Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total no. of
remaining bullets is equal to that of one has after division. Find the original number
divided.

26
18
16
6

65
A natural number x is chosen at random from the first 150 natural numbers, then the
probability that is

11
/
20
7
/
10
None of these
66
Direction for question
(x) =Least integer greater than or equal to x,
[x] =Greatest integer less than or equal to x,
|x| =absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ) =Least of a, b, c, .
mx ( a, b, c, ) =Highest of a, b, c, .

If x is any real number then the value of (x) - [x] is

0
1
1
1 or 0

67
Direction for question:
|x| =absolute value of x, mn (a, b, c, ) =Least of a, b, c, .

Which of the following holds good?

[|x|] =| [x ] |
[ | x | ] <| [ x ] |
[ | x | ] >| [ x]|
None of these

68
|x| =absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ) =Least of a, b, c, .

If mx (mn (a, b) |a|, | b| ) = mn ( mx (a, b), |a| ) holds good for any two
real numbers a and b, then

a <0, b <0
a <0, b >0
a >0, b <0
a >0, b >0
69
Bag A contains X coins of 50 paise and Y coins of 25 paise. Bag B contains X coins of 25
paise and Y coins of 50 paise. If two coins of 50 paise from bag A are put into bag B and
3 coins of 25 paise from bag B are put into bag A, the value of money in both the bags
will become equal. What may be the minimum value of the total amount in both the bags?

Rs 10
Rs 3
Rs 4
Rs 1.25

70
Mr. J ill requires Rs 6000 per month to maintain his family. He saves 20% of any amount
that he earns above Rs. 6000 but below Rs 7000 in a month. He saves 30% of amount
that he earns above Rs 7000 but below Rs 8000 in a month. If Mr. J ill spends Rs 6975 on
a month, what is his income for that month?

Rs 7150
Rs 7250
Rs 7500
Rs 7100

71
All possible two-factor products are formed from the numbers 1, 2, .,100. The number
of factors out of the total obtained which are multiple of 3 is

2211
4950
2739
None of these
72
The number of ways in which ten candidates A
1
, A
2
, .A
10
can be ranked such that
A
1
is always above A
10
is

5!
2 (5!)
10!
(10!)
73
In the figure EFGH is formed by joining midpoints of consecutive sides of square KLMN.
Figures PQRS and ABCD are also formed similarly.
ABCD : KLMN is :

1 : 4
1 : 8
1 : 16
None of these

74
A square of side 3 cm is taken and two equilateral triangles are drawn on the opposite
sides.
Find the area common to both triangles.

None of these

75
Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a
cubical box with six different colours for different faces of the cube.
The detailed account of it is given as:-
(a) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces.
(b) Green face should be adjacent to the silver face.
(c) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green face.
(d) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one.
(e) Brown face should face down.
(f) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other.

The face opposite to Red is

Yellow
Green
Pink
Silver

76
Directions for question: A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different
colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:-
The upper face is

Red
Pink
Yellow
Silver

77
Directions for question:
A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six
different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given
as:-

The faces adjacent to Green are

Yellow, Pink, Red, Silver
Brown, Pink, yellow, Silver
Silver, Pink, Green
Yellow, Pink, Green
78
A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours
for different
faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:-
The face opposite to Silver is

Pink
Brown
Red
Green
79
A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different

Three of the faces adjacent to Red face are

Silver, Green, Brown
Silver, Brown, Pink
Silver, Pink, Green
Yellow, Pink, Green

80
(AA)
2
=DCBA. where A, B, C and D are the distinct digits and B is odd. Then D =

5
6
4
3

81
A certain clock marks every hour by striking a number of times equal to the hour and
the time required for a stroke is exactly equal to the time interval between strokes. At
9 : 00 a.m. the time lapse between the beginning of the first stroke and the end of the
last stroke is 34 seconds. At 18 : 00 hrs. how many seconds elapse between the
beginning of the first stroke and the end of the last stroke :

70
43
36
22
82
485 machine parts were to be manufactured by some workers in 5 days. Every day
after the first, 4 more men were put onto the job and every day after the first, each
person manufactured 3 fewer parts. The results was that during the latter part of the
period, the daily number of manufactured part began to go down

What was the no. of parts manufactured on the third day?

196
121
81
172
83
485 machine parts were to be manufactured by some workers in 5 days. Every day after
the first, 4 more men were put onto the job and every day after the first, each person
manufactured 3 fewer parts. The results was that during the latter part of the period, the
daily number of manufactured part began to go down.

What was the attendance on the fifth day?

24
20
22
19

84
A sum of Rs 3328 is divided among A, B and C so that if Rs. 35, Rs. 51 and Rs. 74 be
diminished from their shares respectively, the remainders shall be in the ratio of 9 : 11 :
16. Find the share of each.

Rs. 827, 1019, 1482
Rs. 909, 1010, 1409
Rs. 846, 1042, 1440
Rs. 797, 1061, 1470

85
The factors of ( ) are

not possible
( )( )
( + )( )
( + )( )

86
Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time t =0, both are at the bottom of the wall.
Bug A climbs at the rate of 3 inches a minute. Bug B climbs at the rate of 4 inches a
minute. Due to the slippery wall, however, Bug A slips back 1 inch for every 2 inches
climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1
minute after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes.
Assume that slipping occurs continuously when climbing.

At what height do the two bugs meet each other?

Do not meet
3 inches
5 inches
12 inches

87

What is the widest gap achieved between the bugs, within the first 10 minutes ?

2 inches
3 inches
2.5 inches
5 inches

88

If Bug B does not have rest periods, how many times do the bugs meet in the first 10
minutes?

6
1
2
3

89

If the wall is 1 foot high, but when A reaches the top, how far is Bug B behind?

3 inches
2 inches
2.5 inches
3.5 inches

90

What is the average speed of Bug A for the first 9 minutes?

1.75 in/min
1 in/min
0.75 in/min
2 in/min

91
Two trains start from stations A and B spaced 50 kms apart at the same time and speed.
As the trains start, a bird flies from one train towards the other and on reaching the
second train, it flies back to the first train. This is repeated till the trains collide. If the
speed of the trains is 25 km/h and that of the bird is 100km/h. How much did the bird
travel till the collision?

98.75 km
100 km
95.5 km
None of these

92
Ram, Shyam and Gumnaam are friends. Ram is a widower and lives alone and his sister
takes care of him. Shyam is a bachelor and his niece cooks his food and looks after his
house. Gumnaam is married to Gita and lives in large house in the same town. Gita gives
the idea that all of them could stay together in the house and share monthly expenses
equally. During their first month of living together, each person contributed Rs.25. At the
end of the month, it was found that Rs 92 was the expense so the remaining amount was
distributed equally among everyone. The distribution was such that everyone received a
whole number of Rupees. How much did each person receive?

4
2
Not possible
None of these

93
N, a set of natural numbers is partitioned into subsets S
1
={1}S
2
=(2, 3) S
3
{4, 5, 6}S
4
={7, 8, 9, 10}and so on.

The first term of the subset S
25
is :

201
301
402
160

94
1
={1}S
2

=(2, 3) S
3
{4, 5, 6}S
4
={7, 8, 9, 10}and so on.

The sum of the elements of the subset S
30
is :

12505
14115
13515
16505

95
1
={1}S
2
=(2, 3) S
3
{4, 5, 6}S
4
={7, 8, 9, 10}and so on.

The last term of the subset S
15
is :

120
125
130
145

96
180 guests have to be brought for a marriage. The following two types
of buses are available ;
1. Mini buses with a seating capacity of 18 passengers each.
2. Buses with a seating capacity of 61 passenger each.
What are the minimum No. of buses needed for the trip provided no
guest is to travel without seat.

3
4
6
10
97

The capacity of tank B is 1000 lts and that of tank A =3000 lts
Tank B is completely inside tank A. 1, 3 are inlet
pipes; 2, 4 outlet pipes.
1 takes 20 min to fill tank A
3 takes 10 min to fill tank B
4 takes 40 min to empty tank B
2 takes 20 min to empty tank A
If all the pipes are opened when would the tank A be filled?

30 min
min
min
None of these

98
In the figure find b in terms of a. c & d.

b =c +d a
b =( c +d a) /2
b =a c +d
b =a c d
If bc : ac : ab =1 : 2: 3, find

3 : 2
4 : 1
2 : 1
3 : 4
99

100
A train, travelling at the rate of 19.5 miles an hour started at 8.00 a.m. on a journey of 234
miles. A second train started from the same station; its speed was to that of the former as
8 : 5 and arrived 20 minutes after the first time. When did the second train start?

12.50 p.m.
1.30 p.m.
11 a.m.
10.30 a.m.

Directions for questions 101 105: These questions are based on the following diagram.

101
Which bank showed a loss whose deviation from the average was maximum?

Indian Bank
Vijaya Bank
Central Bank
United Bank

102
Which of the following is true?
I. The loss incurred by Indian Bank is equal to the loss incurred by all the other banks
given
II. If the Reserve Bank of India ploughs in approx. Rs. 2300 crore, the losses suffered by
the given banks can be offset.
III. Indian Bank will almost surely lose its popularity soon.

I & II
II only
II & III
I, II & III

103
Finding no other alternative of increasing the income, Vijaya Bank decided to generate
income by raising the lending rates. If the total amount loaned out by it was Rs. 8250
crore, by how many percent points would it have to increase the lending rates so as to
offset its losses?

Around 5
Around 2.5
Around 1
Can't determine

104
The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO
Bank, United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%,
13% & 12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. Which of the following banks shows the
maximum loss per crore rupees of assets?

Indian
Vijay
UCO
United

105
The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO
Bank, United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%,
13% & 12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. What change would have to be made in the
assets of the Indian Bank if its loss per crore of asset was to be made equal to that in
case of Central Bank?

They will have to be increased by 62%
They will have to be reduced by 15%
They will have to be increased by 215%

Directions for questions 106 110: These questions are based on data given below

DATA ON COFFEE AND TEA DRINKERS (000's)
1971 1981
Men Women Children Men Women Children
Coffee drinkers 50 60 2 120 140 30

106
What percentage of the total population in 1971 drank coffee?

45%
50%
20%
None of these

107
The increase in woman coffee drinkers from 1971 to 1981 was about

233%
80%
120 %
133%

108
The number of children who drink either beverage increased over the two periods by

37000
9500
28000
37500
109
In 1971, out of every 100 men, how many drank neither coffee nor tea (assume that there
was nobody drink both)?

30
27.3
28.5
None of these

110
In 1981, how many children drank milk?

140000
100000
140000
can't say

Directions for questions 111 115: The nation of Zox consists of five islands Zog, Zod, Zob,
Zop and Zoz. The total population of all the five islands is 750 Zoxians.
(A) The smallest island has as many Zoxians as all of Zox.

(B) The largest island is Zod. The smallest island is not Zoz.
(C) One island has of the total population of Zox. Another island has

(D) Zob is one and a half times larger than one of the other islands.
(E) Zop has 100 more people than the smallest island.

111
Which is the smallest island?

Zog
Zob
Zop
None of the above

112
What is the sum of the population of Zod and Zob?

275
250
325
400

113
What is the sum of population of Zop and Zoz?

250
275
350
400
114
The sum of the population of which two islands is more than half the total population of
Zox?

Zod and Zop
Zod and Zob
Zod and Zoz
Both option (A) & (B)

115
What is the population of the island of Zoz?

75
100
150
150

Directions for questions 116 120: The questions are based on the following pie-charts.

FEMININE CARE PRODUCT Mkt Size : Rs 75
Crores.

DISPOSABLE DIAPERS Mkt. Size. 10 Crores.

116
Procter and Gamble's turnover from the two personal care segments amounted to what
percentage approximately of the total turnover in these segments of the entire market?

34%
30%
27%
None of these

117
If J .K. Helen Curtis is to get a market share in the disposable diapers market equal to that
it has in feminine care product, what should it s turnover (Rs. crores) in this segments be
given that the sales of other companies in disposable diapers market does not change?

1
2.3
1.11
None of these

118
If the market size of the feminine care products increases by 25%, the turnover of
J ohnson and J ohnson in this segment will increase by how many crores of rupees
(assume the market shares of various companies remain the same) ?

10.25
13
11.25
None of these

119
The percentage share of J ohnson and J ohnson in the two personal care market
segments together is greater than the percentage share of Regency Drapers in these two
segment together by how many percentage points.

50.8
25.3
42
None of these
120
If in value terms all the other companies retain their share of the diapers market, by how
much (Rs crores) should Procter and Gamble's turnover in this segment increase to get a
25% share?

2.93
3.23
2.52
None of these

Directions for questions 121 125: These questions are
based on the following data.

Electricity
Generation
Percentage change over
million kwh (June
1996)
last
month
last
three
months
last
twelve
months
Hydel
Generation
5038 2.4 2.3 20.3
Thermal
Generation
25247 10.3 12.7 2.7
Total 30285 8.4 10.6 2.0

121
What was the proportion of Hydel generation in total electricity generation in May
1996?

15%
20%
25%
None of these
122
What was the thermal generation in March 1996 (million kwh)?

38919
28919
20000
None of these

123
What was the total power generation in J anuary 1996 (million kwh)?

40000
50000
30000
Can't determine

124
What was the proportion of Thermal generation in total electricity generation in J une
1995?

80%
70%
60%
50%

125
What was the ratio of hydel generation to thermal generation in March 1996?

1 : 6
1 : 3
1 : 9
None of these

Directions for questions 126 131 :

Duloc and his pals held bake sales and earned enough money to take a field trip with their
teacher Mr. Oonla. In fact they made enough to go all the way to Earth!
When they arrived at the third planet in the Solar System, they discovered that the
gravitational pull was different from what they were used to back on Nolu Si.
Mr. Oonla was curious about the difference in weight and how much each of his
students weighted in Earth ounces. An Earth ounce is equivalent to 11 Nolu Si ounces,
except that on Nolu Si the measurement is not called ounces but qinae.
He found the following:
Sio weighs 50.6 qinae. He outweighs everyone except Phren, who weighs 13.2 qinae
more.
Ontrus, the lightest, weighs 27.5 qinae less than Duloc.
J orn weighs 5.5 qinae less than Sio and 2.2 qinae more than Duloc.
126
Who is the heaviest of the lot of five children?

Sio
Phren
J orn
Ontrus
127
What is the difference between the percentage difference in weight of Sio and Phren
in ounces and qinae?

12
36
48
None of the above
128
What is the Phrens weight on Earth (in Ounces)

5.8
4.6
4.1
3.9

129
What is Ontrus weight on Nolu si?

15.4
42.9
45.1
50.6

130
What is J orns weight on Earth?

3.9
4.1
4.6
1.4
131
What is the percentage difference in the weights of Sio and Phren?

26.08
30.16
24.91
Cant be determined

132
Direction for question: The following question is followed by two
statements "1" and "2", as the answer.

In how many days would the lawn be mowed?
1. Ram alone can mow it in 17 days whereas Ganesh and Sohan
together can do it in 12 days
2. One of Ram, Ganesh and Sohan works on the job everyday.

If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the
question.
If the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone.
If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the
statements.

133
Direction for question: The following question is followed by two statements "1" and "2",
as the answer.

What are the three numbers?
1. Their sum is 61.
2. These are three consecutive prime numbers

If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question.
If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
134
In how much time will the train pass the man?
1. The 200 meters long train is running at a speed of 60 kmph
2. The man is walking at a speed of 5 m/s

If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question.
If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.

Directions for questions 135 140: Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.
FDI Inflows in India & Competing Countries
1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Indonesia 1482 1777 2004 2109 4346 6194 4673 356 3270
Malaysia 3998 5183 5006 4342 4178 5078 5106 3727 3532
Philippines 544 228 1238 1591 1478 1517 1222 1713 737
Singapore 4887 2204 4686 8550 7206 7884 9710 7218 6984
Sri Lanka 48 123 194 166 56 120 430 345 202
Thailand 2014 2114 1805 1364 2068 2336 3733 6969 6078
Vietnam 229 385 1002 1500 2000 2500 2950 1900 1609
China 4366 11156 27515 33787 35849 40180 44236 45460 40400
India 155 233 550 973 2144 2426 3351 2258 2168
Argentina 2439 4045 2763 3432 5279 6513 8094 5697 23153
Brazil 1103 2061 1294 2589 5475 10496 18745 28718 31397
Chile 523 699 1034 2583 2977 4724 5417 4792 9221
Colombia 457 729 960 1444 968 3123 5701 2983 1396
US $ Million
135
What was the ratio of highest FDI inflow in any country in any year to the lowest in
any country in any year?

947.08
912.25
998.74
904.36
136
What is the percentage increase in FDI inflow in India from 1991 to 1999?

1298.7%
1340.46%
1212.36%
1476.64%
137
For 19941995, the FDIs of how many countries showed a decline of more than 5%?

2
3
4
1
138
What is the ratio of Indias highest FDI in all the years to Chinas lowest FDI in all the
years?

0.68
0.43
0.76
0.71

139
If 20% of FDI in India went to the Power sector and 34% to the Infotech
sector in 1999, then what amount (in US $ million) went to the above
two sectors in 1999?

415, 712
432, 712
415, 737
433, 737
140
How many times has the FDI in any country mentioned gone beyond 5000 US $ million?

35
31
34
37

Directions for questions 141 145: are based on the following table. All Figures in Crores.

Revenue
Expenditure
Total
cost of
Service
Total
recoveries
Recovery
rate
Subsidy (as % of
Total subsidy)
Departmental Enterprises
Social Services 457 561 198 35.2 0.86
Economic Services 14061 22618 15363 67.92 17.14
Non Departmental Enterprises
Social Services 82 149 20 13.40 0.31
Economic
Services
6033 9768 3029 31.01 15.92
Cooperati ves
Social Services 5 29 4 14.06 0.06
All Public Enterprises
Social Services 544 740 222 29.97 1.22
Of which Central Public Enterprises
16485 23814 14601 61.31 21.77
State Public Enterprises
4387 10021 4155 41.46 13.86
141
The recovery rate has been calculated as:

1/ (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries)
1 / (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries) 100
1/ (Total cost of Service / Total recoveries)
1 / (Total Cost of Service / Total recoveries) 100
142
If it is known that the subsidy given to the cooperative is Rs. 593
crores, then what, in Rs. crore, is the subsidy given to the Non
departmental enterprises?

6874
8874
7874
Can't determine
143
If it is known that the subsidy given to the cooperative is Rs. 593 crores then what is the
subsidy given to the social services of the Departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)?

36.4
364
3640
Can't determine
144
If it is known that the subsidy given to the cooperative is Rs. 593 crores, then what is the
difference in the subsidies given to the Economic and social services of the Non
departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)?

4600
5600
6600
None of these

145
For departmental and nondepartmental enterprises, the total recoveries from social
services form what percentage of the total recoveries from economic services?

1.2%
2.2%
3.2%
None of these

Directions for questions 146 150:
Four students of I.I.T. College: - Harry, Nipun, Rahul, Ashish went to Taj hotel. Each
ordered different food items. Food items available at that time were Masala Dosa, Idly
Sambar, Noodles, and Manchurian. However none ate what any of the others ate. When
they returned to their college they asked their college mates to guess what they had eaten
at hotel. Each makes two false statements and one true statement. Read their statements
and answer the questions that follow.
Harry: I ate Masala Dosa. Nipun ate Idly Sambar. Rahul did not eat Manchurian.
Rahul: Harry ate Masala Dosa. Nipun did not eat Masala Dosa. I ate Manchurian.
Nipun: Rahul ate Manchurian. I did not eat Idly Sambar. Ashish didnt eat noodles.
Ashish: I ate Idly Sambar. Nipun ate Manchurian. Harry ate noodles.
146
Harry ate

Noodles
Manchurian
Idly Sambar
Masala Dosa
147
Nipun ate

Noodles
Manchurian
Idly Sambar
Masala Dosa
148
Rahul ate

Noodles
Manchurian
Idly Sambar
Masala Dosa
149
Ashish ate

Noodles
Manchurian
Idly Sambar
Masala Dosa
150
Which of the following is false?

Rahuls second statement is true.
Harrys second statement is true.
Nipuns second statement is true.
Ashishs second statement is true.
ANSWERS

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=========================================================================
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Question 1
Direction for question: The following question consists of four statements. You have to
select the option representing the most coherent sequencing of the given statements.

A. He was a socialist and had the reputation of being sympathetic to the Indian cause.

B. The proposals he had brought were however, not so favourable.

C. Sir Stafford Cripps reached Delhi on March 22. 1942.

D. He was known to be a personal friend of Jawahar Lal Nehru and other Indian leaders.
(1) CDBA (2) BCDA (3) CDAB (4) DCBA

The right answer is CDAB .
In this question the obvious statement to start with is C. This is because it introduces Cripps and
the other statements are referring to Cripps as he. Also AB is the key. A statement says that
Cripps was considered to be sympathetic to Indian cause and B logically follows as it says
proposals however were not so favorable. This is true for (C) choice. Hence (C) is the correct
option choice.
=========================================================================
Question 2

A. It continued its deliberations for many days over Gandhijis new slogan to the nation.
B. On July 14, 1942 the Committee passed a long resolution - " Quit India" resolution.

C. The Working Committee of the Congress met at Wardha.

D. It demanded that the British rule in India must end.
(1) BCDA (2) CABD (3) BCAD (4) ADBC

The right answer is CABD.
Here, BD is the key. B statement talks about Quit Indian resolution. The logical statement to
follow is D as it talks about what was the motive or what was the demand under this resolution.
This key is present only in option (B) and hence the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 3

A. You may imprint it on your hearts and let every breath of yours give expression to it.

B. We shall either free India or die in the perpetuation of our slavery.

C. Here is a " mantra" , a short one that I give.

D. The " mantra" is: " Do or Die."
(1) ACDB (2) BCDA (3) ACBD (4) CADB

The right answer is CADB.
The most general statement to start with is obviously C. Also, DB is a key. D tells about the
mantra Do or Die and B statement then explains it. This is true only for option (D). Moreover (D)
is the only option choice that puts all the given statement in a proper sequence.
=========================================================================
===
Question 4

A. His inner voice spoke two words " Quit India."

B. The failure of Cripps Mission disheartened the people.

C. The day Cripps left was Sunday.

D. Gandhiji pondered over the difficult situation, on Monday his day of silence, as to what
could be the solution?
(1) BCDA (2) ACBD (3) DCBA (4) CBAD

The right answer is BCDA.
Here CD and DA are the keys. C statement talks Cripps leaving on Sunday and D is the next
logical statement as it talks about Gandhi ji finding a solution on Monday. Also D talks about
Gandhi pondering over a tough situation and A has to follow as his inner voice gave the solution.
This is true only for option (A). Thus (A) option is correct.
=========================================================================
===
Question 5

A. All other developing nations fall far behind.

B. With a large and complex market like India, the report says further, looking at averages
can be deceptive.

C. China's parity is $ 2,870 billion, India's stands at $ 1,105 billion.

D. Among developing countries. India comes second after China in terms of purchasing
power parity.
(1) ABCD (2) DCBA (3) DCAB (4) ABDC

The right answer is DCAB.
The most general statement to start with is D as it introduces the word developing countries as
well as India and China. Also CA is the key. Purchasing power parities the statement that logically
follows the parity of other countries, which A does. This key is present only in option choice (C).
Thus (C) is the correct answer.
Question 6

A. Honesty, truth and loyalty have the foundation of Utopia strong.

B. In Utopia there is no black money, no transaction under table.

C. It is a self-sufficient country with abundant natural resources.

D. It imports less and exports more.
(1) BCAD (2) ADBC (3) CDAB (4) ABCD
The right answer is CDAB.
A is the most general statement as it introduces the word utopia around which the passage
revolves. Also AB is the key. A statement introduces the values of honesty, truth and loyalty and
B substantiates the statement by no transaction under the table. This is clearly on lines with (D)
option. Thus (C) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 7

A. The cottage industries producing a variety of handicrafts boost the country's exports.

B. The economy in Utopia is quite strong; the currency ratings do not fall by the day.

C. There are no prominent classes in Utopian society.

D. It is, more or less, a homogeneous system.
(1) ACDB (2) BCDA (3) ADBC (4) CDAB

The right answer is CDAB.
If we start the passage with A or B statement, C cant follow as AC and BC are not at all
compatible Also, CD is a key as C says that there are no prominent classes in utopian society
and D further explains it by terming it homogeneous. These conditions are satisfied only by
option (D). Thus (D) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 8
Direction for question: Four statements A, B, C, and D are given between two statements 1
and 2. Statements (A, B, C, and D) are jumbled up. You have to select the option which
indicates a logical sequencing of the six taken together.

1. We must be aware that all private industries have not proved successful: there are
hundreds and thousand of sick units.

A. The problem is not choosing between Public Sector and private industry.

B. If public sector is not doing well, we can find out the reasons and remove the detects.

C. There is less chance for corruption and meddling with politics.

D. Some Public Sector units like the ONGC. LIC and other have done quite well.

6. A constructive approach is needed.
(1) ACBD (2) ADCB (3) ABDC (4) BCDA

The right answer is ADCB.
The key to the question is BC. B talks about finding reasons and removing defects. For doing this
in proper manner, a constructive approach is required. This is exactly what is stated in option
choice (B). Thus ADCB is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 9

1. In certain controversial issues the Board of Interview may be interested in your personal
views.

A. Let us take Stale autonomy, sons of the Soil policy. Non-alignment, Prohibition, Public
Sector. Gandhian economy etc.

B. Some simple controversial topics can be cited.

C. Here one must give his/her sincere preferences.

D. If one opposes he/she must say why with convincing and rational reasons.

6. It is quite possible that some Members of the Board may hold rather strong views to the
contrary.
(1) ADCB (2) BCAD (3) BACD (4) ACDB

The right answer is BACD.
The first key to the question is BA. B statement is talking about controversial topics and A
logically follows as it gives examples of the controversial topics. Now, C is most logical statement
to follow because it talks about giving sincere preferences from these topics. So BA and AC are
the keys. These are present only is option (C). Thus (C) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===

Question 10

1. The Chairman starts the interview with some general and casual questions.

A. However, the Chairman and a member subsequently attempt to probe the candidate at
length.

B. The candidate answers the questions freely and frankly.

C. He is free of inhibitions.

D. He frankly admits his reading is not too extensive.

6. He subtly conveys that he reads newspapers and periodicals to keep himself well-
informed.
(1) ABCD (2) DCBA (3) BCDA (4) BACD

The right answer is ABCD.
Here 1A is a strong key, 1
st
statement talks about the chairman starting an interview and A
logically follows as it talks about the chairman probing the candidate at length. D6 is another
strong key. D statement tells that the candidate does not read extensively and 6
th
statement
logically follows as it talks that how the candidate keeps himself well informed despite less
reading. This is true only for option choice (A). Thus (A) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 11

1. The candidate reveals a selective approach and indicates his preferences without
hesitation.

A. He displays consistently a logical, rational and intelligent approach.

B. He is sure of himself.

C. His behaviour is natural and normal - no affectations, air or superficiality.

D. He makes up his mind firmly when required to choose.

6. This indicates his mental stability and consistency.
(1) ACDB (2) BDAC (3) ACBD (4) DBCA

The right answer is DBCA.
In this question A6 is the key. A talks about consistency and 6
th
statement continues the idea as it
also talks about consistency. This key is present only in option choice (D). Thus (D) is the correct
answer.
Question 12

1. Earlier, under cold war conditions we were enjoying the support of Soviet Union.

A. It was the same case with many other countries like Iran, Iraq, Syria, Vietnam etc.

B. Even before disintegration of Russia, America attacked Iraq and liberated Kuwait.

C. We could stand upto American pressure to some extent.

D. The Soviet Union was a mute witness.

6. It allowed the onslaught of U.S. air, land and naval attacks on Iraq.
(1) ACBD (2) BCDA (3) BDCA (4) CABD

The right answer is ACBD.
D6 is a key. D statement says that Soviet Union was a mute witness. 6
th
logically follows as it tells
what happened because of Soviet Union being mute witness. 1A is also a key. 1
st
statement tells
about Soviet support to cold war and A logically follows as it says that same was the case with
other countries. These keys are present only in option (A) and hence the answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 13

1. He is able to think on his feet.

A. He is abreast of the international burning issues and their impact on India.
B. He can think ahead and plan with imagination and enterprise.

C. He succeeds in presenting his views with force and sincerity.

D. He displays readiness to accept responsibility.

6. At the same time he is flexible and has no rigid or predetermined views.
(1) ACBD (2) DBAC (3) ACDB (4) BDAC

The right answer is BDAC.
The first key is 1B. From the 1
st
statement able to think and from B statement can think ahead.
Also, C6 is a key. From C statement presenting his views with force and from 6
th
statement At
the same time he is flexible. This is true only for option (D), hence the answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 14
1. He is an intelligent and well-informed candidate.

A. He is able to decide on the priorities with speed and accuracy.

B. He has significant capacity to motivate and carry his team-mates with him.

C. He is physically fit and mentally alert.

D. He takes reasonable risks unhesitantly.

6. He will prove a real asset to the organisation.
(1) DCBA (2) DACB (3) DBAC (4) ACDB

The right answer is ACDB.
Here 1A is a key. From statement 1, an intelligent candidate. A statement talks about setting
priorities and that can be done by an intelligent person. This key is present in option (D). Thus (D)
is the correct option choice.
Question 15

1. More professional and responsible character should be bestowed on our sports
federation.

A. Some minimum criteria for selection to a post should be prescribed.

B. A healthy public opinion should be generated.

C. Government's interference should be cut to the roots.

D. This will leave little room for government to make vested manoeuvres.

6. Exposure with the game should be the criteria for selection to a post of office bearers.
(1) ADCB (2) ACBD (3) BDCA (4) DBAC

The right answer is BDCA .
In this question, A statement is talking about some minimum criteria for a selection to a post. The
6
th
statement follows logically as it suggests criteria for selection to the post. So A6 is a strong
key. Thus (C) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 16
Direction for question: Select the option representing the best sequence of the four
statements to make proper and coherent paragraph.
A. to put pressure on the authorities in charge to

B. the inhuman treatment meted out to the inmates of

C. Indian prisons has once again forced the human rights activists

D. take steps to amend the same.
(1) DACB (2) CABD (3) ABCD (4) BCAD

The right answer is BCAD.
Here BC have to be together as inhumane treatment matches with inmates of prison. C
introduces human rights activists and A statement continues by talking about putting up pressure
by those activities. So AC is also a key. This is true only for (D) option. Thus (D) is the correct
answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 17

A. one day be able to distinguish between the two realities of

B. life which are

C. it seems, extremely difficult, if not impossible, that humans will

D. objective individualism and selfishness
(1) DBAC (2) CABD (3) CBAD (4) CADB

The right answer is CABD.
AB is the key two realities of life. D logically follows as it tells about these two realities. The
sequence ABD is present only in option (B). Thus, (B) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 18
A. cannot be done away with completely because of

B. the so called fear of foreign aggression and the simultaneous

C. the inborn tendency of man to involve himself in violence

D. desire to gain world supremacy
(1) DABC (2) CABD (3) DACB (4) CBAD

The right answer is CABD .
C statement ends with involve himself in violence. The word desire in D statement and the so
called in B cant continue the idea as it would be incorrect usage of words. Only A statement can
follow C correctly. The key CA is present only in option (B). Thus (B) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 19

A. need them or as usual will adorn the

B. it is still a moot point whether the fruits of

C. corridors of power and the elite abodes

D. economic reforms In India will reach those who most urgently
(1) DACB (2) DABC (3) BADC (4) BDAC

The right answer is BDAC.
The only statement that can logically follow B statement is D. Obviously, fruit of need them or
fruit of corridors does not make any sense. So the key is BD which is present only in option (D).
Thus (D) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===

Question 20
Direction for question: Six statements A, B, C, D, E and F are given. You have to select the
option which indicates the most logical sequencing.

A. A balanced diet is necessary for good health.

B. A balanced diet does not consist of vitamins only.

C. Vitamins prevent deficiency diseases.

D. Proteins too are important ingredient in a balanced diet.

E. Regular consumption of vitamins is essential.

F. Vitamins only are not necessary and sufficient for a good health.
(1) BCD (2) ABC (3) CEF (4) ABF

The right answer is ABF.
A statement talks about balance diet being necessary for good health. B says that vitamins only
cant give balanced diet. The concluding statement should be such that denies only vitamins to be
sufficient of good health. This is done in statement F. Thus ABF i.e. option (D) is the correct
answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 21
A. A witty person need not be humorous.

B. A witty man is an intelligent man.

C. Humour is never sarcastic.

D. A witty man can be sarcastic.

E. Sarcasm is often bitter.

F. An intelligent man can be sarcastic.
(1) BDF (2) ABC (3) CDE (4) DEF

The right answer is BDF .
B statement refers witty man as intelligent and D refers witty man as sarcastic. So, the most
logical sentence to follow would be the one which talks of intelligent man being sarcastic. This is
stated in F statement. So, BDF is a perfect sequence. Thus (A) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 22

A. Rubber trees ooze saps.

B. Tyres are made of sap from trees.

C. Rubber is made from tree-saps.

D. Rubber has been of many uses to mankind.

E. Rubber trees are an important source of raw material for industry.

F. Rubber may be an eco-friendly product.
(1) ABC (2) ACF (3) ABE (4) DEF

The right answer is ACF .
This is a classic example where we dont have correct choices but have to look for the best
choice. Inspite of statement F introducing a new concept, it will still be taken as the correct
choices as the rest of the choices are wholly ambiguous. Hence, answer is (B).
=========================================================================
===
Question 23
A. Politicians are scoundrels.

B. Football is a game for Americans.

C. Politicians love to play soccer.

D. Americans love politicians.

E. Americans love scoundrels.

F. Scoundrels are prohibited from football field.
(1) FED (2) ABE (3) DAF (4) DAE

The right answer is DAE.
D statement says that Americans love politicians. A statement terms Politicians as scoundrels.
The next statement should be the one that should combine both the statements as Americans
love scoundrels. Thus DAE is the correct combination. So, (D) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 24

A. Suresh is Sudhas grand father-in-law.

B. Naresh is Suresh's son.

C. Mohan is one of two grandsons of Suresh.

D. Kamla is Suresh's wife.

E. Kamla is Mohan's grand-mother.

F. Mohan may be Sudha's husband or brother-in-law.
(1) BAF (2) BCD (3) ACF (4) DEF

The right answer is ACF.
A statement talks about Suresh and Sudhas relation. C statement gives relation between Mohan
and Suresh. The most logical sequence would be formed if the next statement suggests about
Mohan and Sudhas relation because Suresh is common in the first two statements. This is done
in F. So, ACF is the correct sequence. Thus (C) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 25
(A) The Indian government's choice

(B) of the EEC as a partner

(C) stem from the fact

(D) that the community is the most important market for India.
(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

The right answer is (C) .
In the (C) part of the statement, it should be stems instead of stem. So, (C) part has an error.
=========================================================================
===
Question 26
(A) Privatisation generally represents

(B) an ideological response

(C) to the perceived problems

(D) in the public sector
(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

The right answer is (D).
This is an easy one to crack if we known that correct preposition usage. The problems perceived
will be of the sector or anything about a point. Therefore, answer is (D).
=========================================================================
===
Question 27
The statement Global companies have no future if the earth has no future in the passage
refers to :
(1) the green revolution (2) the scarcity of natural resources (3) poverty eradication
programmes (4) a healthy natural environment

The right answer is a healthy natural environment.
From the 4
th
line of 1
st
para a healthy natural environment, earth ha no future. Clearly the
author is talking about a peaceful co existence and healthy natural environment for the future of
global companies. (D) option also contains the same idea. Thus (D) is correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 28
The authors social inclination is obvious from the passage.
(1) True (2) False (3) Indeterminate (4) None of these

The right answer is True.
From the entire passage, we can infer that author is inclined towards the social face of
globalization, companies, role of government and also about the environment. So we can say that
we come to know about the social inclination of the author. Thus (A) i.e. True is the correct option
choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 29
Practicing kyosie leads to :
(1) good international relations (2) a strong organizational structure (3) profitable
market share (4) co-operative spirit in building a better world

The right answer is co-operative spirit in building a better world.
From the 2
nd
para, 3
rd
line, kyosei has been explicitly referred as spirit of cooperation. From the
5
th
line of 2
nd
para when practiced . economic transformation. This clearly indicates a
sprit towards building a better world. So, (D) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===

Question 30
Kyosei, as propounded by author, if followed by corporate houses would lead to :
(1) consumer-supplier synchronised relations (2) gains in the competitive international
market for viable players (3) socio economic and political revolutions (4) renewal of
the deteriorating environment

The right answer is socio economic and political revolutions.
3
rd
last line of 2
nd
para explicitly says, kyosei can become a powerful source for social political
and economic transformation. This idea is clearly stated in option (C). Thus, (C) is the correct
choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 31
The need for kyosei in Canon was due to :
(1) international trade developments (2) financial investment at global scale (3) need
for internal corporate changes (4) none of the above

The right answer is international trade developments.
The need for kyosie in Canon is discussed in para 3
rd
. The author has talked about management
of finance and not investment, So, (B) cant be the answer. The author has clearly talked about
doing business on global scale, challenges, fierce competition etc. This clearly suggests that
need of kyosie was due to international trade developments. Thus (A) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 32
The authors Global Activism role can be best described as :
(1) International outlook with a local feel (2) Local perspective for international edge
(3) Managing technological strategies in the foreign market (4) Shifting the rules of
competition

The right answer is Managing technological strategies in the foreign market.
The author has explained global activism in 3
rd
last para. We can say that the author is talking
about global activism in terms of business. Though the author has talked about local people but
the main stress in on R and D facilities, technological etc. in the foreign market. This leads to
managing technological strategies in foreign market as the correct option answer. Thus (C) is
the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 33
The cooperation within and outside the corporate organization necessitates :
(1) competitive salaries and recruitment (2) a need to increase profit (3) dedicated
research of the labour problems (4) a collective integration of promoting the company

The right answer is a collective integration of promoting the company.
The cooperation within and outside is discussed in para 7
th
and 8
th
. From the 7
th
para, 2
nd
line
each employee makes. company success. From 8
th
line of 8
th
para collaborate with
customers. all parties. This clearly suggests that cooperation necessitates a collective
integration for promoting a company. Thus, (D) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 34
The theme of the passage is best reflected by the statement :
(1) Global perspective for managing competitive industries (2) Building dynamic
strategies around your organization (3) Canon, and the secret of its success by kyosei
(4) Co-operation for the common good, through kyosei as shown by Canon

The right answer is Co-operation for the common good, through kyosei as shown by Canon.
The passage revolves around kyosei. Canon is simply an example and so, it cant be the main
theme. Hence, (C) is eliminated. Global perspective and dynamic strategies have been talked
about but through kyosei. Thus (A) and (B) are also eliminated. (D) is the most appropriate option
choice and hence the answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 35
As far as forests are concerned, there is a critical difference between the attitude of
economists and :
(1) government officials (2) forest-dwellers (3) forest officials (4) forest animals

The right answer is forest-dwellers.
From the 2
nd
para, 3
rd
line Forests are evaluated dynamic resource These lines explicitly
indicate the critical difference between the attitude of economists and forest dwellers. Thus (B) is
the correct option choice.
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===
Question 36
No forest resource should be tapped beyond the :
(1) feasible limit (2) renewal limit (3) economic limit (4) None of these

The right answer is renewal limit.
4
th
para, 2
nd
line explicitly says that no forest resource should be tapped beyond the renewal
capacity. Thus (B) is the correct answer choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 37
The rehabilitation stage is a/an :
(1) moderate level of degradation (2) extreme level of degradation (3) intermediate
level of degradation (4) None of these

The right answer is intermediate level of degradation .
From 5
th
para, 3
rd
line The rehabilitation is an intermediate level of degradation. This is clearly
stated in option (C). Thus (C) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 38
Pilferage of wood accounts for :
(1) the gap between for legitimate production and legitimate consumption (2) the gap
between actual production and legitimate consumption (3) the gap between the
legitimate production and consumption (4) the gap between the legitimate production
and actual consumption

The right answer is the gap between the legitimate production and actual consumption.
From the 3
rd
para, 3
rd
line, The colossal gap between actual consumption and legitimate
production of fuel wood is filled by pilferage. The same idea is contained in option (D). Thus (D)
is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 39
Forests are resilient by nature.
(1) True (2) False (3) Cant say (4) None of these

The right answer is True.
From 5
th
para, last two lines tell that restoration is virtually irreversible. Resilient means, stubborn
to change. So we can say that forests are resilient by nature. Thus, (A) i.e. true is correct answer.
=========================================================================
===

Question 40
The restoration stage represents a/an :
(1) reversible process (2) economically infeasible process (3) irreversible process
(4) restoration process

The right answer is irreversible process.
From 5
th
para, 2
nd
last line, we can say that restoration is virtually irreversible. Thus (C) is the
correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 41
At present, due to the huge population, sustainable exploitation of forest is :
(1) impossible (2) possible (3) imperative (4) None of these

The right answer is imperative.
The author is throughout the passage telling us that because of the increasing daybyday
population, the forests are being degenerated. There is also a problem that the land cant be
conserved too because of the same. Hence, the answer is (C).
=========================================================================
===
Question 42
The author objects to education being merely literary because :
(1) 80% of our people do not know to read or write (2) it makes the learners unfit for
manual labour (3) Printing books is expensive (4) None of the above

The right answer is it makes the learners unfit for manual labour.
From the 3
rd
line literary and to unfit boys and girls for manual work in after-life. By this the
author is clearly objecting to education being merely literary, as educated people cant fit
themselves in manual work. Thus (B) is the correct option choice.
Question 43
The draflt5/wback of our education system is that :
(1) it is confined to books (2) it gives no practical training to earn ones bread (3) in a
country where majority of people subsist on manual labour it weens the children away
from labour (4) it is expensive

The right answer is in a country where majority of people subsist on manual labour it weens
the children away from labour.
The author does not say that our education system is confined to books. So, (A) is eliminated.
Also, the author does not talk about no practical training. So (B) eliminated. The authors idea
reflects that education in public schools is expensive but that does not mean that education is
expensive in govt. school also. So, (D) is eliminated. (C) option is the most relevant choice as
author stresses on manual labor and feels that our education system is weaning children away
from labor. Thus, (C) is the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 44
Pick out the statement that most closely expresses the sentiments of the author.
(1)
That education is best which makes a Tailors son a better tailor, a labourers son a better
labourer (2) Let them earn for whatever they learn (3) Education ought to produce the
sons of the soil and not take sons away from the soil (4) Cloth production is the only way
for universal education

The right answer is Let them earn for whatever they learn.
Education which makes a tailors son a better tailor cant be referred as best. Also, cloth
production cant be the only way for universal education. So, A and D statements are
eliminated. C statement talks about brain drain, take sons away from soil. So, it is absurd. Thus
the only option that can be the answer is (B).
=========================================================================
===
Question 45
(1) Social Scientist (2) Policy advisor in the PMO at Delhi (3) Social Psychologist (4)
Educationist

The right answer is Educationist .
The entire passage is about education and the problems related to educating children. So, it is
obvious that the author is an educationist. Thus, (D) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 46
The tone of the passage is :
(1) harsh and critical (2) elucidatory and complacent (3) bitterly satirical (4)
nostalgic

The right answer is harsh and critical.
There is no touch of satire, complacency or nostalgia in the stone of the passage. The author is
infact being harsh and critical. So, (A) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 47
Jeffersons statement can be best interpreted as :
(1) Knowledge is contrary to slavery (2) Ignorance cannot lead to freedom (3)
Freedom can not survive amidst ignorance of economy (4) Ignorance and Freedom
cannot co-exist

The right answer is Ignorance and Freedom cannot co-exist .
From the 1
st
line of the passage itself, If the nation .. never will be. This clearly means that
ignorance and freedom cannot coexist. Thus (D) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 48
The author quotes the remark of Thomas Jefferson with the intent of:
(1) stressing the invalidity of Education in a free society. (2) stressing the crucial role of
education in sustaining free societies. (3)
stressing the lack of good educational institutions in our country. (4) stressing the
importance of freedom.

The right answer is stressing the crucial role of education in sustaining free societies..
Option (D) is absurd in context to the passage as importance of freedom has not been discussed
anywhere. (A) and (C) option are eliminated as they are contrary to what is said in the passage.
The passage is talking about crucial role of education to produce leader and integrated
personalities. Thus (B) is the correct option choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 49
Nations are built through institutions that :
(1) give education (2) impart training in leadership (3) generate and preserve
excellence (4) are founded by leaders

The right answer is generate and preserve excellence.
The author has discussed the role of educational institutions in the building of nation in the 2
nd

para. From 1
st
line of 2
nd
para, institutions which aim at generating excellence. This clearly leads
us to option choice (C) as the correct answer.
=========================================================================
===
Question 50
(1) policy maker in defence (2) creative analyst (3) newspaper columnist (4)
marketing guru

The right answer is newspaper columnist.
Policy maker in defense, creative analyst and marketing guru are absurd in context to the
passage. The only option that fits in the best is newspaper columnist. Thus, (C) is the correct
answer choice.
=========================================================================
===
Question 51
If x is very large, then 2x/(1 + x) is
(1) close to 0 (2) arbitrarily large (3) close to 2 (4) greater than 2 but less than 3

The right answer is close to 2.
=
When x 0
Value of =2.
=========================================================================
===
Question 52
What is the smallest possible value of xy, if 2x 4 6 and 8 y 5?
(1) 30 (2) 150 (3) 15 (4) 52

The right answer is 15.
8 y 5 y 3
2x 4 6 x 5
Value of xy will be minimum when x =5 & y =3
And minimum value =3 5 =15.
=========================================================================
===
Question 53
A point on the line 3x + 5y = 15 and equidistant from the coordinate axes, lies in:
(1) None of the quadrants (2) quadrants I and II only (3) quadrant I only (4)
quadrants, I, II and III only

The right answer is quadrant I only.
The line has positive x and y intercepts.
=========================================================================
===
Question 54
If and be roots + 6 = 0; then
(1) + = 0 (2) = (3) + = 1 (4)
2
=

The right answer is + = 0.
=x when x 0
= x when x <0
If x <0, given equation is
x
2
x 6 =0 x =3, 2, but x is negative so x = 2 is a solution.
If x 0 given equation is x
2
+x 6 =0 x = 3, 2 but x is positive so x =2 is a solution
So the roots of equation are 2 and 2 sum of roots =2 2 =0
=========================================================================
===
Question 55
The following figure shows a set of concentric squares. If the diagonal of the innermost
square is 3 units, and if the distance between the corresponding corners of any two
successive squares is 1.5 unit, find the difference between the areas of the eighth and the
ninth square, counting from the innermost square.

(1) 67.5 (2) 76.5 (3) 3 (4) 153

The right answer is 76.5.
The diagonal of the innermost square is 3 and the diagonals of subsequent squares increase by
3.
So, the diagonals will take values 3, 6, 9, 12, ----. The diagonals of the 8
th
and the 9
th
squares will
be 24 and 27 respectively. The areas of these squares will be (24)
2
and (27)
2
, the difference
between their areas is (729-576) =76.5.
=========================================================================
===
Question 56
A magazine distributor made 5500 copies of May issue of the magazine at a cost of Rs.
550,000. He gave 500 copies free to some libraries. He also allowed a 25% discount on the
market price of the magazine and gave one extra copy free with every 49 copies bought at
a time. In this manner, he was able to sell all the 5500 copies that were produced. If the
market price of a copy was Rs. 200, what is his gain or loss per cent for the May issue of
magazine?
(1) 25% gain (2) 33.6% gain (3) 40% loss (4) 26.8% loss

The right answer is 33.6% gain.
Number of copies produced =5500
Free copies given away =500
Number of copies left for sale =5000
But he gives one copy free with every 49 copies.
This means, for every 50 copies sold, he gets the price of only 49 copies.
For 5000 copies, he gets the price of 49 =4900 copies only.
Market price of a copy =Rs. 200
Discount =25%
Selling price of a copy =200 75/100 =Rs. 150
Selling price of 4900 copies =4900 150 =Rs. 735000
Cost price =Rs. 550000
Gain =Rs. 185000 =33.6% of 550000.
=========================================================================
===
Question 57
The weight of an empty bucket is 25% of the weight of the bucket when filled with some
liquid. Some of the liquid has been removed. Then, the bucket, along with the remaining
liquid, weighed three-fifth of the original weight. What fractional part of the liquid has been
removed?
(1) 2/5 (2) 8/15 (3) 7/13 (4) 5/8

The right answer is 8/15.
Let 100 units be the weight of the bucket filled with liquid. then this weight comprises 75 liquid
and 25 units empty bucket weight of the bucket with some liquid removed =3/5
th
of original
weights =60 units.
Of this 60 units, 25 units is the weight of the empty bucket.
Weight of the liquid removed =75 35 =40 units.
Fraction of the liquid removed =40/75 =8/15.
=========================================================================
===
Question 58
Let y = min { ( x + 6), ( 4 x)}. If x R, what is the maximum value of y?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 10
Consider the graph of y =x +6 and y =4 x as shown below.
At point P i.e. the point of intersection we get the maximum value of Y
i.e. Min. of {(1 +6), ( 4 +1)}. i.e. 5.
=========================================================================
===
Question 59
A sphere of diameter 40 cm is completely enclosing a right circular cone of height not
more than 16 cm and base radius not more than 12 cm. The minimum volume of sphere
still outside to cone would be:
(1) nearly 99% of the sphere's volume (2) nearly 92% of the sphere's volume (3) not
more than 25% of the sphere's volume (4) not more than 33.33% of the sphere's volume

The right answer is nearly 92% of the sphere's volume.
Take the ratios of the volumes to get :
Vol of cone Vol of sphere =1/3 r
2
h 4/3R
3
=9/125 =7.2%.
=========================================================================
===
Question 60
The following diagram represents a frustum of a cone whose bottom and top radii are 8 cm
and 4 cm. Its height is 9 cm. There is a conical cavity to a height of 6 cm at the bottom.
What is the ratio of conical cavity to the material in the solid?

(1) 6 : 13 (2) 8 : 13 (3) 13 : 21 (4) None of these

The right answer is 8 : 13 .
The volume of frustum h/3 (a
2
+ab +b
2
) =9/3 (64 +32 +16) =336
The volume of the bottom cavity =1/3 (8). (8) (6) =128
The remaining volume =336 128 =208
There fore required ratio =128 : 208 =8 : 13
=========================================================================
===
Question 61
If + + + . = 54. Where [ ] is the greatest integer
function .What is the value of n?
(1) 26 (2) 27 (3) 28 (4) 29

[ ] =[1] =1, [ ] =1 [ ] =1
[ ] =[2] =2 ... [ ] =2
[ ] =[3] =3 ..[ ] =3
Given equation is
[ ] +[ ] +..[ ] =K
If 1 n 7, then K =1, 2, 3 . 7
If 8 n 26
K =9, 11, 13 45 (odd terms only)
If n =26, K =45
n =27, K =45 +3 =48 [[ ] =3]
n =28, K =48 +3 =51
When n =29, K =54.
=========================================================================
===
Question 62
Mrs. Kapoor goes to the market and after hassling with the fruit vendor is able to get the
price of a dozen bananas reduced by Rs. 1, from the initial price. Thus she gets one
banana extra for every rupee saved. The initial and final prices of a dozen bananas are (in
Rs.) :
(1) 9, 8 (2) 12, 11 (3) 14, 13 (4) 24, 23

The right answer is 12, 11.
For option (2), initial price =Rs. 12 per dozen For 1 rupee, she could purchase 12/12 =1
banana
Thus she gets 1 banana extra for every rupee saved when she buys at the rate of Rs. 11 per
dozen.
=========================================================================
===
Question 63
A company makes toy cars at a production cost of Rs 17.50 per unit. A market survey
reveals that 10% of the product will be lost, 5% will be rejected, 5% will decay and 5% will
be stolen. At what unit price must the company sell it to realize 28% profit?
(1) Rs. 29.86 (2) Rs. 28 (3) Rs. 31.70 (4) Rs. 20.5

The right answer is Rs. 29.86.
Total loss =(10 +5 +5 +5) % =25 %; CP =Rs. 17.5/unit
SP for 28% profit =1.28 x 17.5 =Rs. 22.4 / unit
But 25% of the prodn. is lost
For every unit. 0.75 reaches the market
Required SP =22.40 / 0.75 =Rs. 29.86
=========================================================================
===
Question 64
Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total no. of
remaining bullets is equal to that of one has after division. Find the original number
divided.
(1) 26 (2) 18 (3) 16 (4) 6

Let total no. of bullets: 3x. Each had x bullets.
Original: x x x
After shot: x 4 x 4 x 4
Now 3x-12 =x x = 6 total bullets =3 6 =18
=========================================================================
===
Question 65
A natural number x is chosen at random from the first 150 natural numbers, then the
probability that is
(1) (2)
11
/
20
(3)
7
/
10
(4) None of these

The right answer is
7
/
10
.
Favorable numbers for x +1/x to be >50 are 1,2, 48, 49,50, 51.... 150.
Favorable number of cases =105, and Total number of cases =150.
Required probability =105/150 =7/10.
=========================================================================
===
Question 66
(x) = Least integer greater than or equal to x,
[x] = Greatest integer less than or equal to x,
|x| = absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ) = Least of a, b, c, .
mx ( a, b, c, ) = Highest of a, b, c, .

If x is any real number then the value of (x) - [x] is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 1 or 0

The right answer is 1 or 0.
If x is any integer then [x] =(x) (x) - [x] =0. if x is a positive number other than integer then it
can be written as n +f where n is its integral part and f is its fractional part
(x) [x] =(n +1) n =1. This is also true if x is any negative number.
=========================================================================
===
Question 67
Direction for question:
|x| = absolute value of x, mn (a, b, c, ) = Least of a, b, c, .

Which of the following holds good?
(1) [|x|] = | [x ] | (2) [ | x | ] < | [ x ] | (3) [ | x | ] > | [ x]| (4) None of these

The right answer is [ | x | ] < | [ x ] |.
Let x =n +f where n is its integral part & f is its fractional part. | x | =n +f if x is positive and |
x | = n f if x is negative. If x is ve, then | x | =-n f . [ | x | ] =-n and | [x] | is always non
negative. Hence the alternative (2) holds good.
=========================================================================
===
Question 68
|x| = absolute value of x, mn ( a, b, c, ) = Least of a, b, c, .

If mx (mn (a, b) |a|, | b| ) = mn ( mx (a, b), |a| ) holds good for any two real numbers a and
b, then
(1) a < 0, b < 0 (2) a < 0, b > 0 (3) a > 0, b < 0 (4) a > 0, b > 0

The right answer is a > 0, b > 0.
By considering different cases a >b and a <b, it can be verified that the only alternative that
holds good is Answer (D).
=========================================================================
===
Question 69
Bag A contains X coins of 50 paise and Y coins of 25 paise. Bag B contains X coins of 25
paise and Y coins of 50 paise. If two coins of 50 paise from bag A are put into bag B and 3
coins of 25 paise from bag B are put into bag A, the value of money in both the bags will
become equal. What may be the minimum value of the total amount in both the bags?
(1) Rs 10 (2) Rs 3 (3) Rs 4 (4) Rs 1.25

The right answer is Rs 3.
Bag A Bag B
Value of money originally 50X +25Y 50Y +25X
Value of money after transfer 50X +25Y 25 50Y+25X +25
By data 50X +25Y 25 =50Y +25X +25. Therefore 25X 25Y =50. That is X =Y +2.
The total value of money in both the bags is 75X +75Y =75 (Y +2 +Y) =75 (2Y +2) =150 (Y +
1). By considering the minimum value 1 for Y, the minimum value of money in both the bags =
300 paise =3 Rs.
=========================================================================
===
Question 70
Mr. Jill requires Rs 6000 per month to maintain his family. He saves 20% of any amount
that he earns above Rs. 6000 but below Rs 7000 in a month. He saves 30% of amount that
he earns above Rs 7000 but below Rs 8000 in a month. If Mr. Jill spends Rs 6975 on a
month, what is his income for that month?
(1) Rs 7150 (2) Rs 7250 (3) Rs 7500 (4) Rs 7100

The right answer is Rs 7250.
Let his income be (6000 +X) Rs. He could speed S =6000 +80% of X if 0 X 1000.
The greatest value of S =6800 Rs. But the expenditure give is Rs. 6975. Which is greater than S.
Therefore his income is >7000. Let it be (7000 +Y) Rs.
6000 +800 +70.Y/100 =6975 Rs. On solving 7Y/10 =175 Y =250
Income for the month is Rs. 7250
=========================================================================
===
Question 71
All possible two-factor products are formed from the numbers 1, 2, .,100. The number of
factors out of the total obtained which are multiple of 3 is
(1) 2211 (2) 4950 (3) 2739 (4) None of these

The total number of two factor products =
100
C
2
. Out of the numbers 1, 2, 3, , 100; the multiples
of 3 are 3, 6, 9, , 99 i.e., there are 33 multiples of 3, and therefore there are 67 non-multiples of
3.
So, the number of two factor products which hare not multiples of 3 =
67
C
2

So, the required number =
100
C
2

67
C
2
=2739.
=========================================================================
===
Question 72
The number of ways in which ten candidates A
1
, A
2
, .A
10
can be ranked such that A
1
is
always above A
10
is
(1) 5! (2) 2 (5!) (3) 10! (4) (10!)

The right answer is (10!).
=========================================================================
===
Question 73
In the figure EFGH is formed by joining midpoints of consecutive sides of square KLMN.
Figures PQRS and ABCD are also formed similarly.
ABCD : KLMN is :

(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8 (3) 1 : 16 (4) None of these

The right answer is 1 : 8.
If area of ABCD =A, Areas of outer squares are each two times the inner ones, hence Area of
KLMN =2 2 2 A =8A. Hence ratio =1 : 8.
=========================================================================
===
Question 74
A square of side 3 cm is taken and two equilateral triangles are drawn on the opposite
sides.
Find the area common to both triangles.
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these

The right answer is None of these .

Equilateral 's are APB & DMC
ABN =60, NBC =30 NCB, BNC =120, BC =3 cm
According to sine formula
= = BN =
NP =3 = (BP NB)
IN NPQ
N =QNP =PQN =60 is equilateral
Common area =2 Area NPQ =2 (side)
2

= (3 )
2
= (9 +3 6 ) =6 (2 ) cm
2 .
=========================================================================
Question 75

The face opposite to Red is
(1) Yellow (2) Green (3) Pink (4) Silver

The right answer is Green.
Make a cube to get the answer

=========================================================================
===
Question 76
The upper face is
(1) Red (2) Pink (3) Yellow (4) Silver

The right answer is Yellow.

=========================================================================
===
Question 77
A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six
different colours for different faces of the cube. The detailed account of it is given as:-

The faces adjacent to Green are
(1) Yellow, Pink, Red, Silver (2) Brown, Pink, yellow, Silver (3) Silver, Pink, Green (4)
Yellow, Pink, Green
The right answer is Brown, Pink, yellow, Silver .

Question 78
The face opposite to Silver is
(1) Pink (2) Brown (3) Red (4) Green

The right answer is Pink.

=========================================================================
===
Question 79

Three of the faces adjacent to Red face are
(1) Silver, Green, Brown (2) Silver, Brown, Pink (3) Silver, Pink, Green (4) Yellow,
Pink, Green

The right answer is Silver, Brown, Pink.

=========================================================================
===
Question 80
(AA)
2
= DCBA. where A, B, C and D are the distinct digits and B is odd. Then D =
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3

Now square of a two digit no. is ending with the same digit in which the no. is ending
This is possible only when the last digit is either 0, 1, 5 or 6
Considering these our no. (AA) cant be 00 and 11
Now 55
2
=3025. But here B is an even no. 66
2
=4356.
This is the obvious no. and it is satisfying our given conditions. Thus D =4.
=========================================================================
===
Question 81
A certain clock marks every hour by striking a number of times equal to the hour and the
time required for a stroke is exactly equal to the time interval between strokes. At 9 : 00
a.m. the time lapse between the beginning of the first stroke and the end of the last stroke
is 34 seconds. At 18 : 00 hrs. how many seconds elapse between the beginning of the first
stroke and the end of the last stroke :
(1) 70 (2) 43 (3) 36 (4) 22

At 9:00 a.m. there are 9 stokes and 8 intervals between strokes.
Thus for 17 equal time intervals, Time =34 sec.
For 1 interval time =2 seconds. At 18:00 hours i.e. (6:00 p.m.) there are 6 strokes and 5
intervals i.e. total 11 time intervals of 2 seconds.
Ans =22 seconds.
=========================================================================
===
Question 82
daily number of manufactured part began to go down

What was the no. of parts manufactured on the third day?
(1) 196 (2) 121 (3) 81 (4) 172

On the third day let there are x workers and each manufactured n parts.
Then the total no. of parts manufactured in 5 days =(x 8) (n +6) +(x 4) ( n +3) +(x) (n) +(x
+4) (n 3) +(x +8) (n 6) =485 5nx 120 =485 nx =121 =11 11from here we can
say that there are 11 men and each manufactured 11 parts on the third day.No. of workers on the
fifth day =x +8 =11 +8 =19
=========================================================================
===

Question 83
daily number of manufactured part began to go down.

What was the attendance on the fifth day?
(1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 22 (4) 19

On the third day let there are x workers and each manufactured n parts.
Then the total no. of parts manufactured in 5 days =(x 8) (n +6) +(x 4) ( n +3) +(x) (n) +(x
+4) (n 3) +(x +8) (n 6) =485 5nx 120 =485 nx =121 =11 11 from here we can
say that there are 11 men and each manufactured 11 parts on the third day.No. of workers on the
fifth day =x +8 =11 +8 =19
=========================================================================
===
Question 84
A sum of Rs 3328 is divided among A, B and C so that if Rs. 35, Rs. 51 and Rs. 74 be
diminished from their shares respectively, the remainders shall be in the ratio of 9 : 11 :
16. Find the share of each.
(1) Rs. 827, 1019, 1482 (2) Rs. 909, 1010, 1409 (3) Rs. 846, 1042, 1440 (4) Rs. 797,
1061, 1470

The right answer is Rs. 827, 1019, 1482.
Ratio of the remainders =9 : 11 : 16
Let the Remainders are =9x, 11x, 16x
Original money of A, B , & C =9x +35, 11x +51, 16x +74
Total money =A+B +C =3328
36x =3328-74-51-35

x =88
Now, share of A =9x +35 =Rs .827
Similarly others are Rs. 1019 & Rs. 1482.
=========================================================================
===

Question 85
The factors of ( ) are
(1) not possible (2) ( )( ) (3) ( + )(
) (4) ( + )( )

The right answer is ( + )( ) .
( ) =( )
2
+( )
2
+2. .
=( )
2
( )
2

( + )( )
=========================================================================
===
Question 86
Two bugs are climbing a slippery wall. At time t = 0, both are at the bottom of the wall.
climbed and bug B 1.5 inches for every 2 inches. Moreover bug A takes a rest of 1 minute
after every 2 minutes and Bug B, a rest of 1 minute after every 3 minutes. Assume that
slipping occurs continuously when climbing.

At what height do the two bugs meet each other?
(1) Do not meet (2) 3 inches (3) 5 inches (4) 12 inches

The right answer is 3 inches.
Solutions 87 91:

TIME 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Bug
A
1.5 3 3 4.5 6 6 7.5 9 9 10.5 12
Bug
B
1 2 3 3 4 5 6 6 7 8 9
Bug
B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
(no rest)

3 inches.
===============================================================
=============
Question 87

What is the widest gap achieved between the bugs, within the first 10 minutes ?
(1) 2 inches (2) 3 inches (3) 2.5 inches (4) 5 inches

3 inches at t =8.
=========================================================================
===
Question 88

If Bug B does not have rest periods, how many times do the bugs meet in the first 10
minutes?
(1) 6 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

At t =3, 6, 9.
=========================================================================
===
Question 89

If the wall is 1 foot high, but when A reaches the top, how far is Bug B behind?
(1) 3 inches (2) 2 inches (3) 2.5 inches (4) 3.5 inches

=========================================================================
===

Question 90

What is the average speed of Bug A for the first 9 minutes?
(1) 1.75 in/min (2) 1 in/min (3) 0.75 in/min (4) 2 in/min

The right answer is 1 in/min.
distance/time =9/9 =1 inch/min.
=========================================================================
===
Question 91
Two trains start from stations A and B spaced 50 kms apart at the same time and speed.
As the trains start, a bird flies from one train towards the other and on reaching the
second train, it flies back to the first train. This is repeated till the trains collide. If the
speed of the trains is 25 km/h and that of the bird is 100km/h. How much did the bird travel
till the collision?
(1) 98.75 km (2) 100 km (3) 95.5 km (4) None of these

The right answer is 100 km.
Collision took place after 1 hour ( distance / relative speed of trains or 50/50). Bird travelled for
one hour before collision.In one hour it travelled 100 km as speed is 100kmph.
=========================================================================
===
Question 92
Ram, Shyam and Gumnaam are friends. Ram is a widower and lives alone and his sister
takes care of him. Shyam is a bachelor and his niece cooks his food and looks after his
house. Gumnaam is married to Gita and lives in large house in the same town. Gita gives
the idea that all of them could stay together in the house and share monthly expenses
equally. During their first month of living together, each person contributed Rs.25. At the
end of the month, it was found that Rs 92 was the expense so the remaining amount was
distributed equally among everyone. The distribution was such that everyone received a
whole number of Rupees. How much did each person receive?
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) Not possible (4) None of these
Rs. 2 (Rams sister, Shyam's neice and Gumnaam's wife are the same person).
=========================================================================
Question 93
1
= {1} S
2

= (2, 3) S
3
{4, 5, 6} S
4
= {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on.

The first term of the subset S
25
is :
(1) 201 (2) 301 (3) 402 (4) 160

In S
25,
the first term =(25 1) 25/2 +1 =301.
=========================================================================
===
Question 94
1
= {1} S
2

= (2, 3) S
3
{4, 5, 6} S
4
= {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on.

The sum of the elements of the subset S
30
is :
(1) 12505 (2) 14115 (3) 13515 (4) 16505

First term of S
30
=436 S
30
={436, 437 30 terms}
=13515 (using A.P.)
=========================================================================
===
Question 95
1
= {1} S
2

= (2, 3) S
3
{4, 5, 6} S
4
= {7, 8, 9, 10} and so on.

The last term of the subset S
15
is :
(1) 120 (2) 125 (3) 130 (4) 145

T
1
of S
15
=106 T
15
of S
15
=106 +(15-1) x 1 =120.
=========================================================================
===
Question 96
180 guests have to be brought for a marriage. The following two types of buses are
available ;
1. Mini buses with a seating capacity of 18 passengers each.
2. Buses with a seating capacity of 61 passenger each.
What are the minimum No. of buses needed for the trip provided no guest is to travel
without seat.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 10

For 180 guests, 3 buses are sufficient (of capacity 61).
=========================================================================
===
Question 97

The capacity of tank B is 1000 lts and that of tank A = 3000 lts
Tank B is completely inside tank A. 1, 3 are inlet
pipes; 2, 4 outlet pipes.
1 takes 20 min to fill tank A
3 takes 10 min to fill tank B
4 takes 40 min to empty tank B
2 takes 20 min to empty tank A
If all the pipes are opened when would the tank A be filled?
(1) 30 min (2) min (3) min (4) None of these

The right answer is 30 min .
Inlet rate of 1, 3 are lt/min and It/min i.e. 150 It/min and 100It /min.
Outlet rate of 2, 4 are and i.e. 150 Its/min and 25 Its/min.
Hence Tank A takes =30 min (or) Alternately it takes or 30 min.
=========================================================================
===
Question 98
In the figure find b in terms of a. c & d.

(1) b = c + d a (2) b = ( c + d a) /2 (3) b = a c + d (4) b = a c d

The right answer is b = c + d a.

r =w +X =Y +Z (external angle of triangle)
(360
o
a) +(360
o
b)
=(360
o
c) +(360
o
d)
(angles at a point)
b =c +d a
=========================================================================
===
Question 99
If bc : ac : ab = 1 : 2: 3, find
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 4

bc/ac =1/2 a : b =2 : 1
= =4 : 1
=========================================================================
===
Question 100
A train, travelling at the rate of 19.5 miles an hour started at 8.00 a.m. on a journey of 234
miles. A second train started from the same station; its speed was to that of the former as
8 : 5 and arrived 20 minutes after the first time. When did the second train start?
(1) 12.50 p.m. (2) 1.30 p.m. (3) 11 a.m. (4) 10.30 a.m.

The right answer is 12.50 p.m..
Time taken by first train = =12 hrs. i.e. it reach at 8 p.m.
Next train reaches at 8.20 pm.
Time taken by 2
nd
train = 12 =7.5 hrs =7 hrs 30 min.
So it starts 7 hrs 30 min before 8:20 i.e. 12:50 pm.
=========================================================================
===
Question 101
Which bank showed a loss whose deviation from the average was maximum?
(1) Indian Bank (2) Vijaya Bank (3) Central Bank (4) United Bank

The right answer is Indian Bank.
Solutions 101 105:
For 1995-96, the net losses incurred by the banks are around :
Indian Bank 1350; Vijaya 250; UCO 250; United 250; Punjab and Sind 150; Central
100.

The average net loss was (2350/6) =325. Indian Bank shows a maximum deviation from this
average. Can be observed directly. Notice that excepting IB, all are in similar losses. This implies
the average to be nearer them than IB viz., IB deviation maximum.
=========================================================================
===
Question 102
Which of the following is true?
I. The loss incurred by Indian Bank is equal to the loss incurred by all the other banks
given
II. If the Reserve Bank of India ploughs in approx. Rs. 2300 crore, the losses suffered by
the given banks can be offset.
III. Indian Bank will almost surely lose its popularity soon.
(1) I & II (2) II only (3) II & III (4) I, II & III

The right answer is II only.
Since the total net loss is 2350, the Reserve Bank of India would have to plough in around 2300
to offset this loss. The validity of the other statements cannot be determined on the basis of the
information provided. In fact since all options accept second statement as true, this need not be
computed.
=========================================================================
===
Question 103
Finding no other alternative of increasing the income, Vijaya Bank decided to generate
income by raising the lending rates. If the total amount loaned out by it was Rs. 8250
crore, by how many percent points would it have to increase the lending rates so as to
offset its losses?
(1) Around 5 (2) Around 2.5 (3) Around 1 (4) Can't determine

The right answer is Can't determine.
Loss of 250 is 3% of 8250. So, if lending rate is increased by 3%, losses can be offset.
Note that the value 250 is an approximation, so the answer cannot be exact.
=========================================================================
===
Question 104
The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO Bank,
United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%, 13% &
12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. Which of the following banks shows the maximum
loss per crore rupees of assets?
(1) Indian (2) Vijay (3) UCO (4) United

The right answer is United.
The assets of the all the other banks are less than 25% of Indian Banks assets. It we assume
that the assets of all the other banks are 25%, it is easier to compare figures without actually
calculating :

Indian
Bank
Vijaya UCO United Punjab &
Sind
Central
Loss 1350 250 250 250 150 100
Assets 75,000 17,250 1,420 12,750 9,750 9,000

Thus, it can be seen that the maximum loss per crore rupees of assets is incurred by Indian
Bank.
=========================================================================
Question 105
The total assets of Indian Bank are Rs. 75000 crore. The assets of Vijaya Bank, UCO Bank,
United Bank, Punjab & Sind Bank, Central Bank are respectively 23%, 19%, 17%, 13% &
12% of the assets of the Indian Bank. What change would have to be made in the assets of
the Indian Bank if its loss per crore of asset was to be made equal to that in case of
Central Bank?
(1) They will have to be increased by 62% (2)
They will have to be reduced by 15% (3) They will have to be increased by 215% (4)

The right answer is They will have to be increased by 62%.
To make the loss per crores of rupees equal to Central Bank, Indian Bank has to increase its
assets.
Therefore, 1350/x =100/9000. Thus, x =1,21,500
This is an increase of (1,21,500 75,000), i.e., 46,500, i.e., 62%
Note the even if we approximate as 1350/x =75/9000, x =1,62,000, i.e., increase of 116%.
So, closest option is chosen.
=========================================================================
===
Question 106
What percentage of the total population in 1971 drank coffee?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 20% (4) None of these

The right answer is 45%.
100 =45%.
=========================================================================
===
Question 107
The increase in woman coffee drinkers from 1971 to 1981 was about
(1) 233% (2) 80% (3) 120 % (4) 133%

100 = 100 =133%.
=========================================================================
===
Question 108
The number of children who drink either beverage increased over the two periods by
(1) 37000 (2) 9500 (3) 28000 (4) 37500

40000 2500 =37500
=========================================================================
===
Question 109
In 1971, out of every 100 men, how many drank neither coffee nor tea (assume that there
was nobody drink both)?
(1) 30 (2) 27.3 (3) 28.5 (4) None of these

100 =27.3
=========================================================================
===
Question 110
In 1981, how many children drank milk?
(1) 140000 (2) 100000 (3) 140000 (4) can't say

The right answer is can't say.
=========================================================================
===
Question 111
Which is the smallest island?
(1) Zog (2) Zob (3) Zop (4) None of the above

The right answer is Zog.
Solutions 111 115:
The smallest island has 750 =75 Zoxians [from (1)]
The largest is zod
One island has 150 =150 Zoxians
Another has 750 =250 Zoxians
Zob =1.5 one of the islands
Zop =100 +75 =175
the fifth island has =750 (75 +150 +250 +175) =100 Zoxians
The smallest island is not Zod [form 2]
not Zoz [form 2]
not Zob [form 4]
not Zop [form 5]
the smallest island is Zog =75
Zop =175
Zob =1.5 100 =150
Zod =250
Zoz =100
=========================================================================
===
Question 112
What is the sum of the population of Zod and Zob?
(1) 275 (2) 250 (3) 325 (4) 400

=========================================================================
===
Question 113
What is the sum of population of Zop and Zoz?
(1) 250 (2) 275 (3) 350 (4) 400

=========================================================================
Question 114
The sum of the population of which two islands is more than half the total population of
Zox?
(1) Zod and Zop (2) Zod and Zob (3) Zod and Zoz (4) Both option (A) & (B)

The right answer is Both option (A) & (B).
=========================================================================
===
Question 115
What is the population of the island of Zoz?
(1) 75 (2) 100 (3) 150 (4) 150

=========================================================================
===

Question 116
Procter and Gamble's turnover from the two personal care segments amounted to what
percentage approximately of the total turnover in these segments of the entire market?
(1) 34% (2) 30% (3) 27% (4) None of these

100 =30%.
=========================================================================
===
Question 117
If J.K. Helen Curtis is to get a market share in the disposable diapers market equal to that
it has in feminine care product, what should it s turnover (Rs. crores) in this segments be
given that the sales of other companies in disposable diapers market does not change?
(1) 1 (2) 2.3 (3) 1.11 (4) None of these

10 crores =90/100 New Market
11.11 =New Market
10% of New Market =1.11.
=========================================================================
===
Question 118
If the market size of the feminine care products increases by 25%, the turnover of Johnson
and Johnson in this segment will increase by how many crores of rupees (assume the
market shares of various companies remain the same) ?
(1) 10.25 (2) 13 (3) 11.25 (4) None of these

The right answer is 11.25 .
(75 60/100) 0.25 =11.25.
=========================================================================
===

Question 119
The percentage share of Johnson and Johnson in the two personal care market segments
together is greater than the percentage share of Regency Drapers in these two segment
together by how many percentage points.
(1) 50.8 (2) 25.3 (3) 42 (4) None of these

J & J =45 +0.2 =45.2 crores
% share =( 100)
R.D =2 =>% share = 100)
Difference in % points =50.82.
=========================================================================
===
Question 120
If in value terms all the other companies retain their share of the diapers market, by how
much (Rs crores) should Procter and Gamble's turnover in this segment increase to get a
25% share?
(1) 2.93 (2) 3.23 (3) 2.52 (4) None of these

If the increase in P & Gs market is Rs. x crores, then for the market share to increase from
present 3% to (i.e. 0.3 crores) to 25%, we have
=0.25 0.3 +x =2.5 +0.25x
0.75x =2.2 = =2.2
x =
8.8
/
3
=2.93
=========================================================================
===
Question 121
What was the proportion of Hydel generation in total electricity generation in May 1996?
(1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) None of these

Solutions 121 125:
As the table gives us the percent change over the last 1, 3 and 12 months, these values can be
calculated.
In J une 1996, hydel generation has shown an increase of 2.4% over May 1996, whereas, the
total electricity generation has shown a decrease of 8.4%. In May 1996, hydel generation and
total electricity generation were 4920 and 33060 respectively. So, hydel generation formed
around 15% of the total electricity generated.
=========================================================================
===
Question 122
What was the thermal generation in March 1996 (million kwh)?
(1) 38919 (2) 28919 (3) 20000 (4) None of these

In J une 1996, thermal generation has shown a drop of 12.7% over the generation in March 1996.
So, the thermal generation in March 1996 was 28919.
=========================================================================
===
Question 123
What was the total power generation in January 1996 (million kwh)?
(1) 40000 (2) 50000 (3) 30000 (4) Can't determine

The right answer is Can't determine.
Since the percentage change over J anuary 1996 is not available, the total power generated in
J anuary 1996 cannot be determined.
=========================================================================
===
Question 124
What was the proportion of Thermal generation in total electricity generation in June
1995?
(1) 80% (2) 70% (3) 60% (4) 50%

Thermal generation and total generation in J une 1996 have increased by 2.7% and decreased by
2% respectively as compared to J une 1995. Thus, in J une 1995, thermal generation was 24580
and the total generation was 30900. So, thermal generation formed around 80% of the total
generation.
=========================================================================
===
Question 125
What was the ratio of hydel generation to thermal generation in March 1996?
(1) 1 : 6 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 9 (4) None of these

In J une 1996, hydel generation showed an increase of 2.3% over the generation in March
1996. So, hydel generation in March 1996 was 4924 and the thermal generation was
28919. This is in the ratio 1 : 6.

Question 126
Who is the heaviest of the lot of five children?
(1) Sio (2) Phren (3) Jorn (4) Ontrus

The right answer is Phren .

Ounces Qinae
J orn 4.1 45.1
Duloc 3.9 42.9
Phren 5.8 63.8
Sio 4.6 50.6
Ontrus 1.4 15.4

Question 127
What is the difference between the percentage difference in weight of Sio and Phren in
ounces and qinae?
(1) 12 (2) 36 (3) 48 (4) None of the above

The right answer is None of the above .
There will be no difference.
=========================================================================
===
Question 128
What is the Phrens weight on Earth (in Ounces)
(1) 5.8 (2) 4.6 (3) 4.1 (4) 3.9

=========================================================================
===
Question 129
What is Ontrus weight on Nolu si?
(1) 15.4 (2) 42.9 (3) 45.1 (4) 50.6

=========================================================================
===
Question 130
What is Jorns weight on Earth?
(1) 3.9 (2) 4.1 (3) 4.6 (4) 1.4

Question 131
What is the percentage difference in the weights of Sio and Phren?
(1) 26.08 (2) 30.16 (3) 24.91 (4) Cant be determined

The right answer is Cant be determined .
Since the question is ambiguous about the base on which percentage difference is to be
calculated, hence it cannot be determined.
=========================================================================
===
Question 132
Direction for question: The following question is followed by two statements " 1" and " 2" ,
as the answer.

In how many days would the lawn be mowed?
1. Ram alone can mow it in 17 days whereas Ganesh and Sohan together can do it in 12
days
2. One of Ram, Ganesh and Sohan works on the job everyday.
(1) If both, statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question. (2) If the
question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone. (3) If the question can be
answered with the help of statement 1 alone. (4) If the question cannot be answered
even with the help of both the statements.

The right answer is If the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the
statements..
Assume that Ganesh and Sohan work at their usual capacity, but on successive days, say the
second and the third days. In three days, (1/17 +1/12) =(29 / 204) part of the lawn can be
mowed. But as nothing about the order of working of the three, nor anything about the individual
working capacities of Ganesh and Sohan is given, we cannot find the answer even with the help
of both the statements.
=========================================================================
===
Question 133
Direction for question: The following question is followed by two statements " 1" and " 2" ,
as the answer.

What are the three numbers?
1. Their sum is 61.
2. These are three consecutive prime numbers

statements..
Since the second statement states that the number are prime, we get that the numbers have to
be three positive integers in ascending order. Note that 61/3 20. This implies that numbers
should be around 20. Check 17, 19, 23 do not add to 61. So. (D). Note that no other set could be
closer to 61.
=========================================================================
===
Question 134
In how much time will the train pass the man?
1. The 200 meters long train is running at a speed of 60 kmph
2. The man is walking at a speed of 5 m/s

statements..
Although the individual speeds of the train and the man are known, for finding out the relative
speed, we must also know the directions (same or opposite) of their travel. But this data is not
clearly available, and hence the time cannot be determined.
=========================================================================
===

Question 135
What was the ratio of highest FDI inflow in any country in any year to the lowest in any
country in any year?
(1) 947.08 (2) 912.25 (3) 998.74 (4) 904.36

Ratio = =947.08
=========================================================================
===
Question 136
What is the percentage increase in FDI inflow in India from 1991 to 1999?
(1) 1298.7% (2) 1340.46% (3) 1212.36% (4) 1476.64%

The right answer is 1298.7%.
Percentage increase = 100 =1298.7%
=========================================================================
===
Question 137
For 19941995, the FDIs of how many countries showed a decline of more than 5%?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1

The countries are Philippines, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Colombia.
=========================================================================
===
Question 138
What is the ratio of Indias highest FDI in all the years to Chinas lowest FDI in all the
years?
(1) 0.68 (2) 0.43 (3) 0.76 (4) 0.71

Ratio = =0.76
=========================================================================
===
Question 139
If 20% of FDI in India went to the Power sector and 34% to the Infotech sector in 1999, then
what amount (in US $ million) went to the above two sectors in 1999?
(1) 415, 712 (2) 432, 712 (3) 415, 737 (4) 433, 737

The right answer is 433, 737.
For power sector =0.2 2168 =433.6
For Infotech sector =0.34 2168 =737.12
=========================================================================
===
Question 140
How many times has the FDI in any country mentioned gone beyond 5000 US $ million?
(1) 35 (2) 31 (3) 34 (4) 37

J ust observe from the table.
=========================================================================
===
Question 141
The recovery rate has been calculated as:
(1) 1/ (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries) (2)
1 / (Revenue Expenditure / Total recoveries) 100 (3) 1/ (Total cost of Service / Total
recoveries) (4) 1 / (Total Cost of Service / Total recoveries) 100

The right answer is 1 / (Total Cost of Service / Total recoveries) 100.
For social services under departmental enterprises, the total cost of service is 561 and the total
recovery is 198, whereas the recovery rate is 35.20.
=========================================================================
===
Question 142
If it is known that the subsidy given to the cooperative is Rs. 593 crores, then what, in Rs.
crore, is the subsidy given to the Nondepartmental enterprises?
(1) 6874 (2) 8874 (3) 7874 (4) Can't determine

The co-operatives have 1.4% of the total subsidy. This amounts to 593. So, the non-departmental
enterprises have a subsidy of 16.23%, i.e.. 6874.
=========================================================================
===
Question 143
If it is known that the subsidy given to the cooperative is Rs. 593 crores then what is the
subsidy given to the social services of the Departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)?
(1) 36.4 (2) 364 (3) 3640 (4) Can't determine

The subsidy given to social services of the departmental enterprises is (0.86 593) /1.4 =364.
=========================================================================
===
Question 144
If it is known that the subsidy given to the cooperative is Rs. 593 crores, then what is the
difference in the subsidies given to the Economic and social services of the Non
departmental enterprises (Rs. crore)?
(1) 4600 (2) 5600 (3) 6600 (4) None of these

The percentage difference between the subsidies for economic and social services of non-
departmental enterprises is 15.61. So, the actual value is (15.61 593)/1.4 =6611.
=========================================================================
===
Question 145
For departmental and nondepartmental enterprises, the total recoveries from social
services form what percentage of the total recoveries from economic services?
(1) 1.2% (2) 2.2% (3) 3.2% (4) None of these

The right answer is 1.2%.
For departmental and non-departmental enterprises, the recoveries from social services are 218
and the recoveries from economic services are 18392. So, the recoveries from social services
form around 1.2% of the total recoveries under this category.
=========================================================================
===

Question 146
Harry ate
(1) Noodles (2) Manchurian (3) Idly Sambar (4) Masala Dosa

The right answer is Idly Sambar.
Solutions 146 150:
Since everybody makes at least 1 true statement, we can make an assumption about a
statements authenticity, which if false will get contradicted at some stage.
After looking at the statements made by Harry & Rahul, we notice that their last statements are
opposites. So one of those 2 statements is the truth. Assuming the last statement of Harry to be
true, his other statements must be false. Since he says that he ate Masala Dosa & Rahul also
says the same thing, both are false statements. So Rahuls 2
nd
statement must be true. On the
basis of our assumption Nipuns 1
st
statement becomes false. Since Harrys 2
nd
statement is also
false Nipuns 2
nd
statement must be true. So his last statement must be false. As Nipuns last
statement is false, it means that Ashish ate the noodles. So Ashishs 1
st
statement is false.
Looking at everybodys second statement, and knowing that the 1
st
is false & the other 2 are true,
we can conclude that Nipun has eaten the Manchurian. So Ashishs 2
nd
statement is true and the
last statement is false.
=========================================================================
===
Question 147
Nipun ate

The right answer is Manchurian.
=========================================================================
===
Question 148
Rahul ate

The right answer is Masala Dosa.
=========================================================================
===

Question 149
Ashish ate

The right answer is Noodles.
=========================================================================
===
Question 150
Which of the following is false?
(1) Rahuls second statement is true. (2) Harrys second statement is true. (3) Nipuns
second statement is true. (4) Ashishs second statement is true.

The right answer is Harrys second statement is true..

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This is a three section test. Totally 150 questions. 1

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