Airframes and Systems

I. Fuselage
II. Cockpit and Cabin Window
III. Wing
IV. Stabilizing surfaces
V. Landing gear
VI. Flight controls (construction and operation)
VII. Hydraulics
VIII. Air Driven System (Piston Engine)
IX. Air Driven System (Turbo propeller And Jet
Aircraft)
X. Non-pneumatic operated de-ice and anti-ice
systems
XI. Fuel System








Fuselage:

1.What are the most frequent used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque structure?
A) Wood.
B) Composite fibres.
C) Aluminium or magnesium alloy.
D) Steel.

A framework of truss type fuselage is used in:
A) Supersonic aircraft
B) Medium range commuter type turbo-props
C) Heavy wide bodied subsonic turbo-fan aircraft
D) Light training aircraft mainly

A semi-monocoque fuselage has... in the longitudinal direction. Together with the frames, they
resist... moments and axial forces. The skin panels are loaded mainly in...
A) Bars, buckling, bending.
B) Stringers, bending, shear.
C) Spars, torsion, shear.
D) Stringers, bending, buckling.

Aircraft structures consists mainly of:
A) Magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at
points requiring high strength.
B) Light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials
at points requiring high strength.
C) Aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at
points requiring high strength.
D) Aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points
requiring high strength.

What is the purpose of the stringers?
A) To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses.
B) To support the primary control surfaces.
C) To produce stress risers.
D) To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin.

The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:
A) House the crew and payload.
B) Support the wings.
C) Keep out adverse weather.
D) Provide access to the cockpit.



Fatigue life of the fuselage is mostly based on:
A) Number of explosive decompressions.
B) Number of cycles at maximum differential.
C) Number of pressurisation cycles.
D) Number of times a certain load factor is exceeded.

A damage tolerant structure:
A) Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life.
B) Is a structure which is free of cracks.
C) Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area.
D) Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance.

In a stressed skin airframe structure for a pressurised aircraft:
A) The rivets and skin are under tensile loads.
B) The rivets and skin are under compressive loads.
C) The rivets take a shear load and the skin is under compressive loads.
D) The rivets are under shear loads and the skin is under tensile loads.

During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was
subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is
certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification
requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its
conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe:
A) rupture of one or more structural components
B) a permanent deformation of the structure
C) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure
D) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion

Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:
A) Compass alignment markings.
B) Passenger seat locations.
C) A means of locating airframe structure and components.
D) Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.

The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:
A) Provide sound and thermal isolation.
B) Assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.
C) Withstand the shear stresses.
D) Integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected
and convert them into a tensile stress.

The Design Ultimate Load is minimum:
A) 1.5 x Design Limit Load.
B) 1.125 x Proof Load.
C) 1.125 x Design Limit Load.
D) 1.5 x Proof Load.

Aircraft wing construction which employs the principle of the skin taking part of the load is termed:
A) Semi monocoque.
B) Stressed skin.
C) Fail safe.
D) Monocoque.

Which of the following statements about fuselage loading is true?
A) Frames, stringers and skin take the full load.
B) Skin and frames take the full load. Stringers are used to prevent skin
buckling.
C) Frames and stringers take the full load. Skin is only used as a cover.
D) Frames have no structural function. Skin and stringers take the full load.

For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts:
1. The mounting principle is parallel mounting.
2. No routine check is necessary.
3. The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.
4. Certain components may not be accessible.
5. The principle is the redundancy of components
6. The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 2,5,6
D) 1,5,6

The stresses present in all aircraft are:
A) Tension, Drag, Shear, Compression, Bending.
B) Tension, Compression, Shear, Bending, Torsion.
C) Drag, Thrust, Weight, Lift.
D) Tension, Compression, Strain, Shear.

Station numbers and water lines are:
A) Passenger seat locations.
B) A means of locating airframe structure and components.
C) Compass alignment markings.
D) Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.

The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:
A) The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor.
B) The design limit load plus the design ultimate load.
C) The design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety.
D) Three times the safety factor.



Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:
A) Number of landings only.
B) Number of explosive decompressions.
C) Number of pressurisation cycles.
D) Number of cycles at maximum differential.


21. Strain is defined as the:
A) Expansion due to temperature rise
B) Ultimate load
C) Yield point
D) Deformation due to stress

The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft:
A) Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle.
B) Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse
weather.
C) Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads.
D) Houses the crew and the payload.

Which of the following is true?
A) Titanium alloy is used in aircraft construction because of its good wear
resistance and high temperature tolerance.
B) Steel is used in aircraft because it is strong and heavy but has poor
corrosion resistance.
C) Super alloys are used because of their excellent corrosion resistance.
D) Aluminium alloys are used in aircraft construction because it is light,
easily machined and has good wear resistance.

Aircraft skin is usually made of Al2024-alloy. This is...
A) Pure aluminium with copper.
B) Pure aluminium with zinc.
C) Pure aluminium.
D) Pure aluminium with bronze.

Repetitive pressurisation cycles induce... stresses which...
A) Hoop, cause fatigue cracks.
B) Differential, are negligible.
C) Hoop, are negligible.
D) Differential, cause fatigue cracks.







DURALUMIN alloys:
1. Have an aluminium-copper base.
2. Have an aluminium-magnesium base.
3. Are easy to weld.
4. Are difficult to weld.
5. Have a good thermal conductivity.
6. Have a poor air corrosion resistance
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1,3,6
B) 2,3,6
C) 2,4,5
D) 1,4,5

Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1. normal bending stresses
2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1, 2, 4
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4

On an aircraft which employs stressed skin construction:
A) The skin of the airplane takes the majority of the structural load.
B) Composite material should be used.
C) The skin of the airplane takes no part of the load.
D) The skin is fabric which is stretched over a structure, which in turn takes all of the load.

The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short
haul flights at higher frequencies is that:
A) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which
stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way
B) The lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a
determined load spectrum.
C) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights
D) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time

The fatigue life of an aircraft's pressure hull is based on:
A) The total number of explosive decompressions.
B) The total number of negative differential pressure applications.
C) The total number of pressurisations.
D) The total number of landings.

'Fail safe construction' is:
A) A simple and cheap type of construction.
B) A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if
a part of the structure fails.
C) A type of construction for small aircraft only.
D) A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
Which components do a semi-monocoque fuselage consists of?
A) A stressed skin structure in which the skin is supported by a lightweight framework, such
as longerons, stringers and formers.
B) Metal stringers, bulkheads and fabric covering.
C) A stressed skin type of construction in which the stiffness of the skin provides a large
measure of the strength of the structure. No truss or substructure is required.
D) Steel tubing, longerons and bulkhead wires.

In the construction of airframes, the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:
A) Form the entrance door posts.
B) Provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels.
C) Support the wings.
D) Oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage.

The fatigue life of a pressure hull is mainly based on:
A) The number of negative differential pressure applications.
B) The number of explosive decompressions.
C) The total number of pressurisations.
D) The total number of landings.

Of a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending
moments Mx are:
A) Ribs.
B) Spars.
C) Webs.
D) Skin.

When a mechanical shaft or linkage passes through the aft pressure bulkhead it:
A) Needs to be sealed if motion is rotary.
B) Needs to be sealed if the motion is linear.
C) Must not be sealed.
D) Must always be pressure sealed.

Friction clutches are fitted to actuators for:
A) protection against brake on loads
B) protection against mechanical overload
C) protection against non return valve failure
D) protection against supply failures


During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was
subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is
certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification
requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its
conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe:
A) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion
B) rupture of one or more structural components
C) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure
D) a permanent deformation of the structure
Cockpit and Cabin Window:

Flight deck windows are constructed from:
A) An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals.
B) Strengthened glass with rubber seals.
C) Laminated Acrylic
D) Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing
and rubber pressure seals.

On a modern wide-body jet the windscreen is heated primarily to:
A) prevent condensation of water on the windscreen.
B) prevent the vinyl from getting too warm.
C) keep the windscreen free of ice.
D) prevent the vinyl from losing strength at low outside air temperature.

In flight, if a windscreen overheat warning light illuminates:
A) windscreen heating will be removed automatically and the windscreen will
cool down.
B) the windscreen heating will continue to operate satisfactorily at a
temperature 10 - 15 degrees C higher than normal.
C) immediately switch off all heat to the windscreen.
D) there is no overheat protection for windscreens.

The purpose of a rain repellent system is to:
A) increase the surface tension of the water.
B) prevent the water droplets from freezing when impacting on the cold
windscreen.
C) decrease the surface tension of the water.
D) clean the windscreen when used with windscreen wipers.

For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:
A) normally kept to a minimum size.
B) specially treated during construction.
C) heated internally to increase their elasticity.
D) only heated when the IOAT falls below 0 C in precipitation.

Pilots cockpit windows are heated:
A) only to prevent condensation occurring.
B) with a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging.
C) by passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating.
D) by agitating the window molecules with an AC current.



On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:
A) Electric heating.
B) Anti-icing fluid.
C) Vinyl coating.
D) Rain repellent system.

The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:
A) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the
rainfall is very heavy.
B) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain
protection.
C) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain
protection.
D) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate
view through the cockpit windows.

Pilots cockpit windows are:
A) made of polarised glass.
B) made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating.
C) only heated by air from the de-misting fan.
D) constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare.

What is the effect of heating flight deck windows?
A) to protect the windows against ice formation.
B) to protect the windows against bird strike.
C) to demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function
correctly.
D) to protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation.















Wing:

In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads which produce a
bending moment:
A) lowest at the wing root.
B) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span.
C) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span.
D) highest at the wing root.

In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending
moment which is:
A) lowest at the wing root.
B) highest at the wing root.
C) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span.
D) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span.

A wing structure consists primarily of:
A) A front and rear main spar
B) A front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers
C) Ribs and stringers only
D) Ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction

The Control Surfaces on a wing are usually attached to:
A) the rear spar.
B) the main spar.
C) the wing trailing edge stiffeners.
D) the torque tube.

On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending
moments Mx are:
A) the webs.
B) the ribs.
C) the spars.
D) the skin.

Stall fences mounted on an aircraft wing are used:
A) to prevent the tendency of the outer portion of the wing to stall first,
B) to avoid the formation of shock waves,
C) to increase the maximum speed of the aircraft,
D) to increase the lift coefficient in landing,







A lightening hole in a rib:
A) provide a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure
bulkhead.
B) prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage.
C) collects and disposes of electrical charges.
D) lightens and stiffens the structure.

What is the purpose of the stiffeners which are riveted to the upper and lower skin panels of the wing
torsion box?
A) To increase the bending stiffness of the wing.
B) To prevent buckling of the skin panels.
C) To prevent yielding.
D) To increase the torsional stiffness of the wing.

What is the purpose of the wing main spar:
A) To withstand bending and shear loads.
B) To withstand compressive and torsional loads.
C) To withstand bending and torsional loads.
D) To withstand compressive and shear loads.

A " slot" on a wing is?
A) A leading edge flap.
B) A leading edge device that causes some of the high energy air to flow
over the upper surface of the wing.
C) A split flap along the leading edge of the wing.
D) Another expression for fowler flap.

When do you say that an aircraft has a cantilever wing?
A) When the wing is supported by braces or strut, linked to the fuselage.
B) When the wing is attached to the lower part of the fuselage.
C) When the wing planform is other than rectangular.
D) When the wing is attached to the fuselage at or near one end only.

The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending
moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:
A) compression.
B) tension.
C) tension, then in compression.
D) compression, then in tension.

What is the purpose of wing ribs:
A) To shape the wing and support the skin.
B) To withstand the fatigue stresses.
C) To house the fuel and the landing gear.
D) To provide local support for the skin.

Wing mounted engines are often mounted on pylons which set them well ahead of the aerofoil (wing)
in order to:
A) Move the C of G forward as a way of mass balancing to reduce flutter.
B) Allow gravity feed of fuel in emergency situations.
C) Keep the wing clean to improve aerodynamic efficiency.
D) Provide a pitching up moment arm to assist in trimming the aircraft.

A cantilever wing:
A) Is supported at one end only with no external bracing.
B) Folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces.
C) Has both an upper an lower airfoil section.
D) Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires.

A torsion box:
A) is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and
twisting loads.
B) is a structure designed to reduce the weight.
C) is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist
bending and twisting loads.
D) is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls
and landing gear.

The component of an aircraft wing which can be considered to be the primary structural member is
called:
A) the control surface spar.
B) the lateral datum.
C) the rib.
D) the main spar.


















Stabilizing surfaces:

What is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on top of the fin?
A) No need for anti-icing.
B) Create a pitch up by making the aeroplane tail heavy.
C) To be out of the way of the wing down wash.
D) To be more efficient at high speed.

The advantage of mounting the tail plane on top of the vertical stabilizer is:
A) that it does not require a de-icing system
B) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence.
C) to have greater effectiveness at high speed
D) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the aircraft about its:
A) Longitudinal pivot point
B) Lateral axis
C) Vertical axis
D) Longitudinal axis

The empennage consists of the:
A) Horizontal stabilizer only
B) Vertical stabilizer only
C) Horizontal and vertical stabilizer
D) Tail plane only

The rudder limiters on several aircraft have a specific function, which is to:
A) Reduce rudder load during take-off and landing.
B) Prevent large rudder deflections on ground.
C) Prevent heavy gusts from damaging the rudder.
D) Prevent excessive loads from acting on the rudder.

The function of the rudder limiter on some aircraft is to?
A) Prevent large rudder deflections on ground.
B) Prevent that heavy gust damages the rudder.
C) Reduce rudder load during take-off and landing.
D) Prevent excessive loads from acting on the rudder.








Landing gear:
Tyre creep is most likely to occur:
A) when the tyre shelf life limit is reached.
B) when the tyre is worn to its limits.
C) when the tyre is over-inflated.
D) when the tyre is newly fitted.

The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:
1. idle wheel speed (measured)
2. braked wheel speed (measured)
3. brake temperature (measured)
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate
5. tire pressure
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 1, 3.

The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:
A) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring
function.
B) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping
function.
C) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies
the damping function.
D) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen
supplies the heat-dissipation function.

A high pressure tyre would typically be inflated to:
A) up to 50 psi.
B) between 50 and 70 psi.
C) between 80 and 180 psi.
D) between 120 and 250 psi.

If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:
A) Repaired several times.
B) Used on the nose wheel only.
C) Never repaired.
D) Repaired once.

When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
A) 0.5
B) 0.1
C) 1
D) zero

On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from:
A) the brake actuators.
B) the master cylinders.
C) the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
D) pressure to the rudder pedals.

Which formula should be used to calculate the minimum speed in knots at which aquaplaning could
occur?
A) 19 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).
B) 9 x AUW (in pounds) x square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).
C) 9 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).
D) 9 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in MPa).

Tyre wear can be reduced while taxiing by:
A) taxiing at 25 knots or less.
B) taxiing at 50 knots or less.
C) staying on the smooth part of the taxiway.
D) restricting the use of engine reverse.

A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of ... is reached.
A) 177 C
B) 155 C
C) 199 C
D) 277 C

An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:
A) 145 knots.
B) 145 mph.
C) 135 mph.
D) 135 knots.

Auto brakes are disengaged:
A) when the speed falls below 20 kts.
B) on the landing roll when the auto-pilot is disengaged.
C) by the pilot.
D) when the ground spoilers are retracted.

The " ply rating" of a tire is?
A) The ratio between the section width and the section diameter.
B) The inner liner used as a container for the air.
C) A parameter indicating the tire relative strength.
D) The read design.



The operating principle of an anti skid system. The brake pressure will be:
A) Increased on the faster turning wheels.
B) Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
C) Increased on the slower turning wheels.
D) Decreased on the faster turning wheels.

What is the purpose of a Twin Contact Tyre?
A) to reduce shimmy.
B) to deflect surface water away from engine intakes.
C) for grass runway operation.
D) to reduce hydroplaning.

On large modern transport aircraft, the brake assembly consists of:
A) boosted rotor type.
B) multiple disk brake type.
C) boosted expander tube type.
D) single disk brake type.

Thermal plugs are installed in:
A) fire warning systems
B) wheel rims
C) cabin windows
D) cargo compartments

The purpose of a fusible plug is to:
A) slowly allow the tyre to deflate if the tyre pressure is excessive due to
over-inflation.
B) slowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive wheel speed.
C) slowly reduce tyre pressure if the tyre pressure becomes excessive.
D) slowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive temperature at the tyre.

The inner cylinder of the shock absorber is prevented from rotating inside the outer cylinder by:
A) The Steering Jacks.
B) Restrictors.
C) Torque Links.
D) None of the above since it is designed to be able to rotate to allow
steering.

The cause of rather violent vibration of the nose wheel, described as shimmy, is often:
A) An uneven surface.
B) Both a and c are correct.
C) Looseness of the nose wheel support mechanism.
D) Tyre imbalance.

21. A ribbed tyre is worn to its limits when it is worn to:
A) 4 mm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves.
B) 2 mm from the bottom of any groove.
C) 2 mm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves.
D) 4 mm from the bottom of any groove.

If the gas pressure in a brake accumulator is too low:
A) the number of brake applications remains unchanged.
B) the energy for braking is low.
C) the energy for braking is high.
D) the brakes cannot be applied at all.

During a walk round pre-flight inspection, a main oleo leg is observed to be lower than the other leg
with no sign of leakage and the aircraft is parked on a level pan:
A) check the load extension requirement and have the leg charged with oil.
B) check the load extension requirement and have the leg charged with air.
C) the problem is due to sloping ground.
D) the oleo leg extension is unaffected by the air and/or oil charge.

Landing gear torque links are used to:
A) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
B) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.
C) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
D) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

Brake " fade" is:
A) ineffective braking due to heating.
B) the reduction in braking as the anti-skid cuts in.
C) ineffective breaking due to worn tyre treads.
D) ineffective braking due to worn pads.

Apart from the advantage of increased stability the advantages of a nose wheel tricycle landing gear
arrangement include:
A) all of the above.
B) improved pilot visibility making landing and taxiing easier.
C) easier loading with a level floor line.
D) aerodynamic drag on take off is reduced.

With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and armed, the brakes will be automatically applied if:
A) Vr is not reached after a predetermined distance.
B) reverse thrust is selected at any time.
C) V1 is not reached after a predetermined distance.
D) one of the thrust levers is returned to idle.



The autobrake system modulates hydraulic pressure to the brakes to obtain...
A) a constant deceleration during the landing roll.
B) a decreasing deceleration during the landing roll.
C) a constant acceleration during the take=off roll.
D) an increasing deceleration during the landing roll.

Lowering the gear using the free fall system will result in the main landing gear doors:
A) remaining open.
B) closing mechanically.
C) being jettisoned.
D) closing hydraulically.

Which of the following are considered advantages of using tubeless tyre assemblies on aircraft
compared to a tube tyre?
A) they are cooler in operation when subjected to high speeds and high
loads.
B) they are not capable of blow-outs during operation.
C) they operate at higher temperatures and so provide better grip.
D) they permit easier wheel change.

An oleo-type landing nose gear shock absorber is often equipped with a torque link, why?
A) Both b and c are correct
B) To allow the piston to move freely in and out the landing gear cylinder
C) To prevent the nose wheel from shimmying
D) To prevent the landing gear cylinder from rotating

Light aircraft brake pad wear is measured by:
A) measuring the wear indicator pins.
B) measuring individual pad thickness.
C) measuring across the brake calliper with brakes 'OFF'.
D) measuring across the brake calliper with brakes 'ON'.

A hydraulically operated nose gear steering cylinder has at least two functions. The first is to allow the
pilot to steer the aeroplane, and the second function is?
A) Shimmy dampener.
B) Supporting actuator to lower and rise the landing gear.
C) An emergency extension cylinder for the nose gear.
D) Down lock mechanism for the nose gear.

In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded towards idle and the
flaps down and the gear up , the warning given to the pilot will be a:
A) stick shaker.
B) buzzer.
C) horn.
D) continuous bell.

The advantage of using a tricycle landing gear is:
A) Braking is more efficient as the landing gear can be made stronger.
B) Spoilers can be incorporated into the wings to increase drag to assist
braking.
C) Fuselages can be made larger to allow the undercarriage to be retracted.
D) Heavy braking will not cause the aircraft to nose over.

In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted
on the ground. It consists of:
A) An aural warning horn.
B) A latch located in the landing gear lever.
C) A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels)
sensor system.
D) A bolt.

Creep (slippage):
A) never occurs on new tyres.
B) may cause excess wear.
C) can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.
D) can damage the braking system.

The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:
A) Vp = 34 x sqrt(P) where P is kg/cm
2
and Vp is in mph.
B) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is psi and Vp is in mph.
C) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is kg/cm
2
and Vp is in knots.
D) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is psi and Vp is in knots.

In which of the following areas would an overheat/fire warning be provided.
A) Wheel/Undercarriage bay.
B) Cabin.
C) Tyres.
D) Fuel tank.

Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft?
A) Springs.
B) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
C) Nitrogen.
D) Oxygen.


41. The principle of operation of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber (shock strut) employs:
A) air and a coil spring.
B) oil only.
C) oil and air (or nitrogen).
D) oil and spring.

Creep:
A) can be prevented by painting white lines on the tyre and wheel.
B) is not a problem with tubeless tyres.
C) refers to the movement of the aircraft against the tyre.
D) can rip out the inflation valve and deflate the tyre.

A back-up to the normal landing gear extension system may be:
A) an alternative emergency hydraulic system.
B) a mechanical free-fall system.
C) high pressure air from air storage bottles.
D) any of these systems.

After an emergency free fall landing gear extension (extension by gravity), the landing gear doors:
A) will be closed mechanically.
B) will remain open.
C) will be closed hydraulically.
D) will take up an intermediate position depending on the airspeed.

The function of a fusible plug is to:
A) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.
B) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
C) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.
D) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system.

Aircraft wheels are usually made of:
A) magnesium or aluminium.
B) steel or titanium.
C) magnesium or steel.
D) copper or tin.

The illumination of the green lamp indicator corresponding to a landing gear means that the landing
gear is:
A) in the required position.
B) not in the required position.
C) locked-down.
D) locked-down and its door is locked.

The rated pressure of an aircraft tyre is the:
A) loaded pressure when the tyre is hot.
B) loaded pressure when the tyre is cold.
C) unloaded pressure when the tyre is hot.
D) unloaded pressure when the tyre is cold.


If the normal method of lowering the hydraulic operated retractable landing gear fails, there has to be
an alternate method, this usually works as?
A) A fully mechanical system that replace the hydraulic system if this one
fails. Such a system is activated with separate controls.
B) A system integrated with the original that allows the gear, by mean of its
own weight and aerodynamic resistance, to mechanically lock in place.
C) A fully hydraulic system in parallel with the normal system.
D) A system that is activated by shaking of the aeroplane, by means of
abrupt movement of the aeroplane controls to lower and lock the landing
gear.

When fitting a new tyre to an aircraft, creep:
A) will only occur when the tyre is over inflated.
B) is normal.
C) will only occur if tubeless tyres are used.
D) will only occur if high performance tyres are used.

Main and nose wheel bays are:
A) different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised.
B) unpressurised.
C) conditioned.
D) pressurised.

The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:
A) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
B) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
C) release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
D) prevent the brakes from overheating.

The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is:
A) Touch down with crosswind
B) Gear down selection
C) Taxiing with a small turning radius
D) Braking with an inoperative anti skid system

Tyre " creep" may be described as the:
A) the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature
B) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear
C) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
D) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature

Creep is:
A) increase of tyre diameter due to centrifugal force on take-off and landing.
B) circumferential movement of the tyre around the fringe of the wheel.
C) lateral movement of the tyre around the flange.
D) circumferential movement of the tyre around the flange due to the coriander effect.

Associate the correct legend to each of the
numbered diagrams:
A) 1 - cantilever; 2 - dual wheels;
3 - half fork; 4 - fork
B) 1 - cantilever; 2 - fork; 3 - half
fork; 4 - dual wheels
C) 1 - half fork; 2 - fork; 3 -
cantilever; 4 - tandem
D) 1 - half fork; 2 - single trace;
3 - cantilever; 4 - dual wheels


" Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as:
A) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
B) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.
C) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
D) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.

The nose wheel extension of an aircraft is 2 inches more than normal when the aircraft is correctly
loaded, the most likely cause is:
A) too much nitrogen in the oleo strut.
B) too little nitrogen in the oleo strut.
C) too little oil in the oleo strut.
D) a down draught at the tail.

The advantage of tricycle type landing gear over a tail wheel system is that:
A) the landing speed is much less.
B) it is lighter and less complicated.
C) the braking system is less complicated.
D) there is no danger of tipping over when applying brakes with a strong tailwind.

On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to
prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
A) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature
(thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.
B) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
C) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
D) the " Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to
the tyre temperature.


61. The shock strut extension of nose landing gear is 2 inches more than normal when the aircraft is
correctly loaded. The most likely cause is:
A) a damaged torsion link.
B) not enough oil in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.
C) not enough nitrogen in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.
D) too much nitrogen in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.
Aircraft nose wheel shimmy is:
A) rapid oscillation of the wheel about the wheel axis.
B) oscillation of the wheel about its track.
C) rapid vertical displacement of the wheel due to uneven ground.
D) commonly caused low shock absorber gas pressure.

On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:
A) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway.
B) it's tread will deteriorate faster.
C) will wear at the shoulders.
D) will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed.

An emergency air bottle:
A) is primed by the operation of the hand pump.
B) is primarily for use when braking.
C) can lower and raise the undercarriage.
D) is used to lower the undercarriage.

What are purpose and placing of a " fusible plug" on the tires?
A) It is placed in the wheel and reacts on temperature. At excessive
temperatures it melts which allows the air to escape from the tire, leaving
the tire unpressurised.
B) It is placed in airplane tires to seal holes.
C) It is placed in the wheel and by feeling the tire pressure it automatically
regulates the pressure to the desired.
D) It is placed in the brake assembly and when the brakes are overheated it
turns off the hydraulic pressure fed to the brakes, allowing the brakes to
cool.

The anti-skid system would be used:
A) on landing runs only.
B) for both take off and landing runs.
C) for take off on icy runways.
D) on take off runs only.

If there is a fluid leakage from a jack:
A) the incorrect fluid must have been used.
B) the jack lubrication system is working normally.
C) there are air bubbles in the fluid.
D) an oil seal has failed.





A tubeless tyre is a tyre:
1. which requires solid or branched wheels
2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1, 5, 6
B) 2, 3, 6
C) 1, 2, 5
D) 3, 4, 5

Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised
to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:
A) 2000 psi
B) 1500 psi
C) 500 psi
D) 1000 psi

In a Landing Gear hydraulic system how can emergency operation of actuators be achieved?
A) By electric emergency actuators.
B) By any of the above methods.
C) By pulling a gravity release.
D) By operating the actuator pneumatically by discharging a pressurised gas
bottle into the hydraulic lines.

When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the pressure indicated on the gauge should read... above
the rated inflation pressure:
A) 10 psi
B) 4 psi
C) 4 percent.
D) 10 percent.

A wheel brake anti-skid unit is sensitive to:
A) aircraft speed.
B) hydraulic system fluid pressure, and temperature.
C) hydraulic system fluid pressure.
D) angular deceleration.

With the antiskid system unserviceable, how should brake application be made?
A) Releasing the pressure on the pedals after the wheels have touched the
runway.
B) Fully applying the brakes.
C) With an on and off braking action.
D) By carefully moderating the pressure on the pedals.

To prevent the landing gear from collapsing when the aircraft is parked on the ground by, following
device is used:
A) torque links.
B) locking pins with flags.
C) hydraulic pressure.
D) chocks.

Side loads imposed on an undercarriage unit on landing are absorbed by:
A) the shock absorber.
B) locking pins.
C) the side load strut or link.
D) the torque links.

A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:
A) aircraft is overweight.
B) a torque link is worn or damaged.
C) the tyres pressures are too high.
D) the aircraft is incorrectly loaded.

Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when:
A) after take-off.
B) during crosswind landings.
C) during pushback.
D) making tight turns when taxiing.

In a modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete
hydraulic system failure.
A) By hydraulic accumulators.
B) Electrically.
C) Mechanically.
D) Pneumatically.

If the braking system shuttle valve gets jammed in the normal position:
A) both systems will operate.
B) main braking would not be available.
C) the brakes will jam when selected.
D) emergency braking would not be available.

A tubeless tyre has:
1. a built-in-air tube.
2. no built-in-air tube.
3. a crossed side casing.
4. a radial side casing.
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 4.
C) 1,3.
D) 2, 3.
81. If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed gear, which of the mentioned factors will differ from a
retractable landing gear?
A) horizontal stability.
B) parasite drag.
C) lift.
D) induced drag.

During maintenance, the main undercarriage of an aircraft is normally prevented from collapsing on
the ground by:
A) locking pins with flags.
B) a mechanical lock.
C) a mechanical lock and hydraulic pressure.
D) a hydraulic lock and aerodynamic lock.

The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:
A) to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.
B) to supply a limited amount of brake energy in case the hydraulic system
normally powering the brakes does not function anymore.
C) to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.
D) to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to
prevent wheel blocking.

Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:
A) the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft.
B) prevented by the ground/air logic system.
C) not possible because the system is not powerful enough.
D) always a danger after the ground locks have been removed.

The rated pressure of an aircraft tyre is recommended by:
A) the Aviation Authority of the country from which the aircraft operates.
B) the aircraft operator.
C) the European Aviation Authority.
D) the tyre manufacturer.

What is the most probable cause of insufficient extension of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber?
A) low oil level and low air pressure.
B) low air pressure.
C) high oil level with air pressure correct.
D) low oil level with corrected air pressure.

The main purpose of using anti-skid units in the wheel-brake system is to:
A) reduce tyre wear.
B) prevent brake unit heating becoming excessive.
C) increase the landing distance.
D) reduce the landing speed.

In a HP brake hydraulic system:
A) A PRV is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft
hydraulic system fails
B) The aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by
operation of a dual brake control valve
C) A NRV is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to
that of the brake operating pressure
D) A separate handbrake system is always fitted together with its own
accumulator and its own system components

A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:
A) absorb the spring tension.
B) lock the landing gear.
C) control the wheels.
D) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.

Oil is required in an oleo-pneumatic shock strut to:
A) limit the speed at which the strut compresses.
B) lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
C) limit the speed of extension and compression of the shock strut.
D) support the weight of the aircraft.

How is the undercarriage normally locked down on a down selection?
A) by a hydraulic lock with a mechanical locking pin.
B) by a mechanical lock and overcenter lock.
C) by a mechanical loch and hydraulic pressure.
D) by a mechanical lock and locking pins with flags.

Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics:
1. high heating
2. valve fragility
3. lower risk of bursting
4. better adjustment to wheels
The combination containing all the correct statements is:
A) 2, 3.
B) 2, 4.
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because:
A) The tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
B) The aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not
straight.
C) There is limited space in the nose wheel bay.
D) It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off.

Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:
1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground
2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions
This effect is overcome by means of:
3. the torque link
4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3

In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:
A) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during
high intensity braking.
B) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in
order to prevent wheel blocking.
C) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of
the automatic braking system.
D) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic
failure.

What is reducing the shocks on the landing gear on an oleo shock absorber?
A) Springs inside the strut.
B) The oil that is forced through a metering orifice.
C) Cushion of compressed air.
D) Compression of the oil.

When the main undercarriage gear is selected 'DOWN' in flight, it is locked down by:
A) Hydraulic down locks.
B) sequence valves.
C) spring loaded jacks imposing a geometric lock on the side stays or drag struts.
D) locking pins with warning flags.

The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will
have:
A) risen by 10% of their original value.
B) fallen by 15% from their rated value.
C) remained constant.
D) risen by 15% from their rated value.

Multi Disc brake units are assessed for wear:
A) by measuring individual brake pad thickness.
B) by wear indicator pins that retract into the torque plate as brake wear occurs.
C) by wear indicator pins which extend as brake wear takes place.
D) by wear indicators that change colour as brake wear takes place.
The most probable cause of main wheel shimmy is:
A) shock absorber extension low.
B) excessive shock absorber extension.
C) worn torque links or toggles.
D) low tyre inflation pressure.


101. An accumulator may be fitted in a brake system to:
A) Prevent thermal expansion from being transmitted from the main system.
B) Modulate the response when the brakes are initially applied.
C) Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of main system pressure failure.
D) Compensate for fluid loss when the brakes are applied.

Gear retraction systems are classified according to the power source used for retraction and
extension. Which are the most frequently used on larger aircraft?
A) Electrical and pneumatic.
B) Mechanical.
C) Hydraulic.
D) Electrical and hydraulic.

If the oleo-pneumatic shock strut extension of a landing gear on the ground is designed to be 6
inches, but it is found to be 2 inches:
A) the hydraulic fluid pressure is more than required.
B) the hydraulic fluid pressure is insufficient.
C) the nitrogen (or air) pressure is insufficient.
D) the nitrogen (or air) pressure is more than required.

The disk brakes have more or less replaced the drum brakes. Why?
A) Because disk brakes allow an antiskid action.
B) Owing to a loss of braking action due to heat generation problem.
C) Because disk brakes weighted less and lasted longer.
D) Because disk brakes allow a greater dissipation kinetic energy.

A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to:
A) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the
rotational movement of the nosewheel
B) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears
C) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.
D) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20

The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:
A) Counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.
B) Prevent the fluid becoming aerated.
C) Prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated.
D) Make the lowering time greater than the raising time.

Oil is required in an oleo strut to:
A) support the weight of the aircraft.
B) lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
C) limit the speed at which the strut compresses.
D) limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.

If the gas pressure is too high in an oleo leg it will:
A) Cause the leg extension to be more than normal
B) The leg extension will be lower than normal.
C) Not affect the functioning as a pressure relief valve will ensure pressure is
brought within limits.
D) The leg extension will not change.

A main landing gear is said to be LOCKED DOWN when:
A) the strut is locked by an overcenter mechanism
B) the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel
C) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber
D) it is in the down position

At an aircraft taxiing speed of l0 mph the antiskid braking system is:
A) operative only on the main wheel brakes.
B) operative.
C) operative only on the nosewheel brakes.
D) inoperative.

The most likely cause of brake fade is:
A) worn stators.
B) oil or grease on the brake drums.
C) the pilot reducing the brake pressure.
D) overheating.

The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:
A) Drum type brake.
B) Multiple disk brake.
C) Belt brake
D) Single disk brake.

The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:
A) the hydraulic reservoir.
B) a self contained power pack.
C) the aircraft main hydraulic system.
D) the pilots brake pedals.



Prior to landing, what considerations should be given to the aircraft tyres?
A) aircraft mass, tyre pressure and type of tyre tread.
B) tyre pressure, aircraft mass, and rwy surface conditions.
C) aircraft mass, landing speed, and tyre pressures.
D) aircraft mass, rwy conditions and landing speed.

In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:
A) Mechanically driven.
B) Hydraulically driven.
C) Electrically driven.
D) Pneumatically driven.

What is an essential requirement in a Nose Wheel Steering System?
A) A follow-up mechanism.
B) An emergency air back up.
C) Feedback.
D) Triplicate servo operation.

The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing:
A) automatically
B) by pilot action
C) the system is always armed
D) at a certain low speed

A red band painted on the wall of a tyre is a:
A) creep mark.
B) heavy spot.
C) light spot.
D) balance mark.

Oil is used in an oleo strut to:
A) Support the weight of the aircraft.
B) Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.
C) Lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
D) Limit the speed of compression of the strut.

On the brake assembly there is an anti-skid system. From which device does the anti-skid control box
get the information to regulate the brake pressure?
A) From a wheel speed sensor.
B) From the airspeed indicator, corrected to ground speed.
C) From a hydraulic pressure sensor.
D) From the pitot static system.




121. Control on the ground for small aeroplanes is provided by steering the nose wheel through
connections to the rudder pedals, but large aeroplanes have normally:
A) mechanical power steering.
B) hydraulic power steering.
C) pneumatic power steering.
D) electrical power steering.

During the landing run, when wheel brake anti-skid units are activated:
A) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid to the reservoir via the
brake control valve.
B) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid from the brake unit
direct to return.
C) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid from the brake unit
direct to the accumulator.
D) full brake pressure is applied to the brake units.



























Flight controls (construction and operation):

On an aircraft, the Kruger flap is a:
A) trailing edge flap.
B) leading edge flap close to the wing tip.
C) leading edge flap close to the wing root.
D) leading edge flap.

Some aircraft uses a fly by wire system to move the primary flight controls, this system is based on:
A) Hydraulic power only.
B) Secondary controls such as speed brakes.
C) Electrical signals from a computer sent to hydraulic actuators.
D) Mechanical power transmitted by steel wires.

A q feel unit is:
A) used to give the pilot some control feedback dependent on the rate of acceleration.
B) used to give the pilot some control feedback at varying altitudes by sensing static
pressure changes.
C) also known as an Artificial feel Unit.
D) used to give the pilot some feedback of flap position by sensing the dynamic pressure.

Which of the following helps to prevent flutter?
A) Inset Hinges.
B) Horn Balance.
C) Balance Tabs.
D) Mass Balance.

What are " Kruger" flaps?
A) Leading edge flaps
B) Aileron trim tabs
C) Trailing edge flaps.
D) Cowling flaps

The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is:
A) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
B) Because there are two trim motors.
C) To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway.
D) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed
and high trim rate at low speed.

Control surface flutter:
A) is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing.
B) is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope.
C) provides additional lift for take-off and landing in the event of engine failure.
D) occurs at high angles of attack.

The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:
A) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
B) trim the aeroplane during normal flight.
C) lower manoeuvring control forces.
D) reduce or to cancel control forces.

On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
A) leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
B) trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
C) leading edge flaps close to the wing root
D) trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip

One type of flap used on aircraft moves down and increases the wing area by moving aft when
lowered. This flap is known as:
A) Split flap.
B) Slotted flap.
C) Fowler flap.
D) Aft moving flap.

What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its longitudinal or roll axis?
A) The elevator.
B) The ailerons.
C) The trim tabs.
D) The rudder.

How do differential ailerons work?
A) equalise the lift on up going and down going wings.
B) Increase lift on down going wing and decrease lift on up going wing.
C) increase drag on up going wing and decrease drag on down going wing.
D) equalise the drag on up going and down going wings.

The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:
1. Reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces
2. Lesser sensitivity to lightning strike
3. Direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems
4. Immunity to different interfering signals
5. Improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1 and 5
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 5
D) 1 and 2

A Yaw Damper is:
A) A roll trim tab.
B) An elevator augmenter.
C) A rudder damper designed to avoid the " Dutch roll" .
D) An elevator augmenter to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.
If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:
A) in series with the secondary controls.
B) in series with the primary controls.
C) in parallel with the secondary controls.
D) in parallel with the primary controls.

The elevators of a conventional airline are used to provide rotation about the:
A) Lateral axis.
B) Directional axis.
C) Vertical axis.
D) Longitudinal axis.

An artificial feel unit system:
A) must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.
B) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.
C) must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit.
D) is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.

To yaw the aircraft to the right:
A) the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the
left.
B) the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the
right.
C) the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.
D) the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:
A) to change the direction of the control cable.
B) to prevent the cable from slackening.
C) to ensure smooth operation of the system.
D) to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system.

The trim tab:
A) reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
B) increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
C) reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.
D) increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.


21. A Kruger flap is:
A) A trailing edge flap which is operating automatically.
B) A leading edge flap type which is formed by extending an area of the wing
downwards and forward at the leading edge.
C) An anti balanced type of flap with the purpose of making the controls smoother.
D) To give the aircraft better short field performance.
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:
A) there is a trimmable stabilizer.
B) the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
C) the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
D) the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.

If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left,
the right aileron will move:
A) down and the elevator will move up.
B) down and the elevator will move down.
C) up and the elevator will move down.
D) up and the elevator will move up.

If the control stick of an aircraft is moved forward to the right, the left aileron will move:
A) Up, and the elevator will move up.
B) Up, and the elevator will move down.
C) Down, and the elevator will move down.
D) Down, and the elevator will move up.

On an aeroplane, spoilers are:
A) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
B) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
C) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
D) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers...
A) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler
will extend and the left one will retract.
B) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler
will extend and the left one will retract.
C) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler
will retract and the left one will extend.
D) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler
will retract and the left one will extend.

Control surface flutter is minimised by:
A) reducing the moment of the critical engine.
B) aerodynamic balance of the control cables.
C) mass balance of the control surfaces.
D) changing the wings before they reach their critical life.

A servo tab moves?
A) In the same direction of the control surface to which it's hinged.
B) According to he airflow that surrounds it.
C) Opposite of the control surface to which it is hinged.
D) Parallel to the control surface to which it is hinged.
"Feel" units are fitted when:
A) Power assisted controls are fitted to the aircraft.
B) Servo tabs are fitted to the aircraft.
C) Spring tabs are fitted to the control system.
D) Powered controls are fitted to the aircraft.

The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:
A) to keep the cable straight and clear of structure.
B) to attach the cables to chain drives.
C) alter the angle of deflection of the cables.
D) to guide the cables on to the pulley wheels.

With which system is differential control associated?
A) Aileron system.
B) Rudder system.
C) Elevator system.
D) Trim system.

Trailing edge flaps:
A) Increase lift at a higher AOA
B) Reduce lift at a higher AOA
C) Increase lift at a lower AOA
D) Reduce lift at a lower AOA

If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:
A) in series with the primary controls.
B) close to the control column.
C) to the secondary flight controls.
D) in parallel with the primary controls.

The control surface that rotates the aircraft about its longitudinal axis is/are the:
A) Flaps.
B) Ailerons.
C) Rudder.
D) Elevator.









Hydraulics:

Hydraulic fluid is considered to be:
A) compressible.
B) compressible inside it's rated operating temperature range only.
C) compressible at high temperatures only.
D) incompressible.

Slow, sluggish operation of a hydraulic system is:
A) low accumulator charge pressure causing rapid system pressure
fluctuations.
B) an indication of air in the system and it requires bleeding.
C) an indication of water in the hydraulic system.
D) caused by a blocked high pressure filter element.

A circuit utilising a constant volume pump would also require:
A) an automatic cut out and accumulator.
B) a relief valve.
C) an automatic cut out.
D) a hand pump.

A pressure maintaining or priority valve:
A) is used to increase pressure in the sys.
B) is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.
C) enables ground operation of services when the engines are off.
D) is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system
pressure.

When a variable volume pump is stationary:
A) it is at minimum stroke.
B) the stroke does not alter.
C) the aircraft engines are unserviceable.
D) it is at maximum stroke.

If one uses the incorrect fluid in a hydraulic system:
A) inspection intervals will decrease.
B) damage to the seals could result.
C) the hydraulic system will function properly.
D) corrosion problems could arise in all affected system components.

In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used?
A) Vegetable.
B) Mineral/alcohol.
C) Synthetic.
D) Mineral.

DTD 585 (MIL-H 5606) is coloured:
A) purple.
B) green.
C) red.
D) blue.

A shuttle valve is used for:
A) preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack.
B) maintaining fluid pressure when the emergency system fails.
C) selecting the direction of fluid flow to a jack (e.g.: flaps in or out.)
D) changeover from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure.

A constant pressure hydraulic pump is controlled by:
A) a control piston which adjusts the swash plate angle.
B) an automatic cut-out valve in combination with an accumulator.
C) maintaining engine RPM.
D) a swash plate that senses fluid temperature.

Hydraulic fluids:
A) Are irritating to eyes and skin.
B) Cause high fire risk.
C) Do not require special care.
D) Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:
A) high operating fluid temperature.
B) seal damage and jack corrosion.
C) system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible
corrosion.
D) normal operation.

A 100lb force is applied to each of two unconnected actuators. The area of one is 2 inch2 and the area
of the other is 4 inch2:
A) The pressure inside the both actuators will be 200lbf.
B) The pressure inside the small actuator will be 200 psi and the pressure
inside the large one will be 400 psi.
C) The pressure inside the small actuator will be 50 psi and the pressure
inside the large one will be 25 psi.
D) The pressure inside the both actuators will be 200psi.

Hydraulic fluids used in systems of modern airliners are:
A) Mineral base fluids.
B) Phosphate ester base fluids.
C) Water base fluids.
D) Vegetable base fluids.

When air is found in a hydraulic system:
A) ignore it, it has no effect.
B) allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
C) have the air bled from the system.
D) expect services to operate faster.

In a hydraulic system fitted with a constant volume pump, when maximum system pressure is
reached:
A) the pump maintains a small leak rate through the pump, whilst in the off load position.
B) the pump off loads completely.
C) an idling circuit is created via the reservoir.
D) the pump is disengaged by a pressure operated clutch.

If the system pressure is 3,000 psi the force provided by a 4 square inch jack compared to the force
provided by a 2 square inch area jack will be:
A) 6,000 Ib greater.
B) 3,000 lb in total.
C) 6,000 lb less.
D) the same.

The function of the selector valve is to:
A) communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.
B) discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.
C) select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
D) automatically activate the hydraulic system.

The purpose of pressurising some hydraulic reservoirs is to:
A) provide emergency pressure if the pump should fail
B) prevent cavitation at the pressure filter
C) provide a positive feed to the main pump
D) provide a positive pressure to the return line

In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven
hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge
which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:
A) 1200 psi
B) 4200 psi
C) 3000 psi
D) 1800 psi


21. In a closed cylinder filled with fluid, pressure is:
A) the same in all directions on all surfaces.
B) higher on the cylinder walls than on the piston.
C) inversely proportional to cylinder volume.
D) higher on the piston than on the cylinder walls.

A hydraulic fuse is fitted in a hydraulic system, to prevent excessive fluid loss in the event of a leak:
A) downstream of the fuse.
B) upstream of the fuse.
C) anywhere in the system.
D) in the reservoir.

Assume that piston A has an area of 2 cm
2
and
Piston B has an area of 10 cm
2
. If piston A is
depressed 5cm (input stroke), what will be the
corresponding upward movement of piston B?
A) 10 cm
B) 5 cm
C) 1 cm
D) 0.5 cm

Hand pumps are usually fitted to aircraft systems to:
A) Maintain the level of fluid in the reservoir.
B) Allow the normal operation of in-flight services.
C) Ensure that the gas charge in the accumulator remains at the correct value.
D) Provide a ground service facility and for emergency use.

The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:
A) high pressure and small flow.
B) high pressure and large flow.
C) small pressure and small flow.
D) small pressure and large flow.

Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?
A) In the reservoirs.
B) At the coolers.
C) At the pumps.
D) At actuators.

The hydraulic hand pump fitted to aircraft is:
A) Used on flaps and landing gear only.
B) Generally single acting.
C) Generally double acting.
D) Rotary acting.

The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:
A) Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure.
B) Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.
C) Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.
D) Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.
A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system is fitted in the:
A) supply to the undercarriage retraction actuator.
B) undercarriage up line and the flap down line.
C) undercarriage down line and the flap up line.
D) EDP.

In an aircraft hydraulic system it is permitted to use:
A) Only an oil specified for use in that system.
B) Any oil that is available.
C) Any oil of the same colour.
D) Any oil of the same specific gravity.

A hydraulic fluid should possess:
A) A low viscosity at all ambient temperatures.
B) A low flash point and should remain free flowing.
C) A degree of compressibility with no increase in viscosity at high
temperatures.
D) A high viscosity at all ambient temperatures.

An Automatic Cut Out Valve is installed in a hydraulic system:
A) before the electrically driven pump
B) to provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is full
C) before the engine driven pump
D) to prevent excessive pump temperatures

If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi and the piston strokes of two actuators are equal, the
pressure on a 4 inch sq. jack compared to the pressure on a 1 inch sq. jack will be:
A) four times as much.
B) half as much.
C) twice as much.
D) the same.

Where in the hydraulic system are the overheat indicators?
A) At the pumps.
B) At the coolers.
C) At the reservoirs.
D) At the using units.

An automatic cut-out valve is used in a:
A) Both of these
B) Constant pressure system
C) Fixed volume pressure control system
D) Neither of these



What is the purpose of a pressure switch in a hydraulic supply system?
A) to operate the pressure gauge.
B) to switch off the pump when maximum pressure is reached.
C) to prevent excess pressure build-up in the system.
D) to operate a warning light in the event of system pressure failure.

The indication of an internal leak in a hydraulic system will be:
A) a fall in reservoir fluid level.
B) excessive system pressure.
C) a rise in fluid temperature.
D) a rise in reservoir fluid level.

When topping up a system with fluid, the correct type can be recognised by:
A) its specific gravity.
B) its colour.
C) its specific pressure capacity.
D) its smell.

The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, vegetable or ester based) is:
A) generally distinguishable by colour.
B) generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same
manufacturer.
C) always distinguishable by taste and smell.
D) not generally distinguishable by colour.

To prevent leakage of a mineral based fluid in two directions which seal is used?
A) a butyl chevron seal.
B) a butyl '0' seal.
C) a synthetic '0' seal.
D) a natural 'U' seal.


41. In a simple hydraulic system a pressure relief valve is fitted to:
A) The suction side of the system.
B) The vent side of the system.
C) The return side of the system.
D) The pressure side of the system.

Prevention of damage to components in the closed part of a hydraulic system due to heat expansion:
A) Is achieved by using a pressure release valve.
B) Is achieved by using a thermal relief valve.
C) Is achieved by pressurising the reservoir.
D) Is achieved by the use of expansion joints in the pipelines.


An accumulator air charge is 1000 psi. When the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1800 psi, the
accumulator gauge will read:
A) 1800 psi.
B) 800 psi.
C) 2800 psi.
D) 1000 psi.

In a hydraulic system the master cylinders inner diameter is 10 mm2, and the actuator cylinders inner
diameter is 100 mm2. If you press the master-cylinder 2 cm by using a 100 N force, the actuator
cylinder will move: :
A) 2 mm and produce a force of 1000 N
B) 2 cm and produce a force of 100 N
C) 1 mm and produce a force of 500 N
D) 2 mm and produce a force of 100 N

In an enclosed system pressure is felt:
A) more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder.
B) more at the cylinder end than the piston head.
C) more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary.
D) the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.

A restrictor valve operates to:
A) restrict the number of services available.
B) controls the rate of movement of a service.
C) controls the distance an actuator moves.
D) controls the rate of pressure build up in the system.

A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system:
A) controls the distance the jack moves.
B) controls the rate of movement of a service.
C) controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system.
D) restricts the maximum pressure in the system.

In a modern hydraulic system, " hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is:
A) To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.
B) To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake
system.
C) To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.
D) To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive
pressure, without further damage to the system.

A ... valve is used where two different values of pressure are required in a system.
A) Pressure relief.
B) Pressure release.
C) Restrictor.
D) Pressure reducing.

An accumulator has a gas charge pressure of 800 psi and the aircraft system has a residual hydraulic
pressure of 600 psi. The accumulator gas gauge should read:
A) 200 psi.
B) 1400 psi.
C) 800 psi.
D) 600 psi.

The colour of hydraulic fluid MIL-H-5606 is:
A) green.
B) red.
C) purple.
D) blue.

The purpose of a pressure maintaining valve is to:
A) maintain system pressure at all times.
B) give priority to one system over another.
C) ensure essential services operate in an emergency.
D) maintain pressure to the hydraulic reservoir.

The main reasons for using pressurised hydraulic reservoirs on jet transport aircraft is/are:
A) To maintain a minimum system pressure in case of hydraulic pump failure
and enabling the pilot to lower flaps and gear with the help of this
reservoir pressure.
B) To assure that an adequate supply of fluid free from foaming always is
present at the pump inlet.
C) To compress the hydraulic fluids.
D) To increase the output pressure of the system.

Skydrol 7000 is... A ... in colour, requires a...B... seal and is often used because...C...
A) A green B Teflon C it is cheap and easily produced.
B) A green B Butyl-rubber C has better fire retardant properties.
C) A straw B Teflon C has better fire retardant properties.
D) A yellow B Butyl-rubber C has better fire retardant properties.

For calculation purposes, hydraulic fluid is considered to be:
A) compressible at low temperatures only.
B) compressible at high temperatures only.
C) incompressible.
D) compressible.

The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full
level. The system is then pressurised. Will the contents level:
A) remain at the same level.
B) rise above the " full" mark.
C) fall below the " full" mark.
D) fall to a position marked 'full accs charged'.

The hydraulic pressure gauge provides information regarding the pressure of:
A) the hydraulic pressure in the system.
B) the air and hydraulic fluid pressure in the system.
C) the air in the accumulator.
D) the proportional pressure in the system.

Hydraulic fluid should have which of the following properties?
A) Freezing point not lower than 0 degrees " C" .
B) High freezing point and low boiling point.
C) High flash point.
D) Low flash point.

When a hydraulic system is pressurised, the hydraulic quantity in the reservoir:
A) remains at the same level.
B) falls.
C) rises.
D) initially falls then rises.

What is the purpose of a flop tube, as fitted to a hydraulic reservoir?
A) to compensate for thermal expansion.
B) to pressurize the hydraulic reservoir.
C) to prevent total loss of fluid in the event of leakage in the main supply.
D) to compensate for changes in aircraft attitude.


61. Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and the
same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2:
A) the smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1200N.
B) both jacks will move at the same speed.
C) the smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.
D) both have the same force.

What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet airliner?
A) Pink.
B) Purple.
C) Yellow.
D) Red.

An airspace is provided above the fluid in a reservoir to:
A) Allow for the carriage of extra fluid on a long haul flight.
B) Allow for jack ram displacement.
C) Allow the fluid to boil at attitude.
D) Provide an emergency reserve of air should the accumulator fail.


The reason for the pressure accumulator in the hydraulic system is:
A) It works as a backup fluid reservoir, which increases the capacity of the
system.
B) It serves as a water reservoir that collects water from the hydraulic fluid.
C) The accumulator serves as an internal shock absorber for the hydraulic
system.
D) The accumulator compensates for fluid-volume variation due to changes
in temperature.

Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:
1. thermal stability
2. low emulsifying characteristics
3. corrosion resistance
4. good resistance to combustion
5. high compressibility
6. high volatility
7. high viscosity
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 3, 4, 6
D) 1, 2, 5, 7

Restrictor valves are fitted:
A) to limit jack travel.
B) to limit pump rotation.
C) to slow down the rate of pressure build-up.
D) to slow down the operation of a service in one direction.

Emergency air bottle may be used for:
A) an emergency power supply in the event of main system fluid pressure
loss.
B) an emergency power supply to raise the undercarriage.
C) to charge the accumulators in an emergency.
D) to compensate for a low fluid level in reservoir.

The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:
A) water and glycol
B) synthetic oil
C) mineral oil
D) vegetable oil

A non return valve or check valve:
A) closes if inlet pressure ceases.
B) can only be fitted if provided with a by pass selector.
C) closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure.
D) opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure.

One hydraulic system can be pressurised by another hydraulic system without fluid mixing using a
hydraulic motor-pump device, also called...
A) APU
B) SEC
C) RAT
D) PTU

The attached diagram illustrates a jack and selector valve
in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic
pressure throughout:
A) the jack will move to the left due to
pressure acting on differential areas
B) the jack will move to the right due to
equal pressure acting on differential
areas
C) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and
no movement of the jack will take place
D) since pressures are equal, the jack is
free to move in response to external
forces



Hydraulic pressure of 3000psi is applied to a jack whose area is 2sq in. If the same pressure is applied
to a jack of 4sq in:
A) both jacks will move at the same speed.
B) both jacks exert the same force.
C) the smaller jack will exert a force of 6000lb, and the larger jack a force of
12000lb.
D) the smaller jack will exert a force of 50lb, and the larger a force of 25lb.

A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:
A) a control piston.
B) a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature.
C) engine RPM.
D) an automatic cut out.

Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:
A) pink.
B) red.
C) purple.
D) blue.




Hydraulic accumulators are normally charged to:
A) Half system pressure.
B) 75% of system pressure.
C) System pressure.
D) 1000 psi.

A variable displacement hydraulic pump on start up will always be at:
A) a position decided by the fluid temperature.
B) minimum stroke.
C) maximum stroke.
D) mid stroke.

One of the functions of " automatic cut out valve" in a hydraulic supply system is to:
A) limit pump wear.
B) maintain the fluid at a constant viscosity.
C) prevent hydraulic lock.
D) prevent hydraulic hammering.

One of the functions of " automatic cut out valve" in a hydraulic supply system is to:
A) prevent hydraulic lock.
B) maintain the fluid at a constant viscosity.
C) prevent hydraulic hammering.
D) limit pump wear.

Total number of hydraulic
pumps in this hydraulic
system (excluding the PTU
pump) is:
A) 5.
B) 3.
C) 2.
D) 6

The purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is to:
A) pressurise the system.
B) allow the engineer to check that enough fluid is in the system.
C) provide a reservoir of pressure for emergency operations.
D) allow for jack movements, thermal expansion and small leaks.

81. For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:
A) the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves,
the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve.
B) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must
deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm
2
).
C) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under
pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to
serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
D) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not
applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.

Cavitation in a hydraulic pump can be discovered by a loud irregular sound. What might be the reason
for a pump to cavitate?
A) There is not enough fluid in the reservoir and the pump picks up too
much air.
B) The fluid is too hot due to frequent employment of the airplane
hydraulically operated controls.
C) The pump has an excessive load.
D) Flaps, landing gear and the primary flight controls are operated at the
same time.

The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a:
A) flow control valve
B) distribution valve
C) shutoff valve
D) check valve

High frequency vibration and hammering in a hydraulic system is:
A) caused by pipe diameter fluctuations.
B) normal and does not affect the system efficiency.
C) is detrimental to the system.
D) caused by filter clogging.

Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately:
A) 1000 psi
B) 4000 psi
C) 2000 psi
D) 3000 psi

A pressure maintaining valve:
A) relieves excessive hydraulic system pressure.
B) provides a constant supply of fluid to the EDP inlet.
C) maintains a supply of fluid to essential services following hydraulic
system pressure drop.
D) maintains a supply of fluid to secondary services following hydraulic
system pressure drop.

Thermal relief valves are set to:
A) the limiting temperature for the hydraulic fluid.
B) a higher pressure than the ACOV cut-out pressure.
C) the same pressure as the ACOV cut-in pressure.
D) the same pressure as the ACOV cut-out pressure.

In a hydraulic reservoir with a stack pipe fitted, the pipe line to the emergency pump is connected to:
A) the top of the stack pipe.
B) the bottom of the reservoir.
C) the base of the stack pipe.
D) the return.

The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:
A) remove air from the system.
B) all of the above.
C) relieve excess pressure.
D) store fluid under pressure.

The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
A) in flight only.
B) by the air conditioning system.
C) by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
D) by an auxiliary system.

The presence of a film of oil on the ram of a hydraulic jack, or actuator, when checked prior to flight:
A) is to prevent ice forming on the ram.
B) is an indication of a leaking seal.
C) is to prevent corrosion taking place.
D) is for lubrication purposes.

A hand pump will draw its supply from:
A) the bottom of the reservoir.
B) the stack pipe.
C) through the U tube to prevent siphoning.
D) above the normal level.

Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
A) will move at the same speed.
B) exert the same force.
C) exert different forces.
D) will move at different speeds.






What is the purpose of a one way restrictor valve?
A) To prevent cavitation in the down line of the undercarriage circuit when
the undercarriage is selected up.
B) To prevent cavitation in the up line of the undercarriage circuit when the
undercarriage is selected down.
C) To prevent cavitation in the up line of the undercarriage circuit when the
undercarriage is selected up.
D) To prevent cavitation in the down line of the undercarriage circuit when
the undercarriage is selected down.

The purpose of a reservoir is:
A) to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need
for backing pumps.
B) to enable the contents to be checked.
C) to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters.
D) to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and
contents monitoring.

In a hydraulic system utilising a constant delivery pump, essential components are:
A) A relay valve and jettison valve.
B) An accumulator and shuttle valve.
C) An accumulator and automatic cut-out valve.
D) A relay valve and accumulator.

A HYDRAULIC FUSE will:
A) Direct the hydraulic fluid to the proper actuator according to the power
pack and sequence valve
B) Activate the actuators after the pilot has used the emergency hand pump
C) In case of a too high pressure in the system, open up and relieve the
pressure by dumping the fluid overboard or back to the reservoir
D) Detect a sufficient pressure drop across itself, or a specified volume of
fluid passing through itself, and then shut off the flow of fluid to prevent
the system of emptying itself.

Skydrol 7000 is..(i).. in colour, requires a..(ii).. seal and is often used because..(iii)..
A) yellow; (ii) Butyl-rubber; (iii) has better fire retardant properties.
B) straw; (ii) Teflon; (iii) has better fire retardant properties.
C) green; (ii) Butyl-rubber; (iii) has better fire retardant properties.
D) green; (ii) Teflon; (iii) it is cheap and easily produced.

With a one way check valve (NRV):
A) flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure.
B) flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure.
C) flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.
D) flow stops when the thermal relief valve offloads the hand pump.

A hydraulic non-return valve:
A) opens if inlet hydraulic pressure equals outlet hydraulic pressure.
B) closes if inlet hydraulic pressure exceeds outlet hydraulic pressure.
C) closes if inlet hydraulic pressure drops well below outlet pressure.
D) can only be fitted if provided with a hydraulic by-pass selector.


101. In a hydraulic system, a thermal relief valve is fitted to:
A) prevent convection currents.
B) relieve excess pressure.
C) prevent excess temperature.
D) prevent a leak back of pressure.

The fluid level in the reservoir of the system fitted with an accumulator:
A) will be unaffected by system pressurisation.
B) will rise when the system is pressurised.
C) will fail when the system is depressurised.
D) will fall when the system is pressurised.

A milky appearance at the sight glass of a hydraulic reservoir is an indication of:
A) excessive fluid pressure.
B) air in the system fluid.
C) pressure bleeding is occurring.
D) water contamination.

A hydraulic fuse is used:
A) As protection for an electrically operated hydraulic pump.
B) To operate a hydraulic pump overheat warning light.
C) In the event of a hydraulic leak upstream, to control the leak rate.
D) In the event of a hydraulic leak down stream, the fuse prevents total fluid
loss.

Cleanliness of the hydraulic fluid during use is assured by:
A) a return filter.
B) a contamination detection valve which opens when the fluid is contaminated.
C) a pressure filter.
D) a pressure filter, a case drain filter and a return filter.

What type of hydraulic seal will seal in one direction only?
A) chevron.
B) diamond section.
C) square section.
D) 'O' section.


A hydraulic lock is said to exist when there is:
A) flow, but no movement.
B) a constant return flow to the hydraulic reservoir.
C) no flow, but the jacks continues to move under gravity or other external forces.
D) no flow, jacks are stationary.

Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will:
A) fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
B) initially increase with system pressurization
C) always remain the same
D) increase as ambient temperature decreases

A shuttle valve:
A) acts as a non-return valve.
B) allows one source to operate two units.
C) allows two supply sources to operate one unit.
D) is used to replace NRVs.

If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi and the piston strokes of two hydraulic actuators are equal,
the work done by a 4 inch sq. actuator compared with the work done by a 1 inch sq. actuator will be:
A) the same.
B) four times higher.
C) half as much.
D) twice as much.

In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used:
A) for pressure storage.
B) for dampening pressure surges in the system.
C) as a pressure relief valve.
D) for fluid storage.

The arrow on a non-return valve points:
A) towards the larger connection.
B) against the direction of flow.
C) away from the smaller connection.
D) in the direction of flow.

An automatic cut-out valve will:
A) limit pump wear.
B) prevent foaming.
C) prevent hydraulic lock.
D) raise fluid boiling point.





Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised in order to:
A) maintain a constant fluid level.
B) prevent over pressurisation.
C) minimise the possibility of pump cavitation.
D) provide a reserve of stored energy.

Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are generally:
A) double acting.
B) hydraulically operated.
C) single acting.
D) rotary.

When excess pressure is relieved by the pressure relief valve it is:
A) returned to the reservoir return line.
B) returned to the inlet side of the pump.
C) vented overboard.
D) returned to the inlet side of the actuator.

Pascal s law states that:
A) pressure is inversely proportional to load.
B) applied force acts equally in all directions.
C) liquid is compressible.
D) oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators.

Hydraulic pressure in a closed centre system:
A) varies in direct proportion to system demands.
B) increases when a service selection is made.
C) is greater in pipes of small diameters.
D) is greater in pipes of large diameters.

The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:
A) is fitted down stream of the pump.
B) can be by passed when maximum flow is required.
C) filters the fluid returning to the tank.
D) clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir.

To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often
incorporates:
A) auxiliary hydraulic motors.
B) a stand-by hydraulic pump.
C) an accumulator.
D) a high pressure relief valve.




121. What is the purpose of a " relief valve" in the hydraulic system?
A) Make sure that the emergency hand pump will produce enough pressure
when used.
B) To " even out" the pressure in the system.
C) Make sure that the pressure in the system exceeds a certain minimum
pressure.
D) Make sure that the pressure does not exceed the max. permitted
pressure in the system.

Case drain filters are:
A) to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition.
B) designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere.
C) fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system.
D) fitted in the reservoir outlet.

A hydraulic reservoir is installed in a hydraulic system primarily:
A) to provide a volume of fluid to indicate system temperature.
B) to compensate for leaks and expansion, and to serve as a storage tank.
C) to allow a space for extra spare fluid to be stored.
D) to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator.

A hydraulic circuit utilising a constant volume pump would also require:
A) a pressure relief valve.
B) an automatic cut-out valve.
C) a hand pump.
D) an automatic cut-out valve and an accumulator.

Should the incorrect hydraulic fluid be used in a system:
A) any leaks will cause loss of pressure.
B) seal damage will result.
C) corrosion will be caused in the jacks.
D) there will be no effect.

Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by:
A) separate helium gas system.
B) engine bleed air from turbine engine.
C) ram air in flight only.
D) air from the air conditioning system.

An automatic cut-out valve is installed in some hydraulic systems to:
A) extend the life of the accumulator.
B) provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully loaded.
C) ensure that the pump is always on load.
D) provide an idling circuit when a selection is made.


In an aircraft hydraulic system, it is permissible to use:
A) any fluid with equivalent pressure capacity.
B) only the specified fluid.
C) any hydraulic fluid available.
D) any fluid of the same specific gravity.

The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:
A) undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.
B) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.
C) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.
D) flap extension only.

In an accumulator of the hydraulic system, a separator:
A) isolates the gas from the fluid.
B) reduces the size of the accumulator.
C) removes the dissolved gases from the fluid.
D) maintains the fluid level in the reservoir.

Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:
A) fluid loss
B) an increased fluid pressure
C) a decreased fluid temperature
D) an increased fluid temperature

When there is no flow in the tubes of a hydraulic system, the hydraulic pressure:
A) is higher in the smaller tubes.
B) is lower in the smaller tubes.
C) is equal in all the tubes.
D) is lower in the longer tubes.

In a hydraulic system, a selector valve is used to:
A) select between normal and emergency systems.
B) provide a direct air supply back to the reservoir to pressurise the fluid.
C) raise and lower the undercarriage.
D) act as a pressure relief valve.

In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve:
A) allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.
B) regulates pump delivery pressure.
C) is a self-lapping non-return valve.
D) allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.

The colour of fluid DTD 585 is:
A) Blue.
B) Red.
C) Green.
D) Purple.
A variable displacement type hydraulic pump:
A) Moves fluid quantity dependent on the system demand.
B) Moves no fluid when engine runs on idle.
C) Delivers almost constant pressure independent on system resistance.
D) Moves a constant flow of fluid.

Red mineral hydraulic fluid (DTD 585) requires:
A) mineral seals.
B) fibre seals.
C) natural rubber seals.
D) synthetic rubber seals.

A floating separator in a hydraulic system is used to:
A) separate pressurising air and fluid in the reservoir.
B) separate accumulator air from the emergency air bottle.
C) separate gas and fluid in the accumulator.
D) measure the hydraulic reservoir contents.

An ACOV will:
A) provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged.
B) ensure the pump is always on load.
C) provide an idling circuit when a selection is made.
D) extend the life of the accumulator.

An accumulator is precharged with nitrogen to a pressure of 500 lb.in-2. The hydraulic system is then
pressurised to 1500 lb.in-2. The accumulator gauge will now read:
A) 500 lb.in-2.
B) 1500 lb.in-2.
C) 100 lb.in-2.
D) 2500 lb.in-2.


141. If it is necessary to refill the hydraulic system and the approved hydraulic fluid is not available,
you may:
A) use hydraulic fluid from another aircraft provided that this fluid is filtered first.
B) not use any fluid other than the approved type from a clean container.
C) use any hydraulic fluid.
D) drain hydraulic fluid from another aircraft and use it.

The oil reservoir in a hydraulic system has the purpose to serve as:
A) an expansion chamber to provide a space for the fluid when its volume
increases due to a high temperature.
B) a point at which the fluid can purge itself of air.
C) the compartment that stores the fluid.
D) all of the above alternatives are correct.

A hydraulic restrictor valve:
A) slows down the build up of hydraulic system pressure.
B) is used to limit actuator travel.
C) reduces hydraulic system pressure when the pressure is too high.
D) slows down the rate of movement of the actuators and other hydraulic services.

A complex hydraulic system may pressurize the oil reservoir by means of bleed air from the engines,
this is:
A) To increase the hydraulic pressure in the system and thereby alter its performance.
B) To avoid air from developing in the system.
C) In case of oil leakage the air might serve as a backup medium.
D) To secure reliable oil supply to the hydraulic pumps.

One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:
A) provide a reservoir of fluid.
B) absorb pressure surges.
C) minimise the possibility of pump cavitation.
D) relieve excess pressure.

In order to control the rate of movement of a service in a hydraulic system a... valve is used.
A) shuttle
B) restrictor
C) debooster
D) modulating

In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:
A) a full flow relief valve is not required.
B) the terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump RPM.
C) a full flow relief valve is fitted down stream of it.
D) a full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it.

A modern aeroplane is equipped with warning lights in the cockpit to monitor the hydraulic system.
What does the illumination of the hydraulic oil temperature light indicate?
A) High fluid temperature in the main pressure line.
B) Overheated fluid in either the main or the emergency reservoir.
C) Overheated hydraulic fluid in one of the pump return lines.
D) Mechanical failure of one engine driven pump.

When air is known to be present in the hydraulic system you should:
A) have the air bled from the system.
B) allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
C) expect services to operate faster.
D) ignore it because normal operation will remove it.



Air Driven System (Piston Engine):

An engine driven air conditioning blower system will normally include in addition to the blower:
A) a mass flow controller, choke heat valve, silencer.
B) a choke heat valve, silencer.
C) a mass flow controller, spill valves, choke heat valve, silencer.
D) spill valves, silencer.

A combustion heater system is normally supplied from?
A) Oil from the hydraulic system.
B) An inflammable mixture for this particular purpose.
C) Fuel from the aircraft fuel system.
D) An inflammable gas from a pressurised tank.

Cooling in a vapour cycle cooler is achieved by converting:
A) vapour into gas.
B) vapour into liquid.
C) liquid into vapour.
D) gas into liquid.

A combustion heater works on the principle of:
A) passing ram air over the engine exhaust system to the cabin via a
plenum chamber.
B) fuel choke differential.
C) tapping hot gases from the engine exhaust system and passing them
through a heat exchanger.
D) passing ram air over an active fuel burning heater and then to the cabin.

A typical refrigerant used in a vapour cycle cooling system is:
A) CO.
B) Freon.
C) Ozone.
D) CO2.











Air Driven System (Turbo propeller And Jet Aircraft):

An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000 ft at 1,000ft per min, the cabin pressurisation is set to
climb at 500ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000ft is:
A) twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.
B) the same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.
C) half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.
D) three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.

In the event of failure in one of the cabin air supplies, loss of cabin pressure is prevented by:
A) the NRVs in the delivery duct closing.
B) an automatic stand-by air supply.
C) the NRVs in the delivery duct opening.
D) providing an alternative air supply.

The pack cooling fan provides:
A) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and
ground operation.
B) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
C) cooling air to the pre-cooler.
D) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.

When the destination field elevation is set on the pressurisation control system:
A) the outflow valves are driven to the full open position automatically to equalise
cabin and outside air pressure.
B) the outflow valves are driven to the full closed position to prevent contaminants
entering the cabin through the outflow valves.
C) the barometric controller adjusts cabin pressure to approximately 0.1psi above
ambient pressure (at destination).
D) the barometric controller adjusts cabin pressure to approximately 0.1psi below
ambient pressure (at destination).

If pressure is manually controlled:
A) care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are safe.
B) an extra member is required to monitor system operation.
C) climb rate could not be maintained.
D) the climb rate would be maintained automatically.

If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is
due to the maximum:
A) Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
B) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
C) Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
D) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.


A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by:
A) expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.
B) by-passing the air conditioning heating system.
C) a primary and secondary heat exchanger.
D) directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.

What is the purpose of the duct relief valve:
A) to ensure the compressor pressure is regulated.
B) to protect the undercarriage bay.
C) to relieve excess pressure to compressor return line.
D) to prevent damage to the ducts.

In the cruise at 30,000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to 6,000ft:
A) cabin differential will not be affected.
B) nil.
C) cabin differential will increase.
D) cabin differential will decrease.

If pressurisation air supply comes from the compressor of the engine, an oil leak from the compressor
bearings will:
A) contaminate the air.
B) not affect the air as it is vented overboard.
C) not affect the quality of the air as it is automatically filtered.
D) not contaminate the air.

High pressure pneumatic services would typically be:
A) landing gear emergency lowering only.
B) landing gear extension and retraction, flap extension and retraction.
C) wheel brakes only.
D) landing gear and flap extension and retraction, main wheel brakes, piston
engine radiator air shutter control.

For the pressurisation system, bleed air is used to drive the turbine of an air cycle machine in order
to:
A) decrease the air velocity.
B) decrease the bleed air pressure.
C) drive the pressurisation system.
D) decrease the bleed air temperature.

Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:
A) 8.000 ft
B) 4.000 ft
C) 10.000 ft
D) 6.000 ft


In the case of a thermal de-icing system over temperature, this indicated by:
A) temperature gauges.
B) warning lights.
C) yellow flags.
D) a buzzer.

The purpose of a ditching control is to:
A) close the outflow valve(s).
B) open the outflow valve(s).
C) achieve rapid depressurisation.
D) direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.

Normal cabin ventilation and pressurisation is achieved by a:
A) modulating bleed air valve / pressure controller
B) modulating bleed air valve / discharge valve combination
C) pressure controller / inlet valve combination
D) pressure controller / discharge valve combination

How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?
A) By expanding over turbine driving compressor.
B) By expanding over turbine.
C) By passing it through the fuel heater.
D) Via an air cooled radiator.

The tubes in the de-ice boots are usually inflated alternately. Why?
A) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes does not affect the
balance of the aircraft
B) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes keeps disturbance of the
airflow to minimum
C) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes relieves the strain on the
attack point
D) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes relieves the load on the
airpump

A thermal wing de-icing system:
A) feeds hot air along the complete upper wing surface.
B) can use air taken from the engine compressor.
C) feeds the engine exhaust through the leading edge ducts only.
D) relies on heat generated by the kinetic heating effect of the airflow.

The airflow from the air conditioning packs to the cabin is:
A) at a variable rate depending on the cabin altitude
B) regulated by the air mix valves depending on the cabin pressure
differential
C) at a variable rate depending on the cruising altitude
D) at a constant rate regardless of altitude
21. The primary heat exchanger in a turbo-compressor cooling system:
A) pre-cools bleed air before it enters the compressor
B) pre-cools bleed air before it enters the turbine
C) heats the cold air before it enters the passenger cabin
D) cools the bleed air before it enters the passenger cabin

The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is:
A) Pneumatic boots.
B) Thermal anti-icing.
C) Electrical heating.
D) Fluid de-icing.

In a turbo cooler system, the cooling air is:
A) ram air.
B) compressor air.
C) engine by-pass air.
D) cabin air.

In level pressurised flight, the outflow valve:
A) is closed.
B) open to increase mass flow from the packs.
C) alternates between fully open and closed.
D) is partially open and regulates cabin pressure.

Which of the following statements are correct?
A) The water extractor is upstream of the air cooling unit to prevent
moisture freezing in the system.
B) Water extracted by the de-humidifier unit is used by the humidifier to
give the required cabin humidity.
C) Water extractor units are only used at very high altitudes.
D) The humidifier employs water from the aircraft domestic supply, which is
passed through a venturi to increase relative humidity.

Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if
flight altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained:
A) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
B) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
C) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
D) the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.

If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the:
A) negative pressure relief valve will open.
B) negative pressure relief valve will close
C) air cycle machine will stop.
D) outflow valve open completely.

In which sequence does the refrigerant of a vapour cycle refrigeration system pass through the
different components?
A) compressor, evaporator, expansion valve, condenser.
B) compressor, condenser, evaporator, expansion valve.
C) condenser, evaporator, reservoir, expansion valve.
D) compressor, condenser, expansion valve, evaporator.

What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?
A) Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air
B) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and
ground operation
C) Cooling of the APU compartment
D) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight

With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice,
the only correct statement is:
A) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
B) The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is
inexpensive and easy to maintain.
C) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged
perpendicular to the leading edges.
D) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.

Air for conditioning and pressurisation is taken from:
A) the engine turbine or cabin compressor.
B) a ram air turbine.
C) the engine compressor or cabin compressor.
D) the engine compressor or ram air turbine.

The term " Bootstrap" , when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system,
refers to the:
A) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
B) source of the charge air.
C) means by which pressurisation is controlled.
D) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.

The disadvantage of a HP pneumatic system when compared to a comparable hydraulic system would
be:
A) lacks provisions for standby operation
B) all of the above
C) air leaks are difficult to locate
D) higher maintenance costs

If pressurisation is selected before take-off the cabin rate of change indicator indicates:
A) 14,7 psi.
B) zero.
C) a rate of climb.
D) a rate of descent.

In a Bleed Air (Bootstrap) air conditioning system, where is the water extractor located?
A) upstream of the cold air unit compressor.
B) upstream of the cold air unit turbine.
C) downstream of the cold air unit compressor.
D) downstream of the cold air unit turbine.

The term " cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane:
A) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
B) is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.
C) has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient
pressure.
D) has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure.

The picollo duct is part of the:
A) wing thermal anti-icing system.
B) secondary structure of the wing.
C) bleed-air system.
D) slat track mechanism.

In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by:
A) a rate of change selector
B) the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure
controller and the aeroplane altitude
C) the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential
pressure
D) the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin
pressure controller and ambient barometric pressure

A cabin pressurisation system is often installed onboard turbine powered aircraft. If installed, it
normally has:
A) One mode of operation.
B) Three modes of operation.
C) Two modes of operation.
D) Four modes of operation.

A drop in temperature by a cold air unit is produced by:
A) expanding the hot air in a turbine, reducing pressure and driving the
unit's freon refrigeration unit
B) expanding the hot air in a turbine, reducing pressure and driving the
unit's compressor
C) expanding the hot air in a compressor, increasing pressure and driving
the unit's freon refrigeration unit
D) expanding the hot air in a compressor, increasing pressure and driving
the unit's turbine


41. In level pressurised flight does the outflow valve:
A) close.
B) adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open.
C) open to increase air conditioning.
D) adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally almost closed.

The pneumatic system accumulator is useful:
A) in emergency cases.
B) to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.
C) to eliminate the fluid flow variations.
D) to offset for the starting of some devices.

A pressurisation system works by:
A) does not start until an altitude of 8,000ft has been reached.
B) essentially constant input mass flow and variable output.
C) essentially constant output mass flow and variable input.
D) supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system.

The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit:
A) outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
B) inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
C) outlet and uses an evaporation process.
D) inlet and uses an evaporation process.

The cabin altitude selector on the flight deck works in conjunction with:
A) the inward/outward vent valve.
B) the cabin pressure discharge valve.
C) the cabin pressure control valve.
D) the cabin safety valve.

A typical MP pneumatic main system pressure would be:
A) 400 psi.
B) 3,500 psi.
C) 1,000 psi.
D) 3,000 psi.

Main cabin temperature is:
A) controlled by individual passenger.
B) controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.
C) Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
D) not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.

In a bootstrap air cooling system the secondary heat exchanger:
A) cools the turbine discharge air before it enters the cabin.
B) removes heat from the compressor discharge air.
C) further reduces temperature of the air supply from the primary heat exchanger.
D) raises the heat of the turbine inlet air to increase the pressure drop across the turbine.

In an air conditioning system, a pack valve is used to:
A) bleed air from the engines.
B) control the mass air flow.
C) prevent negative differential pressure.
D) connect the pneumatic source to the air cycle system inlet.

Water collected by the water separator may be sprayed into the ram air duct. This has the effect of:
A) increasing the efficiency of the heat exchanger(s) through condensation cooling
B) increasing the efficiency of the heat exchanger(s) through sublimation cooling
C) none of the above
D) increasing the efficiency of the heat exchanger(s) through evaporation cooling

What is the purpose of the duct relief valve?
A) To prevent damage to the pneumatic ducts.
B) To protect the undercarriage bay.
C) To prevent excess cabin temperature.
D) To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line.

Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can
affirm that:
1. They prevent ice formation.
2. They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.
3. A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
4. There are more than ten cycles per second.
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
A) 2 -4
B) 1 - 4
C) 2 - 3
D) 1 - 3

In pressurised aircraft, temperature control is mainly achieved by:
A) adding cold ram air to the cabin.
B) varying cabin pressure.
C) adding heat to the bleed air.
D) extracting heat from bleed air.

The vapour cycle cooler works on the principle of changing:
A) gas into liquid.
B) liquid into vapour.
C) vapour into gas.
D) vapour into liquid.

Assume that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The
result would be that:
A) the air supply would automatically be stopped
B) the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
C) the pressure differential would go to the maximum value
D) the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

In a climatisation system, an air to air heat exchanger is provided to:
A) reduce the air supply temperature.
B) increase the air supply pressure.
C) increase the mass air flow.
D) provide an emergency ram air supply.

During normal descent, the discharge valve (outflow valve) position is:
A) partially open.
B) closed until selected altitude is reached.
C) at a position pre-set before take-off.
D) fully open.

The main elements of a vapour cycle cooling system are?
A) reservoir, compressor, expansion valve, evaporator.
B) compressor, dryer filter, distribution nozzles.
C) compressor, condenser, dryer, expansion valve, evaporator.
D) turbine, water separator, heat exchanger, compressor.

The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by:
A) Passing heated air through a compressor.
B) Routing conditional air through the cooling fan.
C) Extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.
D) Passing air through cooling coils than contain a refrigerant.

If the discharge or outflow valve closes:
A) pressure will drop inside the cabin.
B) the inward relief valve would assume control.
C) the safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference.
D) the safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference.


61. Most of the cabin pressurisation systems have two modes of operation:
A) The differential mode and the pressure mode.
B) The isobaric mode and the constant pressure differential mode.
C) The differential pressure and the constant pressure mode.
D) The cabin mode and the external mode.

If an aircraft is descending, what will happen to the cabin pressure differential?
A) it will increase.
B) it will remain constant.
C) it will remain constant until the aircraft reaches 8000 ft.
D) it will reduce.



When pressurising the cabin of an aircraft, the cabin pressure controller operates the:
A) outflow valve.
B) differential valve.
C) dump valves.
D) discharge valves.

During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight
level), the cabin outflow valves are:
A) Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
B) At the pre-set position for take-off.
C) fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
D) Partially open.

Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressurisation ground test?
A) No.
B) Yes.
C) Occasionally.
D) Continuously.

The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. This is more important:
A) during the initial climb
B) the same importance during climb and descent
C) during the climb
D) during descent

If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
A) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate
preventative action is taken.
B) Increases
C) Decreases
D) remains constant

One advantage of a pneumatic system is:
A) leaks can be easily detected.
B) the reservoirs used are of lighter construction.
C) no return lines or pipes are required.
D) air is considered as being virtually incompressible.

An aircraft with pressurised cabin has maximum cabin altitude of 8000 feet, which equals 10.9 PSI.
Present flight altitude is 30.000 feet, which equals 4.36 PSI. Pressure at sea level equals 14.7 PSI.
Calculate the difference pressure that influence the cabin structure:
A) 6.54 psid.
B) 4.36 psid.
C) 10.9 psid.
D) 10.34 psid.


The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:
A) wings.
B) pitot tubes.
C) engine intakes.
D) propellers.

A pressurisation circuit (normal operation) is designed so that the:
A) outflow valve operates before the safety valve opens.
B) outflow valve operates after the safety valve opens.
C) safety valve operates when the system has stabilised.
D) outflow valve operates in combination with the safety valve.

If the cabin pressure increases in level flight, the cabin VSI shows:
A) no change.
B) a negative rate of climb.
C) no change unless the aircraft climbs.
D) a positive rate of climb.

The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from:
A) an electrical heater system
B) hot air coming from the engine's compressors.
C) hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
D) a fuel heater system

State the function of a heat exchanger:
A) Cooling or heating of a fluid through convection and conduction, without mixing the fluids.
B) Mixing ram air and cabin air.
C) Assist the battery on a cold day (hot battery).
D) Removing static charges from conductive fluids.

At max differential phase, the discharge valve is:
A) partly open.
B) controlled manually by the pilot.
C) closed.
D) open.

In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:
A) compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
B) turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
C) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
D) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.

At maximum cabin differential pressure the:
A) engine bleed valves close
B) the outflow valve drives to fully closed position
C) discharge valve opens
D) negative pressure relief valve opens
On landing, the cabin pressure is equalized with atmospheric pressure by the operation of:
A) squat switches which open the dump valves at touch down.
B) squat switches which open the outflow or discharge valves at touch down.
C) alighting gear down selection.
D) the alighting gear reaching the fully extended position.

After take-off during a normal pressurised climb:
A) the cabin ROC is more than ambient ROC.
B) the cabin ROC is less than ambient ROC.
C) cabin ROC is the same as the ambient ROC.
D) the differential pressure is constant.

The term " pressurisation cycle" means:
A) air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released.
B) air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only.
C) the frequency in Hertz the pressure cycles from the roots blowers enter the
fuselage.
D) air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi.


81. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:
A) a thermodynamic relief valve is installed.
B) a duct relief valve is installed.
C) a thermostatic relief valve is installed.
D) a flow controller is installed.

The boots of a pneumatic de-icing system are normally made of:
A) porous metal.
B) plastic.
C) neoprene rubber.
D) synthetic rubber.

Choke valves in a mechanically driven cabin air compressor provide extra heating by:
A) requiring higher compressor input pressure
B) requiring lower compressor input pressure
C) requiring lower compressor output pressure
D) requiring higher compressor output pressure

Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:
A) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL
B) actual cabin pressure and selected pressure
C) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure
D) cockpit and passenger cabin



With reference to a vapour cycle cooling system, which statement is correct:
A) All of the above
B) Vapour cycle cooling systems have a greater cooling capacity than air
cycle systems
C) This system requires mechanical energy for operation
D) This system uses a refrigerant fluid in a closed circuit

In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by:
A) turbo compressors.
B) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
C) the APU.
D) bleed air from the engines.

When would negative differential be exceeded?
A) When changing to manual operation.
B) During a ground pressure run.
C) Rapid descent when aircraft descends below cabin altitude.
D) Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs.

If in flight a door warning light illuminates:
A) crew members must be extremely careful when checking an inward
opening plug type door.
B) no action is required unless the warning is accompanied by a loss of cabin
pressure.
C) a crew member should make a careful check of the door to make certain
that the door locking bolts are correctly extended.
D) none of the above.

What controls cabin pressurisation?
A) Outflow valve.
B) Inflow valve.
C) ECS pack mass flow controller.
D) Engine bleed valve.

In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
A) temperature
B) pressure
C) purity
D) humidity

A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated..
A) Only at take-off and during approach.
B) When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges.
C) When entering areas with icing conditions.
D) When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.

A turbo-fan cold air unit will:
A) increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in
the heat exchanger.
B) cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the
charge air.
C) not affect the charge air pressure.
D) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the
heat exchanger.

If in cruise at 30000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4000ft to 6000ft:
A) cabin differential will not change
B) cabin differential will decrease
C) none of the above - pressurization level can only be pre-selected on the
ground before takeoff
D) cabin differential will increase

Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:
A) cabin altitude rate of change indicator.
B) altimeter.
C) pitot/static indicator.
D) aircraft vertical speed indicator (VSI).

" Conditioned" air is air that has:
A) had any moisture removed from it.
B) been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.
C) had the oxygen content reduced.
D) had the oxygen content increased.

Ditching Cocks are operated:
A) for rapid depressurisation.
B) to direct pressure into flotation bags.
C) to shut all outflow valves.
D) automatically when the soluble plugs dissolve.

The mass flow delivery from the engine driven mechanical compressors is controlled by:
A) spill valves.
B) engine speed variations.
C) choke valves.
D) automatic control devices.

Cabin altitude means the:
A) flight level the aircraft is flying at.
B) cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
C) flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.
D) difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.

In a Bootstrap Bleed Air air-conditioning system, if the cabin temperature is reduced:
A) the boot strap compressor rpm will increase.
B) pressure at the outlet of the cold air unit will increase.
C) the flow rate at the mass flow controller outlet will increase.
D) pressure at the cold air unit compressor inlet will increase.

The pneumatic actuators are normally of the:
A) linear and rotary type.
B) linear undamped type.
C) linear damped type.
D) rotary type only.


101. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this more important:
A) in cruise.
B) in climb.
C) in periods when the dehumidifier is in use.
D) in descent.

The function of spill valves is to control:
A) cabin temperature.
B) cabin pressure.
C) cabin pressure differential.
D) hydraulic fluid pressure.

Safety valves and inward relief valves operate:
A) To control cabin altitude in conjunction with the cabin pressure gauge.
B) When an aircraft ditches.
C) To control maximum positive and negative pressure differentials.
D) To control cabin altitude.

De-icer boots consist of layers of... and... between which are disposed flat inflatable tubes... at the
ends.
A) nylon, steel, closed.
B) plastic, rubber, open.
C) natural rubber, rubberised fabric, closed.
D) natural rubber, nylon, closed.

Safety valves operate:
A) whenever differential pressure exceeds 7.9 psi
B) whenever differential pressure exceeds a certain value
C) whenever maximum negative pressure differential is reached
D) whenever differential pressure exceeds 6.9 psi




Which statement is true about the pressurisation system?
A) A pressurisation system is not required by law for flights below 31000ft.
B) The pressurisation system always uses pressurised air stored in bottles to
pressurise the cabin.
C) Partial oxygen pressure in the cabin is independent of cabin altitude.
D) To maintain a constant pressure in the cabin, the total amount of airflow
from the air conditioning system is equal to the mass flow passing
through the outflow valve and small leaks (e.g. exit doors).

Some pressure controllers have a ditching control. When activated:
A) the airplane enters into a vertical dive.
B) water is allowed to enter special flotation devices.
C) all outflow valves are closed.
D) cabin is depressurised immediately.

In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary
to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same
cabin altitude is:
A) FL 280.
B) FL 180.
C) FL 340.
D) FL 230.

The power source for hot air in de-ice / anti ice systems on jet A/C is:
A) turbo compressors.
B) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
C) the APU
D) bleed air from the engines' compressor.

During a normal take-off and climb:
A) the pressurisation system is ineffective until altitude exceeds 8000m.
B) cabin pressure falls more slowly than atmospheric pressure.
C) cabin pressure rises more slowly than atmospheric pressure.
D) the cabin pressure falls at a maximum rate of 0.4ft/sec.

When taking off and when pressurisation is initiated, cabin rate of climb will show:
A) a continuous gradual increase
B) an increase
C) a decrease
D) a continuous gradual decrease

With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected " ON" :
A) whenever the TOAT is +10 C or below and it is raining.
B) whenever the IOAT is +10 C or below and the air contains visible
moisture.
C) whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on.
D) whenever the igniters are on.

In normal operation, the maximum cabin altitude for a large passenger aircraft is:
A) 14.000ft
B) 10.000ft
C) 20.000ft
D) 8.000ft

The function of an air cycle machine is to:
A) cool the bleed air.
B) decrease the pressure of the bleed air.
C) remove the water from the bleed air.
D) pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

Cabin altitude in pressurised flight is:
A) always equal to 8000ft.
B) the altitude at which cabin temperature equals ambient temperature.
C) the altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure.
D) the altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height.

The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:
A) stops pressurising on the ground and ensures that there is no pressure
differential.
B) cancels out the safety valve on the ground.
C) allows the aircraft to be pressurised on the ground.
D) ensures that the discharge valve is closed.

A humidifier is fitted to:
A) increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high altitude.
B) extract the moisture content in the air.
C) to ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude.
D) filter the air.

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. During the flight, a malfunction of the
pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min.

Given that:

DELTA P = Differential pressure
Zc = Cabin altitude
A) The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to
maintain a zero Zc.
B) DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief
valves to open.
C) The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to
its initial value.
D) A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when
Zc reaches 14000ft.


Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if
flight altitude is maintained:
A) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
B) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
C) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the
pressure.
D) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.

Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:
A) is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter.
B) altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA
conditions.
C) altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure.
D) the altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height.


121. A heat exchanger functions by:
A) removing the static charge.
B) combining ram and charge air.
C) mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger.
D) passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts.

Essential information whether to use the engine anti-ice system or not, is?
A) Ram air temperature, only.
B) Reported temperature, always.
C) Reported temperature when on ground, and ram air temperature when airborne.
D) Reported temperature when airborne, and ram air temperature when on ground.

What must be isolated when carrying out a cabin pressurisation ground tests?
A) pitot static flow valve.
B) pressure discharge valve.
C) pressure relief valve.
D) pressure regulator or controller.

Pressurisation control ensures that:
A) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 10,000ft
B) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 8,000ft
C) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 8,500ft
D) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 12,000ft

The term " pressure differential" can be defined as the pressure difference between:
A) the pressure at sea level and at the altitude at which the aircraft is flying.
B) the pressure of the cabin and the pressure of any non-pressurised zone.
C) the cabin pressure level and it's rate of change.
D) the inside and the outside of the aircraft.

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310. Following a malfunction of the pressure
controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position.
Given:
VZc = Cabin rate of climb indication
Zc = Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P = Differential pressure
This will result in a:
A) VZc decrease Zc decrease DELTA P increase.
B) VZc decrease Zc increase DELTA P decrease.
C) VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P increase.
D) VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P decrease.

In a climatisation system, temperature control is achieved by:
A) controlling the humidity of the air supply.
B) regulating the ambient airflow through the heat exchanger.
C) controlling the air pressure.
D) regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.

The pressure relief valve operates:
A) above system pressure when the normal relief device fails.
B) at system pressure.
C) to maintain optimum cabin pressurisation.
D) below system pressure in an emergency.

A cabin humidifier is sometimes used:
A) at low altitude.
B) on the ground in high ambient temperatures.
C) at high altitude.
D) to prevent corrosion.

An air cycle cooling system uses the principle of:
A) gas pressure reduction and heat radiation.
B) heat dissipation by primary, secondary and tertiary heat exchangers.
C) heat dissipation by evaporation.
D) expanding air through a turbine and dissipating heat in a heat exchanger.

Cabin air for modern airplanes is usually taken from:
A) the second fan stage.
B) the high pressure compressor.
C) the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.
D) the low pressure compressor.

When an aircraft has reached a flight level where pressure differential is at its maximum, the pressure
controller:
A) switches off the cabin air supply.
B) closes the outflow valve immediately.
C) opens the outflow valves so that all pressurising air is spilled overboard.
D) maintains a constant mass flow.
Typically, icing does not occur above about...
A) 25000 ft.
B) 12000 ft.
C) 8000 ft.
D) 40000ft.

In level pressurised flight the outflow valve:
A) adjusts to provide constant flow and is normally partially open.
B) opens to increase air conditioning.
C) alternates between fully open and closed.
D) remains closed.

Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by:
A) regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
B) engine rpm.
C) pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
D) inward relief valve(s).

The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):
A) increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
B) drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air.
C) drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.
D) drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air.

Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between:
A) cabin pressure and ambient pressure.
B) ISA conditions and aircraft altitude.
C) 8,000ft pressure altitude and cabin pressure.
D) local ambient pressure and mean sea level pressure.

Inward vent valves operate when:
A) pressurising after a rapid climb.
B) aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude.
C) depressurising after descent.
D) cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.

An ACM produces a drop in temperature by:
A) a primary and secondary heat exchanger.
B) directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.
C) by-passing the air conditioning heating system.
D) expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.

If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, compressed air:
A) will not be contaminated if synthetic oil was used.
B) will not be contaminated if mineral oil was used.
C) will be contaminated with oil.
D) becomes highly flammable.
141. The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is approximately:
A) 13.5 psi.
B) 15.5 psi.
C) 3.5 psi.
D) 9.0 psi.

The purpose of a spill valve in a cabin air supply system is:
A) to spill overboard excess air delivered at high altitudes
B) to spill overboard excess air delivered at low altitudes
C) to provide conditioned air distribution throughout the passenger cabin
D) to provide an emergency source of outside air in case of a complete
failure of all bleed valves

When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:
A) unaffected.
B) dependent on the degree of pressurization
C) increased
D) decreased

A Vapor Cycle Cooling system may be fitted to enhance the cooling cycle of an aircraft air conditioning
system.
On leaving the evaporator, in the correct sequence, which components does the gas pass through?
A) Condenser, Liquid Receiver and Expansion valve.
B) Liquid Receiver and Compressor.
C) Compressor and Condenser.
D) Condenser and Compressor.

In an air cycle type air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by:
A) a condenser.
B) an evaporator.
C) a compressor.
D) an expansion turbine.

Which is the most suitable relative humidity for an environmental control system to maintain in an
aircraft?
A) 80%.
B) 10%.
C) 60%.
D) 30%.

In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:
A) in the turbine.
B) in a pressure relief valve.
C) of Freon in the turbine.
D) of Freon in a heat exchanger.


Engine bleed-air which is used for pressurisation of the cabin is:
A) colder than cabin temperature
B) warmer than cabin temperature
C) its temperature is approximately the same as the outside air temperature
D) its temperature is relatively high and must be cooled by a heat exchanger
unit just before it enters the passenger cabin

In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
A) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed
through a heat exchanger.
B) compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat
exchanger.
C) compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an
expansion turbine.
D) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
































Non-pneumatic operated de-ice and anti-ice systems:

The methods used to provide de-icing in flight can be:
A) mechanical or pneumatic or fluid.
B) centrifugally forced or ram air heated.
C) electrically heated or air heated or oil heated.
D) pneumatic or thermal or fluid.

When an aircraft is de-iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 C in precipitation, which type of
fluid and application method will provide the longest holdover period:
A) Type I fluid @ 100% cold spray application.
B) Type II fluid @ 100% cold spray application.
C) Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.
D) Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.

The hot rod ice detector:
A) may be heated and illuminated by the pilot operating the appropriate switches.
B) is automatically heated approximately every 2 minutes during flight.
C) cannot be seen at night.
D) is heated at all times during flight.

Propeller blade heating elements are:
A) fitted only to the thick inner section where minimum ice accretion occurs.
B) fitted only to the thin outer sections where maximum ice accretion occurs.
C) usually fitted to the thick section but sometimes a second element is
fitted to a mid section.
D) fitted to the complete leading edge.

Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
A) On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to
prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...)
B) On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as
de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static-ports, windshield...
C) On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very
efficient, therefore they only need little energy.
D) On modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess,
this system is often used for large surfaces de-icing.

The effect of frost on an aircraft:
A) can be generally ignored.
B) causes an increase in the surface roughness which in turn increases skin
friction drag.
C) is to cause an increase in boundary layer energy and so delay the onset
of the stall.
D) has no significant effect on the aerodynamic contour or lift coefficient.

The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:
A) only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
B) used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which
adversely affect the useful life of the components.
C) used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
D) harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.

The probe heater operates:
A) automatically when airborne.
B) when the switch is ON and both engines are running.
C) automatically, when the probe detects ice.
D) automatically, underneath a present temperature.

Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:
A) Slat leading edges.
B) Elevator leading edges.
C) Fin leading edges.
D) Pitot tubes.

An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter the line up for departure. Which de-ice fluid will have the
best holdover time at 0 C with precipitation:
A) a 50%/50% solution of type I fluid hot spray.
B) type II fluid at 100% cold spray.
C) type I fluid at 100% cold spray.
D) a 50%/50% solution of type II fluid hot spray.

Propeller electrical de-icing systems:
A) convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.
B) transfer power to the elements via a commutator in DC systems.
C) use only continuous loads to the elements.
D) use a cyclic timer.

The electrical power which is supplied to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:
A) is continuously supplied to all propeller blades.
B) is controlled to give an intermittent supply.
C) must only be selected ON for short periods.
D) must be taken directly from the APU generator.

Modern Turboprop aircraft are anti-iced by which method:
A) none of the above.
B) thermal.
C) electrical.
D) mechanical.


When anti-icing fluid is applied to an aircraft, which of the following icing conditions would give the
longest holdover times?
A) Frost.
B) Rain on a cold soaked wing.
C) Snow.
D) Freezing fog.

Fluid is delivered to a propeller by:
A) a slinger ring and pipes.
B) a centrifugal slipper ring and pipes.
C) integral passages within the propeller dome.
D) a small reservoir contained within the spinner.

In order to prevent/eliminate ice build-ups on a pitot tube on light aircraft, the pilot can use:
A) a heating system consisting of an electric resistor inside the tube itself
B) a heating system consisting of an electric resistor element wrapped
around the root of the tube
C) a heating system consisting of a hot air duct routed from the heat
exchanger to the root of the pitot tube
D) anti-ice system using glycol-based anti-freeze liquid being sprayed onto
the pitot tube

Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:
A) Engine intakes.
B) Wing and stabilizer leading edges.
C) Pitot tubes and engine intakes.
D) Pitot tubes.

A typical electrical anti-icing/de-icing system would consist of the following components:
A) an uncontrolled frequency alternator, a cyclic timer and electrical
elements bonded to the surfaces.
B) an uncontrolled frequency alternator, a two speed cyclic timer and
electrical elements bonded to the surfaces.
C) a controlled frequency alternator, and electrical elements bonded to the
surfaces.
D) none of the above.

Ice detectors are used primarily to warn the crew:
A) that they are approaching airframe icing conditions.
B) that engine icing conditions now warrant the initiation of the engine
system.
C) that they are approaching engine icing conditions.
D) that airframe icing conditions exist.



The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:
1. engine air intake and pod.
2. front glass shield.
3. radome.
4. pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5. leading edge of wing.
6. cabin windows.
7. trailing edge of wings.
8. electronic equipment compartment.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A) 1, 4, 5, 7
B) 1, 2, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 3, 8
D) 1, 2, 4, 5


21. The accurate method of removing snow and ice that has accumulated on the aircraft during parking, is:
A) De-ice all surfaces with approved de-ice fluid.
B) Hot water that melts the contamination.
C) The aeroplane's own de-ice equipment for five minutes.
D) Hot air from the engines.

The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:
A) must only be selected on for short periods.
B) is continuous to all blades.
C) is controlled to give an intermittent supply.
D) must be taken directly from the APU generator.

The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works:
A) with anti-icing fluid.
B) pneumatically.
C) electrically.
D) with hot air.

Freezing point depressant (FPD) is supplied in two types:
A) Type 1 fluid (thickened) - Type 2 fluid (unthickened)
B) Type 1 fluid (unthickened) - Type 2 fluid (thickened)
C) Type 1 fluid (thickened) - Type 2 fluid (thickened)
D) Type 1 fluid (unthickened) - Type 2 fluid (unthickened)

Regarding carburettor ice, state the environmental caution areas for the formation of this type of ice.
A) Temperature between + 5 C and 18 C, visible moisture or relative humidity
greater than 60 %.
B) Temperature less than 0 C, and clouds present.
C) Temperature between + 5 C and 18 C and clouds present.
D) Temperature between 5 C and + 18 C, visible moisture or relative humidity
greater than 60 %.
In flight airframe icing does not occur:
A) above 25 000 feet.
B) above 40 000 feet.
C) above 30 000 feet.
D) above 35 000 feet.

To prevent propeller elements overheating:
A) carry out a load check before starting engines.
B) use only when the propellers are rotating.
C) use only when all other services are switched off.
D) use only when in flight.

When ice forms on the Vibrating Rod ice detector:
A) the frequency rises to the natural harmonic of the ice at approximately
40KHz.
B) the frequency of vibration increases above 40KHz.
C) the frequency of vibration remains unchanged at 40KHz.
D) the frequency of vibration decreases below 40KHz.

























Fuel System:

What pressure does booster pump supply fuel at?
A) 3000-5000 psi.
B) 15-20 psi.
C) 5-10 psi.
D) 300-500 psi.

The vent pipe of an aircraft's fuel tank must not become blocked because:
A) pressure will rise in the tank when fuel is used
B) pressure will fall in the tank when fuel is used
C) pressure will not change in the tank when fuel is used
D) it is used to connect the fuel to the inlet manifold, so equalising the
pressure

VAPOR LOCK is the phenomenon by which:
A) abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an
inappropriate use of carburettor heat
B) water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the
condensation of water in fuel tanks which have not been drained properly
C) heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line
D) burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following
an overheat and thereby disturbing the exhaust

In a compensated capacitance fuel contents system what happens to a fuel weight of 8000lbs if its
volume increases by 5%?
A) Decreases by 5%.
B) Remains the same.
C) Increases by 5%.
D) Increases by 5% for every degree rise in temperature.

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a modern jet aircraft are:
A) electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure
B) removable only after the associated tank has been emptied
C) mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox
D) centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor

A fuel booster pump, which is used to provide positive fuel flow to the engine, can also be used for:
A) fuel jettison and fuel heating.
B) fuel dumping and fuel jettison.
C) fuel transfer and fuel heating.
D) fuel jettison and fuel transfer.



The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
A) Fixed built-in tanks.
B) Combined fuel tanks.
C) Integral tanks.
D) Cell tanks.

The flash point of a fuel is:
A) the temperature to which it must be heated in order to give off vapour
which will burn continuously when brought into contact with a small
flame.
B) the lowest temperature at which fuel produces sufficient vapour to be
ignited by a small flame or spark.
C) the boiling temperature of the fuel.
D) the temperature at which the viscosity of fuel changes suddenly.

The fuel crossfeed system:
A) is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
B) allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
C) is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
D) is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

In flight, with center tank empty and APU
operating, a fuel unbalance is detected
(quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2).

Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
A) possible with " CROSSFEED"
open and tank 2 pumps " OFF"
B) possible with " CROSSFEED"
open and tank 1 pumps " OFF"
and tank 2 pumps " ON"
C) impossible without causing the
APU stop
D) impossible because there is no
fuel in center tank


Drain cocks are fitted:
A) at the lowest point in the system.
B) at the highest point in the system so that any fluid drained is not
contaminated with water.
C) to enable water to be drained from the system.
D) between the pump and a selector.

Baffles can be mounted inside the tanks to:
A) direct the fuel towards the fuel pumps
B) prevent fuel sloshes
C) none of the above
D) provide partitions between individual segments of an integrated fuel tank

The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:
A) heat the oil and cool the fuel.
B) heat the fuel.
C) cool the oil.
D) heat the fuel and cool the oil.

The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to:
A) distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling.
B) increase the fuel level at the boost pump location.
C) trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank.
D) ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure.

The vapour lock is:
A) A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapour bubble.
B) The effect of the water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused
by the condensation.
C) The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline
vaporisation in the carburettor.
D) The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.

Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize this when a
plane is used every day or so is to:
A) drain tanks at end of each day's flight
B) keep tanks topped off when plane is not in use
C) use only high octane gasoline
D) keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight

AVGAS 100LL is:
A) coloured green and has the same resistance to detonation as 100L.
B) coloured green and contains less lead than 100L.
C) coloured green and has a higher octane rating than 100L.
D) coloured blue and has the same octane rating as 100L.

Refuelling a fixed wing aircraft with passengers embarking is permissible:
A) only if there is a member of the cabin staff manning the exit door.
B) under no circumstances whatsoever.
C) only if the seating capacity is more than 20, there are at least two exits,
and other safety precautions.
D) only if the seating capacity is less than 20.

In an aircraft low pressure refuelling system, what is fitted to prevent a fuel tank from becoming over
pressurised?
A) high level float switches.
B) vent valves.
C) fuel hose pressure relief valves.
D) low level float switches.

In an aircraft low pressure refuelling system, what is fitted to prevent a fuel tank from becoming over
pressurised?
A) low level float switches.
B) fuel hose pressure relief valves.
C) vent valves.
D) high level float switches.


21. The LP fuel pump is driven by:
A) The engine
B) Hydraulic pressure
C) The electrical system
D) Air pressure

If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
A) anti-microbiological additives.
B) oil in the fuel.
C) mixing different fuel grades.
D) water contamination.

In a typical fuel/oil heat exchanger:
A) fuel and hydraulic fluid are mixed for efficient heat transfer.
B) heat is transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the fuel.
C) heat is transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the water system.
D) heat is transferred from fuel to ram air.

The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:
A) Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
B) Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
C) Prevent overpressure in the tank.
D) Prevent the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal
manoeuvre (side slipping...).

When fuelling an aircraft, what action may be taken to reduce the build up of static electricity?
A) To increase the flow rate of the fuel.
B) To keep the fuelling hose as short as possible.
C) To reduce the flow rate of the fuel.
D) To use a long fuelling hose.

During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:
A) low level float switches.
B) high level float switches.
C) the crew remaining alert.
D) preset jettison quantity switches.

Fuel dump systems are required:
A) on all transport category aircraft.
B) on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
C) on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight
(MTWO) is significant higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).
D) on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.

The disadvantage of refuelling the aircraft to " tanks full" the night before a departure in the heat of
the day is that:
A) the R.P.M. governor will be rendered inoperative.
B) the change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the
vent system.
C) the change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient.
D) the change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be
overweight.

Un-dissolved water in a fuel sample:
A) will cause the fuel to appear cloudy.
B) will appear as free floating droplets in the fuel.
C) will change the colour of AVTUR.
D) will appear as droplets on the side of the container, or as bulk water on the bottom.

Booster pumps as fitted in a fuel system are:
A) Only fitted to piston engine fin systems.
B) Used solely to provide an emergency pressure in the event of an engine driven pump failure.
C) Electrically driven.
D) Engine driven.

The colour of AVGAS 100 is:
A) light straw.
B) red.
C) green.
D) blue.

Fuel tank booster pumps are:
A) centrifugal, low pressure.
B) centrifugal, high pressure.
C) gear type, low pressure.
D) gear type, high pressure.

Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:
A) Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
B) Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
C) Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing
suitable fire extinguishers are readily available.
D) All bonding and connections to the earth terminal between ground
equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps are
removed.

The Low Pressure engine driven pump:
A) assists in the refuelling operation if only low pressure refuelling systems are available.
B) backs up in case of a double booster pump failure.
C) pressurises the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pumps.
D) backs up in case the engine High Pressure Pump fails.

Fuel tanks are vented so that:
A) a vacuum will not form as fuel is used
B) excess fuel can drain away rapidly after over filling
C) fuel can be jettisoned in an emergency
D) a large positive pressure is maintained

To what distance should a fuelling zone extend from a fuelling point or vent point?
A) 16 m
B) 6 m
C) 50 m
D) 15 m

Refuelling with passengers on board is not permissible:
A) if the aircraft has more than twenty seats and the ratio of cabin
attendants to passengers is greater than 1:50 and it is a wide bodied jet.
B) on a fixed wing aircraft.
C) if AVGAS is being used.
D) in any of the above cases.

Cloudiness of a sample of AVTUR is an indication of:
A) fungus growth.
B) iron-oxide particles in suspension.
C) waxing.
D) water in suspension.

Capacitive fuel quantity measurement systems compensate for fuel movement in the tanks by:
A) measuring fuel volume, rather than depth.
B) using more than one measuring probe per tank.
C) measuring the specific gravity of the fuel.
D) measuring fuel mass, rather than volume.

The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:
A) transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks.
B) isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire.
C) refuelling when only one bowser is in use.
D) the use of fuel from any tank to any engine.


41. An integral fuel tank:
A) is an essential component of an integrated fuel measurement system.
B) is part of the aircraft wing structure.
C) is mounted externally beneath the wing or at the wingtips.
D) is made from re-enforced rubber sheeting and attached to the aircraft
structure.

AVTUR or JET A1:
A) is a wide cut fuel which is not normally used in civilian transport aircraft.
B) varies in colour between clear and straw yellow.
C) is a 97 octane fuel which prevents detonation in gas turbine engines.
D) is a gasoline type fuel with a high flash point.

The aircraft cannot be refuelled while:
A) the APU is running.
B) passengers are boarding.
C) a ground power unit is operating on the ramp.
D) passengers are walking through the refuelling zones.

When checking the fuel for possible water content, the presence of water will be indicated by:
A) Impossible to tell because they will mix.
B) The water will be found at the bottom of the strainer, because it is
heavier than the fuel.
C) The water will be on top of the fuel in the fuel strainer because it is
lighter than the fuel.
D) Change in the colour of the fuel.

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:
A) centrifugal low pressure type pumps
B) high pressure variable swash plate pumps
C) centrifugal high pressure type pumps
D) low pressure variable swash plate pumps
Adjustment may have to be made to an aircraft fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET B instead
of its normal JET A1 fuel. These adjustments are to cater for:
A) the change in combustion efficiency of the fuel
B) the change in flash point of the fuel
C) the change in specified gravity of the fuel
D) the change in freeze point of the fuel

The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:
A) density variation of the fuel.
B) dielectric change between fuel and air.
C) resistivity variation of the fuel.
D) electrical resistance change.

Why are baffles fitted to aircraft fuel tanks?
A) to assist in cooling the fuel tank.
B) to equalize fuel pressure within the tank, so preventing surge.
C) to assist in heating the fuel tank.
D) to direct fuel to the main supply.

The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
A) stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.
B) stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
C) cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
D) stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.

The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter
so as to:
A) prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water
contained in the fuel.
B) prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high
altitude.
C) ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.
D) maintain and improve fuel heating power.

The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight:
1. Is a limitation set by regulation.
2. Is designed for a maximum load factor.
3. Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.
4. Requires to empty external tanks first.
5. Requires to empty internal tanks first.
The correct combination of true statements is:
A) 1,2,3.
B) 2,5.
C) 2,4.
D) 1,3,5.

During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when:
A) there is fire.
B) fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.
C) the surge vent tank is filled.
D) the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.

On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system
graduated to read in kg, the temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the
fuel expands by 10%, the gauges will show:
A) the same amount.
B) a decrease.
C) an increase of 10%.
D) a decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity.

Fuel is heated:
A) to maintain a constant viscosity.
B) to stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter.
C) to prevent water contamination.
D) to stop cavitation in the High Pressure Fuel Pump.

Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:
A) to prevent the static build up in the tank during refuelling.
B) to channel fuel to the vent valve.
C) to assist in correct fuel distribution.
D) to prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres.

From the statements below, which aircraft should have a fuel dumping system?
A) Aircraft with a maximum landing weight which will exceed the maximum brake
efficiency speed.
B) Aircraft that have a maximum landing weight limitation above the maximum
take off weight.
C) Aircraft that have a maximum landing weight limitation below the maximum
take off weight.
D) Aircraft which have a Maximum Zero Fuel Weight which exceeds the Maximum
Take Off weight.

If the specific gravity of a fuel is known to be 0.7 the weight of 20 imperial gallons of that fuel would be:
A) 14 lb
B) 140 lb
C) 20 kg
D) 210 lb

What is the ratio between the litre and the US gallon?
A) 1 litre = 4.55 USG.
B) 1 USG = 4.55 litres.
C) 1 USG = 3.78 litres.
D) 1 litre = 3.78 USG.
The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the
following range:
A) 5 to 10 psi
B) 300 to 500 psi
C) 20 to 50 psi
D) 3000 to 5000 psi

The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:
A) tank drains.
B) dump system.
C) top off unit.
D) vent system.


61.While refuelling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:
A) two sets of extra steps must be provided, one of which must be at the
rear of the aircraft.
B) ground servicing must not be carried out.
C) the rear left or right door must be manned constantly by a cabin attendant
ready for use as an emergency exit using the inflatable escape slide.
D) catering and cleaning must not be carried out.

The fuel required for a planned flight is 28,000kg. The fuel in the tanks is 24,000 litres (SG of the fuel is 0,8).
The required fuel volume is:
A) 24,200 imperial gallons.
B) 2,420 imperial gallons.
C) 880 imperial gallons.
D) 8,800 imperial gallons.

How much fuel can be jettisoned?
A) A specified amount must remain.
B) A specific amount.
C) The captain decides.
D) All.

Waxing is:
A) the depositing of water from the fuel at high temperatures.
B) the depositing of heavy hydrocarbons from the fuel at low temperatures.
C) the depositing of water from the fuel at low temperatures.
D) the depositing of heavy hydrocarbons from the fuel at high temperatures.

An integral type fuel tank is:
A) A permanent external gravity tank
B) a bag which is in the wings of the aircraft
C) a special tank fitted in the fuselage
D) a fuel tight cavity incorporated in a box spar wing construction

The indications of a failure of the capacitive fuel indication system will be:
A) a full deflection of the gauge to empty.
B) a yellow flag on the gauge.
C) no change in contents indication.
D) a deflection of the gauge to full.

Fuel is pressurized to:
A) prevent cavitation.
B) prevent vapour lock.
C) keep constant fuel flow in negative G.
D) prevent fuel icing.

In the event an APU is required to be running during fuelling operations, which of the following
precautions must be observed?
A) the APU can only be run if it is fitted with an exhaust extension, 6m in length.
B) the APU must be started before fuel tank caps are removed.
C) the APU must be started after fuel tank caps are removed.
D) the APU must be shut down (switched off) while fuel is being transferred to the aircraft.

The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel :
A) to prime the pumps
B) to shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses
C) to cool the pumps
D) because their efficiency is greater

When baffles are fitted to aircraft fuel tanks, the purpose is to:
A) reduce fire risk when fuelling
B) control the fuel flow to the main feed
C) separate air from the fuel during fuelling operations
D) prevent surge of fuel within the tank during flight

What are the advantages of a Flexible Fuel Tank over an Integral Tank?
A) There is a weight saving as the tanks are made from a flexible plastic.
B) There is a greater tank capacity.
C) Flexible tanks do not suffer from the corrosion problems of an integral
tank.
D) Leaks are easier to locate.

Unusable fuel is:
A) remaining fuel in the tanks and fuel lines which cannot be used for combustion.
B) fuel in the outboard wing tanks to compensate for excessive wing flexure in flight.
C) fuel in the inboard wing tanks which is used for centre of gravity control.
D) fuel required for diversion and holding.


AVTUR Jet A1:
A) is red in colour.
B) is always light straw in colour.
C) is coloured clear to light straw (pale yellow).
D) is coloured blue.

On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
A) gear type pumps.
B) diaphragm pumps.
C) piston pumps.
D) centrifugal pumps.

What will be the effect on the indicated fuel contents if a capacitive system fuel contents gauge fails in
flight?
A) the gauge will fluctuate between high and low contents.
B) the gauge will remain in the last fixed position.
C) the gauge will remain in the high position.
D) the gauge will indicate full scale deflection low.

A one way check valve will:
A) stop flow when input pressure is less than output pressure.
B) stop flow when input pressure is greater than output pressure.
C) stop flow when the thermal relief valve opens.
D) start flow when input pressure is less than output pressure.

Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft's engine fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET B
instead of its normal JET Al fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:
A) the lack of HITEC lubricant in the fuel.
B) the change in the viscosity of the fuel.
C) the change in the specific gravity of the fuel.
D) the change in the calorific value of the fuel.

If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge would
indicate:
A) it would freeze at the last known indication.
B) full scale low (zero).
C) full scale high (max).
D) it would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel.

During refuelling operations:
A) Radio transmissions are not forbidden
B) Passengers are forbidden to remain on the aircraft regardless of the type of fuel
being replenished
C) The aircraft should be bonded to the refueller before refuelling pipes are coupled
D) A refuelling zone is to be established to at least 100 m

On A/C with a fuel pressure gauge, where is the pressure normally measured? (Aircraft with fuel
injection)
A) At the inlet of the fuel injection metering unit.
B) At the tank outlet.
C) At the injection nozzles.
D) At the selector valve outlet.


81. The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:
A) maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases
B) increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases
C) maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude
D) reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases

A failed capacitance fuel contents gauge would:
A) fluctuate between high and low readings.
B) show full scale deflection low.
C) show full deflection high.
D) remain fixed on the last contents noted before failure.

On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:
A) A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
B) Bleed air from the engines.
C) Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
D) The return lines of the fuel pumps.

When refuelling a swept-wing aircraft, the order of filling the fuel tanks should be:
A) outer tanks, inner tanks, centre tanks.
B) centre tanks, outer tanks, inner tanks.
C) based on pilot's judgement.
D) centre tanks, inner tanks, outer tanks.

JET A1:
A) is normally used in piston engine aircraft.
B) has a lower freezing point than JET A fuel.
C) conforms to British Standard BS4040.
D) is used as a rocket propellant.

Prior to fuelling an aircraft, which of the following precautions must be carried out?
A) The fuelling hose must be earthed to the nose undercarriage before tank
caps are removed.
B) The fuelling hose must be bonded to the aircraft structure prior to
removal of fuel tank caps.
C) The fuelling hose must be earthed to ground at all times.
D) The fuelling hose must be bonded to the aircraft immediately after fuel
tank caps are removed.

Fuel jettisoning is:
A) producing a jet spray for combustion.
B) venting fuel to the atmosphere.
C) transferring fuel to the trim tank.
D) dumping fuel in an emergency.

Special fuel consumption schedules during flight are designed due:
A) to keep wing fuel as low as possible in event of a crash-landing
B) to minimise the wing G-loads and preserve main tank fuel for landing.
C) to ensure fastest rate of fuel dumping in case of emergency where time is
critical
D) to keep fuel from freezing during high level cruise for a longer period of
time

The cross-feed fuel system is used to:
A) allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency.
B) automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.
C) feed every engine from any fuel tank.
D) allow the unusable fuel elimination.

The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:
A) damp out movement of the fuel in the tank
B) close the vent lines in case of turbulence
C) prevent fuel movement to the wing tip
D) prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank

The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:
A) compensates for high altitude flight.
B) compensates for aircraft attitude changes.
C) responds to changes in specific gravity.
D) responds automatically to extremely low temperatures.

The fuel tanks in small aircraft are mainly located:
A) In the wings.
B) In the tail section of the aircraft.
C) In the fuselage.
D) Close to the engine.

On a jet aircraft, when installed, fuel heaters are:
A) installed in each tank.
B) installed only in the centre tank.
C) not necessary at all.
D) located on the engines.

The refuelling in a transport jet aircraft is made...
A) By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
B) Through the refuelling cap of every tank.
C) Through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre).
D) By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an
underwing refuelling centre).

The CROSS-FEED fuel system enables:
A) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank
B) the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank
within that wing
C) only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks
D) the supply of the outboard jet engine from any outboard fuel tank

The attached diagram
represents a jet fuel system.
The fuel-flow measurement is
carried out:
A) after low pressure
valve
B) after high pressure
valve
C) in the fuel control
unit
D) after high pressure
pump first stage



An aircraft using MOGAS:
A) is more likely to be affected by vapour locking and carburettor icing.
B) will suffer from a loss of power during take-off.
C) is likely to be affected by detonation at cruise power.
D) must have booster pumps fitted in the fuel tanks.

To indicate that a refuelling bowser carries JET Al aviation kerosene:
A) the driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket.
B) JET Al is printed in white on a black background label positioned
prominently on the vehicle.
C) yellow and black stripes are marked on the refuelling hose.
D) JET Al would be painted in 30cm high symbols on the side of the
container.

How much fuel is required for a retained sample?
A) 1.5 litres.
B) 2.5 litres.
C) 5 litres.
D) 2 litres.

A fuel system booster pump other than pumping fuel to the engine may also be used for:
A) jettisoning the fuel and as an emergency pump in the event of main
pump failure.
B) jettisoning and heating of the fuel.
C) transfer and heating of the fuel.
D) transfer and jettison of the fuel.


101. In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full
fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %,
the indicated fuel weight would:
A) remain the same.
B) increase by 10 %.
C) decrease by 5 %.
D) increase by 5 %.

Fuel booster pumps are necessary in large aircraft:
A) to maintain fuel supply to the engines during critical flight phases.
B) to maintain supply to the HP pumps at low altitude.
C) to prevent cavitation of the engine driven pump.
D) to maintain fuel supply to the LP pumps at all times.




The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:
A) All fuel.
B) All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached.
C) 15 tons.
D) All up to a defined reserve quantity.

During fuelling operations:
A) all external lights should be on.
B) Nav lights should be off and strobe lights on.
C) only external yellow hazard lights should be on.
D) all external lights should be off.

An electrically activated and operated fuel valve is called a(n):
A) Electronically valve.
B) Motor valve.
C) Solenoid valve.
D) Emergency valve.

Why is the capacitance-type fuel quantity gauge system the system that is most often used on large
turbine aircraft?
A) Because it measures the mass of fuel rather than the volume of fuel in
the tank.
B) Because it is more cost efficient in the way it is constructed and installed.
C) Because it measures the volume of fuel more accurately.
D) Because it is a lot simpler and it's weight are less than other systems.

The fuel system boost pumps are used to:
A) avoid the bubbles accumulation.
B) avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it
to the engine at a positive pressure.
C) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive
pressure.
D) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the
engine.