ITIL v3 Foundation test 1 Strona 1

ITIL Foundation mock exam 1

1.
The Process Owner is responsible for which of the following?
1. Documenting the process
2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPI)
3. Improve the process
4. Perform all activities involved in a process
A) 1,3 and 4 only
B) All of the above
C) 1,2 and 3 only
D) 1,2 and 4 only

2.
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service
Improvement (CSI)?
A) Return Of Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality
B) Strategic, tactical and operational
C) Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities
D) Technology, process and service
3.
Understanding customer usage of service and how it varies over time is part of which process?
A) Service Portfolio Management
B) Service Level Management
C) Component Capacity Management
D) Demand Management
4.
What are three Service Provider business models?
A) Internal Service Provider, Outsourced 3
rd
party and Off-shore party
B) Internal Service Operation provider, External Service Operation provider, Shared Service unit
C) Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3
rd
party
D) Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service provider


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5.
Which of the following BEST describes Partners in the phrase People, Processes, Products and
Partners?
A) Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B) Customers
C) Internal departments
D) The Facilities Management function

6.
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during Service Lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow
2. Measurement and reporting
3. Release and deployment
4. Process Design

A) 2,3 and 4
B) 1,3 and 4
C) 1,2 and 3
D) All of the above

7.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A) The Configuration Management System is part of the Know Error Database
B) The Service Knowledge Management System is part of Configuration Management System
C) The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management
System
D) The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database

8.
Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit:
The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the
processes and the technology are considered during development?
A) Service Design
B) Service Strategy
C) Service Operation

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D) Continual Service Improvement

9.
What is the Service Pipeline?
A) All services that are at a conceptual or development stage
B) All services except those that have been retired
C) All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D) All complex multi-user services

10.
Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?
A) Continual Service Improvement
B) Service Transition
C) Service Design
D) Service Operation

11.
Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A) Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often
undocumented
B) Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C) Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D) Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environment

12.
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Catalogue Management?
A) Ensuring that information is the Service Catalogue is accurate
B) Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C) Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the
Service Portfolio
D) Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue


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13.
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A) The value of a service
B) Governance
C) Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
D) Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

14.
Which of the following would BEST be used to record all third party contract details together of the
type of services each contractor provides?
A) A underpinning contract
B) A Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
C) A Supplier and Contract Database (SCD)
D) An asset register

15.
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?
A) A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business
action
B) A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important
documents
C) A complaint by the business about a missed service level
D) The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract

16.
Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct
sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
1. Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives
2. Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achived
3. Identity the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI
4. Decision on implementation or further enhancements

A) 3-1-2-4
B) 3-4-2-1
C) 1-3-2-4
D) 2-3-4-1

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17.
Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?
A) Something that will not happen
B) Something that will happen
C) Something that has happened
D) Something that might happen

18.
Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models?
1. Roles and responsibilities
2. Template release and deployment schedules
3. Supporting systems, tools and procedures
4. Handover activities and responsibilities

A) 1,2 and 3 only
B) 2,3 and 4 only
C) All of the above
D) 1 and 4 only

19.
Which of the following models would be MOST useful in helping to define an organization structure?
A) RACI model
B) Service model
C) Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model
D) The Deming Cycle
20.
Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
A) The Change Advisory Board
B) A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular change
C) A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of
change
D) The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change

21.
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?

ITIL v3 Foundation test 1 Strona 6

A) To prevent Problems and their resultant incidents
B) To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
C) To restore service to a user
D) To eliminate recurring incidents

22.
A configuration model can be used to help:
1. Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems
2. Assess the impact of proposed changes
3. Plan and design new or changed services
4. Plan technology refresh and software upgrades

A) 1,2 and 3 only
B) All of the above
C) 1,2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only

23.
At which stage of the Service Lifecycle should the process needed to operate a new service be
defined?
A) Service Design: Design the process
B) Service Strategy: Develop the offering
C) Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D) Service Operation: IT Operations Management
24.
The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable the implementation of a new service is
called what?
A) A Service Level Package
B) A Service Transition Package
C) A Service Design Package
D) A New Service Package

25.
Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A) Definitive Media Library (DML)

ITIL v3 Foundation test 1 Strona 7

B) Configuration Management System (CMS)
C) Statement of Requirements (SOR)
D) Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

26.
Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?
A) The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
B) The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed
C) The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by particular release
D) A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management
process

27.
In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operations
contribution?
A) The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
B) Measures of optimization are identified
C) Service value is modelled
D) Service values is actually seen by customers

28.
What is the name of the group that should review Changes that must be implemented faster than
the normal Change process?
A) Technical Management (TM)
B) Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C) Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D) Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

29.
Which of these recommendations is good practice for Service Level Management?
1. Include legal terminology in Service Level Agreement (SLAs)
2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targest in an SLA

A) 1 only
B) 2 only

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C) Both of the above
D) Neither of the above
30.
Major incidents require:
A) Separate procedures
B) Less urgency
C) Longer timescale
D) Less documentation

31.
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have
met their targets?
A) Continual Service Improvement
B) Business Relationship Management
C) Service Level Management
D) Availability Management
32.
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?
A) Capacity Management
B) Incident Management
C) Service Level Management
D) Financial Management

33.
Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?
A) The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B) The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk
locations are in one place
C) The desk provides 24 hour global support
D) There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organisation

34.
Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?

ITIL v3 Foundation test 1 Strona 9

1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability
3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability
goals

A) 2 and 3 only
B) All of the above
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1 and 3 only

35.
Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
A) Network Management and Application Management
B) Technical Management and Change Management
C) IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D) Facilities Management and Release Management

36.
Which of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?
A) Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a
service has been disrupted
B) Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to
normal service. This includes technical staff
C) All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as incident to assist in reporting Service Desk
activity
D) Incident reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff
manage infrastructure devices not services
37.
Which of the following are objectives of Service Design?
1. Design services to satisfy business objectives
2. Identify and manage risk
3. Design effective and efficient processes
4. Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure

A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1,2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

ITIL v3 Foundation test 1 Strona 10

38.
Which of the following would commonly be in a contract underpinning an IT service?
1. Marketing information
2. Contract description and scope
3. Responsibilities and dependencies

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) None of the above

39.
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments and general enquiries from
users?
A) Service Level Management
B) Service Portfolio Management
C) Request Fulfilment
D) Demand Management

40.
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A) Applications
B) Infrastructure
C) Value
D) Resources