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Richard L. Drake, Wayne Vogl, Adam W. M. Mitchell, Henry Gray, Gray's anatomy for
students, second edition, Churchill Livingstone/Elsevier, 2010



ABDOMEN


1. The abdominal wall:

a) Its superior boundary is formed by the xyphoid process
b) Its superior boundary is formed by the costal margins
c) Its inferior boundary is formed by the upper parts of the pelvic bones
d) Its inferior boundary is formed by the vertebral column
e) All of the above


2. The layers of the abdominal wall consist of:

a) Skin
b) Superficial fascia (subcutaneous tissue)
c) Muscles
d) Visceral peritoneum
e) Parietal peritoneum


3. The superficial fascia of the abdominal wall:

a) Is a layer of fatty connective tissue
b) Is usually a single layer
c) Below the umbilicus, it forms two layers
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


4. The superficial fatty layer of the superficial fascia:

a) Is also called Campers fascia
b) Contains fat
c) Varies in thickness
d) In men continues over the penis
e) In women is a component of the labia minor


5. The deeper layer of superficial fascia:

a) Is also called Scarpas fascia
b) Is thin and membranous
c) Contains little or no fat
d) Fuses with the deep fascia of the thigh
e) All of the above
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6. The antero-lateral group of abdominal wall muscles consist of:

a) 5 muscles
b) 3 muscles
c) 2 muscles
d) 4 muscles
e) 8 muscles


7. The anterolateral muscles consist of:

a) Three flat muscles
b) The external oblique, internal oblique and transverses abdominis
c) Two vertical muscles, rectus abdominis and pyramidalis
d) Three vertical muscles
e) All of the above


8. The anterolateral muscles:

a) Form a firm, flexible wall
b) Keep the abdominal viscera within the abdominal cavity
c) Help maintain the position of the viscera in erect posture against the action of gravity
d) Are involved in any action that increases intraabdominal pressure
e) Are involved in any action that increases extraabdominal pressure


9. The external oblique muscle:

a) Is the most superficial of the three flat muscles
b) Its laterally placed muscle fibers pass in an inferomedial direction
c) The aponeurosis forms the linea alba
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


10. Associated ligaments of the external oblique muscle have the following
characteristics:

a) The inguinal ligament is formed by the lower border of the external oblique
aponeurosis
b) The inguinal ligament reinforces the free edge of the external oblique aponeurosis
c) The lacunar ligament is a crescent-shaped extension of fibers at the medial end of
the inguinal ligament
d) The pectineal ligament is called Coopers ligament
e) The pectineal ligament is called Scarpas ligament



11. Internal oblique muscle:

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a) Is located deep to the external oblique muscle
b) Is smaller and thinner than the external oblique muscle
c) Most of its fibers run in a superomedial direction
d) Its lateral muscular components end anteriorly
e) Its medial muscular components end posteriorly

12. The transversus abdominis muscle:

a) Is located deep to the internal oblique muscle
b) Derives its name from the direction of most of its muscle fibers
c) Ends in an anterior aponeurosis
d) Ends in a posterior aponeurosis
e) Is located superficial to the internal oblique muscle

13. The transversalis fascia:

a) Is a continuous layer of deep fascia that lines the abdominal cavity
b) Crosses the midline anteriorly
c) Crosses the midline posteriorly
d) Joins the transversalis fascia on the opposite side
e) None of the above


14. The external oblique muscle:

a) Is inserted to the lateral lip of iliac crest
b) Is inserted to the medial lip of iliac crest
c) Is innervated by the anterior rami of the lower six thoracic spinal nerves
d) Both muscles flex the trunk
e) None of the above


15. The internal oblique muscle:

a) Originates in the thoracolumbar fascia
b) Originates in the lateral two-thirds of inguinal ligament
c) Is inserted to the inferior border of the lower three or four ribs
d) Is innervated by the anterior rami of the lower six thoracic spinal nerves
e) All of the above


16. The rectus abdominis muscle:

a) Is a vertical muscle
b) Is a long, thin muscle
c) Extends along the entire the length of the anterior abdominal wall
d) Is not a paired muscle
e) Is a paired muscle

17. The pyramidalis muscle:

a) Is a vertical muscle
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b) Is a triangular, small muscle
c) May be absent
d) Is always absent
e) Has its apex attached superiorly and medially to the linea alba


18. The rectus sheath:

a) Encloses the rectus abdominis and pyramidalis muscles
b) Encloses the rectus abdominis and transverses abdominis muscles
c) Its anterior wall consists of the aponeurosis of the external oblique
d) Its posterior wall consists of half of the aponeurosis of the internal oblique
e) All of the above


19. The inguinal canal:

a) Is a slit-like passage
b) Extends downward and medially
c) Extends downward and laterally
d) Begins at the deep inguinal ring
e) All of the above


20. The deep inguinal ring:

a) Is also called the internal ring
b) Forms the beginning of the inguinal canal
c) Is lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels
d) Is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels
e) None of the above


21. The superficial inguinal ring:

a) Is also called the external ring
b) Is also called the internal ring
c) Is superior of the pubic tubercle
d) Is a triangular opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique
e) Is a quadrangular opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique


22. The anterior wall of the inguinal canal:

a) Is formed along its entire length by the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle
b) Is formed along its entire length by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique muscle
c) Is reinforced medially by the pyramidalis muscle
d) Is reinforced laterally by the lower fibers of the internal oblique
e) Is reinforced medially by the lower fibers of the internal oblique


23. The posterior wall of the inguinal canal:
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a) Is formed by the transversalis fascia
b) Is formed by the lumbar fascia
c) Is reinforced along its lateral one-third by the conjoint tendon
d) Is reinforced along its medial one-third by the conjoint tendon
e) None of the above
24. The contents of the inguinal canal are:

a) The spermatic cord in men
b) The round ligament of the uterus in women
c) The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve in women
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


25. The structures of the spermatic cord include:

a) The ductus deferens
b) The artery to the ductus deferens
c) The testicular artery
d) The pampiniform plexus of veins
e) All of the above


26. The ligament that extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic
tubercle and forms the lower lateral boundary of the abdominal wall, is the:
a) Lacunar ligament
b) Interfoveolar ligament
c) Inguinal ligament
d) Ilio-pectineal ligament
e) Pectineal ligament

27. The "porta hepatis" of the liver transmits all of the following EXCEPT the:
a) Hepatic arteries
b) Hepatic ducts
c) Autonomic nerves from the coeliac plexus
d) Portal vein
e) Hepatic veins
28. The artery that supplies most of the small intestine is the:
a) Middle colic
b) Coeliac
c) Gastroduodenal
d) Inferior mesenteric
e) Superior mesenteric

29. Which of the following nerves passes through the superficial inguinal ring?
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a) Iliohypogastric nerve
b) Obturator nerve
c) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
d) Ilioinguinal nerve
e) Pudendal nerve
30. The posterior boundary of the epiploic foramen is the:
a) Caudate lobe of the liver
b) First part of the duodenum
c) Portal vein
d) Common bile duct
e) Inferior vena cava
31. Regarding the anatomy of the inguinal canal, all of the following statements are
true except:
a) Its floor is predominantly formed by the inguinal ligament
b) Its deep ring is located just lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
c) Its roof is formed by arching fibers of the internal oblique and transversus muscles
d) Its deep ring is formed by the peritoneum
e) Its superficial ring is formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle

32. The common bile duct, hepatic artery and portal vein are found grouped together
in the:
a) Gastrosplenic ligament
b) Gastrohepatic ligament
c) Hepatoduodenal ligament
d) Gastrocolic ligament
e) Falciform ligament

33. The inguinal ligament runs between the:
a) Pubic symphysis and the inferior iliac spine
b) Anterior and posterior superior iliac spines
c) Left and right iliac tubercles
d) Pubic tubercle and iliac tubercle
e) Anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle

34. In the kidney, the renal papilla projects directly into the:
a) Renal pyramid
b) Ureter
c) Major calyx
d) Renal columns
e) Minor calyx

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35. The epiploic foramen is bounded anteriorly by the:
a) Hepatoduodenal ligament
b) Peritoneum over the inferior vena cava
c) Peritoneum on the caudate lobe of the liver
d) Free border of the greater omentum
e) Peritoneum at the beginning of the duodenum
36. Immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring lies the:

a) Femoral artery
b) Linea alba
c) Spermatic cord
d) Inguinal (Hesselbach's) triangle
e) Inferior epigastric artery


37. Immediately anterior to the conjoint tendon:

a) Internal oblique
b) Transversus abdominis
c) Superficial inguinal ring
d) Transversalis fascia
e) None of the above


38. The nerve passing through the superficial inguinal ring is the:

a) Iliohypogastric nerve
b) Ilioinguinal nerve
c) Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
d) Femoral nerve
e) Perineal nerve


39. The most common position of the vermiform appendix is:

a) Retrocaecal
b) Retrocolic
c) Retroileal
d) Pelvic
e) Subcaecal


40. The mesentery of the appendix has an attachment to the:

a) Caecum
b) Ascending colon
c) lleum
d) Mesentery of ileum
e) Posterior abdominal wall
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41. The vertebral level of origin of the renal arteries is:

a) T12
b) L1
c) L2
d) L3
e) L4

42. One of the following is a branch of the hepatic artery:

a) Cystic
b) Left gastric
c) Splenic
d) Gastrohepatic
e) Oesophageal


43. One of the following is a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery:

a) Right colic
b) Left colic
c) Middle colic
d) Left gastroepipioic
e) Splenic


44. Which of the following vessels lies directly behind the duodenum:

a) Hepatic artery
b) Gastroduodenal artery
c) Right gastric artery
d) Superior mesenteric vein
e) E . Inferior mesenteric vein


45. The left renal vein:

a) Is crossed anteriorly by the superior mesenteric artery
b) Lies behind the left renal artery
c) Joins the portal vein behind the pancreas
d) Receives the inferior mesenteric vein
e) None of the above


46. The greater omentum is attached to the:

a) Liver and stomach
b) Stomach and jejunum
c) Jejunum and colon
d) Stomach and colon
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e) Liver and colon


47. The normal number of segments in the kidney is:

a) Three
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Ten
e) Twenty


48. The epiploic foramen is bounded by the:

a) Lesser omentum
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Duodenum
d) Quadrate lobe of liver
e) Spleen


49. The portal triad contains the:

a) Portal vein
b) Hepatic artery
c) Bile duct
d) Lymphatic duct
e) Pancreatic duct


50. The portal vein receives blood from the:

a) Stomach
b) Liver
c) Caecum
d) Kidneys
e) Spleen


51. The branch(es) of splenic artery is (are):

a) Left gastric
b) Right gastric
c) Right gastro-epiploic
d) Short gastric
e) Hepatic


52. The posterior relation(s) of the right kidney are:

a) Psoas major
b) Quadratus lumborum
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c) Diaphragm
d) Transversus abdominis
e) None of the above



53. Which of the following structures belong(s) to the stomach bed:

a) Jejunum
b) Pancreas
c) Right kidney
d) Left kidney
e) Liver


54. Which of the statements below is/are true with regard to the anterior abdominal
wall:

a) Muscles contract during coughing
b) Is innervated mainly by the lumbar nerves
c) The skin lymphatics above the umbilicus drain into the axillary nodes
d) The veins below the umbilicus drain mainly into the portal system
e) The inferior attachment of the membranous (Scarpa's) fascia is to the inguinal
ligament


55. The caecum:

a) Is non-distensible because of its relatively rigid wall
b) B. Contains liquid faeces and gas
c) C. Has well-developed taeniae coli
d) D. Occupies the right upper abdomen in foetal life
e) E. Invariably occupies the right iliac fossa after birth


56. The stomach:

a) Is the most dilated part of the gastro-intestinal tract
b) Has a J-like shape
c) Is positioned between the abdominal oesophagus and the small bowel
d) Is divided into six regions
e) Its most distal portion is the cardia


57. The regions of the stomach are:

a) Cardia
b) Pylorus
c) Body
d) Jejunum
e) Fundus

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58. The duodenum:

a) Is the second part of the small bowel
b) Is a C-shaped structure
c) Is adjacent to the tail of the pancreas
d) Is 14-16 cm long
e) Is a U- shaped structure


59. The duodenum is divided into four parts:

a) The superior part
b) The descending part
c) The inferior part
d) The anterior part
e) The ascending part


60. The arterial supply to the duodenum includes:

a) Branches from the gastroduodenal artery
b) The supraduodenal artery
c) The first jejunal branch from the superior mesenteric artery
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


61. The jejunum:

a) Represents the proximal two-fifths of the jejunoileal segment
b) Is mostly in the upper quadrant of the abdomen
c) Is larger in diameter
d) Has a thicker wall than the ileum
e) None of the above

62. The ileum:

a) Represents the distal three-fifths of the small bowel
b) Is situated mostly in the right lower quadrant
c) Has thinner walls than the jejunum
d) Has longer vasa recta than the jejunum
e) Opens into the large bowel where the caecum joins the descending colon


63. The general characteristics of the large bowel are:

a) Its large internal diameter compared to that of the small intestine
b) The omental appendices are associated with the colon
c) Three taeniae coli
d) Four taeniae coli
e) Haustra of colon

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64. The caecum:

a) Is the first part of the large bowel
b) Is an intraperitoneal structure
c) Is continuous with the ascending colon
d) Is continuous with the descending colon
e) The appendix is attached to the posterolateral wall of the caecum


65. The appendix:

a) Is a narrow, blind-ended tube connected to the caecum
b) Has large aggregations of lymphoid tissue in its walls
c) Is suspended from the terminal ileum by the mesoappendix
d) The mesoappendix contains the appendicular vessels
e) All of the above


66. The arterial supply to the ascending colon includes:

a) The colic branch from the ileocolic artery
b) The anterior caecal artery from the ileocolic artery
c) The right colic artery from the superior mesenteric artery
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


67. The rectum and anal canal:

a) The rectum is the extending from the sigmoid colon
b) The rectum is a retroperitoneal structure
c) The anal canal is the continuation of the large bowel inferior to the rectum
d) The arterial supply to the rectum and anal canal includes the superior rectal artery
and the superior rectal vein
e) The middle rectal artery supplies the rectum and anal canal


68. The liver:

a) Is the largest visceral organ in the body
b) Has a diaphragmatic surface in the anterior direction
c) Has a visceral surface in the inferior direction
d) Has a diaphragmatic surface in the inferior direction
e) All of the above



69. The structures related to the visceral surface are:

a) Gallbladder
b) Oesophagus
c) Right suprarenal gland
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d) Right colic flexure
e) Spleen

70. The pancreas consists of:

a) Head
b) Uncinate process
c) Neck
d) Lobes
e) Tail


71. The kidneys:

a) Are bean-shaped
b) Are retroperitoneal in the posterior abdominal region
c) Are retroperitoneal in the anterior abdominal region
d) Are similar in size and shape
e) Are very different in size and shape


72. The anterior surface of the right kidney is related to:

a) The descending part of the duodenum, medially
b) The ascending part of the duodenum, laterally
c) The right colic flexure
d) The left colic flexure
e) All of the above


73. Posteriorly, the right and left kidneys are related to:

a) Superiorly, the diaphragm
b) Inferior, in a medial to lateral direction, psoas major muscle, quadratus lumborum
muscle
c) Superior, in a medial to lateral direction, psoas major muscle, quadratus lumborum
muscle
d) None of the above
e) All of the above


74. The renal fat:

a) Is located immediately outside the renal capsule
b) Is an accumulation of extraperitoneal fat
c) Is an accumulation of intraperitoneal fat
d) Completely surrounds the kidney
e) Is also called perinephric fat


75. The renal fascia:

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a) Is a membranous condensation of the extraperitoneal fascia
b) Encloses the suprarenal gland, separated from the kidney by a close septum
c) Encloses the adrenal gland, separated from the kidney by a close septum
d) Must be incised in any surgical approach to this organ
e) It is not necessary to be incised in a surgical renal approach

76. The renal fascia:

a) At the lateral margins of each kidney its anterior and posterior layers fuse
b) At the medial margins of each kidney its anterior and posterior layers fuse
c) Its posterior layer passes medially between the kidney and the fascia covering the
quadratus lumborum muscle
d) Its anterior layer passes medially between the kidney and the fascia covering the
quadratus lumborum muscle
e) None of the above


77. The kidney structure:

a) Each kidney has a smooth anterior and posterior surface
b) Its surfaces are covered by a fibrous capsule
c) On the medial margin of each kidney is the hilum of kidney
d) On the lateral margin of each kidney is the hilum of kidney
e) The capsule is not easy removable, in any condition


78. The kidneys:

a) Consist of an outer renal cortex and an inner renal medulla
b) Consist of an inner renal cortex and an outer renal medulla
c) Extensions of the renal cortex are named renal columns
d) Renal columns divide the renal medulla into the renal pyramids
e) The renal papilla is surrounded by a minor calyx


79. Renal vasculature and lymphatics:

a) The renal artery is a lateral branch of the abdominal aorta
b) The left renal artery usually arises a little higher than the right
c) The right renal artery is longer and passes posterior to the inferior vena cava
d) The lymphatic drainage of each kidney is to the lateral aortic nodes
e) All of the above


80. The ureters:

a) Are muscular tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder
b) Are connective tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder
c) Are continuous superiorly with the renal pelvis
d) Are continuous inferiorly with the renal pelvis
e) Are continuous superiorly with a funnel-shaped structure

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ANSWERS



1 e;
2 a,b,c,e;
3 d;
4 a,b,c,d;
5 e;
6 a;
7 a,b,c;
8 a,b,c,d;
9 d;
10 a,b,c,d;
11 a,b,c,d;
12 a,b,c;
13 a,b,d
14 a,c,d;
15 e;
16 a,b,c,e;
17 a,b,c,e;
18 a,c,d;
19 a,c,d;
20 a,b,c;
21 a,c,d;
22 a,d;
23 a,d;
24 d;
25 e;
26 c;
27 e;
28 e;
29 d;
30 e;
31 d;
32 c;
33 e;
34 e;
35 a;
36 a;
37 c;
38 b;
39 a;
40 d;
41 c;
42 a;
43 b;
44 b;
45 a;
46 d;
47 b;
48 a,b,c;
49 a,b,c;
50 a,c;
51 d;
52 a,b,c,d;
53 b,d;
54 a,c;
55 b,c;
56 a,b,c;
57 a,b,c,e;
58 b;
59 a,b,c,e;
60, d;
61 a,b,c,d;
62 a,b,c;
63 a,b,c,e;
64 a,b,c;
65 e;
66 d;
67 a,b,c,e;
68 a,b,c;
69 a,b,c,d;
70 a,b,c,e;
71 a,b,d;
72 a,c;
73 a,b;
74 a,b,d,e;
75 a,b,d;
76 a,c;
77 a,b,c;
78 a,c,d,e;
79 a,c,e;
80 e.







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LOWER LIMB


1. Immediately lateral to the lacunar ligament lies the:

a) Femoral artery
b) Femoral vein
c) Femoral ring
d) Femoral nerve
e) Pectineus


2. The name of the artery in the adductor canal is:

a) Femoral
b) Obturator
c) Profunda femoris
d) Perforating branch of profunda femoris
e) Medial circumflex femoral


3. The orifice in the adductor magnus muscle transmits:

a) Femoral vessels
b) The femoral nerve
c) The saphenous nerve
d) The tibial nerve
e) The sciatic nerve


4. The greater sciatic foramen transmits several structures, except:

a) Superior gluteal vessels
b) Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
c) Piriformis muscle
d) Obturator internus
e) Inferior gluteal vessels


5. The muscle pair inserted into the iliotibial tract consists of:

a) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius
b) Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
c) Quadratus femoris and gluteus maximus
d) Tensor fasciae latae and quadratus femoris
e) Tensor fasciae latae and gluteus maximus


6. The sciatic nerve supplies several muscles except:

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a) Biceps femoris
b) Semitendinosus
c) Semimembranosus
d) Gluteus maximus
e) Adductor magnus


7. The flexion of the hip joint is carried out by the:

a) Iliopsoas
b) Vastus intermedius
c) Semimembranosus
d) Gluteus maximus
e) Quadratus femoris


8. The muscle which flexes the hip and the knee is called:

a) Rectus femoris
b) Semitendinosus
c) Biceps femoris
d) Sartorius
e) Gracilis


9. The saphenous nerve:

a) Is a branch of the obturator
b) Gives off a branch to the scrotum
c) Is closely related to the great saphenous vein in the upper thigh
d) Is cutaneous to the medial side of the foot
e) Is motor to adductor magnus


10. The superficial peroneal nerve supplies the:

a) Peroneus longus and brevis
b) Peroneus tertius
c) Tibialis anterior
d) Extensor digitorum longus
e) Flexor digitorum longus


11. The right gluteus medius muscle:

a) Adducts the right femur
b) Contracts when the right foot bears the body weight
c) Inserts in the lesser trochanter of the femur
d) Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve
e) Is supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve


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12. The biceps femoris muscle:

a) Originates from the ischial tuberosity
b) Inserts into the head of the fibula
c) Is a flexor of the knee joint
d) Is a lateral rotator of the flexed knee joint
e) Is an extensor of the wrist joint


13. The hamstring muscles:

a) Arise from the ischial tuberosity
b) Insert into the linea aspera
c) Receive blood from the profunda femoris artery
d) Are innervated by the sciatic nerve
e) Extend the hip joint during walking


14. The sciatic nerve:

a) Is formed entirely by sacral spinal nerves
b) Consists of two components, which pass through the greater and lesser sciatic
foramina, respectively
c) Passes midway between the greater trochanter and the ischial tuberosity
d) Rests on the adductor magnus
e) Terminates by dividing into superficial and deep peroneal nerves


15. The most powerful extensor of the thigh is the:

a) Gluteus maximus
b) Psoas major
c) Iliacus
d) Obturator externus
e) Piriformis


16. If a patient cannot stand on his/her heel, this is caused by the malfunctioning of
the:
a) Tibial nerve
b) Femoral nerve
c) Medial plantar nerve
d) Peroneal nerve
e) Obturator nerve

17. Which of the following is NOT a lateral rotator of the hip?
a) Piriformis
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b) Gluteus medius
c) Obturator internus
d) Obturator externus
e) Quadratus femoris

18. As the sciatic nerve passes vertically from the gluteal region into the thigh, it runs
midway between the ischial tuberosity and the:
a) Iliac crest
b) Symphysis pubis
c) Greater trochanter
d) Ischial ramus
e) Lesser trochanter

19. The medial border of the femoral triangle is formed by the:
a) Sartorius muscle
b) Adductor longus muscle
c) Inguinal ligament
d) Pubic tubercle
e) None of the above

20. Which muscle is not a flexor of the thigh?
a) Pectineus
b) Rectus femoris
c) Iliopsoas
d) Sartorius
e) Adductor magnum

21. Paralysis of the quadriceps femoris results mainly in the loss of:
a) Lateral rotation of the leg
b) Extension of the leg
c) Flexion of the thigh
d) Extension of the thigh
e) Flexion of the leg

22. Which of the following muscles is not a lateral rotator of the thigh?
a) Gemellus
b) Tensor fasciae latae
c) Obturator externus
d) Obturator internus
e) Piriformis

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23. Which are the three bones forming each pelvic bone?

a) Ilium
b) Ischium
c) Femur
d) Pubis
e) Patella


24. Which of the following describes the correct position of the bones in the pelvic
bone?

a) Ilium is superior
b) Pubis is anteroinferior
c) C.Ilium is posterior
d) Ischium is posteroinferior
e) Ilium is anterior


25. The ischial tuberosity:

a) Provides attachment for many of the muscles in the posterior compartment of the
thigh
b) Provides attachment for many of the muscles in the anterior compartment of the
thigh
c) Provides attachment for many of the ligaments in the posterior compartment of the
thigh
d) Provides insertions for many of the muscles in the superior compartment of the thigh
e) Provides attachment for many of the muscles in the medial compartment of the thigh


26. The Ilium:

a) The upper fan-shaped part of the ilium is associated on its inner side with the
abdomen
b) On its outer side it is associated with the lower limb
c) The iliac crest ends anteriorly as the anterior superior iliac spine
d) The iliac crest ends posteriorly as the posterior superior iliac spine
e) None of the above


27. The inferior gluteal line:

a) The inferior gluteal line originates superior to the anterior inferior iliac spine
b) It curves inferiorly across the bone
c) It ends near the posterior margin of the acetabulum
d) It curves anteriorly across the bone
e) It ends near the posterior margin of the femur


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28. The anterior gluteal line:

a) Originates from the lateral margin of the iliac crest
b) It arches inferiorly across the ilium
c) It ends superior to the upper margin of the greater sciatic foramen
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


29. The posterior gluteal line:

a) Descends almost vertically from the iliac crest
b) The Gluteus medius muscle attaches to the bone between the anterior and posterior
gluteal lines
c) The Gluteus maximus muscle attaches posterior to the posterior gluteal line
d) The Gluteus minimus muscle attaches to the bone between the anterior and posterior
gluteal lines
e) The Gluteus minimus muscle attaches posterior to the posterior gluteal line


30. The ischial tuberosity:

a) Is located posteroinferior to the acetabulum
b) Is associated mainly with the hamstring muscles of the posterior thigh
c) Is divided into upper and lower areas by a transverse line
d) Is located posterosuperior to the acetabulum
e) Is divided into upper and lower areas by a sagittal line


31. The upper area of the ischial tuberosity:

a) Is oriented vertically
b) Is oriented sagittaly
c) Is subdivided into two parts by an oblique line which descends from medial to
lateral across the surface
d) The medial part of the upper area is for the attachment of the semitendinosus and the
long head of the biceps femoris muscles
e) The lateral part is for the attachment of the semimembranosus muscle


32. The lower area of the ischial tuberosity:

a) Is oriented horizontally
b) Is oriented longitudinally
c) Is divided into medial and lateral regions
d) The lateral region provides attachment for part of the adductor magnus muscle
e) The medial part faces inferiorly and is covered by connective tissue and by a bursa


33. The acetabulum:
22

a) Is a large cup-shaped structure
b) Serves for articulation with the head of the femur
c) Lies on the lateral surface of the pelvic bone
d) Its margin is marked inferiorly by the acetabular notch
e) Lies on the medial surface of the pelvic bone

34. The femur:

a) Is the bone of the thigh
b) Is the longest bone in the body
c) Its proximal end has a head and a neck
d) Its distal end has a head and a neck
e) All of the above


35. The head of the femur:

a) Is spherical
b) Is cylindrical
c) Articulates with the acetabulum
d) Articulates with the patella
e) Is characterized by a nonarticular pit, fovea


36. The neck of the femur:

a) Is a cylindrical strut
b) Connects the head to the shaft of the femur
c) Projects superomedially from the shaft at an angle of 125 degrees
d) Projects superomedially from the shaft at an angle of 155 degrees
e) Projects inferomedially from the shaft at an angle of 125 degrees


37. The greater trochanter:

a) Extends superiorly
b) Continues posteriorly where its medial surface is deeply grooved to form the
trochanteric fossa
c) Extends anteriorly
d) Continues posteriorly where its lateral surface is deeply grooved to form the
trochanteric fossa
e) None of the above


38. The greater trochanter:

a) The lateral wall of the trochanteric fossa has an oval depression for the attachment
of the obturator externus muscle
b) Has an elongated ridge on its anterolateral surface for the attachment of the gluteus
minimus
23
c) Above the trochanteric fossa, there is a small impression for the attachment of the
obturator internus muscle
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


39. The lesser trochanter:

a) Is smaller than the greater trochanter
b) Has a blunt conical shape
c) Projects posteromedially from the shaft of the femur inferior to the junction with the
neck
d) Gives attachment for the psoas major muscle
e) Gives attachment for the iliacus muscle


40. The intertrochanteric line:

a) Is a ridge of bone on the anterior surface of the upper margin of the shaft
b) Descends medially from a tubercle on the anterior surface of the base of the greater
trochanter
c) Is continuous with the pectineal line
d) Is continuous with the intertrochanteric crest
e) All of the above


41. The intertrochanteric crest:

a) Lies on the posterior surface of the femur
b) Descends medially from the posterior margin of the greater trochanter to the base of
the lesser trochanter
c) The quadrate tubercle lies on its upper half
d) The quadrate tubercle provides attachment for the quadratus femoris muscle
e) All of the above


42. The shaft of the femur:

a) Descends from lateral to medial
b) Descends in the coronal plane at an angle of 7 degrees from the vertical axis
c) The distal end of the femur is closer to the midline than the upper end of the shaft
d) Descends in the coronal plane at an angle of 27 degrees from the vertical axis
e) Ascends from lateral to medial


43. The linea aspera:

a) Is a major site of muscle attachment in the thigh
b) In the proximal third of the femur, the medial and lateral margins of the linea aspera
diverge
c) In the distal third of the femur, the medial and lateral margins of the linea aspera
diverge
24
d) They continue superiorly as the pectineal line and gluteal tuberosity
e) All of the above

44. The femoral artery:

a) Is the major artery supplying the lower limb
b) Is the continuation of the external iliac artery in the abdomen
c) The external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery as the vessel passes under the
inguinal ligament
d) Its branches supply most of the thigh and all of the leg and foot
e) All of the above


45. The femoral triangle:

a) Is a wedge-shaped depression
b) Is formed by muscles in the upper thigh at the junction between the anterior
abdominal wall and the lower limb
c) The base of the triangle is the inguinal ligament
d) All of the above
e) None f the above

46. The intramuscular injections:

a) Are made in a typical site, the gluteal region
b) Are made in a typical site, the femoral region
c) Are made in the safest place, the upper outer quadrant
d) Are for intramuscularly drugs administration
e) Are made in the safest place, the lower inner quadrant


47. The femoral triangle:

a) Its medial border is formed by the medial margin of the adductor longus muscle in
the medial compartment of the thigh
b) The lateral margin is formed by the medial margin of the sartorius muscle in the
anterior compartment of the thigh
c) The floor of the triangle is formed medially by the pectineus and adductor longus
muscles in the medial compartment of the thigh
d) The floor is formed laterally by the iliopsoas muscle
e) None of the above


48. In the femoral triangle:

a) The femoral artery passes inferiorly through the adductor canal and become the
popliteal artery
b) The femoral vein passes inferiorly through the adductor canal and become the
popliteal vein
c) The femoral artery passes posteriorly through the adductor canal and become the
popliteal artery
25
d) The femoral vein passes anteriorly through the adductor canal and become the
popliteal vein
e) The sciatic nerve descends through the posterior thigh from the gluteal region

49. The femoral sheath:

a) Is a funnel-shaped sleeve fascia
b) Is continuous superiorly with the transversalis fascia
c) Is continuous superiorly with the iliac fascia of the abdomen
d) Its most medial compartment is the femoral canal
e) Its most lateral compartment is the femoral canal

50. The gluteal region:

a) Lies posterolateral to the bony pelvis and the proximal end of the femur
b) Lies posteromedial to the bony pelvis and the proximal end of the femur
c) The muscles in the region abduct, extend and laterally rotate the femur relative to the
pelvic bone
d) The muscles in the region adduct, extend and laterally rotate the femur relative to the
pelvic bone
e) The muscles in the region abduct, extend and medially rotate the femur relative to
the pelvic bone


51. The gluteal region:

a) Communicates anteromedially with the pelvic cavity
b) Communicates anteromedially with the perineum
c) Inferiorly is continuous with the posterior thigh
d) Superiorly is continuous with the posterior thigh
e) Inferiorly is continuous with the anterior thigh


52. The sciatic nerve:

a) The sciatic nerve enters the lower limb from the pelvic cavity by passing through the
greater sciatic foramen
b) The sciatic nerve enters the lower limb from the pelvic cavity by passing through the
lesser sciatic foramen
c) The sciatic nerve descends into the posterior thigh and then into the leg and foot
d) The sciatic nerve descends into the anterior thigh and then into the leg and foot
e) All of the above


53. The pudendal nerve and pudendal vessels:

a) Pass between the pelvic cavity and perineum
b) Pass through the greater sciatic foramen to enter the gluteal region
c) Pass through the lesser sciatic foramen to enter the gluteal region
d) Pass through the lesser sciatic foramen to enter the perineum
e) Pass through the greater sciatic foramen to enter the perineum

26

54. The muscles of the gluteal region:

a) Form two groups
b) Form three groups
c) Form four groups
d) Form five groups
e) None of the above



55. The deep group of muscles:

a) Consists mainly in the lateral rotators of the femur
b) Includes the piriformis muscle
c) Includes the gemellus superior muscle
d) Includes the gemellus inferior muscle
e) All of the above


56. The superficial group of muscles:

a) Consists of large muscles
b) Mainly abduct the hip
c) Extend the hip
d) Include the gluteus minimus muscle
e) Include the gluteus maximus muscle


57. The piriformis muscle:

a) Originates on the anterior surface of the sacrum between the anterior sacral foramina
b) Inserts to the medial side of superior border of greater trochanter of the femur
c) Is innervated by branches from L5, S1, S2
d) Abducts the flexed femur at the hip joint
e) Adducts the flexed femur at the hip joint


58. The obturator internus muscle:

a) Originates on the anterolateral wall of the true pelvis
b) Inserts to the medial side of greater trochanter of the femur
c) Medially rotates the extended femur at the hip joint
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


59. The gemellus superior muscle:

a) Originates on the external surface of the ischial spine
b) Laterally rotates the extended tibia
c) Medially rotates the flexed femur
27
d) Is innervated by the nerve to the obturator internus S2, T4
e) None of the above


60. The gemellus inferior muscle:

a) Originates on the upper aspect of ischial tuberosity
b) Laterally rotates the extended femur
c) Medially rotates the flexed femur
d) None of the above
e) All of the above
61. The quadratus femoris muscle:

a) Originates on the lateral aspect of the ischium
b) Originates on the lateral aspect of the ilium
c) Laterally rotates the femur at the hip joint
d) Laterally rotates the tibia at the hip joint
e) All of the above


62. The gluteus minimus muscle:

a) Inserts to the linear facet on the anterolateral aspect of the greater trochanter
b) Inserts to the linear facet on the anterolateral aspect of the lesser trochanter
c) Abducts the femur at the hip joint
d) Adducts the femur at the tibia
e) All of the above


63. The gluteus medius muscle:

a) Inserts to the elongated facet on the lateral surface of the greater trochanter
b) Abducts the femur at the hip joint
c) Adducts the femur at the hip joint
d) All of the above
e) None of the above


64. The gluteus maximus muscle:

a) Inserts to the posterior aspect of the iliotibial tract of fascia lata
b) Inserts to the gluteal tuberosity of the proximal femur
c) Is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve
d) Is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve
e) Is innervated by the inferior femoral nerve


65. The tensor fasciae latae muscle:

a) Inserts to the iliotibial tractof fascia lata
b) Is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve
c) Stabilizes the knee in extension
28
d) Is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve
e) Stabilizes the knee in flexion


66. The nerves of the gluteal region are:

a) The superior gluteal nerve
b) The sciatic nerve
c) The pudendal nerve
d) The inferior gluteal nerve
e) All of the above
67. How many nerves enter the gluteal region from the pelvis through the greater
sciatic foramen?

a) Six
b) Seven
c) Nine
d) Eight
e) Ten


68. The anterior compartment of the thigh contains:

a) The sartorius muscle
b) The vastus lateralis muscle
c) The vastus medialis muscle
d) The vastus intermedius muscle
e) All of the above


69. The medial compartment of the thigh contains:

a) The gracilis muscle
b) The pectineus muscle
c) The adductor magnus muscle
d) The adductor brevis muscle
e) The adductor obturator internus muscle


70. The posterior compartment of the thigh contains:

a) The biceps femoris muscle
b) The semitendinosus muscle
c) The semimembranosus muscle
d) The pectineus muscle
e) The adductor longus muscle






29




ANSWERS



1 c;
2 a;
3 a;
4 d;
5 e;
6 d;
7 a;
8 d;
9 d;
10 a;
11 b,d;
12 a,b,c,d;
13 a,c,d,e;
14 c,d;
15 a;
16 b;
17 d;
18 b;
19 a;
20 b;
21 d;
22 c;
23 a,b,d;
24 a,b,d;
25 a;
26 a,b,c,d;
27 a,b,c;
28 d;
29 a,b,c;
30 a,b,c;
31 a,c,d,e;
32 a,c,d,e;
33 a,b,c,d;
34 a,b,c;
35 a,c,e;
36 a,b,c;
37 a,b;
38 d;
39 a,b,c,d,e;
40 a,b,c;
41 e;
42 a,b,c;
43 a,b,d;
44 e;
45 a,b,c;
46 a,c,d;
47 a,b,c,d;
48 a,b,e;
49 a,b,c,d;
50 a,c;
51 a,b,c;
52 a,c;
53 a,b,d;
54 a;
55 e;
56 a,b,c,d,e;
57 a,b,c,d;
58 a,b;
59 a;
60 a,b;
61 a,c;
62 a,c;
63 a,b;
64 a,b,c;
65 a,b,c;
66 e;
67 b;
68 e;
69 a,b,c,d;
70 a,b,c,.









30




Miscellaneous multiple choice questions


1. Which of the following muscles is attached to the coracoid process of the scapula?

a) Biceps
b) Triceps
c) Pectoralis major
d) Deltoid
e) Serratus anterior

2. Which of the following nerves is in contact with medial wall of axilla?

a) Medial root of median nerve
b) Medial cord of brachial plexus
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Medial pectoral nerve
e) Nerve to serratus anterior

3. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is derived from the which nerve?

a) Musculocutaneous
b) Median
c) Ulnar
d) Radial
e) Axillary

4. Which of the following muscles is supplied by the ulnar nerve in the forearm:

a) Flexor carpi radialis
b) Flexor carpi ulnaris
c) Extensor carpi radialis
d) Extensor carpi ulnaris
e) Flexor pollicis longus

5. The carpal bones articulating with the radius are:

a) Scaphoid and pisiform
b) Lunate and pisiform
c) Lunate and trapezium
d) Lunate and scaphoid
e) Scaphoid and capitate

6. In the hand, the median nerve supplies:

a) Abductor pollicis brevis
b) Adductor pollicis
c) First palmar interosseous
d) Abductor pollicis longus
e) Extensor indicis

31
7. The innervation of the lumbrical muscles is related to the innervation of:

a) Flexor digitorum superficialis
b) Flexor digitorum profundus
c) Extensor digitorum
d) The interossei
e) The two flexor carpi muscles

8. The skin of the palm is supplied by the:

a) Ulnar and median nerves
b) Radial and median nerves
c) Radial and ulnar nerves
d) Ulnar nerve alone
e) Radial nerve alone

9. The muscles arising from the clavicle include the:

a) Pectoralis major
b) Trapezius
c) Deltoid
d) Subclavius
e) E.Pectoralis minor


10. The flexor carpi radialis muscle:

a) Is a flexor of the wrist
b) Is an abductor of the wrist
c) Is supplied by the median nerve
d) Grooves the trapezoid bone
e) Is supplied by the axillary nerve

11. The brachioradialis muscle:

a) Arises from the lateral supracondylar line
b) Inserts into the distal end of the radius
c) Is a flexor of the elbow joint
d) Is supplied by the median nerve
e) Is a flexor of the shoulder joint

12. The skin of the index finger is supplied by the:
a) Ulnar and radial nerves
b) Radial and median nerves
c) Median and ulnar nerves
d) Median only
e) Radial only
13. The quadriceps femoris muscle:

a) Extends the knee
b) Flexes the knee
c) Extends the hip
32
d) Rotates the knee
e) Abducts the knee


14. The femoral triangle is bounded by the:

a) Inguinal ligament, pectineus, sartorius
b) Inguinal ligament, adductor longus, gracilis
c) Inguinal ligament, rectus femoris, sartorius
d) Inguinal ligament, adductor longus, sartorius
e) None of the above

15. The femoral canal contains:

a) The femoral nerve
b) The femoral artery
c) The femoral vein
d) The ilioinguinal nerve
e) The lymphatics

16. Several muscles are inserted into the greater trochanter of femur, except the:
a) Gluteus maximus
b) Gluteus medius
c) Gluteus minimus
d) Piriformis
e) Obturator externus

17. Which of the following bones articulates with head of the talus?

a) Navicular
b) Medial cuneiform
c) Intermediate cuneiform
d) Cuboid
e) None of the above

18. The ligament of the head of the femur:

a) Is attached to the margins of the acetabular notch
b) Conveys blood vessels to the head of the femur
c) Is invested by the synovial membrane
d) Is sometimes absent
e) Is mostly absent

19. Which of the following represent branches of the lumbar plexus?

a) Sciatic nerve
b) Obturator nerve
c) Inferior gluteal nerve
d) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
e) Medial cutaneous nerve of leg

20. The biceps femoris muscle:

a) Originates from the ischial tuberosity
33
b) Inserts into the head of the fibula
c) Is a flexor of the knee joint
d) Is a lateral rotator of the flexed knee joint
e) Is a medial rotator of the extended leg

21. Which of the following bones articulate with the navicular:

a) Talus
b) Intermediate cuneiform
c) Lateral cuneiform
d) Calcaneus
e) Femur

22. In the gluteal region:

a) The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus minimus
b) The gluteus medius muscle inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur
c) The pudendal nerve leaves the buttock through the lesser sciatic foramen
d) The lesser sciatic foramen lies between the sacrotuberous and the sacrospinous
ligaments
e) A branch of the inferior gluteal artery contributes to the cruciate anastomosis

23. The gluteus maximus:

a) Flexes the hip joint
b) Is attached to the sacrotuberous ligament
c) Inserts entirely into the gluteal ridge
d) Stabilizes the flexed weight-bearing knee joint
e) Is supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve

24. The sternum:

a) Is composed of four parts
b) Gives origin to the pectoralis minor
c) Articulates with the upper ten costal cartilages
d) Contains red marrow only at its upper end
e) Forms a synovial joint with the clavicle

25. The number of pairs of costal cartilages usually attached to the sternum is:

a) Six
b) Seven
c) Eight
d) Nine
e) Ten

26. Which of the following ribs are ATYPICAL:

a) The first
b) The third
c) The fifth
d) The seventh
e) The ninth

27. The brachiocephalic trunk divides into two arteries:
34

a) Right and left common carotid
b) Right common carotid and right subclavian
c) Left common carotid and left subclavian
d) Right and left subclavian
e) E .Right and left coronary

28. The number of broncho-pulmonary segments in the middle lobe of the right lung
is:

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) From two to four

29. The number of broncho-pulmonary segments in the right lower lobe of lung is:

a) One
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
e) Nine

30. The lower aperture of the thorax is formed by the:

a) Lower costal cartilages
b) Twelfth rib
c) Xyphoid process
d) The body of the twelfth thoracic vertebra
e) The tenth rib

31. Of the two bronchi, the right is:

a) Shorter
b) Wider
c) More vertical
d) In contact with the oesophagus
e) More sagittal

32. The following structures are anterior to the oesophagus:

a) The left atrium
b) The left bronchus
c) The trachea
d) The lymph nodes
e) All of the above

33. Which of the following structures is situated at the level of the sternal angle:

a) The bifurcation of the pulmonary artery
b) The upper border of left atrium
c) The bifurcation of the trachea
d) The aortic valve
35
e) The formation of the superior vena cava

34. Which of the following structures is enclosed within the sheath of the rectus
abdominis muscle?

a) The external oblique aponeurosis
b) The linea alba
c) The linea semilunaris
d) The transversalis fascia
e) None of the above

35. The internal spermatic fascia is derived from the:

a) External oblique
b) Internal oblique
c) Transversus abdominis
d) Transversalis fascia
e) Peritoneum

36. Which of the following structures is situated anterior to the deep inguinal ring?

a) The internal oblique
b) The transversus abdominis
c) The conjoint tendon
d) Two of the above
e) None of the above

37. The following structures are found within the lesser omentum, with the
exception of:
a) The hepatic artery
b) The hepatic veins
c) The common bile duct
d) The lymphatics
e) The vagal nerve fibres

38. The rectus abdominis is:

a) Attached to the ninth and tenth ribs
b) Marked in its upper half by tendinous intersections
c) Surrounded by the rectus sheath throughout its length
d) A flexor of the vertebral column
e) Attached to the fifth rib

39. Which of the following structures are characteristics of the large bowel?

a) Taeniae coli
b) Appendices epiploicae
c) Haustra coli
d) Plicae circulares
e) All of above

40. The relations of the right kidney include:

a) The duodenum
36
b) The colon
c) The liver
d) The Quadratus lumborum
e) The spleen

41. The spleen comes into contact with:

a) The stomach
b) The left kidney
c) The pancreas
d) The colon
e) The right kidney

42. The inguinal canal:

a) Contains the spermatic cord in the male and the round ligament in the female
b) B. Normally contains a peritoneal diverticulum in adults
c) C. Is more oblique in the adult than in the newborn
d) D. Its superficial ring is protected by the pyramidalis muscle
e) E. Is absent in the male if the testis is undescended

43. The portal vein:

a) Is formed by the union of the superior and inferior mesenteric veins
b) Carries venous blood from the spleen
c) Runs in the lesser omentum with a branch of the coeliac artery
d) Notches the bare area of the liver
e) Its obstruction may be manifested by dilated paraumbilical veins

44. The spleen:

a) Is a highly vascular organ
b) Is related to both the greater and the lesser sacs of the peritoneum
c) Normally lies in the axis of the left tenth rib
d) In the adult is normally palpable below the left rib margin
e) Cannot be palpated in the infant

45. The duodenum:

a) Is retroperitoneal in its entire length
b) Is directly related to the right kidney
c) Lies anterior to the common bile duct
d) Lies posterior to the superior mesenteric vessels
e) Is an important site of porto-systemic venous anastomosis

46. The abdominal aorta:

a) Enters the abdomen behind the medial arcuate ligament
b) Normally gives origin directly to the splenic artery
c) Is crossed superficially by the left renal vein
d) Is related to many lymph nodes
e) Bifurcates at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra

47. The location of sphincter urethrae is:

37
a) The superficial perineal pouch
b) The deep perineal pouch
c) The ischiorectal fossa
d) Above the prostate gland
e) None of the above

48. The internal iliac lymph nodes receive lymph from:

a) The body of uterus
b) The cervix of uterus
c) The prostate
d) The rectum
e) All of the above

49. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from:

a) The anal canal
b) The vagina
c) The lower abdominal wall
d) The rectum
e) All of the above

50. The plane of movement of the scalp lies between:

a) The skin and the epicranial aponeurosis
b) The epicranial aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) and the pericranium
c) The skin and the subcutaneous fat
d) The pericranium and the skull
e) None of the above

































38




ANSWERS


1 a;
2 e;
3 a;
4 b;
5 d;
6 a;
7 b;
8 a;
9 b;
10 a;
11 a;
12 b;
13 a;
14 d;
15 e;
16 a;
17 a;
18 a,b, c,d;
19 b,d;
20 a,b,c,d;
21 a,b,c;
22 a,c,d,e;
23 b,d,e;
24 e;
25 b;










26 a;
27 b;
28 b;
29 c;
30 a,b,c,d;
31 a,b,c;
32 e;
33 c;
34 e;
35 d;
36 a;
37 b;
38 b,d;
39 a,b,c;
40 a,b,c,d;
41 a,b,c,d;
42 a;
43 b,c,e;
44 a,b,c;
45 b,c,d;
46 c,d;
47 b;
48 e;
49 e;
50 b.

39