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FINAL EXAM REVIEW

The comprehensive final exam consists of 50 questions, approximately 2/3 of which are
from chapters 10 through 12. The remaining questions are from chapters 1 through 9.

The questions for chapters 10 through 12 are similar in style and format to those on the
first three exams; i.e., multiple choice questions on definitions, concepts and short
problems.

As noted in the General Course Outline,

The comprehensive questions for chapters 1 through 9 have a different focus as the
materials from these chapters have already been tested in detail. The comprehensive
questions focus on the key concepts from each chapter. The key concepts are the
principles, concepts, definitions those that will be important in future courses and
careers - the take-aways from this course.

For example, a non-accounting major may never need to know how to prepare a journal
entry, but knowing what net income means and how it is calculated would be important
for anyone working in business. For example, a non-accounting major may never have
to prepare a master budget for a company, but knowing how budgets are affected by
changes in volume would be important for anyone working in a business with an annual
budget.



Practice Multiple Choice Questions

1. For a manufacturing company, product costs include all of the following except:

A. Iindirect material costs.
B. Warehousing costs.
C. Direct labor costs.
D. All of these are product costs.

2. Which of the following costs is not considered to be a period cost?

A. Warehousing costs
B. Depreciation of delivery vehicles
C. Salaries paid to company executives
D. Freight paid on a purchase of raw materials

3. Which of the following statements is true with regard to product costs versus general,
selling, and administrative costs?

A. Product costs associated with unsold units appear on the income statement as general
expenses.
B. General, selling, and administrative costs appear on the balance sheet.
C. Product costs associated with units sold appear on the income statement as cost of
goods sold.
D. None of these is true.

4. Which of the following is not classified as manufacturing overhead?

A. Product delivery costs
B. Supervisory labor
C. Factory insurance
D. Production supplies

5. Based on the following cost data, what conclusions can you make about Product A and
Product B?



A. Product A is a fixed cost and Product B is a variable cost.
B. Product A is a variable cost and Product B is a fixed cost.
C. Product A and Product B are both variable costs.
D. Product A and Product B are both mixed costs.

6. Wu Company incurred $40,000 of fixed cost and $50,000 of variable cost when 4,000 units
of product were made and sold. If Wu's volume doubles, the company's total cost will:

A. Stay the same.
B. Double as well.
C. Increase but will not double.
D. Decrease.

7. Select the incorrect statement regarding the contribution margin income statement.

A. The contribution margin approach for the income statement is unacceptable for external
reporting.
B. Contribution margin represents the amount available to cover product costs and
thereafter to provide profit.
C. The contribution margin approach requires that all costs be classified as fixed or variable.
D. Assuming no change in fixed costs, a $1 increase in contribution margin will result in a $1
increase in profit.

8. Craft, Inc. normally produces between 120,000 and 150,000 units each year. Producing
more than 150,000 units alters the company's cost structure. For example, fixed costs
increase because more space must be rented, and additional supervisors must be hired. The
production range between 120,000 and 150,000 is called the:

A. Differential range.
B. Median range.
C. Relevant range.
D. Leverage range.

9. Southern Food Service operates six restaurants in the Atlanta area. The company pays rent
of $20,000 per year for each shop. The managers of each shop are paid a salary of $4,200
per month and all other employees are paid on an hourly basis. Relative to the number of
hours worked, total compensation cost for a particular shop is which kind of cost?

A. Mixed cost
B. Fixed cost
C. Variable cost
D. None of these

10. Martin Company currently produces and sells 40,000 units of product at a selling price of
$12. The product has variable costs of $6 per unit and fixed costs of $150,000. The
company currently earns a total contribution margin of:

A. $280,000
B. $200,000
C. $240,000
D. $90,000

11. Once sales reach the break-even point, each additional unit sold will:

A. Increase fixed cost by a proportionate amount.
B. Reduce the margin of safety.
C. Increase the company's operating leverage.
D. Increase profit by an amount equal to the per unit contribution margin.

12. If total fixed costs increase while variable costs and sales price are unchanged, what
happens to the break-even point?

A. The break-even point increases, and therefore more units must be sold to break-even.
B. The break-even point decreases, and therefore fewer units must be sold to break-even.
C. The break-even point remains the same.
D. The break-even point decreases and therefore more units must be sold to break-even.

13. What is the formula for calculating contribution margin ratio?

A. Contribution margin/net income
B. Contribution margin/fixed costs
C. Contribution margin/desired profit
D. Contribution margin/sales

14. At the break-even point:

A. Sales would be equal to total costs.
B. Contribution margin would be equal to total fixed costs.
C. Sales would be equal to fixed costs.
D. Both Sales would be equal to total costs and Contribution margin would be equal to total
fixed costs are correct.

15. Select the incorrect statement regarding cost-volume-profit relationships for multiple
products.

A. For a company that sells many different products, the level of the break-even point is
affected by the company's sales mix.
B. An increase in sales volume accompanied by a change in sales mix could cause a
company's profits to decrease.
C. For a multi-product company, cost-volume-profit analysis can be done using the
contribution margin ratio of the most profitable product.
D. None of these answers is correct.

16. A chair manufacturer makes custom chairs using hand tools, wood, glue, and varnish.
Which of the following statements is true?

A. The costs of wood and glue would be treated as direct costs.
B. Wood, glue, and varnish would all be direct materials.
C. Wood would be accounted for as a direct cost, and glue and varnish as indirect costs.
D. The concepts of direct and indirect costs are not applicable here.

17. Financial reporting standards require that joint costs:

A. Be treated as a period cost and expensed immediately.
B. Be assigned to the product produced in the largest quantity.
C. Be assigned to the product with the highest sales value.
D. Be allocated to the two or more joint products.

18. Which of the following regarding direct costs is a correct statement?

A. Direct costs are always fixed costs.
B. Direct costs are always variable costs.
C. Direct costs are easily traced to cost objects.
D. Direct costs are never selling and administrative expenses.

19. Joint products are:

A. Easily traced to products.
B. Similar products that result from a common process.
C. Different products that result from a common process.
D. Different products that are combined to create a single product.

20. The split off point:

A. Is the point at which production of joint products begins.
B. Is the point at which joint products become unidentifiable.
C. Refers to the point where title to goods sold passes from the seller to the buyer.
D. Is the point at which joint products separated from each other.

21. Select the correct statement regarding activity-based costing (ABC).

A. ABC does not use cost drivers.
B. ABC uses a single activity center but multiple cost drivers.
C. ABC uses multiple activity cost centers and multiple cost drivers.
D. ABC uses multiple activity cost centers but a single cost driver.

22. Which of the following is not a cost resulting from a unit-level activity?

A. The cost of electricity to power manufacturing equipment
B. The cost of sending monthly statements to customers
C. The indirect cost of glue used on each product
D. The per unit cost of packaging goods

23. Which of the following activity costs would not likely be included in a unit-level activity cost
pool?

A. Indirect material
B. Packaging costs
C. Machine setup costs
D. Machine-related utilities

24. Which of the following activity costs should usually be ignored when making a decision
regarding whether to eliminate a product?

A. Product-level costs
B. Batch-level costs
C. Unit-level costs
D. Facility-level costs

25. Which of the following statement(s) regarding activity-based costing is(are) true?

I. Use of activity based costing improves cost tracing by using more cause-and-effect
relationship to assign indirect costs to activity centers.
II. An activity based system is characterized by multiple cost pools and multiple volume and
activity cost drivers.
III. Activity-based costing can cause distortion of cost, assigning too much cost to some
products and too little to others.

A. I and III
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III only

26. Which of the following statements regarding unit-level activities is(are) true?

I. Unit-level activities occur each time a batch of units is produced.
II. Unit-level costs follow a variable cost behavior pattern.
III. Unit-level activities benefit the production as a whole and are not related to any specific
product.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. II only

27. Hough Company manufactures a wide variety of products. A high proportion of its indirect
costs are batch-level costs, such as acquiring materials, moving materials within the factory,
and setting up machines. Hough uses direct labor hours to assign indirect costs to all of its
products. How is this use of a traditional product costing system likely to affect the costs of
Hough's high-volume and low-volume products?

A. All of its products are undercosted.
B. Its low-volume products are overcosted.
C. All of its products are overcosted.
D. Its high-volume products are overcosted.

28. For purposes of decision making, avoidable costs are costs that:

A. Were incurred in the past.
B. Will not be incurred in the future, regardless of the alternative chosen.
C. Differ between alternatives.
D. None of these.

29. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Fixed costs are sometimes relevant for decision making.
B. Opportunity costs are never relevant to decision making.
C. Information must be exactly accurate to be relevant to decision making.
D. A cost that is relevant in one decision context is relevant in other decision contexts.

30. Select the incorrect statement regarding relevant costs and revenues.

A. To be relevant, a cost or revenue must be future-oriented and must differ between the
alternatives.
B. Sunk costs are never relevant for decision-making purposes.
C. Differential revenues are expected future revenues that differ from past revenues.
D. Avoidable costs are also known as differential costs.

31. Engineering design costs are generally referred to as:

A. Batch-level costs.
B. Facility-level costs.
C. Unit-level costs.
D. Product-level costs.

32. Which of the following is a way to relax a constraint or bottleneck?

A. Have employees work overtime.
B. Install faster machinery.
C. Train workers to improve productivity.
D. All of these.

33. Select the correct statement about the master budget.

A. The master budget is a group of detailed budgets and schedules representing the
company's operating and financial plans for the past accounting period.
B. The master budget usually includes operating budgets and capital budgets, and pro
forma financial statements.
C. The budgeting process usually begins with preparing the strategic budgets.
D. Preparing the master budget begins with the cash budget.

34. Which of the following is not a benefit of budgeting?

A. Provides assurance that accounting records are in accordance with generally accepted
accounting principles
B. Coordinates the activities of the company by integrating the plans of all departments
C. Requires managers to plan ahead and to formalize their objectives
D. Sets realistic standards that serve as benchmarks for evaluating performance

35. Which of the following would represent the order in which most master budgets are
prepared?

A. Sales, Income Statement, Cash, Purchases
B. Purchases, Cash, Sales, Income Statement
C. Purchases, Sales, Cash, Income Statement
D. Sales, Purchases, Cash, Income Statement

36. Select the correct equation format for the purchases budget.

A. Beginning inventory + expected sales = required purchases.
B. Cost of sales + beginning inventory - desired ending inventory = required purchases.
C. Beginning inventory + expected sales - desired ending inventory = required purchases.
D. Cost of sales + desired ending inventory - beginning inventory = required purchases.

37. Which of the following would appear on a selling and administrative expense budget, but
would not appear on a schedule of cash payments for selling and administrative expenses?

A. Cost of goods sold
B. Depreciation expense
C. Salary expense
D. Sales expense

38. Which of the following is generally included in a sales budget?

A. Schedule of cash receipts for the projected sales
B. Desired ending inventory
C. Budgeted cost of goods sold
D. Schedule of cash payments for inventory purchases

39. The cash budget is based on which budget?

A. Sales budget
B. Inventory purchases budget
C. Selling and administrative expense budget
D. All of these answers are correct.

40. Which of the following would not be included in a selling and administrative expenses
budget?

A. Budgeted salary expenses
B. Budgeted rent expense
C. Cash payments for selling and administrative expenses
D. Budgeted interest expense

41. Select the incorrect statement regarding the cash budget.

A. The cash budget helps managers to anticipate cash shortages and excess cash balances.
B. Cash inflows and outflows indicated on the cash budget are reported on a company's pro
forma statement of cash flows.
C. Cash payments may include outflows for inventory, selling and administrative expenses,
and equipment purchases.
D. The total cash available is calculated by adding cash receipts and the ending cash
balance.

42. A budget prepared at a single volume of activity is referred to as a:

A. Strategic budget.
B. Standard budget.
C. Static budget.
D. Flexible budget.

43. Spark Company's static budget is based on a planned activity level of 45,000 units. At the
same time the static budget was prepared, the management accountant prepared two
additional budgets, one based on 40,000 units and one based on 50,000. The company
actually produced and sold 49,000 units. In evaluating its performance, management should
compare the company's actual revenues and costs to which of the following budgets?

A. A budget based on 40,000 units
B. A budget based on 45,000 units
C. A budget based on 49,000 units
D. A budget based on 50,000 units

44. Static and flexible budgets are similar in that:

A. They both are based on the same per unit variable amounts and the same fixed costs.
B. They both concentrate solely on costs.
C. They both are prepared for multiple activity levels.
D. None of these answers is correct.

45. When would a variance be labeled as favorable?

A. When actual costs are less than standard costs
B. When standard costs are equal to actual costs
C. When standard costs are less than actual costs
D. When estimated costs are greater than actual costs

46. Standard cost systems facilitate the management practice known as:

A. Management by the numbers.
B. Management development.
C. Managing by exception.
D. Just-in-time management.

47. All of the following factors should influence the decision to investigate a variance except:

A. Frequency of occurrence.
B. Materiality of the variance amount.
C. The direction of the variance (favorable or unfavorable).
D. Capacity for management to control.

48. Abbot Company spent less than expected for materials and more than expected for labor.
Select the incorrect statement from the following.

A. Labor variances will always be unfavorable if material variances are favorable.
B. In order to facilitate cost control, it will be necessary to analyze the price and quantity of
each resource used in production.
C. It cannot be determined from the information provided whether employees were paid
higher wages or if they worked more hours.
D. It cannot be determined from the information provided whether the company paid a
lower purchase price for materials or if workers used less materials.

49. Select the correct statement regarding flexible budgets.

A. A flexible budget can only be prepared for a single level of activity.
B. A flexible budget is not used for planning.
C. A flexible budget shows expected revenues and costs at a variety of activity levels.
D. A flexible budget is also known as the master budget.

50. Which of the following is a difference between a static and a flexible budget?

A. Static budgets use the same fixed cost amounts, whereas flexible budgets change the
amount of fixed costs at different levels of activity.
B. Static budgets are based on the same per unit variable amount, whereas flexible budgets
are based on multiple per unit variable amounts.
C. Static budgets are based on single estimate of volume, whereas flexible budgets show
estimated costs and revenues at a variety of activity levels.
D. None of these answers is correct.

51. When would a cost variance be listed as unfavorable?

A. When actual costs are less than budgeted costs
B. When actual costs exceed budgeted costs
C. When actual costs are equal to budgeted costs
D. When actual sales are less than budgeted sales

52. The practice of delegating authority and responsibility is referred to as:

A. Centralization of authority.
B. Standard costing.
C. Management by exception.
D. Decentralization.

53. A major benefit of a decentralized organization is that:

A. Lower level managers are more motivated to improve productivity.
B. Upper level managers are more involved in routine decisions.
C. It avoids the necessity for a managerial accounting system.
D. It avoids decision making by less experienced lower level managers.

54. The research and development department of Apple would likely be organized as:

A. A profit center.
B. A cost center.
C. A revenue center.
D. An investment center.

55. The manager of the production department for Romulus Manufacturing has responsibility for
all stages of the production process and does not have time to review all the operational
details of his department. He has found it to be more productive to focus on the significant
deviations from budget. This kind of management is called:

A. Management by exception.
B. Crisis management.
C. Controllable management.
D. Decentralized management.

56. Select the incorrect statement concerning the application of the controllability concept to
responsibility accounting.

A. As a practical matter, control of costs or revenues may be shared rather than absolute.
B. The concept of control is crucial to an effective responsibility accounting system.
C. Managers lose motivation when they are held accountable for actions that are beyond
their scope of control.
D. Each manager should be evaluated on the costs but not the revenues that are under his
or her control.

57. Which of the following statements about Return On Investment (ROI) is false?

A. ROI = margin divided by investment turnover.
B. ROI is used to measure the performance of investment centers.
C. Seeking to maximize ROI can result in a conflict between the interest of a particular
manager and the interest of the business as a whole.
D. Companies may minimize motivational problems by using original cost instead of book
value in the denominator of the ROI formula.

58. When using Residual Income as a project-screening tool, management should accept a
project if:

A. Residual Income is positive.
B. Residual Income is negative.
C. Residual Income equals ROI.
D. Residual Income is greater than Net Income.

59. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Turnover is calculated by dividing sales by average operating assets.
B. Margin is a measure of the profits generated from sales.
C. Return on investment can be improved by increasing sales, decreasing expenses, or
increasing the asset base.
D. If return on investment increases when sales increase, that change usually is due at least
in part to the effect of fixed costs (operating leverage).

60. Which of the following statements about residual income is true?

A. Residual income = Operating Income - Sales
B. Residual income = Operating Income - Operating Assets
C. Residual income is the amount of income in excess of a target or desired return on
investment
D. None of these.

61. Which of the following statements regarding a balanced scorecard is correct?

A. It includes several different performance measures that can be used to assess how well a
business is accomplishing their mission.
B. It includes financial performance measures such as ROI.
C. It includes non-financial measures such as defect rates or on-time deliveries.
D. All of these.

62. For a capital investment project to be acceptable, it must generate a rate of return:

A. Less than the hurdle rate.
B. Equal to or greater than the cost of capital.
C. Equal to the conversion rate.
D. None of these answers is correct.

63. A cash flow that only occurs in equal amounts each year is referred to as:

A. A lump sum.
B. A perpetuity.
C. An annuity.
D. None of these.

64. The rate of return that equates the present value of cash inflows and outflows is the:

A. Minimum rate of return.
B. Internal rate of return.
C. Desired rate of return.
D. Hurdle rate.

65. A capital investment project may provide cash inflows from:

A. Incremental revenues.
B. Cost savings.
C. The salvage value of the investment.
D. All of these answers are correct.

66. Which of the following statements concerning payback analysis is true?

A. Investments with shorter paybacks are preferable to investments with longer paybacks.
B. The payback method ignores the time value of money concept.
C. The payback method and the simple rate of return may not lead to the same conclusion.
D. All of the other answers are correct.

67. Product costs are expensed as cost of goods sold:

A. When production is complete.
B. At the start of production.
C. When the related products are sold.
D. When the related revenue is collected.

68. Benson Corporation is considering an investment in equipment that would cost $50,000 and
provide annual cash inflows of $14,000. The company's required rate of return is 12%; the
internal rate of return for the investment is 10.5%. Should the company make this
investment?

A. No, since the internal rate of return is more than the company's required rate of return.
B. Yes, since the internal rate of return is less than the company's required rate of return.
C. No, since the internal rate of return is less than the company's required rate of return.
D. The answer cannot be determined.

69. Joan Osborne is evaluating a potential capital investment. She has calculated the net
present value using a minimum rate of return of 10%. Using this rate, the net present value
is negative. What does this tell her about the rate of return expected for the project?

A. If the net present value is negative; the expected rate of return for the project is greater
than the 10% minimum or required rate of return.
B. If the net present value is negative; the expected rate of return for the project is less
than the 10% minimum or required rate of return.
C. If the net present value is negative; the expected rate of return for the project is equal to
the 10% minimum or required rate of return.
D. None of the other answers are correct.

70. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The further into the future a cash receipt is expected to occur, the lower is its present
value.
B. The return on investment measures the compensation a company expects to receive
from investing in capital assets.
C. Most companies use their cost of capital to estimate the minimum return on investment
required from capital investments.
D. When a company invests in capital assets, it sacrifices future dollars for the opportunity
to receive present dollars.

70. Product costs are expensed as cost of goods sold:

A. When production is complete.
B. At the start of production.
C. When the related products are sold.
D. When the related revenue is collected.

71. All of the following costs are accumulated in the work in process account except:

A. Transportation-out costs.
B. Direct labor costs.
C. Manufacturing overhead costs.
D. Direct material costs.

72. Which of the following correctly computes cost of goods manufactured?

A. Beginning work in process + Direct materials used + Direct labor + Overhead - Ending
work in process
B. Beginning work in process + Cost of goods sold - Ending finished goods
C. Beginning work in process + Direct materials used + Direct labor + Overhead
D. None of these.

73. Which of the following is a valid reason for using variable costing?

A. Fixed production cost should be ignored when costing units of inventory since it is not
essential to the production process.
B. Absorption costing recognizes fixed costs as expense regardless of volume of production.
C. Absorption costing may motivate managers to overproduce in order to increase profits.
D. Under variable costing managers can increase profitability by increasing the volume of
production.

74. Which of the following statements is true for a company that uses variable costing?

A. The manufacturing cost per unit decreases when the volume of production increases.
B. Net income is not affected by fluctuations in production.
C. Fixed manufacturing overhead is treated like a product cost.
D. Fixed manufacturing overhead costs incurred in the current period may be recognized as
expense in a later period.

75. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

I. A predetermined overhead rate is used to assign estimated overhead costs to work in
process inventory.
II. The predetermined overhead rate is calculated by dividing estimated overhead cost by
the estimated volume or level of activity.
III. The most common means of allocating overhead costs is to calculate a predetermined
overhead rate at the end of the period.

A. I
B. I and III
C. II
D. I and II

76. In which account is the actual amount of costs such as factory utilities and maintenance
initially recorded?

A. Work in process inventory
B. Manufacturing overhead
C. Raw materials inventory
D. Supplies inventory

77. For 2014, Kelly Company's manufacturing overhead costs totaled $2,871,400. At the end of
the period, manufacturing overhead had been underapplied by $5,310. As a result:

A. Cost of goods sold increases.
B. Manufacturing overhead increases.
C. Cost of goods sold decreases.
D. None of these.

78. The reporting method that includes in the cost of inventory (and cost of goods sold) all
product costs, including both fixed and variable costs is known as:

A. Variable costing.
B. Total costing.
C. Direct costing.
D. Absorption costing.

79. Cost of goods sold is equal to:

A. Cost of goods manufactured - ending finished goods.
B. Cost of goods available for sale - beginning finished goods.
C. Cost of goods available for sale - ending finished goods.
D. Cost of goods manufactured - beginning finished.

80. A process cost system is used when:

A. Homogenous items are produced in a continuous flow production process.
B. Batches of identical inventory items are produced.
C. A company produces unique, one-of-a-kind inventory items.
D. All of these.

81. In a job-order cost system, as goods are produced, product costs are accumulated in the:

A. Work in process account.
B. Materials account.
C. Finished goods account.
D. Cost of goods sold account.

82. Select the incorrect statement regarding cost flows through a process cost system.

A. Process cost systems parallel the physical flow of products in the production process.
B. The three inventory accounts used are maintained on a perpetual basis.
C. Product costs are accumulated separately by job.
D. A separate work in process account is maintained for each department or process.

83. The entry to record cost of goods sold in a job-order costing system would include a:

A. Debit to finished goods inventory and a credit to cost of goods sold.
B. Debit to cost of goods sold and a credit to finished goods inventory.
C. Debit to cost of goods sold and a credit to work in process Inventory.
D. Credit to work in process and a debit to finished goods Inventory.

84. When manufacturing overhead is applied to production in a job order cost system, the
accounting records would reflect an increase in which of the following?

A. Work in process
B. Cost of goods sold
C. Finished goods inventory
D. Raw materials inventory

85. Equivalent units of production would best be defined as:

A. The number of whole units that could have been completed with direct material, direct
labor and overhead used during the period.
B. Completed units that are produced through the same process.
C. Number of units transferred out during the period, regardless of when the units were
started into production.
D. Units of production that are the same kind of product.

86. A laundry detergent manufacturer would most likely use:

A. Process costing.
B. Job order costing.
C. Hybrid order costing.
D. Batch order costing.

87. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

I. It is easy to distinguish the balance sheet of a company that uses a process costing
system from that of a company that uses job-order costing
II. A process cost system requires a work in process account for each processing
department, while a job order system uses a single work in process account
III. Process cost systems use multiple finished goods inventory accounts

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

88. An activity cost driver is

A. A measure of the underlying activity that occurs in each activity cost pool.
B. A measure of the volume of units produced or customers sold.
C. A number of activities combined into one cost pool.
D. The cost assigned to an activity.

89. Volume-based cost systems tend to

A. Under-cost low-volume products and under-cost high-volume products.
B. Under-cost low-volume products and over-cost high-volume products.
C. Over-cost low-volume products and under-cost high-volume products.
D. Over-cost low-volume products and over-cost high-volume products.

90. Which of the following is the best example of a facility-level activity?

A. Human resources
B. Research and development
C. Painting a final product
D. Product testing

91. Which of the following statements is true?

A. A process costing system will have a single Work in Process Inventory account.
B. A process costing system will have a separate Work in Process Inventory account for
each of the major processes.
C. A job costing system will have a separate Work in Process Inventory account for each of
the major processes.
D. A process costing system will have a separate Raw Materials Inventory account for each
of the major processes.

92. Which of the following relationships is correct?

A. Beginning units in process + units started = units completed + ending units in process
B. Units started = beginning units in process + units completed + ending units in process
C. Units started - beginning units in process = units completed + ending units in process
D. Ending units in process + beginning units in process = units started - units completed

93. Physical units multiplied by their percentage of completion yields

A. Units completed and transferred out.
B. Beginning units in process.
C. Equivalent units.
D. Ending units in process.

94. Cost per equivalent unit is kept separate for direct materials and conversion costs because

A. The physical units were different for the two categories.
B. The total manufacturing costs were different for the two categories.
C. The equivalent units were different for the two categories.
D. The ending inventories were different for the two categories.

95. For a firm that uses process costing, calculating equivalent units makes it possible to fulfill
which of the following requirements of GAAP?

A. Assigning an appropriate value to assets.
B. Assigning an appropriate value to liabilities.
C. Expensing period costs as they are incurred.
D. Recognizing revenue when it is realized or realizable.

96. Which of the following would be included in net income but not in annual cash flows?

A. Sales revenue
B. Depreciation
C. Initial investment
D. Direct labor

97. If cash flows are not equal each year, the payback period

A. Cannot be calculated.
B. Is calculated by dividing the initial investment by the average cash flows.
C. Is calculated by subtracting each year's cash flows from the initial investment until zero is
reached.
D. Is calculated by dividing the total years in the project by two.

98. The responsibility center in which the manager has responsibility and authority over
revenues, costs and assets is

A. A cost center.
B. An investment center.
C. A profit center.
D. A revenue center.

99. Which of the following statements follows from the controllability principle?

A. A profit center manager should be evaluated based on residual income, not return on
investment.
B. An investment center manager should be evaluated based on return on investment, not
residual income.
C. A profit center manager should be evaluated based on segment margin, not profit
margin.
D. A cost center manager should be evaluated on costs and revenues, not just costs.

100. The purpose of the cash budget is to

A. Be used as a basis for the operating budgets.
B. Provide external users with an estimate of future cash flows.
C. Help managers plan ahead to make certain they will have enough cash on hand to meet
their operating needs.
D. Summarize the cash flowing into and out of the business during the past period.

101. The break-even point is

A. The point where zero contribution margin is earned.
B. The point where zero profit is earned.
C. The point where selling price just equals variable cost.
D. Equal to sales revenue less fixed costs.

102. The margin of safety tells managers

A. How much sales would have to increase to hit the target profit.
B. How much profit would drop if sales decreased.
C. How much sales could drop before the firm no longer earns profits.
D. How much profit would have to increase to hit target sales.

103. Cost structure refers to

A. A company's break-even point.
B. Whether fixed costs are covered by contribution margin.
C. How a company uses variable versus fixed costs.
D. Where funds are stored.

104. Profit will be the same under variable costing as under full absorption costing whenever

A. Production is greater than sales.
B. Production is the same as sales.
C. Production is less than sales.
D. Variable costing is chosen for external reporting purposes.

105. What is the difference between full absorption costing and variable costing?

A. In full absorption costing, all of the non-manufacturing costs are expensed. In variable
costing, all of the non-manufacturing expenses are included in the cost of the product.
B. In full absorption costing, fixed manufacturing overhead is expensed. In variable costing,
fixed manufacturing overhead is included in the cost of the product.
C. In full absorption costing, fixed manufacturing overhead is included in the cost of the
product. In variable costing, fixed manufacturing overhead is expensed.
D. Variable costing must be used for external financial reports while full absorption costing
can only be used for internal reporting.

106. Which of the following responsibility centers will use a segmented income statement as an
evaluation tool?

A. Cost center
B. Revenue center
C. Profit center
D. Balanced center

107. The difference between variable costing and full absorption costing is due to differences in
the treatment of

A. Direct costs.
B. Variable manufacturing overhead.
C. Fixed manufacturing overhead.
D. Period costs.

108. If a cost is a common cost of the segments on a segmented income statement, the cost
should:

A. Be allocated to the segments on the basis of segment sales.
B. Not be allocated to the segments.
C. Excluded from the income statement.
D. Treated as a product cost rather than as a period cost.

109. A national retail company has segmented its income statement by sales territories. If each
sales territory statement is further segmented by individual stores, which of the following
will most likely occur?

A. Some common fixed expenses in the sales territory segmented statement will become
traceable fixed expenses in the individual store segmented statement.
B. Some traceable fixed expenses in the sales territory segmented statement will become
common fixed expenses in the individual store segmented statement.
C. The sum total of the individual stores' segment margins in each sales territory will be
equal to the segment margin for the sales territory.
D. The sum total of the sales territory segment margins will equal the total net operating
income for the entire company.

110. Brummitt Corporation has two divisions: the BAJ Division and the CBB Division. The
corporation's net operating income is $10,700. The BAJ Division's divisional segment margin
is $76,100 and the CBB Division's divisional segment margin is $42,300. What is the
amount of the common fixed expense not traceable to the individual divisions?

A. $86,800
B. $107,700
C. $53,000
D. $118,400

111. On January 1, 2014, the balance of Fink Corporation's accounts receivable was $10,000.
Sales on account for 2014 amounted to $80,000 and the ending balance of accounts
receivable was $16,000. What is the amount of cash collected from customers?

A. $64,000

B. $90,000

C. $86,000

D. $74,000

112. Under the indirect method, which of the following items would be subtracted from net
income to determine the cash flow from operating activities?

A. Loss on the sale of equipment.

B. Increase in the balance of accounts receivable.

C. Increase in accrued interest payable.
D. Depreciation expense.

113. Which of the following would not be reported as an investing activity?

A. Cash dividends received from an investment in marketable securities.

B. Cash loaned to another company.

C. Cash received from the sale of equipment.

D. Cash paid to purchase production equipment.

114. Where is the gain resulting from the sale of equipment shown when using the indirect
method to prepare the cash flow statement?

A. In the operating section as a deduction

B. In the investing section as a deduction

C. In the operating section as an addition

D. In the investing section as an addition

115. For 2014, Street Corporation reported net income of $400,000 and net cash flows from
operating activities of $550,000. Which of the following could not have been a reason why
Street's net cash flows from operating activities were greater than its net income?

A. Increase in accrued liabilities from the beginning of the year to the end of the year

B. Increase in accounts payable from the beginning of the year to the end of the year
C. Loss on the sale of equipment

D. Increase in accounts receivable

116. In preparing the statement of cash flows by the indirect method, which of the following is an
incorrect statement of one of the general rules to convert net income to a cash-basis
equivalent?

A. Increases in current assets are subtracted from net income.
B. Non-cash revenue and gains are subtracted from net income.
C. Decreases in current assets are added to net income.
D. Increases in current liabilities are subtracted from net income.

117. The following income statement was drawn from the annual report of Gibbons Company:


The amount of cash flow from operating activities is:

A. $37,200.
B. $26,000.

C. $36,000.
D. $24,800.

118. The following information was drawn from the year-end balance sheets of White, Inc.


White, Inc., issued $30,000 in bonds during 2014. The bonds were issued at face value. All
bonds were retired at face value. What is the amount of cash outflow for the payment of
bond liabilities?

A. $75,000
B. $25,000

C. $55,000
D. $105,000

119. The following information was drawn from the year-end balance sheets of White, Inc.


The amount of net income shown on the 2014 income statement was $17,500. What is the
amount of cash outflows for dividends?

A. $7,500
B. $25,000
C. $17,500
D. $10,000

120. The following information was prepared for Standard Corporation:


Net cash provided by operating activities is:

A. $672,000
B. $628,000

C. $658,000
D. $548,000

Solutions to Multiple Choice Questions

1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. C
20. D
21. C
22. B
23. C
24. D
25. B
26. D
27. D
28. C
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. D
37. B
38. A
39. D
40. D
41. D
42. C
43. C
44. A
45. A
46. C
47. C
48. A
49. C
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. A
54. B
55. A
56. D
57. A
58. A
59. C
60. C
61. D
62. B
63. C
64. B
65. D
66. D
67. C
68. C
69. B
70. D
71. A
72. A
73. C
74. B
75. D
76. B
77. A
78. D
79. C
80. A
81. A
82. C
83. B
84. A
85. A
86. A
87. B
88. A
89. B
90. A
91. B
92. A
93. C
94. C
95. A
96. B
97. C
98. B
99. C
100. C
101. B
102. C
103. C
104. B
105. C
106. C
107. C
108. B
109. B
110. B
111. D
112. B
113. A
114. A
115. D
116. D
117. C
118. D
119. D
120. B