Test - NBME 15 Review - Quizlet

2/10/2014 Test: NBME 15 review | Quizlet
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168 Multiple Choice Questions
1. Posterior 1/3 of tongue
(No Answer)
a. Prevalence
b. Vitamin C
c. CORRECT: Arches 3 & 4
d. A-a gradient
2. Stating there is not an effect when there is one
(No Answer)
a. Trapezium bone
b. Case Control
c. Hyperammonia
d. CORRECT: Type II error
3. Irreversible enzyme in Gluconeogenesis
(No Answer)
a. Phosphorylase kinase
b. Histone deacetylase
c. Homonymous hemianopsia
d. CORRECT: Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
4. Inability to transport LCFA (Long chain fatty acids) into mitochondria
Results in toxic accumulation in the cytoplasm
Causes weakness, hypotonia, hypoketotic hypoglycemia
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Carnitine deficiency
b. Incidence
c. Case series
d. Ureteric orifice
0%
F
NBME 15 review
NAME: ________________________
5. Branched chain fatty acid that humans can obtain through the consumption of dairy
products, ruminant animal fats, and certain fish
Undergoes -oxidation in the peroxisome, where it is converted into pristanic acid by the
removal of one carbon
(No Answer)
a. Peptic ulcers
b. Hypokinesis
c. CORRECT: Phytanic acid
d. Cytarabine
6. Tachypnea (increased rate of breathing)
Increased work of breathing (non-specific signs of respiratory distress)
Rales or crackles, heard initially in the lung bases, and when severe, throughout the lung
fields
-Suggest the development of pulmonary edema (fluid in the alveoli)
-Cyanosis which suggests severe hypoxemia, is a late sign of extremely severe pulmonary
edema.
(No Answer)
a. Optic chiasm lesion
b. CORRECT: Left sided heart failure signs
c. Bacteroides fagilis
d. Simple partial seizures
7. Activation occurs when it's inhibitor, I-B, is phosphorylated by specific protein kinase (IKK)
& degraded
-Leads to synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotrienes
(No Answer)
a. Anemia
b. Incidence
c. CORRECT: NF-B
d. pVHL
8. Two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some
supposed causal attribute
(No Answer)
a. Case series
b. CORRECT: Case Control
c. Scurvy
d. Type I error
9. Facultative anaerobic Gram-positive coccal bacterium
Appears as grape-like clusters when viewed through a microscope, and has large, round,
golden-yellow colonies, often with hemolysis, when grown on blood agar plates
Catalase-positive
-Able to convert hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) to water and oxygen
Virulence factors:
Enzymes
-Coagulase clots plasma and coats the bacterial cell which probably prevent phagocytosis
-Hyaluronidase breakdown hyaluronic acid and help in spreading
Toxins
-Superantigens (TSST-1) induce toxic shock syndrome (TSS), usually from prolonged tampon
use. Cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and
massive cytokine release (IFN)
-Enterotoxin that is the causative of gastroenteritis that is self-limiting, characterized by
vomiting and diarrhea one to six hours after ingestion of the toxin with recovery in eight to
24 hours. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and major abdominal pain.
-Exfoliative toxins implicated in (SSSS), which occurs most commonly in infants and young
children. Protease activity of the exfoliative toxins causes peeling of the skin observed with
SSSS.
Other
-Protein A, an IgG-binding protein, binds to the Fc region of an antibody
(No Answer)
a. Valproic acid
b. CORRECT: Staphylococcus aureus
c. Scaphoid bone
d. Phytanic acid
10. Abnormally deep attachment of the placenta to the myometrium without penetrating it.
Placenta grows completely through the endometrium
Great risk of haemorrhage during placental removal
-Commonly requires surgery to stem the bleeding and fully remove the placenta
-In severe forms can often lead to a hysterectomy or be fatal
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Placenta accreta
b. Peptic ulcers
c. Prevalence
d. Pipecolic acid
11. Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint
-Main agonist muscle for this movement during the first 10-15 degrees of its arc
Can test:
Shoulder at 90%
Empty can (Wrists pronated)
(No Answer)
a. Vitamin C
b. Hypoxemia
c. CORRECT: Supraspinatus
d. Peroxisome
12. Receptors that form ligand-gated ion channels in the plasma membranes of certain neurons
and on the postsynaptic side of the neuromuscular junction
As ionotropic receptors, these are directly linked to ion channels and do not use second
messengers (as metabotropic receptors do).
(No Answer)
a. Insulin secretion
b. Phytanic acid
c. CORRECT: Nicotinic ACh receptor
d. Ureteric orifice
13. Caused by lysosomal dysfunction usually as a consequence of deficiency of a single enzyme
required for the metabolism of lipids, glycoproteins (sugar containing proteins) or so-called
mucopolysaccharides
When a particular lysosomal enzyme exists in too small an amount or is missing altogether,
substances accumulate in the cell.
In other words, when the lysosome doesn't function normally, excess products destined for
breakdown and recycling are stored in the cell.
(No Answer)
a. Anabolic steroids
b. Phosphorylase kinase
c. CORRECT: Lysosomal storage disease
d. Dysthymic disorder
14. SSRI
Use:
Depression, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, OCD, bulimia, social phobias,
PTSD
(No Answer)
a. Olanzapine
b. Hypoxemia
c. Leukemia
d. CORRECT: Fluoxetine
15. Dorsal wings
-Superior parathyroid
(No Answer)
a. cardiac output
b. CORRECT: 4th Brachial Pouch
c. 4th-6th Brachial arches
d. Trapezium bone
16. Better buffer for H than oxyhemoglobin
-Advantageous that hemoglobin has been deoxygenated by the time it reaches the venous
end of the capillaries
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Deoxyhemoglobin
b. Carbaminohemoglobin
c. Erythropoietin
d. Hyperammonia
17. Characterized by a need for social isolation, anxiety in social situations, odd behavior and
thinking, and often unconventional beliefs
May feel extreme discomfort with maintaining close relationships with people, and
therefore they often do not
May display peculiar manners of talking and dressing and often have difficulty in forming
relationships.
May react oddly in conversations, not respond or talk to themselves
Frequently misinterpret situations as being strange or having unusual meaning for them;
paranormal and superstitious beliefs are not uncommon
(No Answer)
a. Avoidant Personality Disorder
b. Holosystolic murmur
c. Maintenance dose
d. CORRECT: Schizotypal personality disorder
18. Looks at all current cases
(No Answer)
a. Anemia
b. CORRECT: Prevalence
c. pVHL
d. Incidence
19. Blood that is unmodified except for the presence of an anticoagulant
Usually not used because the extra plasma can contribute to transfusion associated
circulatory overload (TACO), a potentially dangerous complication
(No Answer)
a. SNoW DRoP
b. Scaphoid bone
c. Albinism
d. CORRECT: Whole blood
20. Rectum (lower portion) of anal canal (Above pectenate line)
Ends up in these lymph nodes
(No Answer)
a. Trapezium bone
b. Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes
c. CORRECT: Internal iliac lymph nodes
d. Mesoblastic nephroma
21. 1. Inflammatory (immediate)
-Platelets, neutrophils, macrophages
2. Proliferative (2-3 days after wound)
-Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells, keratinocytes, macrophages
-Granulation tissue depostion, angiogenesis, wound contraction (mediated by
myofibroblasts)
3. Remodeling (1 week after wound)
-Fibroblasts
-Type III collagen replaced by type I collagen
(No Answer)
a. Anemia
b. Leukemia
c. Case series
d. CORRECT: Wound healing
22. Discrete tumor masses arising from lymph nodes.
(No Answer)
a. Lorazepam
b. Glipizide
c. CORRECT: Lymphoma
d. Hypoxemia
23. In ER
Glucose-6-P Glucose
Liver (Not present in muscle)
Probably stimulated by glucacon
Deficient in Von Gierke's disease
-Severe fasting hypoglycemia
- glycogen in liver
- blood lactate
-hepatomegaly
(No Answer)
a. Rouleaux formation
b. CORRECT: Glucose-6-phosphatase
c. Glucokinase
d. Case series
24. Used to compare causes of hypoxemia
PAo - Pao
Normal < 10
-O normally equilibrates between alveolar gas and arterial blood (PAo ~ Pao) (High
altitude, hypoventilation)
If > 10
-O does not equilibrate between alveolar gas and arterial blood (diffusion defect, V/Q
defect, right to left shunt)
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: A-a gradient
b. Olanzapine
c. Cytarabine
d. Anemia
25. Tricuspid insufficiency
-Best heard over the fourth left sternal border, radiates to right sternal border
-Intensity can be accentuated following inspiration
--Due to increased regurgitant flow in right ventricular volume
-most often secondary to pulmonary hypertension
Mitral regurgitation
-Best heard at the apex with diaphragm, radiates toward axilla
-No intensification upon inspiration
-Difference in pressure extends throughout systole and can even continue after the aortic
valve has closed
Ventricular septal defect
-Best heard over the left third and fourth intercostal spaces and along the sternal border
-S2 Normal (Distinguish from pulmonary stenosis, which has a wide splitting S2)
-No intensification upon inspiration
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Holosystolic murmur
b. Phytanic acid
c. Oxytocin
d. SNoW DRoP
26. O content of blood hypoxia
(No Answer)
a. Scaphoid bone
b. Parvovirus inclusions
c. CORRECT: Carbon monoxide poisoning
d. Major depressive disorder
27. Alcohol:
Leading cause of birth defects and mental retardation; fetal alcohol syndrome
Cocaine:
Abnormal fetal development and fetal addiction; placental abruption
Smoking:
Preterm labor, placental problems, IUGR, ADI-ID
(No Answer)
a. Tanner stages
b. CORRECT: Substance Abuse Teratogens
c. Branchial apparatus
d. Histone deacetylase
28. Hypoaldosteronism or lack of collecting tubule response to aldosterone
Resulting hyperkalemia impairs ammoniagenesis in the proximal tubule
buffering capacity and urine pH
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: RTA4 ("hyperkalemic", Renal tubular acidosis)
b. Density Gradient Centrifuge
c. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
d. Narcissistic personality disorder
29. Opening of the urinary bladder into the urethra
(No Answer)
b. Complex partial seizure
c. Simple partial seizures
d. CORRECT: Internal urethral orifice
30. Required fro the hydroxylation of specific purine and lysine residues
-If deficient, will cause scurvy
--Inadequate hydroxylation of collagen peptides
(No Answer)
a. Phytanic acid
b. CORRECT: Vitamin C
c. Oxytocin
d. Aplasia
31. Nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension.
(No Answer)
a. micrognathia
b. glossoptosis
c. CORRECT: Broca's aphasia
d. Aplasia
32. When at the golden arches,
1. Chew
2. Smile
3. swallow stylishly or 4. simply swallow
6. speak
There is no 5!
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)
b. Cyanide poisoning
c. Alveolar ventilation
d. Temporal lobe lesion
33. Congenital deficiency in:
Tyrosinase
Defective tyrosine transporter ( tyrosine melanin)
Can result from lack of migration of neural crest cells
Lack of melanin results in risk of skin cancer
(No Answer)
a. pVHL
b. CORRECT: Albinism
c. ARDS
d. Oxytocin
34. The bacteria behind post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
PHaryngitis can results in PHever & glomerulonePHritis
(No Answer)
a. Type II error
b. Testosterone
c. CORRECT: S. pyogenes (Group A)
d. SNoW DRoP
35. The ratio of partial pressure arterial oxygen and fraction of inspired oxygen
Comparison between the oxygen level in the blood and the oxygen concentration that is
breathed
Helps to determine the degree of any problems with how the lungs transfer oxygen to the
blood
If equal to or less than 200 mmHg is one criteria for diagnosing ARDS
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: PaO2/FiO2 ratio
b. Stratification
c. Ubiquitin
d. Diaphoresis
36. Can be acquired (e.g., liver disease) or hereditary (e.g., urea cycle enzyme deficiencies)
excess NH4+ depletes a-ketoglutarate inhibition of TCA cycle
Rx: limit protein in diet
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Hyperammonia
b. Hypoxemia
c. Peroxisome
d. Hypoxia
37. Aberrant development of 3rd & 4th pouches:
T-cell deficiency (thymic aplasia)
Hypocalcemia (failure of parathyroid development)
(No Answer)
a. Case Control
b. Loading dose
c. Whole blood
d. CORRECT: DiGeorge syndrome
38. Method of separating biochemical mixtures
-Based on a highly specific interaction such as that between antigen and antibody, enzyme
and substrate, or receptor and ligand.
Can be used to.
1. Purify and concentrate a substance from a mixture into a buffering solution
2. Reduce the amount of a substance in a mixture
3. Discern what biological compounds bind to a particular substance
4. Purify and concentrate an enzyme solution.
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Affinity column chromatography
b. Glycogen phosphorylase
c. Carbaminohemoglobin
d. Nicotinic ACh receptor
39. Cartilage:
Meckel's (Mandible, Malleus, Mandibular)
Muscles:
Muscles of mastication (Masseter, medial pterygoids, Mylohyoid)
Neves:
CN V2, V3
-Chew
(No Answer)
a. 1st Brachial Pouch
b. 4th Brachial Pouch
c. CORRECT: 1st Brachial arch
d. Prevalence
40. Identifies DNA-binding proteins
(No Answer)
a. Interferons
b. CORRECT: Southwestern blot
c. Testosterone
d. Cytarabine
41. Located on parietal cells and vascular smooth muscle cells
Causes:
Primarily involved in vasodilation
Also stimulate gastric acid secretion
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: H2 (Histamine)
b. Wound healing
c. Tanner stages
d. Hypokinesis
42. Being excessively preoccupied with issues of personal adequacy, power, prestige and vanity
(No Answer)
a. Schizotypal personality disorder
b. Schizoid personality disorder
c. CORRECT: Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Maintenance dose
43. From Th cell
Promotes differentiation of B-cell
Enhances class switching of IgA.
Stimulates the growth of and differentiation of eosinophils
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: IL-5
b. Scurvy
c. ARDS
d. Anemia
44. Results from inhibition of DNA synthesis in red blood cell production
-Most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically a deficiency of vitamin B12 and/or folic
acid
Characterized by:
Many large immature and dysfunctional red blood cells (megaloblasts) in the bone marrow
Hypersegmented neutrophils (those exhibiting five or more nuclear lobes ("segments"), with
up to four lobes being normal)
(No Answer)
a. Mesoblastic nephroma
b. CORRECT: Megaloblastosis (Megaloblastic anemia)
c. Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)
d. Dysostosis multiplex
45. An E3 ligase that ubiquitinates HIF1 and causes its degradation by the proteasome.
In low oxygen conditions or in cases of VHL disease where the VHL gene is mutated
-pVHL does not bind to HIF1.
-This allows the subunit to dimerise with HIF1 and activate the transcription of a number
of genes (vascular endothelial growth factor, platelet-derived growth factor B,
erythropoietin and genes involved in glucose upatake and metabolism)
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: pVHL
b. Prevalence
c. Hypoxemia
d. Lymphoma
46. CO bound to hemoglobin
-Account for very small amount of CO in blood
(No Answer)
a. PaO2/FiO2 ratio
b. Erythropoietin
c. Carnitine deficiency
d. CORRECT: Carbaminohemoglobin
47. Fifth disease
-Develop the illness after an incubation period of four to fourteen days.
-Fever and malaise while the virus is most abundant in the bloodstream
-Patients are usually no longer infectious once the characteristic rash of this disease has
appeared
Parvovirus B19 is a cause of chronic anemia in individuals who have AIDS
Aplastic anemia
-Patients have an arrest of erythropoiesis (production of red blood cells) during infection
-Patients who have sickle cell anemia or hereditary spherocytosis are heavily dependent on
erythropoeisis due to the reduced lifespan of the red cells
Infection in pregnant women is associated with hydrops fetalis due to severe fetal anemia
(No Answer)
a. Peroxisome
b. CORRECT: Parvovirus inclusions
c. Hypokinesis
d. Stratification
48. Inflammation of the lung parenchyma leads to impaired gas exchange with systemic release
of inflammatory mediators, causing:
Inflammation
Hypoxemia
Frequently multiple organ failure.
Condition has a 90% death rate in untreated patients. With treatment, usually mechanical
ventilation in an intensive care unit, the death rate is 50%.
A less severe form is called acute lung injury (ALI)
3 main clinical causes
1. Sepsis (most important)
2. Severe multiple trauma
3. Aspiration of saliva / gastric contents
Any cardiogenic cause of pulmonary edema should be excluded
-Done by placing a pulmonary artery catheter for measuring the pulmonary artery wedge
pressure
4 main criteria for ARDS:
1. Acute onset
2. Chest X-Ray: Bilateral diffuse infiltrates of the lungs
3. No cardiovascular lesion
4. No evidence of left atrial hypertension: PaO2/FiO2 ratio equal to or less than 200 mmHg.
(No Answer)
a. Anemia
b. IB
c. CORRECT: ARDS
d. Scurvy
49. 1st arch neural crest fails to migrate
-Mandibular hypoplasia
-Facial abnormalities
(No Answer)
a. Case Control
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. DiGeorge syndrome
d. CORRECT: Treacher Collins Syndrome
50. Stacks of red blood cells (RBCs) which form because of the unique discoid shape of the cells
in vertebrates
Conditions which cause:
Infections
Multiple myeloma
Inflammatory and connective tissue disorders
Cancers
Occurs in diabetes mellitus (one of the causative factors for microvascular occlusion in
diabetic retinopathy)
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Rouleaux formation
b. Stratification
c. PaO2/FiO2 ratio
d. A-a gradient
51. Often preceded by a seizure aura.
-A simple partial seizure.
Aura may manifest itself as a feeling of dj vu, jamais vu, fear, euphoria or
depersonalization.
Seizure aura might also occur as a visual disturbance, such as tunnel vision or a change in
the size of objects (macropsia or micropsia).
Once consciousness is impaired, the person may display automatisms such as lip smacking,
chewing or swallowing.
There may also be loss of memory (amnesia) surrounding the seizure event.
Person may still be able to perform routine tasks such as walking, although such
movements are not purposeful or planned.
Witnesses may not recognize that anything is wrong.
(No Answer)
a. Type I error
b. CORRECT: Complex partial seizure
c. Complete hydatidiform mole
d. Type II error
52. Defect in proximal tubule HC03- reabsorption
Fanconi's syndrome
urine pH < 5.5
hypokalemia
risk for hypophosphatemic rickets
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: RTA2 ("proximal", Renal tubular acidosis)
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)
d. Medial Longitudinal faciculus
53. Lead poisoning
Accumulates:
Protoporphyrin, -ALA
Microcytic anemia, GI and kidney disease.
Children-exposure to lead paint -+ mental deterioration
Adults-environmental exposure (battery/ ammunition/radiator factory) -+ headache,
memory loss, demyelination
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Ferrochelatase
b. Supraspinatus
c. Glucokinase
d. Peptic ulcers
54. 1. Glucose binds Glut2 receptor on -cells
2. Glucose oxidizes to ATP closes K channels in cell membrane depolarization of -
cells
3. Depolerizatino opens Ca channels intracellular [Ca] [name of this card]
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Insulin secretion
b. Incidence
c. Type I error
d. Supraspinatus
55. An early component of Gluconeogenesis
(No Answer)
a. Glucokinase
b. CORRECT: Phosphorylase kinase
c. Diaphoresis
d. Hypokinesis
56. The volume of gas per unit time that reaches the alveoli
(No Answer)
a. SLE Criteria
b. Parietal lobe lesion
c. Leukocidin
d. CORRECT: Alveolar ventilation
57. Proteins that place uninfected cells in an antiviral state
Induce production of ribonuclease that inhibits viral protein synthesis by degrading viral
mRNA (but not host mRNA)
& : inhibit viral protein synthesis
: MHC I & II expression and antigen presentation in all cells
Activate NK cells to kill virus-infected cells
(No Answer)
a. PTH
b. CORRECT: Interferons
c. Scurvy
d. Hyperammonia
58. Found on smooth muscle, endothelium, and central nervous system tissue
Causes:
Bronchoconstriction
Bronchial smooth muscle contraction
Vasodilation
Separation of endothelial cells (responsible for hives)
Pain and itching due to insect stings;
the primary receptors involved in allergic rhinitis symptoms and motion sickness;
sleep and appetite suppression.
(No Answer)
a. Peroxisome
b. CORRECT: H1 (Histamine)
c. Scaphoid bone
d. Fluoxetine
59. eye is "down and out" with ptosis and pupil dilation
(No Answer)
a. Case series
b. Hypokinesis
c. IL-5
d. CORRECT: CN III Palsy
60. Placed at the postero-lateral angles of the trigonum vesicae, and are usually slit-like in
form
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Ureteric orifice
b. Hyperammonia
c. Stratification
d. Vitamin C
61. Allows the blood to flow readily without the addition of saline
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Packed RBCs with adenine-saline added
b. Carnitine deficiency
c. 2nd Brachial Pouch
62. Gram-negative bacillus bacterium species
Involved in 90% of anaerobic peritoneal infections
Predominates in bacteremia associated with intraabdominal infections, peritonitis and
abscesses following rupture of viscus, and subcutaneous abscesses or burns near the anus
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Bacteroides fagilis
b. Pipecolic acid
c. Leukemoid reaction
d. Case series
63. Pre-peripubertal:
Causes growth spurt / accelerated bone maturation
Pubertal:
Completion of bone maturation / termination of growth
(No Answer)
a. Interferons
b. Case series
c. CORRECT: Testosterone
d. Type I error
64. Pyrimidine analog inhibition of DNA polymerase
Used with:
Leukemia, lymphomas
Toxicity:
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Megaloblastic anemia
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Cytarabine
b. Glucokinase
c. Anemia
d. Ubiquitin
65. Type of kidney tumor that is usually found before birth by ultrasound or within the first 3
months of life.
It contains fibroblastic cells (connective tissue cells), and may spread to the other kidney or
to nearby tissue
(No Answer)
a. Testosterone
b. CORRECT: Mesoblastic nephroma
c. Supraspinatus
d. Holosystolic murmur
66. Atypical antipsychotic
Use:
Schizophrenia - both +ve and -ve
Bipolar, OCD, anxiety disorder, depression, mania
Fewer extrapyramidal side effects than traditional antipsychotics
(No Answer)
a. Oxytocin
b. Fluoxetine
c. CORRECT: Olanzapine
d. Lorazepam
67. Acute intermittent porphyria
Accumulates:
Porphobilinogen, -ALA, uroporphyrin
5 P's
1. Painful abdomen
2. Port wine-colored urine
3. Polyneuropathy
4. Psychological disturbances
5. Precipitated by drugs
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Porphobilinogen deaminase
b. Carnitine deficiency
c. Ammoniagenesis
d. Absence seizure
68. Consciousness is not impaired
Often precursors to larger seizures, where the abnormal electrical activity spreads to a
larger area of (or all of) the brain, usually resulting in a complex partial seizure or a tonic-
clonic seizure
-In this case they are often known as an aura
(No Answer)
a. Supraspinatus
b. Complex partial seizure
c. CORRECT: Simple partial seizures
d. Absence seizure
69. Pair of tracts that allow for cross talk between CN VI & CN VIII nuclei
Coordinate both eyes to move in the same horizontal direction
Highly myelinated (Communicate quickly so eye's move at the same time)
Lesion:
Lack of communication such that when CN VI nucleus activates ipsilateral rectus,
contralateral CN III nucleus does not stimulate medial rectus to fire (impaired abduction)
Abducting eye get's nystagmus (CN VI overfires to stimulate CN III)
Convergence normal
(No Answer)
a. Parvovirus inclusions
b. CORRECT: Medial Longitudinal faciculus
c. 3rd Brachial arch
d. Valproic acid
70. Display a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, extreme sensitivity
to negative evaluation, and avoidance of social interaction
Consider themselves to be socially inept or personally unappealing and avoid social
interaction for fear of being ridiculed, humiliated, rejected, or disliked
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Avoidant Personality Disorder
b. Narcissistic personality disorder
c. Schizotypal personality disorder
d. Obsessive compulsive disorder
71. blood flow hypoxia
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: cardiac output
b. Supraspinatus
c. Loading dose
d. 2nd Brachial arch
72. Generalized seizure that affects the entire brain
Divided into two phases, the tonic phase and the clonic phase. Preceded by aura
Tonic = skeletal muscles tense
Clonic = Rapid contraction and relaxation of muscles
(No Answer)
a. Bacteroides fagilis
b. CORRECT: Generalized tonic clonic
d. Valproic acid
73. Inherited lysosomal storage disorder
Failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins
-Enzymes are secreted outside the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome
Presentation:
Coarse facial features
Clouded corneas
Restricted joint movement
High plasma levels of lysosomal enzymes
(No Answer)
a. Histone deacetylase
b. Substance Abuse Teratogens
c. Major depressive disorder
d. CORRECT: inclusion cell disease (I-cell disease)
74. Receptors that form G protein-receptor complexes in the cell membranes of certain neurons
and other cells
Play several roles, including acting as the main end-receptor stimulated by acetylcholine
released from postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic nervous system
(No Answer)
b. CORRECT: Muscarinic ACh receptor
c. Anabolic steroids
d. Ureteric orifice
75. Sigmoid colin Colic
(No Answer)
a. Alveolar ventilation
b. CORRECT: Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes
c. Mesoblastic nephroma
d. Listeria monocytogenes
76. Denaturation and displacement of the DNA strands, resulting in mispairing of the
complementary bases.
Can result in either insertions or deletions.
Insertions are thought to be self-accelerating: as repeats grow longer, the probability of
subsequent mispairing events increases
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Slipped-strand mispairing
b. Wound healing
d. Immunohistochemistry
77. Fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension.
Wernicke's area-superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe.
Wordy, but makes no sense
(No Answer)
a. Ferrochelatase
b. Ringed sideroblasts
c. Pipecolic acid
d. CORRECT: Wernicke's aphasia
78. Used to separate certain organelles from whole cells for further analysis of specific parts of
cells
1. A tissue sample is first homogenised to break the cell membranes and mix up the cell
contents.
2. The homogenate is then subjected to repeated centrifugations, each time removing the
pellet and increasing the centrifugal force.
3. Finally, purification may be done through equilibrium sedimentation, and the desired
layer is extracted for further analysis.
(No Answer)
a. Absence seizure
b. CORRECT: Density Gradient Centrifuge
c. Histone deacetylase
d. SLE Criteria
79. Excessive sweating
(No Answer)
a. Ammoniagenesis
b. Lymphoma
c. Albinism
d. CORRECT: Diaphoresis
80. Lack of growth
(No Answer)
a. Hypoxemia
b. PTH
c. Imatinib
d. CORRECT: Aplasia
81. Characterized by a lack of interest in social relationships, a tendency towards a solitary
lifestyle, secretiveness, emotional coldness and apathy
May simultaneously demonstrate a rich, elaborate and exclusively internal fantasy world
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Schizoid personality disorder
b. Schizotypal personality disorder
c. Right Coronary Artery
82. Mood disorder consisting of the same cognitive and physical problems as in depression,
with less severe but longer-lasting symptoms, which may persist for at least 2 years
A serious state of chronic depression, which persists for at least 2 years; it is less acute and
severe than major depressive disorder
Sufferers may experience symptoms for many years before it is diagnosed, if diagnosis
occurs at all
(No Answer)
a. Case series
b. CORRECT: Dysthymic disorder
c. Type I error
d. Stratification
83. Upper quadrantic anopia
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Temporal lobe lesion
b. Type I error
c. Optic chiasm lesion
d. Alveolar ventilation
84. Defect in collecting tubule's ability to excrete H+
urine pH >5.5
hypokalemia
risk for calcium phosphate kidney stones as a result of urine pH and bone resorption
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: RTA1 ("distal", Renal tubular acidosis)
b. RTA4 ("hyperkalemic", Renal tubular acidosis)
c. Megaloblastosis (Megaloblastic anemia)
d. RTA2 ("proximal", Renal tubular acidosis)
85. Lower quadrantic anopia
(No Answer)
a. Parvovirus inclusions
b. Optic chiasm lesion
c. CORRECT: Parietal lobe lesion
d. Prevalence
86. A small molecular inhibitor of bcr-abl tyrosine kinase
Treatment of CML
Trade name Gleevec
(No Answer)
a. IB
b. CORRECT: Imatinib
c. Hypoxia
d. Albinism
87. Cartilage:
Thyroid, cricoid,
Muscles:
4 = pharynheal constrictors
6 = intrinsic muscles of larynx
Nerves:
4 = CN X (superior laryngeal branch)
-Simply swallow
6 = CN X (recurrent laryngeal branch)
-Speak
(No Answer)
a. 3rd Brachial Pouch
b. 2nd Brachial Pouch
c. CORRECT: 4th-6th Brachial arches
d. 4th Brachial Pouch
88. Decreased O delivery to tissues
O delivery = Cadiac output x O content of blood
Dependes on:
Hemoglobin concentration
O-binding capacity of hemoglobin
% saturation of hemoglobin by O (Depends on Po)
Can be caused by:
cardiac output
O-binding capacity of hemoglobin
arterial Po
(No Answer)
a. Glipizide
b. Hypoxemia
c. CORRECT: Hypoxia
d. NF-B
89. Age < 15
Found in acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
TdT+ (Marker of pre-t & pre-b cells)
CALLA+
t(12;21) = good prognosis
Increased incidence in people with Down Syndrome
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Excess lymphoblasts
b. 3rd Brachial arch
c. glossoptosis
d. -ALA synthase
90. Results most commonly from brain injury to the right cerebral hemisphere, causing visual
neglect of the left-hand side of space
A stroke affecting the right parietal lobe of the brain can lead to neglect for the left side of
the visual field, causing a patient with neglect to behave as if the left side of sensory space
is nonexistent (although they can still turn left)
-Extreme case, a patient with neglect might fail to eat the food on the left half of their plate,
even though they complain of being hungry
-Someone with neglect is asked to draw a clock, their drawing might show only numbers 12
to 6, or all 12 numbers on one half of the clock face, the other side being distorted or left
blank
(No Answer)
a. Imatinib
b. CORRECT: Hemispatial neglect
c. 2nd Brachial arch
d. Peptic ulcers
91. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Accumulates:
Uroporphyrin (tea colored urine)
Blistering cutaneous photosensitivity. Most common porphyria.
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
b. Maintenance dose
c. S. pyogenes (Group A)
d. Glycogen phosphorylase
92. Forms the radial border of the carpel tunnel
Distal to the Scaphoid
Some might say it is in close proximity to
-Abductor pollicis longus
-Extensor pollicis brevis
That being side, is not the right answer for the question that you seek!
(No Answer)
a. Loading dose
b. Glipizide
c. Hyperammonia
d. CORRECT: Trapezium bone
93. CAP Covers outside from inside
Clefts = ectoderm
Arches = mesoderm
Pouches = endoderm
(No Answer)
b. CORRECT: Branchial apparatus
c. Tanner stages
d. PaO2/FiO2 ratio
94. Rate determining enzyme for glycogenolysis
Skeletal component deficient in McArdle's disease
- glycogen in muscle, but can't break it down
-Painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria w/ strenuous exercise
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Glycogen phosphorylase
b. -ALA synthase
c. Diaphoresis
d. Scaphoid bone
95. Its primary effect on red blood cell progenitors and precursors (which are found in the bone
marrow in humans) is promoting their survival through protecting these cells from
apoptosis
(No Answer)
a. Cytarabine
b. CORRECT: Erythropoietin
c. Hypoxemia
d. SLE Criteria
96. Lead poisoning
Accumulates:
Protoporphyrin, -ALA
Microcytic anemia, GI and kidney disease.
Children-exposure to lead paint -+ mental deterioration
Adults-environmental exposure (battery/ ammunition/radiator factory) -+ headache,
memory loss, demyelination
(No Answer)
a. PaO2/FiO2 ratio
b. -ALA synthase
c. CORRECT: -ALA dehydratase
d. Fluoxetine
97. Medical research descriptive study that:
1. Tracks patients with a known exposure given similar treatment
2. Examines their medical records for exposure and outcome
Can be retrospective or prospective
Usually involves a smaller number of patients than more powerful case-control studies or
randomized controlled trials
May be consecutive or non-consecutive
-Depends on whether all cases presenting to the reporting authors over a period were
included, or only a selection
May be confounded by selection bias
-Limits statements on the causality of correlations observed
-Physicians who look at patients with a certain illness and a suspected linked exposure will
have a selection bias in that they have drawn their patients from a narrow selection (Their
hospital)
(No Answer)
a. ARDS
b. Scurvy
c. CORRECT: Case series
d. Leukemia
98. Cp x CL/F
Cp = target plasma concentration
Remember:
If volume of distribution is given in L/kg
-Need to multiply by body weight to find actual volume distribution
(No Answer)
a. Phytanic acid
b. Incidence
c. CORRECT: Maintenance dose
d. Tanner stages
99. Gram-positive bacterium
Motile via flagella at 30C and below
Can move within eukaryotic cells by explosive polymerization of actin filaments (known as
comet tails or actin rockets).
Facultative anaerobic bacterium (Capable of surviving in the presence of oxygen)
Can grow and reproduce inside the host's cells
One of the most virulent food-borne pathogens, with 20 to 30 percent of clinical infections
resulting in death
Due to its frequent pathogenicity, causing meningitis in newborns (acquired transvaginally),
pregnant mothers are often advised not to eat soft cheeses
-It is the third-most-common cause of meningitis in newborns
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Listeria monocytogenes
b. Stratification
c. Maintenance dose
d. Leukemoid reaction
100. Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium
Infections show evidence of tissue necrosis, bacteremia, emphysematous cholecystitis, and
gas gangrene
Toxin involved in gas gangrene is known as -toxin
-Inserts into the plasma membrane of cells, producing gaps in the membrane that disrupt
normal cellular function
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Clostridium perfringens
b. Trapezium bone
c. glossoptosis
d. Cyanide poisoning
101. Sideroblastic anemia
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: -ALA synthase
b. Glucokinase
c. Case Control
d. -ALA dehydratase
102. Epithelial lining of palatine tonsil
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: 2nd Brachial Pouch
b. 2nd Brachial arch
c. 3rd Brachial Pouch
d. 4th Brachial Pouch
103. Caused by a single (90%) or two (10%) sperm combining with an egg which has lost its DNA
The genotype is typically 46,XX (diploid)
(No Answer)
a. Stratification
b. Loading dose
c. Type II error
d. CORRECT: Complete hydatidiform mole
104. Unregulated growth of leukocytes in *bone marrow*
or in # of circulating leukocytes in blood
Marrow failure anemia (RBC), infections (WBC), hemorrhage (platelets)
Infiltrates in liver, spleen, and lymph nodes possible
(No Answer)
a. Aplasia
b. Lymphoma
c. SLE Criteria
d. CORRECT: Leukemia
105. Strata are constructed based on values of prognostic variables and a randomization scheme
is performed separately within each stratum
Put another way:
Achieved by performing a separate randomisation procedure within each of two or more
subsets of participants
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Stratification
b. Trapezium bone
c. Staph -toxin
d. Ferrochelatase
106. Stating there is an effect when none exist
(No Answer)
a. Case series
b. Testosterone
c. Hypoxia
d. CORRECT: Type I error
107. Numbness and tingling of extremities
Dysesthesia (abnormal sensation to a body part)
Diarrhea
Erectile dysfunction
Urinary incontinence (loss of bladder control)
Facial, mouth and eyelid drooping
Vision changes
Dizziness
Muscle weakness
Difficulty swallowing
Speech impairment
Fasciculation (muscle contractions)
Anorgasmia
*Burning or electric pain*
(No Answer)
a. DiGeorge syndrome
b. Nicotinic ACh receptor
c. Treacher Collins Syndrome
d. CORRECT: Diabetic neuropathy symptoms
108. Swollen gums
Bruising
Hemarthrosis
Anemia
Poor wound healing
(No Answer)
a. PTH
b. pVHL
c. NF-B
d. CORRECT: Scurvy
109. Associated with premature birth, birth defects, attention deficit disorder
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Prenatal cocaine effects
b. Glucokinase
c. Treacher Collins Syndrome
d. 3rd Brachial Pouch
110. O utilization by tissues hypoxia
(No Answer)
a. CN III Palsy
b. CORRECT: Cyanide poisoning
c. Deoxyhemoglobin
d. Erythropoietin
111. A wide spectrum seizure medication
-1st line for tonic-clonic
Not for status epilepticus
(No Answer)
a. Aplasia
b. Oxytocin
c. Phytanic acid
d. CORRECT: Valproic acid
112. Downward displacement or retraction of the tongue
(No Answer)
a. Hypoxia
b. Leukocidin
c. CORRECT: glossoptosis
d. Glucokinase
113. Acute inflammatory response to infection
WBC count with neutrophils and neutrophil precursors such as band cells
leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
(No Answer)
a. Erythropoietin
b. CORRECT: Leukemoid reaction
c. Phytanic acid
d. Leukemia
114. Characterized by intrusive thoughts that produce uneasiness, apprehension, fear, or worry
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Obsessive compulsive disorder
b. Absence seizure
c. Avoidant Personality Disorder
d. Schizotypal personality disorder
115. Hb concentration causes O content of blood hypoxia
(No Answer)
a. Aplasia
b. ARDS
c. CORRECT: Anemia
d. Hypoxemia
116. RBCs washed in sterile saline to remove:
WBCs
Lytic mediators
Non-self antigens
Most useful in IgA deficient persons who have circulating anti-IgA Abs
-Use febrile, urticarial and anaphylactic reactions
(No Answer)
a. Hypokinesis
b. 1st Brachial arch
c. SNoW DRoP
d. CORRECT: Washed packed RBCs
117. Anal canal (below pectenate line)
Scrotum
Thighs
(No Answer)
a. Type II error
b. Wernicke's aphasia
c. Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes
d. CORRECT: Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
118. Releases NF-B after undergoing phosphorylation
(No Answer)
a. Imatinib
b. CORRECT: IB
c. Lymphoma
d. ARDS
119. Occurs when an egg is fertilized by two sperm or by one sperm which reduplicates itself
yielding the genotypes of 69,XXY
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Partial hydatidiform mole
b. Complete hydatidiform mole
c. Type II error
d. Dysthymic disorder
120. Destroys DNA in WBCs
-Prevents graft vs host disease occurring from transfusion
Important if transfusion is from:
1. Close family relation
2. Someone who is immunocompromised (Di George Syndrome, Wiskott Aldrich, and SCID)
(No Answer)
a. 3rd Brachial arch
b. Case Control
c. CORRECT: Irradiated packed RBCs
d. Diaphoresis
121. Liver and cells of pancreas
Low affinity (High Km), high capacity (High Vm)
Induced by insulin
It's a *glu*ton has high Vmax b/c it can't be satisfied
At low glucose concentration, hexokinase sequesters glucose in the tissues.
Ah high glucose concentration, excess glucose is stored in the liver
(No Answer)
a. Anemia
b. CORRECT: Glucokinase
c. Aplasia
d. glossoptosis
122. Decrease in arterial Po
(No Answer)
a. Anemia
b. Cytarabine
c. CORRECT: Hypoxemia
d. Leukemia
123. Cartilage:
Reichert's (Stapes, Styloid, Stylohyoid)
Muscles:
Stapedius, Stylohyoid
Nerves:
CN VII
-Smaile
(No Answer)
b. CORRECT: 2nd Brachial arch
c. 1st Brachial arch
d. 3rd Brachial arch
124. Persistence of cleft and pouch fistula between tonsillar area, cleft in lateral neck
(No Answer)
a. Immunohistochemistry
b. CORRECT: Congentio pharyngo-cutaneous fistula
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Phosphorylase kinase
125. Cartilage:
Greater horn of hyoid
Muscles:
Stylopharyngeus
-Stylopharyngeus innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve
Nerves:
CN IX
-Swallow stylishly
(No Answer)
a. 1st Brachial arch
b. CORRECT: 3rd Brachial arch
c. A-a gradient
d. Branchial apparatus
126. Hereditary disease (autosomal recessive) consisting of an error is mucopolysaccharide
metabolism
Characterized by severe abnormalities in development of skeletal cartilage and bone and
mental retardation
(No Answer)
a. Southwestern blot
b. CORRECT: Dysostosis multiplex
c. Testosterone
d. Mesoblastic nephroma
127. Bitemporal anopia
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Optic chiasm lesion
b. Peptic ulcers
c. Temporal lobe lesion
d. Type I error
128. Accumulates in Pipecolic acidemia
- Very rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder that is caused by a peroxisomal defect
(No Answer)
a. Prevalence
b. Peroxisome
c. CORRECT: Pipecolic acid
d. Glucokinase
129. Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase DNA Synthesis (S-phase specific)
Used with:
Melanoma, CML, Sickle cell disease ( HbF)
Toxicity:
Bone marrow suppression
GI upset
(No Answer)
a. Hypoxia
b. Fluoxetine
c. CORRECT: Hydroxyurea
d. Hypoxemia
130. Process of detecting antigens (e.g., proteins) in cells of a tissue section by exploiting the
principle of antibodies binding specifically to antigens in biological tissues
(No Answer)
a. Absence seizure
b. Hypokinesis
c. Peroxisome
d. CORRECT: Immunohistochemistry
131. Common site ofsaccular (berry) aneurysm.
CN III Palsy: Eye is "down and out" with ptosis and pupil dilation
Lesions are typically aneurysms, not strokes
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Posterior Communicating Artery
b. Dysthymic disorder
c. Obsessive compulsive disorder
d. Prenatal cocaine effects
132. 4 out of 11 of the following
1. Malar rash
2. Discoid rash
3. Serositis: Pleurisy or Pericarditis
4. Oral ulcers
5. Arthritis
6. Photosensitivity
7. Blood disorder: Hemolytic anemia, leukopenia, lymphopenia, thombocytopenia,
~hypocomplementemia
8. Renal disorder
9. ANA +ve
10. Immunologic disorder
11. Neurologic disorder
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: SLE Criteria
b. Leukocidin
c. Lorazepam
d. glossoptosis
133. Receive lymphatics from:
All the pelvic viscera
Deeper parts of the perineum
-membranous and cavernous portions of the urethra
Buttock and back of the thigh
Cervix!
Not: Ovary, testis, or superior half of the rectum
Gonads drain to the paraaortic lymph nodes
Superior half of the rectum drains to the pararectal lymph nodes
(No Answer)
a. Trapezium bone
b. Branchial apparatus
c. Anabolic steroids
d. CORRECT: Internal iliac lymph nodes
134. Southern = DNA
Northern = RNA
Western = Protein
(No Answer)
a. Peroxisome
b. NF-B
c. Scurvy
d. CORRECT: SNoW DRoP
135. Most cases of salmonellosis are caused by food infected with w/ this bacteria, which often
infects cattle and poultry
A remarkable large number of fimbrial and non-fimbrial adhesins are present in Salmonella
-Mediate biofilm formation and contact to host cells
Secreted proteins are also involved in host cell invasion and intracellular proliferation
-Two hallmarks of Salmonella pathogenesis
Usually does not need ABs (Only if complicated in people at risk such as infants, small
children, the elderly)
-Will lead to prolonged fecal excretion of bacteria
(No Answer)
a. Anabolic steroids
b. Ammoniagenesis
c. Alveolar ventilation
d. CORRECT: Salmonella enterica
136. Supplies blood to right ventricle & 25-30% of left ventricle
In 85% of patients, gives off posterior descending artery
Supplies SA nodal artery in 60% of patients
Give off branch to right marginal artery
If lungs are clear to auscultation, no LVF. Think RVF!
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Right Coronary Artery
b. Hydroxyurea
c. Ringed sideroblasts
d. Glucokinase
137. Most commonly fractured carpel bone
Prone to avascular necrosis due to retrograde blood supply
Receives its blood primarily from the distal end
Failure of the fracture to heal ("non-union") can result in loss of blood supply to the
proximal pole
- Can result in avascular necrosis of the proximal segment.
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Scaphoid bone
b. Fluoxetine
c. Testosterone
d. Whole blood
138. Pao causes %saturation of hemoglobin hypoxia
(No Answer)
a. Peroxisome
b. CORRECT: Hypoxemia
c. Oxytocin
d. Hydroxyurea
139. Jaw is undersized
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: micrognathia
b. Peroxisome
c. Hyperammonia
d. Hypoxemia
140. 30 - 60 year olds
Myeloid stem cell proliferation
- neutrophils, metamyelocytes, basophils
t(9;22)
Low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (as opposed to leukemoid reaction)
(No Answer)
a. Wernicke's aphasia
b. Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)
c. CORRECT: Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
d. Parietal lobe lesion
141. Looks at new incidents
(No Answer)
a. Leukocidin
b. Scurvy
c. CORRECT: Incidence
d. Glucokinase
142. Gram-positive, catalase-positive bacterium
Rod-shaped
Has the ability to form a tough, protective endospore, allowing the organism to tolerate
extreme environmental conditions
Only known to cause disease in severely immunocompromised patients
(No Answer)
a. glossoptosis
b. CORRECT: Bacillus subtilis
c. Tanner stages
d. Case series
143. Type of cytotoxin created by some types of bacteria
Is a type of pore forming toxin
Get their names by killing ("-cide") leukocytes
Associated with increased virulence of certain strains (isolates) of Staphylococcus aureus
Cause of necrotic lesions involving the skin or mucosa, including necrotic hemorrhagic
pneumonia
(No Answer)
a. Incidence
b. Glucokinase
c. CORRECT: Leukocidin
d. IB
144. Removes acetyl groups from AA
-Allows histones to wrap DNA more tightly
Actions are opposite to that of histone acetyltransferase
These would affect transcription of DNA!!!!
(No Answer)
a. Ferrochelatase
b. CORRECT: Histone deacetylase
c. Insulin secretion
d. Incidence
145. I. Childhood (9 and under)
II. Pubic hair appears; breast bud forms
III. Pubic hair darkens and becomes curly; penis size/length ; breast enlarges
IV. Penis width , darker scrotal skin, developed glans; raised areolae
V. Adult; areolae are no longer raised (14 and over)
(No Answer)
a. Loading dose
b. CORRECT: Tanner stages
c. ARDS
d. Diaphoresis
146. Facilitates GABAa action by frequency of Cl channel opening
Use:
Anxiety
Spasticity
Status epilepticus
Detoxification
(No Answer)
a. Hypoxemia
b. Anemia
c. Aplasia
d. CORRECT: Lorazepam
147. Ear, tonsils, bottom to top
1(ear)
2(tonsils)
3 dorsal (bottom for inferior thyroid)
3 ventral (to = thymus)
4 (top = superior parathyroids)
(No Answer)
a. Brachial Arches (Pneumonic)
b. CORRECT: Brachial pouch pneumonic
c. Branchial apparatus
d. 2nd Brachial Pouch
148. Results from transfusion of immunocompetent T cells capable of engrafting and initiating
an immune response against recipient antigens
The most susceptible patient groups are those who are severely immunocompromised
Gamma irradiation abolishes the proliferative activity of the lymphocytes in the donor
blood.
Fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate do not contain viable lymphocytes and thus do not
need to be irradiated
(No Answer)
b. CORRECT: Transfusion associated GVH
c. 2nd Brachial Pouch
d. Anabolic steroids
149. Characterized by episodes of all-encompassing low mood accompanied by low self-esteem
and loss of interest or pleasure in normally enjoyable activities
Presence of a severely depressed mood that persists for at least two weeks
(No Answer)
a. Schizoid personality disorder
b. Maintenance dose
c. CORRECT: Major depressive disorder
d. Loading dose
150. Visual field loss that respects the vertical midline, and usually affects both eyes
Vascular and neoplastic (malignant or benign tumours) lesions from the optic tract, to visual
cortex can cause
-If lesion is in optic tract, will be pupillary reflex problem!
The more posterior the cerebral lesion, the more symmetric (congruous) symptoms will be
1. Person who has a lesion of the right optic tract will no longer see objects on his left side
2. Person who has a stroke to the right occipital lobe will have the same visual field defect,
usually more congruent between the two eyes, and there may be macular sparing
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Homonymous hemianopsia
b. Leukemia
c. Hypoxia
d. SNoW DRoP
151. Dorsal wings
-Inferior parathyroids
Ventral wings
-Thymus
3 structures
Thymus, right & left parathyroids
(No Answer)
a. Scaphoid bone
b. 3rd Brachial arch
c. CORRECT: 3rd Brachial Pouch
d. Ureteric orifice
152. Occurs within proximal tubular cells
Glutamine made in the liver, is received from peritubular capillaries and is metabolized into
1. Alpha-keto glutarate (Metabolized further into two HCO3- ions, which then leave the cell
and enter systemic circulation by crossing the basolateral membrane)
2. NH4+ (Secreted into renal tubules)
(No Answer)
a. Albinism
b. Anemia
c. CORRECT: Ammoniagenesis
d. micrognathia
153. Membrane-enclosed organelle involved in catabolism of very long fatty acids (VLFA) &
amino acids
(No Answer)
a. Fluoxetine
b. CORRECT: Peroxisome
c. Hydroxyurea
d. Prevalence
154. Most common renal malignancy of early childhood (Age 2-4)
Contains embryonic glomerular structure
Presents with huge flank mass / hematuria
Deletion of WT1 on chromosome 11
Can be hypervascular....
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor)
b. Holosystolic murmur
c. Placenta accreta
d. Bacteroides fagilis
155. Stimulates labour
Uterine contraction
Milk let down
Controls uterine hemorrhage
(No Answer)
a. Anemia
b. CORRECT: Oxytocin
c. Leukemia
d. Imatinib
156. The major cytotoxic agent released by bacterium Staphylococcus aureus and the first
identified member of the pore forming beta-barrel toxin family
(No Answer)
a. Scaphoid bone
b. SNoW DRoP
c. Hypoxia
d. CORRECT: Staph -toxin
157. Tags proteins for destruction by proteasome
(No Answer)
a. Vitamin C
b. CORRECT: Ubiquitin
c. Albinism
d. Fluoxetine
158. Middle ear cavity
Eustachian tube
Mastoid air cells
(No Answer)
a. 2nd Brachial arch
b. 4th Brachial Pouch
c. CORRECT: 1st Brachial Pouch
d. Scaphoid bone
159. Body has iron available but cannot incorporate it into hemoglobin, which red blood cells
need to transport oxygen efficiently
Abnormal nucleated erythroblasts (precursors to mature red blood cells) with granules of
iron accumulated in perinuclear mitochondria
-Seen in aspirates of bone marrow
Most common cause of is excessive alcohol use
Primary pathophysiology = failure to completely form heme molecules (whose biosynthesis
takes place partly in the mitochondrion)
(No Answer)
a. Excess lymphoblasts
b. Case series
c. CORRECT: Ringed sideroblasts
d. Myofibroblast
160. Leads to sex-hormone binding globulin free testosterone
-Gynecomastia results
(No Answer)
a. Case Control
b. Ammoniagenesis
c. CORRECT: Anabolic steroids
d. Insulin secretion
161. Ca+ resorption from Kidney (Inhibits PO4 resorption)
Stimulates Vit D. synth
-Increased Ca+ absorbed from intestine
Ca+ release from bone
serum calcium
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: PTH
b. IB
c. pVHL
d. Anemia
162. Cell that is in between a fibroblast and a smooth muscle cell in differentiation
Can contract by using smooth muscle type actin-myosin complex, rich in a form of actin
called alpha-smooth muscle actin
-These cells are then capable of speeding wound repair by contracting the edges of the
wound
(No Answer)
a. Hypokinesis
b. Hyperammonia
c. Ferrochelatase
d. CORRECT: Myofibroblast
163. Stone, Bones, and Groans
Hypercalcemia
Hypercalciuria (Stones)
Hypophosphatemia
PTH, Alk Phos, cAMP in urine
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Hyperparathyroidism
b. SLE Criteria
c. Peroxisome
d. Erythropoietin
164. Diminished or abnormally slow movement
(No Answer)
a. Hypoxia
b. Hyperammonia
c. CORRECT: Hypokinesis
d. Diaphoresis
165. Second generation sulfonylurea
Close K+ channel in -cell membrane, so cell depolarizes
+ triggering of insulin release via Ca2+ influx.
Stimulate release of endogenous insulin in type 2 DM. Require some islet function, so
useless in type 1 DM
Toxicity: Hypoglycemia
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Glipizide
b. Incidence
c. Hypoxia
d. Albinism
166. Brief (usually less than 20 seconds), generalized epileptic seizures of sudden onset and
termination
Clinically, the impairment of consciousness (absence)
Electroencephalography (EEG) shows generalized spike-and-slow wave discharges ~3Hz
(No Answer)
a. Incidence
b. CORRECT: Absence seizure
c. Type II error
d. Case Control
167. Cp x Vd
(mass/volume) x (volume)
Remember:
If volume of distribution is given in L/kg
-Need to multiply by body weight to find actual volume distribution
(No Answer)
a. Olanzapine
b. Scaphoid bone
c. CORRECT: Loading dose
d. Glucokinase
168. Chronic inflammation due to Helicobacter pylori that colonizes the antral mucosa
NSAIDs
Some studies have found correlations between smoking and ulcer formation
Caffeine and coffee, also commonly thought to cause or exacerbate ulcers, have not been
found to affect ulcers to any significant exten
(No Answer)
a. CORRECT: Peptic ulcers
b. Leukocidin
c. Leukemia
d. Ferrochelatase

Test - NBME 15 Review - Quizlet

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2/10/2014 Test: NBME 15 review | Quizlet

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