1.

Sea route to India was discovered by

A. Columbus
B. Amundsen
C. Vascodagama
D. None of these

Answer:C

2. The Aryans came from Central Asia to India around
A. 8000
B.
C. B. 6500 B.C. C. 3500 B.C.
D. 2500 B.C.

Answer:D

3. Which one of the following was the port city of the Indus Valley
Civilisation?
A. Harappa
B. Kalibangan
C. Lothal
D. Mohenjodara

Answer:C

4. Rig Veda is believed by the historians to have been written when it
was
A. Stone Age
B. Copper Age
C. Bronze Age
D. Beginning of Iron Age

Answer:D

5. Babar entered India for the first time through
A. Sind
B. Punjab
C. Kashmir
D. Rajasthan

Answer:B

6. Who said that there was no Slavery in India?
A. Fahien
B. Strabo
C. Heiun Tsang
D. Megasthenese

Answer:D

7. Mahabharata war took place in
A. 500 AD
B. 900 BC
C. 1000 BC
D. 1200 BC

Answer:B

8. The magnificient temple at Halebid was established by
A. Cholas
B. Pandyas
C. Hosysalas
D. Naickers

Answer:C

9. India derives its name from
A. The Hindus
B. The Aryans
C. Lord Indra
D. The River Indus

Answer:D

10. A national religion called DiniIllahi was promulgated by
A. Akbar
B. Babur
C. Humayun
D. Aurangazeb

Answer:A

11. Recently, Justice G Rohini has became the first ever woman Chief
Justice of ___?
[A]Bombay High Court
[B]Karnataka High Court
[C]Delhi High Court
[D]Madras High Court

Answer:Delhi High Court: Justice G Rohini became the first woman chief
justice of the Delhi high court, 47 years after the court was established in
1966.

12. Recently, which of the following member countries of commonwealth
organisation announced suspending of funding to the Commonwealth over
rotating chair Sri Lankas alleged rights abuses?
[A]Canada
[B]India
[C]Singapore
[D]Pakistan

Answer:Canada:

13. Which among the following diseases is often called as Polio of
Agriculture?
[A]Wheat Rust
[B]Panama Wilt
[C]Citrus Canker
[D]Leaf Blight

Answer:Wheat Rust: Wheat rust is sometime called the Polio of Agriculture.
Wheat rust is a fungal infection. Its most devastating form attacks the
plants stem, forming lethal, scaly red pustules.
14. Recently, India and which of the following countries have reached an
agreement to include a new cross-boundary landscape in the Hindu Kush
Himalayan Region?
[A]Nepal and China
[B]Nepal and Bhutan
[C]Bhutan and Bangladesh
[D]Bangladesh and Nepal

Answer:Nepal and Bhutan: Nepal, India and Bhutan have formally reached
an agreement to include a new cross-boundary landscape covering parts of
eastern Nepal, Sikkim and the northern parts of West Bengal in India as
Kanchanjunga landscape in the Hindu Kush Himalayan Region.

15. Who among the following is the author of the book Crusader or
Conspirator: Colgate and other Truths?
[A]P C Parakh
[B]C B Bhave
[C]Rajkumar Singh
[D]Arvind Mayaram

Answer:P C Parakh:

16. The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is associated with __?
[A]Football
[B]Tennis
[C]Cricket
[D]Hockey

Answer:Cricket: The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is a Twenty20 cricket
domestic championship, organised by BCCI.

17. As per the latest data released by SIPRI, country with highest military
expenditure in 2013 is __?
[A]China
[B]Russia
[C]USA
[D]Saudi Arabia

Answer:USA:

18. The theme of World Green Economy Summit-2014 which concluded
at Dubai is ____?
[A]Global Partnership, Sustainable Future
[B]Partnership for Better Future
[C]Global Partnership, Better Future
[D]Partnership for Sustainable Development

Answer: Global Partnership, Sustainable Future: The World Green
Economy Summit-2014 was held at the Dubai International Convention
and Exhibition Centre on 15th and 16th April, 2014. The theme of the
summit was Global Partnership, Sustainable Future.

19. Who among the following has been named Chef-de-Mission of Indias
Common Wealth Game contingent?
[A]S Ranganathan
[B]Raja K Sidhu
[C]Raj Singh
[D]K Murugan

Answer: Raj Singh: Wrestling Federation of India secretary general Raj
Singh was named Chef-de-Mission of the Indian contingent for the
commonwealth games to be held in Glasgow in July-August

20. . According to Indian laws, a building has to be at least ___ years old to
be considered heritage. Fill the blank with correct option?
[A]50
[B]100
[C]75
[D]200

Answer: 100: As per the India laws, a building must be 100 year old to be
considered heritage

21. The WTOs Trade Facilitation Agreement:, which was much news in
recent times was signed at __?
[A]Doha
[B]Marakkesh
[C]Bali
[D]Tokyo

Answer: Bali: The 159 members of the WTO had adopted the Bali
package after December 2013 meeting. Some of the features of this
package were trade facilitation, food stockholding, export subsidies and a
package for LDCs (least-developed countries). In Bali, ministers endorsed
the Trade Facilitation Agreement aimed at making Customs procedures
more trade-friendly and lowering transaction costs.

22. What is the approximate fraction of Agriculture exports in Indias total
exports?
[A]5%
[B]10%
[C]13%
[D]17%

Answer: 13%: In 2012-13, agricultural exports touched an all-time high of
Rs 231,993 crore, primarily due to a surge in the export of non-basmati
rice, guar gum and wheat. This raised the contribution of the agriculture to
overall exports to 13.08 per cent from 12.8 per cent in 2011-12. (Business
Standard)

23. Approximately, what fraction of Post Offices in India are in rural areas?
[A]70%
[B]80%
[C]90%
[D]95%

Answer: 90%: India has the largest postal network in the world, with
155,015 post offices, of which 139,144 (89.8 per cent) are in rural areas.

24. Which among the following is not a correct statement about El
Niño?
[A]It emerges after a hap of every three to seven years
[B]It negatively impacts the North East monsoons in India
[C]It was a reason behind 2009 droughts in India
[D]All the above are correct statements

Answer: It negatively impacts the North East monsoons in India: El
Niño has a negative impact on the southwest monsoon during June.
In the past decade, 2002, 2004 and 2009 were the drought years in India,
due to emergence of El Niño .El Niño emerges after a gap of
every three to seven years and affects rainfall in India during monsoon. The
heat off the western coast of South America increases the sea surface
temperatures above normal by 0.5 degree Celsius, affecting formation of
rain-bearing clouds.

25. In which of the following years Government introduced the Market
Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) to absorb excess liquidity?
[A]2001
[B]2003
[C]2004
[D]2005

Answer: 2004: The government launched the Market Stabilisation Scheme
(MSS) in consultation with RBI in 2004 with the objective to absorb excess
liquidity, arising out of significant foreign exchange inflows, by issuing
treasury bills or dated securities.

26. Recently, a product called Palcohol gained widespread attention
worldwide. What does Palcohol refers to___?
[A]New kind of drug
[B]Powdered alcohol product
[C]Food capsules for astronauts
[D]Genetically modified food products

Answer: Powdered alcohol product: Palcohol is a powdered form of alcohol
that is intended to mix with water or other flavoured liquids. Recently, the
United States Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau approved seven
version of Palcohol to sale in shops.

27. The Katni-Satna-Singarauli region in Madhya Pradesh is well known
for __?
[A]Mango production
[B]Coal production
[C]Cement production
[D]Diamond polishing

Answer: Cement production: The Katni-Satna-Singarauli region is one of
the largest cement producing regions in the country.

28. Peace Angel 2014 is a joint military exercise concluded recently
between which two countries?
[A]India and Bangladesh
[B]China and Pakistan
[C]China and Bangladesh
[D]India and Pakistan

Answer: China and Pakistan: Peace Angle 2014 is a joint military exercise
concluded between Pakistan and China.

29. The retirement fund body EPFO has decided to provide universal
account numbers (UAN) to its subscribers by ___?
[A]August 15
[B]July 30
[C]October 15
[D]November 1

Answer: October 15: The EPFO has decided to provide permanent or
universal account numbers (UAN) on the pattern of core banking services
to its over five crore active subscribers by October 15, 2014. The UAN will
facilitate subscribers in avoiding filing of PF transfer claims on changing
jobs.

30. . The Yonaguni island which is in news recently, is a inhabited island
belongs to which country?
[A]China
[B]Vietnam
[C]Japan
[D]Myanmar

Answer: Japan: Yonaguni is one of the Yeayama Islands. It is the
westernmost inhabited island of Japan.

31. Which of the following pointing devices is NOT usually associated with
a notebook computer?
(1) Touchpad
(2) Pointing stick
(3) Joystick
(4) Trackball
Answer (3)
32. Which type of input device is used to copy contents of a piece of paper
to a file, including both its text and graphics?
(1) Plotter
(2) MICR
(3) Scanner
(4) Bar code reader
Answer (3)

33. Which feature on a monitor display system determines the clarity or
sharpness of the output?
(1) Resolution
(2) Number of cathode ray tubes
(3) Refresh rate
(4) Screen size

Answer (1)

34. For which of the following reasons might you purchase an inkjet printer
for your home computer?
(1) It can produce the best quality color output of all printer types
designed for personal computers.
(2) It is an affordable printer with the ability to print colored text or images.
(3) It has low per-page costs since ink is relatively inexpensive.
(4) It can print more volume in the same amount of time than a laser
printer.

Answer (2)

35. Which of the following is NOT a reason why storage is necessary on a
computer system?
(1) Access time to the data is faster with storage devices than with
memory.
(2) Storage devices provide backup services.
(3) Storage devices are nonvolatile.
(4) Storage devices are cheaper than RAM.

Answer (1)

36. Which of the following is an example of an optical storage device?
(1) Floppy disk
(2) Compact disc
(3) Zip disk
(4) Hard disk
Answer (2)

37. __________ is a block of storage space on a server that you rent for a
specific period of time.
(1) Primary storage
(2) Secondary storage
(3) Internet hard drive
(4) Rent2store
Answer (3)

38. Which of the following best matches the storage capacity of a typical
floppy disk?
(1) 700 MB
(2) 1 GB
(3) 10 MB
(4) 1.44 MB

Answer (4)

39. Which of the following correctly describes the CD-R and DVD-R discs?

(1) You may record data to the disc surface multiple times and can read
the current contents at any time.
(2) You may read data from the disc but may not alter its contents.
(3) You may record data to the disc surface multiple times but have no
direct reading capability.
(4) You may record data to the disc surface once and then may only read
its contents.

Answer (4)

40. PC cards, flash memory cards, and smart cards are all examples of:
(1) Removable hard disks.
(2) Digital video discs.
(3) Volatile memory devices.
(4) Solid state storage devices.

Answer (4)

41. A great effort in terms of time and money is required for __________;
and despite the effort, results are not
a. Growth
b. Profitability
c. Branding
d. Promotion

Answer (1)

42. Brands are born out of the following strategies:
a. Segmentation and differentiation strategies
b. Promotion strategies
c. Good purchasing and supply chain strategies
d. All of the given options
Answer (1)

43. Brand identity is followed by _________, which is a reflection of what
marketers planed to send to the public.
a. Brand value
b. Brand image
c. Advertising
d. Brand personality

Answer (2)

44. Right branding increases __________ of the product, which should
be more than that of the generic product.
a. Consumer revolt
b. Market share
c. Profit
d. Value

Answer (4)

45. _________ are incurred by brands because of failures and
questionable business practices that may increase costs and liabilities.
a. Brand assets
b. Brand liabilities
c. Brand equities
d. Market failures

Answer (2)

46. Introduction of more brands and extensions leads to __ with no new
benefits to consumers.
a. Higher cost
b. Greater revenue
c. Brand proliferation
d. Increased competition

Answer (3)

47. While defining the industry during the analysis, brand managers
must consider:
a. The range of products and services offered by the industry
b. A picture of the geographic scope of the industry
c. Both of the given options
d. None of the given options

Answer (3)

48. The difference between companys present financial position and
the financial objectives is known as:
a. Contribution gap
b. Contribution margin
c. Financial objectives failure
d. Low demand in market

Answer (1)

49. A ___________ has to answer the questions like what would be
the short of market if our brand is not there.
a. Brand image
b. Brand picture
c. Brand manager
d. Brand association
Answer (2)
50. Brand assets include:
a. The name of the brand
b. Reputation, relevance, and loyalty
c. Less quality complaints
d. All of the given options

Answer (2)

51. A change in positioning may cause _______________ in price.
a. An upward change
b. A downward change
c. Both of the given options
d. None of the given options

Answer (3)

52. ______________ occurs by maintaining the brand contract while
undergoing innovations and modifications to stay current.
a. Sustainability
b. Fit
c. Uniqueness
d. Credibility

Answer (4)

53. When we keep the same brand name of new offerings so that
customers may develop an immediate familiarity, the resultant
phenomenon is known as:
a. Leveraging
b. Extension
c. Diversification
d. Stretching

Answer (1)

54. Introduction of another strength of a medicine by a pharmaceutical
company is an example of:
a. Brand extension
b. Line extension
c. Brand diversification
d. All of the given options

Answer (2)

55. Brands are diversified because:
a. It is essential for brand survival
b. Some brands have such a high awareness that those are perceived by
customers to be in categories where they are not present.
c. Cost-cutting is possible by advertising products with the same brand
name
d. All of the given options

Answer (4)

56. The __________ relates to extra benefits that a brand offers to its
customers.
a. Entire positioning
b. Point of difference
c. Definition of business
d. Innovation

Answer (2)
57. Benefits of having different brands include all of the following except:
a. Quickly respond to retailers need
b. Effectively compete in market
c. Save the actual brand image
d. Fill all the gaps in market

Answer (4)

58. When the same brand name holds several products in different
markets, it is known as the
a. Umbrella brand
b. Source brand
c. Multi-brand
d. Range brand

Answer (1)

59. Factors affecting the choice of distribution channel include:
a. Customer value
b. Sales revenues
c. Both of the given options
d. None of the given options

Answer (3)

60. ___________ provides a good quality of service because of a direct
interface with the customers, but it is expensive.
a. Direct sales
b. Telemarketing
c. E-marketing
d. All of the given options
Answer (4)

61. In a specific strategic market plan, a profit centre that is self-
supporting in terms of sales, markets, production, and other resources is
known as:
a. Profit unit.
b. Strategic business unit
c. Marketing unit
d. Small business unit

Answer (2)

62. Clarity about dimensions of brands means the clarity in:
a. The functions of brand
b. The aspects of differentiation
c. Both of the given options
d. None of the given options

Answer (3)

63. The drivers of change include all of the following except:
a. Downfall in industry
b. Consumer behavior
c. Market analysis
d. An investment by a foreign firm in local market

Answer (3)

64. Shan Foods is involved in selecting and analyzing a target market
and developing a marketing mix to gain long-run competitive advantages.
Based on this example, Shan Foods is creating a:
a. Corporate strategy
b. Target design
c. Mix strategy
d. Marketing strategy

Answer (4)

65. Which of the following is not a reason of selling a service is
difficult?
a. Competitors can copy services very easily
b. It is hard to summarize and communicate services
c. Standardization among services is difficult
d. Customer can never be satisfied with a service

Answer (4)

66. Often, the direct consumers of a nonprofit organization are its:
a. Consumer public
b. Member public
c. Client public
d. Nonbusiness public

Answer (3)

67. A __________ organization is customer-centric, and all the decisions
it makes are based on involvement of all in the organization.
a. Brand based
b. Consumer based
c. Marketing
d. Competition based
Answer (1)
68. Measuring your brands performance means you are:
a. Managing your brand right
b. Measuring your strategies
c. Maintaining your brand position
d. Maintaining your brand picture

Answer (1)

69. Critical success factors for a firm include:
a. Changing lifestyles and attitudes
b. Low-cost production efficiency
c. Both of the given options
d. None of the given options

Answer (2)

70. PIA runs a series of television commercials that show its staff going
out of their way to help customers. An important secondary audience for
these ads is:
a. The civil aviation authority
b. Competitors
c. PIA employees
d. All air travelers

Answer (3)

71. Which one of the following form of asset the brand has __________?
a) Tangible assets
b) Intangible assets
c) Current assets
d) Fixed assets
Answer (2)

72. The functional risk of brand is related to __________.
a) Price
b) Performance
c) Social image
d) Our self concept

Answer (2)

73. With the effort of team of professionals in a company, produce end
product which is related to the ____.
a) Brand creation
b) Idea creation
c) Brand management
d) Marketing management

Answer (1)

74. A differentiated product may be unique in the marketplace, but it will
only be successful under which of the
following circumstances?
a) If it satisfies customers needs
b) If the price differential is minimal
c) If the brand can be classed as aspirational
d) Differentiated products will always be successful

Answer (1)

75. Choosing a suitable international brand name is an important, but often
difficult, part of the process that creates a strong and distinctive brand.
Which of the following statements about choosing a name for a new soft
drink is UNTRUE?
a) The name should be memorable and easy to pronounce
b) The name must be checked by experts to ensure it doesnt infringe on
another companys brand name
c) The name should have positive associations with the benefits and
features of the product
d) The brand name must be modern and contemporary

Answer (4)

76. Which of the following is the indicator of brand strength?
a) Brand reputation
b) Patents and rights
c) Perceived brand values
d) Growth rate

Answer (4)

77. There are lot of customers have the knowledge of brand. They are
inclined to be bound into a contract. A customer bound by a contract is
known as __________.
a) Loyal customer
b) Difficult customer
c) Potential customer
d) Finicky customer

Answer (1)

78. Which one of the following is the best example of implicit promise?
a) Personal computer
b) Furniture
c) Green tea
d) Crockery

Answer (3)

79. Developing budgets and steering resources into strategy are critical
areas of success, Correlates which of the following strategy.
a) Crafting strategy
b) Implementing strategy
c) Evaluating strategy
d) Performing strategy

Answer (2)

80. The process of establishing and maintaining a distinctive place in the
market for an organization or its specific product offers is known as
__________.
a) Profiling b) Profiling Segmentation
c) Segmentation d) Positioning

Answer (4)

81. Many users install Linux in a __________ configuration with Windows;
that is, when you boot the system, you choose which operating system will
be loaded.
(1) dual-boot
(2) single-boot

Answer (1)

82. The Windows __________ Server family is an upgrade to Windows NT.
(1) 2000
(2) .NET

Answer (1)

83. __________ Allocation is the process of assigning computer memory to
certain programs for their use.
1. esource
2. Concurrent

Answer (1)

84. Which of the following pointing devices is NOT usually associated with
a notebook computer?
(1) Touchpad
(2) Pointing stick
(3) Joystick
(4) Trackball

Answer (3)

85.Which type of input device is used to copy contents of a piece of paper
to a file, including both its text and graphics?
(1) Plotter
(2) MICR
(3) Scanner
(4) Bar code reader

Answer (3)

86. For which of the following reasons might you purchase an inkjet printer
for your home computer?
(1) It can produce the best quality color output of all printer types
designed for personal computers.
(2) It is an affordable printer with the ability to print colored text or images.
(3) It has low per-page costs since ink is relatively inexpensive.
(4) It can print more volume in the same amount of time than a laser
printer.

Answer (2)

87. Which of the following is an example of an optical storage device?
(1) Floppy disk
(2) Compact disc
(3) Zip disk
(4) Hard disk

Answer (2)

88. Which of the following best matches the storage capacity of a typical
floppy disk?
(1) 700 MB
(2) 1 GB
(3) 10 MB
(4) 1.44 MB

Answer (4)

89. Which of the following correctly describes the CD-R and DVD-R discs?
(1) You may record data to the disc surface multiple times and can read
the current contents at any time.
(2) You may read data from the disc but may not alter its contents.
(3) You may record data to the disc surface multiple times but have no
direct reading capability.
(4) You may record data to the disc surface once and then may only read
its contents.

Answer (4)

90. PC cards, flash memory cards, and smart cards are all examples of:
(1) Removable hard disks.
(2) Digital video discs.
(3) Volatile memory devices.
(4) Solid state storage devices.

Answer (4)

91. The concentric rings that are magnetically laid on a disk surface are
called:
(1) Tracks.
(2) Clusters.
(3) Partitions.
(4) Sectors.

Answer (1)

92. The ___________ records the name and exact location of every file on
a disk.
(1) partition master
(2) file allocation table
(3) disk controller
(4) boot sector

Answer (2)

93. Which of the following is NOT considered a network communications
device?
(1) Router
(2) Data bus
(3) Modem
(4) Network interface card (NIC)

Answer (2)

94. The two basic forms of user interfaces are the __________ interface
and the graphical user interface (GUI).
(1) Mac OS
(2) disk controller
(3) None of these
(4) Command-line

Answer (4)

95. To execute a given DOS program, you must type a(n) __________, a
name that invokes a specific DOS program.
(1) Command
(2) order
(3) 1 or 2
(4) None of these

Answer (1)

96. If a computer with a 9,600 bps modem communicates with a computer
using a 14,400 bps modem, data will be transferred:
(1) Sometimes at the 9,600 bps rate and other times at the 14,400 bps
rate
(2) At the 12,000 bps rate, halfway between the two
(3) At the 9,600 bps rate
(4) At the 14,400 bps rate
Answer (3)

97. Which is the best definition of network protocols?
(1) They refer to the circuit-switching strategies employed by routers in
the network.
(2) They are formalized and standardized rules on how various dissimilar
network components communicate and transfer information.
(3) They refer to online documentation and manuals distributed with a
network operating system.
(4) They are electrical specifications determining the behavior of network
interface cards.

Answer (2)

98. Which type of network topology uses tokens?
(1) Ring
(2) Bus
(3) Star
(4) Hub

Answer (1)

99. Which of the following events is a source of collisions on a LAN?
(1) The network operating system is old and needs to be upgraded to the
most recent release.
(2) One computer on a network using a bus topology fails causing all
others to fail also.
(3) Multiple workstations attempt to transmit a signal at the exact same
time.
(4) Two users on the network both request copies of an application
software program, such as a word processor, and only one copy exists on
the file server.
Answer (3)
100. Two popular LAN technologies are Local Talk and:
(1) Netware
(2) Ethernet
(3) Windows NT Server
(4) Linux

Answer (2)

Facts
a) The food security bill approved is directed towards giving the right to
food to around 67 per cent of Indias 120-crore population (including 75%
rural and 50% urban).
b) While families in the poorest of the poor will continue to get 35 kg of
grains per month.
c) Rice will be made available at 3 Rupees per Kg.
d) Wheat will cost 2 rupees a kg and cereal will be sold for 1 Rupees per
kg.
e) The Food Security programme will be the biggest in the world with the
government spending estimated at Rs. 1,25,000 crore annually on supply
of about 62 million tonnes of rice, wheat and coarse cereals to 67 per cent
of the population.
f) About 2.43 crore poorest of the poor families covered under the
Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) scheme under PDS (Public Distribution
System) would continue to get 35 kg of food grains per family per month
but with legal entitlement.
g) In Union Budget 2013-14, Rs 10,000 crore set aside for incremental cost
for National Food Security Bill.
h) The scheme will be linked to the Aadhar scheme which provides every
citizen with a unique identification number thats linked to a database that
includes the biometrics of all card-holders.
i) C Rangarajan is the head of the committee for examination of the Food
Security Bill. j) Chhattisgarh the first state to pass legislation on food
security. The state legislative assembly passed the Food Security Bill 2012
that confers legal rights to the beneficiaries to receive food grains and food
items at highly subsidized prices.
Top 5 production states and countries:

Wheat:

states : Uttar Pradesh(34%),Punjab(22%), Haryana(13%), Madhya
Pradesh(10%), Rajasthan(9%), Bihar(6%),Gujarat(2%).

Countries: China, India, USA, Russia, France, Pakistan

Major export destinations: Bangladesh, Korea, Yemen, United
Arab Emirates, Djibouti, Ethiopia and Indonesia

Rice:

states: West Bengal, Andhra pradesh, Utter pradesh, Punjab, Orissa

Countries: China, India, Indonesia, Bangladesh, Vietnam

Major exporters in world: Thailand, Vietnam, Pakistan, India,
Combodia

Sugarcane:

States: Uttar pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamilnadu, Karnataka, Andhra
pradesh
Countries: Brazil, India, China, Thailand, Pakistan

Pulses:

States: Madhya pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Uttar pradesh,
Karnataka

Milk:

States: Uttar pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra pradesh, Gujarat, Punjab

Countries: India, USA, China, Pakistan, Russian federation




Crop Seasons:


Rabi Crop:The term Rabi means spring in Arabic, and the rabi crops
are grown between the months mid November to April.
Sowing season: October December
Harvesting season: February April Important Crops: Wheat, Barley,
Gram, Linseed, Mustard, Masoor, Pea and Potatos

Kharif crop refers to the planting, cultivation and harvesting of any
domesticated plant sown in the rainy (monsoon) season and it starts in
June and to end in October

Sowing season: May July Harvesting season: September to October
Important Crops: Jower, Bajra, Rice, Maize, Cotton, Groundnut, Jute,
Hemp, Sugarcane, Tobacco etc

Zaid crops On the Indian sub-continent, the crops grown on irrigated
lands which do not have to wait for monsoons, in the short duration
between Rabi and Kharif crop season, mainly from March to June, are
called Zaid crops (also written as Zayad crops). The main produce are
seasonal fruits and vegetables.

Sowing season: August September Harvesting season: December
January Important Crops: Rice, Jowar, Rapeseed, Cotton, Oilseeds

Zaid rabi crops:Zaid Rabi crops are sown in Februry March

Harvesting is in April may Important Crops: Water melon, Toris,
Cucumber, leafy and Other vegetables