MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The predominant source of energy on earth is

(a) Electricity (b) Natural Gas (c) The Sun (d) Plants
2. In what form can solar energy be used?
(a) Thermal energy (b) Electrical energy 3. Mechanical Energy (d) All of above
3. What is the most common material used in making solar cells?
(a) Silver (b) Iron (c) Aluminium (d) Silicon
4. Which of the following solar cookers is the most efficient and has the shortest
cooking time?
(a) Box cooker (b) Parabolic cooker. (c) Panel cooker (d) Cardboard type cooker
5. The electrical output of a solar cell depends on the
(a) Intensity of solar radiation (b) Heat component of solar radiation (c) Ultraviolet
radiation (d) Infrared radiation
6. Which type of dryer can be used to dry fruits and vegetables using renewable
energy?
(a) Oil furnace (b) Solar dryer (c) Coal furnace (d) Wood-based furnace
7. Solar photovoltaic cell converts solar energy directly into
(a) Mechanical energy (b) Electricity (c) Heat energy (d) Transportation
8. What does SPV stand for with respect to solar energy?
(a) Solar photovoltaic (b) Solid platevoltaic (c) Solar platevoids (d) None of the
above
9. Solar energy travels through space by the process of
(a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation (d) Transportation
10. A solar pond is a combination of which of the following combinations?
(a) Solar energy collection & heat storage (b) Solar energy storage & heat collection
(c) Solar energy collection & energy storage (d) None of the above
11. Which of the following system is an application of solar thermal energy?
(a) Internal combustion engine (b) Biogas generation (c) Solar water heating (d)
Solar lighting
12. Which of the following appliances use solar photovoltaic technology?
(a) Solar lantern (b) Biogas plant (c) Solar water heater (d) Solar air heater
13. The value of solar constant is approximately
(a) 6.5 kW/m
2
(b) 1.36 kW/m
2
(c) 3.64 kW/m
2
(d) 10 kW/m
2

14. A typical insulation material used in a solar collector is
(a) Fibre glass (b) Cotton (c) Glass wool (d) None of the above
15. In a box type solar cooker, the solar radiations that enter and leave the box are of
(a) Short & long wavelength respectively (b) Long & short wavelength respectively
(c) Similar wavelengths (d) None of the above
16. Pyranometer is an instrument used for measuring the
(a) Temperature of solar photovoltaic cell (b) Solar irradiance of a solar
photovoltaic cell (c) Wind speed of a solar photovoltaic cell (d) Efficiency of a solar
photovoltaic cell
17. A solar still is device used for
(a) Heating water (b) Cooling water (c) Distilling water (d) Production of
electricity
18. Which of the following solar energy devices is designed to reflect & concentrate
energy from sunlight?
(a) Solar cooker (b) Solar cell (c) Solar water heater (d) Solar concentrator
19. A pyrheliometer is an instrument used to measure the
(a) Temperature of solar photovoltaic cell (b) Intensity of direct solar radiation at
normal incidence (c) Intensity of indirect solar radiation (d) Efficiency of a solar
photovoltaic cell
20. The term beam solar radiation is related to
(a) Small hydropower (b) Flat plate solar collector (c) Turbine (d) Coal extraction
mechanism
21. Which of the following is not related to solar photovoltaic systems?
(a) Cooking (b) Lighting (c) Irrigation (d) Generation of electricity
22. Solar energy cannot be stored in which of the following mediums?
(a) Water (b) Iron (c) Gas (d) Wood
23. Solar desalination provides
(a) Drinking water in areas where only salty or brackish water is available and
distilled water for batteries (b) Distilled water needed for batteries (c) Drinking
water in areas where only salty or brackish water is available (d) None of the above
24. What material does a solar pond contain?
(a) Salt (b) Sugar (c) Stone (d) Lime
25. A group of solar collectors connected together is called a
(a) Solar cell (b) Solar array (c) Solar centre (d) Solar concentrator
26. In a box type solar cooker, the box is covered with a
(a) Single glass layer cover (b) Double glass layer cover (c), Triple glass layer cover
(d) Four glass layer cover
27. Sunlight light reaches the earth through
(a) Direct radiation (b) Diffuse radiation (c) Scattered radiation (d) All of above
28. Satellites in space are provided power with the help of
(a) Wind (b) Rain water (c) Solar photovoltaic cells (d) Petroleum
29. The working of a solar water heater is based on which of the following
technologies?
(a) Solar photovoltaic technology (b) Solar thermal technology (c) Solar cell
technology (d) Solar electricity technology
30. Solar radiation that is received after it changes its direction due to reflection and
scattering in the atmosphere is called
(a) Diffused radiation (b) Scattered radiation (c) Beam radiation (d) Radiation
31. Solar radiation that has not been absorbed or scattered and reaches the earth
surface directly is called
(a) Beam radiation (b) Scattered radiation (c) Diffused radiation (d) Radiation
32. The total solar radiation received at any point on the earth's surface is termed as
(a) Insulation (b) Insolation (c) Radiation (d) Insulated radiation
33. A pyrheliometer is an instrument that measures
(a) Diffuse solar radiation (b) Scattered solar radiation (c) Beam Solar radiation (d)
Total radiation
34. What kind of energy does a wind turbine use?
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (c) Chemical Energy (d) Thermal energy
35. Which of the following states in India ranks first in the installation of wind power?
(a) Gujarat (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
36. Horizontal axis windmills of modern design can
(a) Always turn towards the direction of the wind (b) Never adjust the energy
output (c) Never turn towards the direction of the wind (d) None of the above
37. Which of the following sources emit fewer pollutants?
(a) Coal (b) Petroleum (c) Charcoal (d) Wind energy
38. The maximum energy conversion efficiency of a wind turbine for a given swept
area is
(a) 25.1% (b) 50.4% (c) 59.3% (d) 99.9%
39. If the velocity of wind is doubled, then the power output will increase by
(a) 10 times (b) 8 times (c) 2 times (d) 6 times
40. The term Darrious & Savonius rotor are related to
(a) Small hydropower (b) Wind energy (c) Turbine (d) Coal extraction mechanism
41. Power output from a wind energy electric generator is directly proportional to
(a) wind velocity (b) Square of wind velocity (c) Cube of wind velocity (d) Square
root of wind velocity
42. Another name for a windmill is
(a) Wind farm (b) Propeller (c) Wind station (d) Wind turbine
43. A place where many wind turbines are installed together to produce electricity is
called a
(a) Wind farm (b) Propeller collection (c) Wind station (d) Wind turbine station
44. What type of energy is associated with wind?
(a) Potential energy (b) Chemical energy (c) Kinetic energy (d) Rotational energy
45. Wind blows because of a difference in
(a) Temperature (b) Latitude (c) Longitude (d) Height
46. Wind turbines using aerodynamic lift produce more energy for a given area than
wind turbines using aerodynamic drag as the
(a) Lifting force pushes the blade in the direction of the wind (b) Lifting force mis
roughly perpendicular to the local flow fields (c) Lifting force produces more
torque (d) Drag services capture more energy because of greater friction on the
blade surfaces
47. Which of the following sources of energy does not get depleted?
(a) Natural gas (b) Coal (c) Petroleum (d) Wind
48. The relationship between power available from wind 'P' and wind velocity 'v' is
(a) P v (b) P v
2
(c) P v
3
(d) P = v
49. An anemometer is an instrument used for measurement of
(a) Solar radiation (b) Wind speed (c) Temperature gradient (d) Depth in ocean
50. Lower speed wind turbines are mainly driven by
(a) Drag forces (b) Lift forces (c) Push forces (d) None of the above
51. The torque causing the rotation of a rotor is due to the
(a) Drag force (b) Gravitational force (c) Force of lift (d) Axial thrust
52. Which source of renewable energy is caused by uneven heating of earth's surface?
(a) Solar (b) Wind (c) Geothermal (d) Biomass
53. With increase in height, wind speed
(a) Increases, (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same (d) None of the above
54. Wind power plants are required to have a large rotor size for large power output
due to
(a) Low power density of air stream (b) Lift force acting perpendicular to the
direction of wind flow (c) Lift force being more than drag force (d) Drag force
acting perpendicular to lift force
55. Which of the following forces act on the blades of wind turbine rotor?
(a) Lift force (b) Drag force (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above
56. Wind machine with Darrious type of rotor is a
(a) Vertical axis machine (b) Horizontal axis machine (c) Machine that can spin in
one direction only (d) None of the above
57. During the day, the surface wind flows
(a) From sea to land (b) From land to sea (c) On the surface of the sea (d) On the
surface of land
58. Air density at standard conditions is about
(a) 1.885 kg/m
3
(b) 2.55 kg/m
3
(c) 1.226 kg/m
3
(d) 3.267 kg/m
3

59. The main disadvantage of wind power is that
(a) It is available only in coastal areas (b) Wind energy systems are noisy when in
operation (c) Large land area is required (d) The capacity utilization is less
60. Wind energy conversion devices based on drag force
(a) Move faster than wind (b) Move slower than wind (c) Move with equal velocity
as wind (d) Do not depend on the velocity of wind
61. In rural areas, the locally generated gas from cow dung used for cooking & lighting
is called
(a) Biogas (b) Oxygen (c) Ammonia (d) Carbon dioxide
62. Which gas has a major share in biogas?
(a) N2 (b) CH4 (c) CO2 (d) H2
63. What is the biggest source of biogas in rural India?
(a) Kitchen waste (b) Leaves (c) Cow dung (d) Industrial waste
64. Under normal conditions, the maximum yield of biogas can be obtained at
(a) 7-10
0
C (b) 10-15
0
C (c) 15-25
0
C (d) 25-35
0
C
65. Biomass can be converted into
(a) Liquid fuel (b) Hydrogen (c) Producer Gas (d) All of the above
66. Gasification of biomass is a
(a) Biochemical conversion process (b) Chemical conversion process
(c)Thermochemical conversion process (d) Biological conversion process
67. Which of the following factors is irrelevant with respect to biogas production?
(a) Temperature (b) p
H
value (c) Carbon to nitrogen ratio (d) Quality of water
68. Which of the following is not a raw material for biogas generation?
(a) Water hyacinth (b) Coal (c) Algae (d) Grasses
69. Biomass gasifiers produce a combustible mixture of different gases called
(a) producer gas (b) Internal gas (c) Mixed gas (d) Combustion gas
70. Biogas is produced when anaerobic bacteria digest organic matters in absence of
oxygen. The process is called
(a) Anaerobic reduction (b) Anaerobic digestion (c) Anaerobic oxidation (d)
anaerobic drying
71. Biomass can be used as fuel through
(a) Combustion (b) Fermentation (c) Digestion (d) All of the above
72. Biomass can be converted into
(a) Solid fuel (b) Liquid fuel (c) Gaseous fuel (d) All of the above
73. Which of the following fuel does not give ash as residue when burned?
(a) Wood (b) Charcoal (c) Biogas (d) Coal
74. The gas produced by burning wood in an insufficient supply of oxygen is called
(a) Producer gas (b) Biogas (c) Natural Gas (d) Nitrogen gas
75. Which of the following energy originate from the ocean?
(a) Tidal energy (b) Sea energy (c) Wind energy (d) Hydropower
76. The Ocean thermal energy conversion system that is meant to generate power is
most suitable in
(a) Sub-tropical region (b) Tropical region (c) Cold region (d) Moderate climate
region
77. The temperature gradient of ocean thermal energy conversion system is utilized in
(a) Internal combustion engines (b) Heat engine (c) Water turbines (d) None of the
above
78. The overall efficiency of an OTEC power plant is
(a) 2-3% (b) 10-15% (c) 15-20% (d) 20-25%
79. Ocean and sea waves are indirectly caused due to
(a) Pressure gradients (b) Solar energy (c) Geothermal energy (d) None of the
above
80. The tidal energy of a sea wave is the sum of its
(a) Mechanical energy & thermal energy (b) Potential energy & hydropower energy
(c) Potential energy & kinetic energy (d) Kinetic energy& thermal energy
81. The tidal range is the difference between
(a) Water movement speed & high tide (b) Water movement direction & high tide
(c) Water elevation at high tide & low tide (d) 82. Large amounts of solar energy is
stored in oceans and seas. The process of harnessing this energy is called
(a) Ocean thermal energy conversion(OTEC) (b) Ocean thermal conversion(OTEC)
(c) Ocean and sea thermal energy conversion(OSTEC) (d) Sea thermal energy
conversion(STEC)
83. The tidal waves are caused by the periodic rise and fall of oceans. It is associated
with the position of
(a) Moon (b) Sun (c) Earth (d) Sea
84. The energy available when the temperature of water at the surface of ocean is
different from that at deeper level is called
(a) Ocean thermal energy (b) Sea water energy (c) Ocean water energy (d) None of
the above
85. Hydrogen can play an important role as an alternative fuel to conventional fuel as
(a) An energy carrier (b) An energy device (c) A fossil fuel source (d) An energy
system
86. What is the main by-product of burning hydrogen?
(a) H2O (b) Ash (c) O2 (d) Steam
87. Hydrogen is produced by
(a) Electrolysis (b) Incineration (c) Aerobic digestion (d) Decomposting
88. Hydrogen can be produced from
(a) Soil (b) Silver (c) Iron (d) Water
89. Which of the following is not an application of hydrogen energy?
(a) Fuel cell (b) Generator set (c) Running a two wheeler (d) Producing bio fuel
90. Hydrogen can be generated commercially by
(a) Aerobic digestion (b) Steam methane reforming (c) Anaerobic digestion (d)
Incineration
91. Fuel reforming is a process of
(a) Transforming fossil fuel into CO (b) Transforming fossil fuel into H2 (c)
Removing carbon compounds from fossil fuel (d) None of the above
92. When hydrogen burns in air, it combines with which of the following gases to form
water?
(a) O2 (b) N2 (c) CO2 (d) O3
93. Which form of energy source yields only water?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Biogas (c) Methane (D) Oxygen
94. Hydrogen can be stored as a
(a) Compressed gas (b) Liquid (c) Metal hydride (d) All of the above
95. Which of the following are considered to be drawbacks of geothermal energy?
(a) It is not available everywhere (b) It is available only in areas where hot rocks are
present near the earths surface (d) All of the above
96. Energy derived from hot spots beneath the earth is called
(a) Bio energy (b) Geothermal energy (c) Nuclear energy (d) Hydrogen energy
97. Which type of energy does volcanoes posses?
(a) Mechanical energy (b) Geothermal energy (c) Electrical energy (d) Nuclear
energy
98. The molten mass of earth is called
(a) Magnous (b) Magna (c) Hot cake (d) Magmus
99. Geothermal energy reservoirs are
(a) Liquid dominated reservoirs (b) Steam dominated reservoirs (c) Hot rocks
with no water (d) All of the above
100.Harmful radiation emitted from the sun is
(a) Visible radiation (b) Infrared radiation (c) Ultraviolet radiation (d) None of the
above

Answers
1 C 21 A 41 C 61 A 81 C
2 D 22 D 42 B 62 B 82 A
3 D 23 C 43 A 63 C 83 A
4 B 24 A 44 C 64 D 84 A
5 A 25 B 45 A 65 D 85 A
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 C 86 A
7 B 27 D 47 D 67 D 87 A
8 A 28 C 48 C 68 B 88 D
9 C 29 B 49 B 69 A 89 D
10 A 30 A 50 A 70 B 90 B
11 C 31 A 51 C 71 D 91 B
12 A 32 B 52 B 72 D 92 A
13 B 33 C 53 A 73 C 93 A
14 C 34 A 54 A 74 A 94 A
15 A 35 D 55 C 75 A 95 D
16 B 36 A 56 A 76 B 96 B
17 C 37 D 57 A 77 B 97 B
18 D 38 C 58 C 78 A 98 B
19 B 39 B 59 D 79 B 99 D
20 b 40 B 60 B 80 C 100 C