Physics STPM Past Year Questions With Answer 2006

1
Majlis Peperiksaan Malaysia 2006

2006 STPM Physics Papers 1 & 2
There are fifty questions in this paper.
Answer all questions. Marks will not be deducted for wrong answers.
1. Which of the following is not equivalent to
the unit of energy?
A Electron volt (eV)
B Volt coulomb (V C)
C Newton metre (N m)
D Watt per second (W s
1
)
2. The velocity-time (v-t) graph for a car is
shown below.
Which of the following is the displacement-
time (s-t) graph for the car?
A C
B D
3. The diagram below shows two bodies of
masses 2m and 3m connected by a light
inelastic string. The bodies are pulled by a
force F on a smooth surface.
If the tension in the string is T, the force F
is
A T C 3.0 T
B 2.5 T D 5.0 T
4. The engine of a car has a maximum output
power of 54 kW. The air resistance acting on
the car when it is moving with speed v is 2v
2
.
The maximum speed which can be achieved
by the car on a level road is
A 3.0 m s
1
C 30 m s
1

B 5.2 m s
1
D 164 m s
1
5. The diagram below shows two bodies of
masses m
P
and m
Q
attached to the ends P and
Q of a light rigid rod. The rod is then rotated
about a vertical axis through the centre O of
the rod.
The ratio of the tension in the section PO to
the section QO of the rod is
m
P
A 1 C
m
Q
B
m
P
m
Q
1

2
D
m
P
2

m
Q
6. A flywheel rotates at a rate of n rotations per
second. If the mass and moment of inertia
of the flywheel are M and I respectively, the
work that should be done to stop the flywheel
is
1
A Mn
2
C 2
2
Mn
2
2
1
B In
2
D 2
2
In
2
2

v
0
T
2
T t
s
0
T
2
T t
s
0
T
2
T
t
s
0
T
2
T t
s
0
T
2
T t
2m 3m
T
F
m
Q
O
m
P
P
Q
Time: 1h 45 min
Booklet 2006 STPM Phy P1 & 2(08).indd 1 3/7/2008 4:52:19 PM
http://edu.joshuatly.com
http://www.joshuatly.com
2
7. A coin of mass m is placed on a disc which
is rotating about its vertical axis at constant
angular velocity . The coefficient of static
friction between the coin and the surface of
the disc is . If the coin does not slip, the
maximum distance between the coin and the
centre of the disc is
g mg
A C

2

2
g mg
B D

2

2
8. The accelerations due to gravity at the equator
and the pole are g
e
and g
p
respectively. Which of
the following statements about g
e
and g
p
is true?
A g
e
< g
p
because the Earth rotates.
B g
e
> g
p
because the Earth rotates.
C g
e
< g
p
because the Earth rotates and it
is not a perfect sphere.
D g
e
> g
p
because the Earth rotates and it
is not a perfect sphere.
9. Which of the following statements about
an object which performs simple harmonic
motion is true?
A The acceleration is maximum when the
velocity is maximum.
B The acceleration is maximum when the
displacement is maximum.
C The maximum potential energy is greater
than the maximum kinetic energy.
D The maximum kinetic energy is greater
than the maximum potential energy.
10. The diagram below shows two coherent
sources P and Q which produce waves of
the same phase with wavelength .
If the two waves meet at the point R, the
phase difference between the waves at R is
2
A PR QR C
(PR QR)
(PR QR) 2 (PR QR)
B D
2
11. Which of the following statements about a
critical damping system is true?
A No energy is lost from the system.
B Only a few oscillations are possible.
C The system takes an infinite time to return
to equilibrium.
D The system does not oscillate but returns
easily to its equilibrium position.
12. The diagram below shows a metal wire
stretched between two supports P and T which
are 4x apart. Three small pieces of paper are
placed at positions Q, R and S.
When the wire is vibrated at a certain
frequency, the small piece of paper at R
remains on the wire but the small pieces
of paper at Q and S drop off. What is the
wavelength of the wave which is produced
at the wire?
A x C 4x
B 2x D 8x
13. A student blows across the top of a hollow
bamboo pipe. The bottom of the pipe is closed
by a finger so that a fundamental tone of
frequency f is produced. Then the student
blows again with the bottom of the pipe
open. The tone that the student hears has a
frequency
A equal to f
B lower than f
C higher than f
D fluctuating in the range of f
14. The graph below shows the variation of
potential energy U with separation r between
two atoms.
Which of the following statements is not
true?
A The interatomic force is zero at r
0
.
B The total energy of the system is zero
at r
0
.
P
Q
R
r
0 r 0
U
x x x x
T P
Q R
S
Load
Pieces of paper
Metal wire
3
C The equilibrium separation between the
atoms is r
0
.
D An energy is required to separate the
two atoms.
15. Which of the following is the stress-strain
graph for a glass rod which is stretched until
broken?
A C
B D
16. The pressure p of an ideal gas is related to the
mean square speed <c
2
> of the gas molecules
by the equation
What are represented by n and m?
n m
A Number of
moles
Mass of one
mole gas
B Number of
moles
Mass of one
molecule
C Number of
molecules
Mass of one
molecule
D Number of
molecules per
unit volume
Mass of one
molecule
17. The air inside a hot-air balloon is heated
up from a density of 1.25 kg m
3
and a
temperature of 27 C until the balloon begins
to float. During this heating process, some
air escapes from the balloon and the pressure
inside the balloon remains constant at just
above the atmospheric pressure. The mass
and volume of air in the balloon just before
it rises are 300 kg and 400 m
3
respectively.
The temperature of hot air is
A 45 C C 318 C
B 227 C D 500 C
18. The graph below shows the change in state
of a mass of an ideal gas from X to Y and
then isothermally from Y to Z, where p is the
pressure and V the volume. The pressures at
X and Z are equal.
Which of the following graphs shows the
variation of temperature T with volume V?
A C
B D
19. The diagram below shows a metal rod PQ
of length and a diameter which increases
uniformly from P to Q. The rod is well-
insulated and the ends P and Q of the rod are
at temperatures
1

and
2
respectively, where
1
>
2
.
Which of the following graphs shows the
variation of temperature with distance x
from P when a steady state is achieved?
A C
B D
1
p = nm<c
2
>
3
Stress
0
Strain
Stress
0
Strain
Stress
0
Strain
Stress
0
Strain
p
Z
X
V
0
Y
Z
X
V
0
Y T
Z
X
V
0
Y
T
Z
X
V
0
Y
T
Z
X
V
0
Y
T
1
2
x
0
1
2
x
0
1
2
x
0
1
2
x
0
Insulation
Rod
P
Q
4
20. A diesel engine does not need spark plugs
for the combustion of a mixture of diesel and
air in a cylinder. Spontaneous combustion
occurs when a high temperature is achieved
through air compression. If air with an
initial temperature of 27 C is compressed
adiabatically to a final temperature of 681C,
what is the ratio of the initial volume to the
final volume?
[Assume that air is a diatomic ideal gas.]
A 6 C 18
B 15 D 32
21. Two bodies each of mass 3 10
5
kg are
200 km apart. The same amount of charge is
placed on each body. What is the magnitude
of the charge on each body so that the
gravitational attractive force is balanced by
the electric force?
A 6.7 10
10
C
B 1.0 10
9
C
C 4.7 10
8
C
D 2.6 10
5
C
22. The diagram below shows two capacitors of
300 F and 500 F connected in series to a
6.0 V battery.
The charge in the 300 F capacitor is
A 0.68 mC C 1.8 mC
B 1.1 mC D 4.8 mC
23. A parallel plate capacitor is charged until a
certain voltage. With the power supply still
connected, the plates of the capacitor are
separated further until the distance between
them is two times the original distance. If
the energy stored in the capacitor before and
after the plates are separated are U
1
and U
2

U
1
respectively, the ratio is
U
2
1
A C 2
2
B 1 D 4
24. The diagram below shows a metal strip of
cross-sectional area A and length connected
to a battery.
If the potential difference across the strip is V
and the current flowing is I, the conductivity
of the strip is
I V
A C
VA IA
VA IA
B D
I V
25. Which of the following statements is true of
the resistivity of a metal conductor?
A The resistivity depends on the type of metal.
B The resistivity decreases when the
temperature increases.
C The resistivity increases when the length
of the conductor increases.
D The resistivity is inversely proportional to
the cross-sectional area of the conductor.
26. An electric circuit is shown below.
The potential difference between the points
X and Y is
A 2.0 V C 6.0 V
B 4.0 V D 8.0 V
27. A galvanometer which has a resistance of 1
gives a full-scale deflection when a current of
1 mA flows through it. This galvanometer can
be modified to measure potential differences
up to several volts. Which of the following
modified arrangements is correct?
A C

B D
300 F 500 F
6.0 V
Metal strip
G
1
10 k
G
6.0
6.0
2.0
2.0
2.0
12.0 V
Y
X
1
G
10 k
G
5
28. A beam of protons moves in a straight
path through a region which has uniform
magnetic and electric fields. The electric
field is produced by two parallel metal
plates which are 2.0 cm apart with potential
difference 1000 V. If the magnetic field is
1.0 10
2
T, the speed of the protons is
A 5.0 10
2
m s
1
C 1.0 10
5
m s
1
B 5.0 10
4
m s
1
D 5.0 10
6
m s
1
29. A proton enters perpendicularly into a uniform
electric field and another proton enters
perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic field.
How is the force on each proton influenced
by the speed v of the proton?
In electric field In magnetic field
A Proportional to v Proportional to v
B Proportional to v
2
Not influenced by v
C Not influenced by v Proportional to v
D Not influenced by v Proportional to v
2
30. An alternating current I = I
0
sin 2ft flows
through the primary coil of a transformer,
where I
0
is the peak current and f the frequency.
If M is the mutual inductance between the
primary and secondary coils, the induced
e.m.f. in the secondary coil at time t is
A MI
0
sin 2ft C 2f MI
0
sin 2ft
B MI
0
cos 2ft D 2f MI
0
cos 2ft
31. When the load decreases, the speed of rotation
of an electric motor increases and the current
flowing through it decreases. This happens
because.
A the back e.m.f. increases
B the frictional force decreases
C the resistance of the armature coil increases
D the inductance of the armature coil
increases
32. Which of the following graphs shows the
variation of the reactance X of a capacitor
with the frequency f of an alternating potential
difference which is applied across it?
A
B
C
D
33. The diagram below shows an operational
amplifier with an open-loop gain of 10
5
. The
voltage supply is 9.0 V. The inverting and
non-inverting input voltages are V
1
and V
2

respectively.
Which of the following produces a saturated
output voltage of V
o
?
V
1
V
2
A +50 V 0
B 150 V 0
C 120 V 120 V
D +195 V +240 V
34. The planes of vibration of the electric and
magnetic fields in an electromagnetic wave are
A parallel to each other and parallel to the
direction of the propagation of the wave
B parallel to each other and perpendicular
to the direction of the propagation of the
wave
C perpendicular to each other and parallel to
the direction of the propagation of the wave
D perpendicular to each other and
perpendicular to the direction of the
propagation of the wave
X
f
0
X
f
0
X
f
0
X
f
0
+
V1
V2
9.0 V
+9.0 V
V
o
6
35. Which of the following graphs shows the
u
variation of with u, where u is the object
v
distance and v the image distance of a convex
lens?
A C
B D
36. The image of an object which is formed by
a convex mirror is always
A real and big C virtual and big
B real and small D virtual and small
37. The diagram below shows two pieces of
polarisers. The angle between the polarisation
axes is .
If the intensity of the unpolarised light is I
0
,
the intensity I of the transmitted light is

1
A I
0
cos
2
C I
0
cos
2
2
1
B I
0
sin
2
D I
0
sin
2
2
38. The glass lens of a camera is coated with
magnesium fluoride. The coating prevents
the reflection of light of wavelength
565 nm. What is the minimum thickness of
the coating?
[Refractive index of magnesium fluoride
= 1.38, refractive index of glass = 1.50]
A 94 nm C 102 nm
B 98 nm D 141 nm
39. Which of the following will produce the
maximum separation of fringes in Youngs
two-slit experiment?
Monochromatic
light
Distance
between
two slits
Distance
between slit
and screen
A Red light 1 mm 2 m
B Red light 2 mm 1 m
C Green light 1 mm 2 m
D Green light 2 mm 1 m
40. Light of frequency f radiates the surface of
a metal. If the maximum kinetic energy of
the emitted electron is K and h is Plancks
constant, the threshold frequency of the metal
is

A hf K C K hf

hf K K hf
B D
h h
41. A beam of laser with power P and wavelength
is perpendicularly incident to a surface.
What is the force on the surface?
[c = speed of light; h = Plancks constant.]

P
A Pc C
hc

P hc
B D
c P
42. A hydrogen atom absorbs a photon and as a
result an electron is excited from the ground
state to the first excited state. If the nth
energy level of the hydrogen atom is given by

13.6
E
n
= eV, the photon energy absorbed
n
2

is
A 3.4 eV C 13.6 eV
B 10.2 eV D 17.0 eV
43. Which of the following statements is not true
of Bohrs atomic model?
A Radiation is emitted when an electron
orbits in the allowed orbit.
B The angular momentum of an electron in
the allowed orbit is an integral multiple

h
of
.
2
C The electron in the orbit nearest to the
nucleus has the lowest energy.
D The Coulomb force between the nucleus
and electron maintains the electron in its
orbit.
u
v
u
0
u
v
u
0
u
v
u
0
u
v
u
0
Unpolarised
light
I
I
0
7
44. The diagram below shows a spectrum
produced by an X-ray tube.
If the accelerating voltage is raised,
A the value of
min
will decrease
B the value of
min
will increase
C the wavelength of the characteristic lines
K

and K
will decrease
D the wavelength of the characteristic lines
K
and K
will increase
45. Which of the following is true of lasers?
A Only red waves are produced.
B The waves produced are longitudinal
waves.
C The output is produced by radioactive
decay.
D The output is produced by stimulated
emission.

46. The isotope
14
6
C decays into
14
7
N by emitting a
-particle. Which of the following statements
is true?
A The number of protons does not change.
B The number of neutrons does not change.
C The nucleons of
14
7
N are in the higher
energy states than the nucleons of
14
6
C.
D The binding energy per nucleon of
14
7
N is

greater than that of
14
6
C.
47. A radioactive element X decays to a
radioactive element Y which then decays
to an element Z. If initially there is only X,
which of the following influences the ratio of
the number of nuclides of Y to that of X?
A Type of Z
B Half-life of Y
C The initial total of X
D Surrounding pressure
48. A nuclear reaction which involves carbon-13
and hydrogen is suggested as follows.

13
6
C +
1
1
H
14
7
N
Which of the following is true of the nuclear
reaction?
[Mass of
1
1
H = 1.007825 u, mass of
13
6
C
= 13.003355 u, mass of
14
7
N = 14.003074 u.]
A The reaction releases energy.
B The reaction does not happen at all.
C The reaction does not release energy.
D The reaction must involve the liberation
of an additional neutral atom.
49. A radioactive nuclide of mass number m
1

decays by emitting a -particle and -ray to
produce a nuclide of mass number m
2
. Which
of the following is true of the relation between
m
1
and m
2
?
A m
2
= m
1
2 C m
2
= m
1
B m
2
= m
1
1 D m
2
= m
1
+ 2
50. Which of the following forces has the greatest
magnitude outside a nucleus?
A The gravitational force
B The electromagnetic force
C The weak nuclear force
D The strong nuclear force
Intensity
K
Wavelength
K
min
8
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. (a) Determine the dimension of Young modulus. [2 marks]
(b) The Young modulus can be determined by propagating a wave of wavelength with
velocity v into a solid material of density . Using dimensional analysis, derive a formula
for Young modulus. [3 marks]
2. A system consists of an object attached to a spring with spring constant k. The system moves
with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A. Calculate, in terms of k and A, the kinetic energy

A
of the spring at a distance from its equilibrium position. [4 marks]
4
3. One end of a string of mass 1.45 g and length 50.0 cm is attached to a frequency generator
and the other end to a weight holder which hangs over a fixed pulley. The part of the string
between the generator and the pulley is horizontal. The string is set to vibrate. Several weights
are added until a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz is achieved.
(a) Describe the motion of the particles in the string. [2 marks]
(b) Calculate the tension in the string when the fundamental frequency is achieved.
[3 marks]
4. When a copper cube of side 2.0 cm is immersed into a perfectly insulated container filled
with 1.0 kg of water at 5 C, the temperature of water rises to 7 C. Assuming no heat loss
to the surroundings, calculate the original temperature of the cube. [5 marks]
[Density of copper = 8900 kg m
3
, specific heat capacity of water = 4180 J kg
1
K
1
and
specific heat capacity of copper = 385 J kg
1
K
1
.]
5. A bird stands on a high voltage transmission wire with its feet 4.00 cm apart. The wire is
made of aluminium with diameter 2.00 cm and carries a current of 100 A.
(a) Calculate the resistance of the wire between the birds feet. [3 marks]
[Resistivity of aluminium = 2.65 10
8
m.]
(b) Calculate the potential difference between the birds feet. [2 marks]
6. (a) (i) What is a shunt? [1 mark]
(ii) State the function of a shunt. [1 mark]
(b) Describe briefly, with the aid of a circuit diagram, how a shunt can be used in measuring
a large current by using a galvanometer without damaging it. [4 marks]
7. (a) State the differences between the production of a continuous spectrum and a characteristic
spectrum of X-rays. [2 marks]
(b) Calculate the shortest wavelength of X-rays emitted by electrons striking the surface of
a 20 kV television picture tube. [2 marks]
8. (a) Describe the thermonuclear fusion in the Sun. [3 marks]
Time: 2h 30 min
Section A [40 marks]
9
(b) The intensity of radiation of the Sun on the Earth is 1340 W m
2
. The mean distance of
the Earth from the Sun is 1.50 10
11
m. Calculate the radiation energy of the Sun in a
year. [3 marks]
[1 year = 3.15 10
7
s.]
Section B [60 marks]
Answer any four questions in this section.
9. (a) Define the work done on an object and state the work-energy theorem. [2 marks]
(b) Describe the process in which mechanical energy is converted to thermal energy.
[2 marks]
(c) The diagram below shows a body of mass 5.0 kg placed 1.0 m high on an inclined plane
with base length 3.0 m. The body slides down the inclined plane without friction. Calculate
the velocity of the body when it reaches the bottom. [3 marks]
(d) If the body slides down the inclined plane in (c) with coefficient of kinetic friction equal
to 0.2, calculate
(i) the work done against friction, [3 marks]
(ii) the net work done on the body, [3 marks]
(iii) the velocity of the body when it reaches the bottom. [2 marks]
10. (a) (i) What is meant by diffraction? [2 marks]
(ii) Describe how the Huygens principle is used to explain a single slit diffraction
phenomenon. [2 marks]
(iii) Sketch the variation of the intensity of light across the single slit diffraction pattern
with diffraction angle. [2 marks]
(b) (i) Using a ray diagram, show that the destructive interference of a single slit diffraction
is given by
m
sin = ,
a
where is the diffraction angle, the wavelength, a the width of the slit and m an
integer. [4 marks]
(ii) If the diffraction angle is very small, estimate the optical resolution for light of
wavelength 500 nm. [Assume that the aperture of eyelens is 3.0 mm.] [3 marks]
(iii) Using the equation in (b) (i) with m = 1, explain why an electron microscope resolves
better than an optical microscope. [2 marks]
1.0 m
3.0 m
10
11. (a) The diagram below shows an aluminium rod 1.0 m long and 1.0 cm in diameter with
their ends connected to two blocks B and C. Blocks B and C are maintained at 100 C
and 0 C respectively. The side of the rod is perfectly insulated. The system reaches
equilibrium.
(i) Calculate the rate of heat flow in the rod. [3 marks]
(ii) Calculate the temperature at a point 25 cm from block C. [2 marks]
(b) If block C is instantaneously replaced by a huge block of ice, calculate the amount of ice
melt in 10 minutes. [3 marks]
(c) Half of the aluminium rod is then replaced with a brass rod of equal dimensions, with
its free end connected to block C as shown in the diagram below. The system reaches
equilibrium.
(i) Calculate the temperature at the aluminium-brass junction. [3 marks]
(ii) Calculate the rate of heat flow through the aluminium-brass junction. [2 marks]
(d) Calculate the length of a copper rod that has the same conducting ability as the 1.0 m
aluminium rod. [2 marks]
[Thermal conductivity of aluminium = 205 W m
1
K
1
,
thermal conductivity of brass = 109 W m
1
K
1
,
thermal conductivity of copper = 385 W m
1
K
1
,
latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 10
5
J kg
1
.]
12. (a) The diagram below shows an electron which enters a region of uniform electric field
between two charged plates in a horizontal direction with velocity v
o
. Its position is
0.5 cm from the negative plate. The electron traces a path and comes out of the field
region at the end of one of the plates. The two plates are each 5.0 cm long and separated
by a distance of 2.0 cm. The uniform field has magnitude 500 V m
1
.
(i) Sketch the electric field lines and trajectory of the electron in the field region.
[2 marks]
(ii) Derive an equation to represent the motion of the electron while it is in the field
region (ignore gravity). [5 marks]
(iii) What path does the equation describe? [1 mark]
(iv) Determine the initial velocity of the electron. [2 marks]
B
C
Rod
B C
Brass
Aluminium
5.0 cm
0.5 cm
Electron
vo
2.0 cm
+
11
(b) Consider a proton being accelerated from rest through a region of electric potential V
1
to
V
2
. The final speed of the proton is 2.0 10
6
m s
1
.
(i) Describe the energy change in the proton. [2 marks]
(ii) Determine the potential difference between V
1
and V
2
. [3 marks]
13. (a) (i) Define the stopping potential in photoelectric effect. [1 mark]
(ii) State four most important results from a photoelectric effect experiment. [4 marks]
(b) The work function for cesium is 2.14 eV.
(i) Calculate the maximum wavelength of light that ejects electrons from a cesium
target. [3 marks]
(ii) If light of wavelength 452 nm is illuminated on cesium, calculate the maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectrons. [2 marks]
(c) If this page of this question paper is illuminated by 120 W m
2
of light with wavelength
550 nm, calculate
(i) the power received by an area of 1.0 cm
2
, [2 marks]
(ii) the number of photons striking each square centimetre per second. [3 marks]
14. (a) Define the half-life and decay constant of a radioactive substance. [2 marks]
(b) Naturally occurring radium-226 with atomic number 88 produces the radioactive gas
radon-222 by alpha decay.
(i) Write an equation for the decay process. [1 mark]
(ii) Calculate the total kinetic energy of the decay products in MeV. [3 marks]
[Mass of radium = 226.025402 u, mass of radon = 222.017570 u and mass of helium
= 4.002603 u.]
(c) Give three reasons why some radioisotopes are useful for medical diagnoses. [3 marks]
(d) A doctor uses 1.49 g of iodine-131 to treat thyroid disorder. Iodine-131 has half-life of
8.0 days. Calculate
(i) the number of nuclei initially present, [3 marks]
(ii) the initial activity. [3 marks]
12
Oxford Fajar Sdn Bhd (008974T) 2007
PAPER 1
1. D W is unit for power, J s
1
.
W s
1
= J s
2
This is not the unit for energy.
2. D s = v dt
T
From t = 0 to , v = at.
2
1
s = at dt = at
2

2
This is a quadratic function starting from zero.

T
From t = to T, v = at + aT.
2
1
s = (at + aT ) dt = at
2
+ aTt + C
2
T 1 T 1
At t = , s = a

2
= aT
2
2 2 2 8
This is a quadratic function in t with the coefficient
of t
2
being negative. Therefore it is an inverted U.
Option D fits these conditions best.
3. B Let the common acceleration be a.
T
For the mass 2m, T = 2ma a
=

2m
T T
For the mass 3m, F T = 3ma = 3m = 3
2m 2

3T 5T
F = T + = = 2.5 T
2 2
4. C Power, P = F v
When maximum speed is reached, force
= air resistance.
P = 2v
2
v = 2v
3
54 10
3
= 2v
3
v = 30 m s
1
5. C For each mass, the centripetal force is provided by
the tension in the rod.
m
P

2
r = T
P
m
Q

2
r = T
Q
and r are the same for the two masses.

T
P
m
P

=
T
Q

m
Q
1
6. D Kinetic energy of the flywheel = I
2
; = 2n
2
1
K.E. = I(2n)
2
= 2
2
In
2
2
This amount of work is done by the flywheel against
friction or any other retarding force when it is brought
to a stop.
7. B Maximum frictional force = mg
Maximum distance is r when frictional force is
maximum.
mg = m
2
r
g
r =

2
8. C At the equator, objects are rotating with the Earth and
they need a source of force to provide the centripetal
force needed. This source of force is the Earths
gravitational pull. Part of the gravitational force is
used to make the objects rotate, and therefore only
the balance provides the acceleration due to free
fall. At the pole, there is no rotation. Therefore the
gravitational force fully provides the acceleration due
to free fall. So ge < gp. Also, the Earth, not being a
perfect sphere, is flattened at the poles. The distance
from the centre of the Earth to the surface is smaller
at the pole. This also contributes to the increased
value of gp at the pole.
9. B For simple harmonic motion, acceleration is
proportional to displacement.
a =
2
x
Therefore when x is maximum, a is maximum.
10. D Path difference x and phase difference are related
by

x
= 2

(PRQR)
= 2

11. D If there are oscillations, then the system is
underdamped. At critical damping, there will be no
oscillations, and the system which is displaced will
reach equilibrium in the shortest possible time.
12. C There is a node at R and antinodes at Q and S. This
is possible for a wavelength which equals the full
length of the string.
Therefore, = 4x.

c
13. C In a closed pipe, the fundamental frequency f
0
= ,
4L
where c is the speed of sound and L is the length of
the pipe. However, for the open pipe, the fundamental

c
frequency f
'
0
=
2L.
f
'
0
= 2f
0
14. B At the equilibrium separation r
0
, the total energy is
(potential energy + kinetic energy).
Potential energy is and kinetic energy will depend
on the temperature. If the temperature is absolute
zero, then the kinetic energy will be zero, otherwise
the system will have positive kinetic energy which is
less than . Thus the total energy will have a negative
non-zero value.
13
15. A Glass is brittle. It obeys Hookes law and in its stress-
strain graph there is no plastic region. It breaks when
the elastic limit is exceeded.
16. D nm represents the density of the gas which is

mass

volume.
Mass of gas = number of molecules
mass per molecule.
Mass
= number of molecules per unit volume
Volume
mass per molecule.
m
17. B pV =
RT
M
m RT
p =
T = constant
V M
300

T2 = (1.25)(300)
400
T2 = 500 K = (500 273) = 227 C
18. A The change from X to Y takes place at constant
volume. For the pressure to increase at constant
volume, the temperature must increase. (Pressure
law, p T ).
In the T-V graph, constant volume is represented by
a vertical line XY which is parallel to the T-axis.
The change YZ is isothermal, meaning that the
temperature remains constant. Therefore in the
T-V graph, constant temperature is represented by a
horizontal line YZ which is parallel to the V-axis.
Graph A satisfies both these two conditions.

dQ d
19. B = kA
dt dx
dQ
At steady state, and k are constant throughout the
dt
rod.
d 1

(A = cross-sectional area of the rod)

dx A
Ignoring the negative sign and considering magnitudes
only, as A increases, the gradient of the graph
decreases.
From the diagram, as x increases, A increases,
and therefore the gradient of the graph should
decrease.
B is the only graph that shows a continuously
decreasing magnitude of its gradient.
20. C For an isothermal change, TV
1
= constant.
For diatomic gas, = 1.4, 1 = 0.4

(V
1
)
0.4
T
2

=
(V
2
)
0.4
T
1
V1 (T
2
)
2.5
(681 + 273)
2.5

= = = 18
V2

(T
1
)
2.5
(27 + 273)
2.5
21. D Electric force = gravitational force
Q
2
GM
2

=

4r
2
r
2

Q = 4G
3 10
5

=
4 8.85 10
12
6.67 10
11
3 10
5

= 2.6 10
5
C
22. B The combined capacitance is given by

1 1 1 1 1

=
+
=
+
C C
1
C
2
300 500
C = 187.5 F
Q = CV = 187.5 6 = 1.1 mC
This is the charge that flows out of the cell. This is
the amount of charge in each of the two capacitors
because they are in series.

A
23. C C =
d
1
U = CV
2
2
A
= V
2
2d
V is constant because the capacitor is connected to
the power supply throughout.
It is assumed that the material in the capacitor
continues to completely fill the space between
the plates as the plates are separated. Hence is
constant.

1
U
d

Since d 2 = 2d1,
U 1 d 2

= = 2
U 2 d 1
V l
24. A R = =
I A
1 I l
Conductivity = =
VA
25. A Resistivity is dependent on the type of material and the
temperature. For a metal, the higher the temperature,
the higher the resistivity. It does not depend on the
length or the cross-sectional area of the material.
26. A Let the potential of the negative terminal of the cell
be 0 V and that of the positive terminal be 12 V. In
the loop consisting of the cell and the three 2
resistors in series, the potential drops by 4 V for
each 2 resistor. Therefore the potential at Y is
12 4 = 8 V.
In the loop with the cell and two 6 resistors, the
potential drops by 6 V for each 6 resistor. Therefore
the potential at X is 12 6 = 6 V.
Therefore the potential difference between X and Y
= 8 6 = 2 V.
27. C To convert a galvanometer to a voltmeter, a
high resistance is connected in series with the
galvanometer.
14
28. D For the charge to move at uniform velocity, the
magnetic force = electric force and B and E must be
perpendicular to each other.
Bev = Ee
potential difference 1000
E
=

=

=
5 10
4
V m
1
separation of plates 2.0 10
2

5 10
4

v
=

=
5 10
6
m s
1
1.0 10
2
29. C Electric force = Eq and magnetic force = Bqv.
30. D Induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil by mutual
induction is given by

dI
E = M = M 2f I0 cos 2ft
dt
(I = primary current = I0 sin 2ft )
31. A For a motor, E = E
b
+ Ir,
where E is the applied voltage, E
b
is the back e.m.f.,
I is the current and r is the armature resistance.
When the load decreases, the armature will accelerate
and its speed will increase. This will cause the back
e.m.f. to increase because the back e.m.f. depends
on the speed of rotation. Thus in the equation above,
with E and r being constant, when E
b
increases, I
decreases.
1
32. D Reactance of a capacitor, Xc = .
2fC
1
Thus, X . D shows this inverse proportion.
C
33. B The output voltage V
o
= 10
5
(V2 V1)
Saturation is reached if this value exceeds 9 V.
In option B, V
o
= 10
5
[0 (150 V)] = 15 V.
This exceeds the supply voltage of 9 V. Therefore
saturation is reached.
In all the other options, V
o
is less than 9 V.
34. C Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves in which
the electric and magnetic fields and the velocity of
propagation are mutually perpendicular.
However, the velocity lies in the plane of vibration of
the electric field, and also in the plane of vibration of
the magnetic field. This situation is best described
by option C.
1 1 1
35. C The lens formula is + = .
u v f
Multiplying throughout by u,

u u
1 + =
v f
u u
= 1
v f
u
Thus the graph of against u is a straight line with a
v
u
negative intercept on the axis.
v
Option C is the best answer.
36. D Convex mirror produces only a virtual and diminished
image of a real object.
37. C After passing through the first polaroid, the intensity

1
becomes I' = I
0
.
2
On passing through the second polaroid, the
amplitude of the emerging wave is A cos , where
A is the amplitude of the incident wave. Therefore
the intensity of the emerging wave which is
proportional to the square of the amplitude becomes

1
I' cos
2
= I
0
cos
2

2
38. C For a non-reflective coating when the refractive index
n of the coating material is less than the refractive
index of the glass,

nt
=
(t = minimum thickness)
4
565 nm
t
=

=

=
102 nm
4n 4 1.38
39. A Fringe separation x is given by

D
x = .
a
Wavelength of red light is more than wavelength of
green light.
D
Comparing options A and B, is more for option
a
A. x is bigger for A.
Comparing options A and C, is more for option A.
x is bigger for A.
D
Comparing options C and D, is more for option
a
C. x is bigger for C.
Based on these comparisons, option A has the largest
value of x.
40. B Einsteins equation for the photoelectric effect is
hf = K + hf
0
(f
0
= threshold frequency)

hf K
f
0
=
h
41. B Power = energy per second.

hc
Energy of each photon = .

If n photons strike the surface per second, total

nhc
energy per second, P = .

nh P
= .
c
Force = change of momentum per second.
If we assume that each photon that strikes the surface
stops and does not bounce back, the change of

h
momentum per photon = .

P
Total change of momentum per second, F =
nh
= .
c
42. B Ground state, n = 1. First excited state, n = 2.
E
1
= 13.6 eV,

13.6
E
2
= = 3.4 eV
2
2
15
Energy absorbed = energy of photon = E
2
E
1

= 3.4 (13.6) = 10.2 eV.
43. A Radiation is emitted when electrons undergo
transitions from higher energy levels to lower energy
levels, and not when they are in an allowed orbit.
hc
44. A min = .
eV
When V increases, min decreases.
45. D Laser is Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission
of Radiation.
46. D The radioactive decay takes place to increase the
stability of the nucleus. Since C decays into N, the
N nucleus is more stable than the C nucleus. If
a nucleus is more stable, the binding energy per
nucleon is higher. Therefore N has a higher binding
energy per nucleon.
47. B When equilibrium is reached, the rate of decay of X
will equal the rate of decay of Y.
If half-life of Y is large, a very large quantity of Y
is needed so that its rate of decay equals that of X.
Thus the ratio of the number of nuclides of Y to X
will be large.
On the other hand, if the half-life of Y is small, a
smaller quantity of Y is enough for its rate of decay
to be equal to that of X. Then the ratio of Y to X will
be small.
48. A The total mass before reaction = 13.003355 u
+ 1.007825 u = 14.01118 u.
The mass after the reaction = 14.003074 u.
There is a mass defect of
14.01118 u 14.003074 u = 8.106 10
3
u.
Thus energy will be released when the reaction takes
place.
49. C Mass number means nucleon number. During a
-decay, the nucleon number remains the same.
50. B At distances exceeding the diameter of a nucleus,
the nuclear forces are very weak because nuclear
forces are short-ranged forces. Electromagnetic and
gravitational forces are long-ranged forces. Between
these two, electromagnetic forces are stronger.
PAPER 2 Section A
stress F/A
1. (a) Young modulus, Y = =
strain e/l

F/A
Dimension of Y =
e/l

MLT
2
/ L
2
=
L/L
= ML
1
T
2
(b) Young modulus, Y = k
x
v
y

z
,

where k, x, y and z
are non-dimensional constants.
[Y ] = [k
x
v
y

z
]
ML
1
T
2
= L
x
(LT
1
)
y
(ML
3
)
z
= L
x+y 3z
T
y
M
z
Equating indices of M: z = 1
T: y = 2
L: x + y 3z = 1
x = 1 + 3(1) 2 = 0
Hence, Y = kv
2

2
2. Period, T = = 2
m
k

k

2
=
m
Velocity, v = A
2
x
2

A 1 1 A
2
When x = , kinetic energy = mv
2
=

m
2
A
2

4 2 2 16

1 k 15A
2
15
= m
= kA
2
2 m 16 32
3. (a) Transverse stationary wave is set up in the string.
At the nodes, displacement of the particles = 0.
At the antinode, the particle vibrates with the
maximum amplitude.
Amplitude of vibration increases from a node to an
antinode.
1 1.45 10
3
(b) Fundamental frequency, f
0
=
T
m
(m =
2l 0.500
= 2.90

10
3
kg m
1
)
Tension, T = 4f

2
0
l
2
m = 4(120)
2
(0.500)
2
(2.90 10
3
)
= 41.8 N
4. Let C = initial temperature of the copper cube.
Heat loss by the cube = heat gained by the water
(L
3
)c1( 7) = (1.0)(4180)(7 5) (m = L
3
)

8360
( 7) =
(0.020)
3
(8900)(385)
= 312 C
l (2.65 10
8
)(0.0400)
5. (a) Resistance, R = =
A (0.0100)
2
= 3.37 10
6

(b) V = IR = (100)(3.37 10
6
)
= 3.37 10
4
V
6. (a) (i) Shunt: A conductor connected across the
terminals of a galvanometer.
(ii) Function: So that most of the current bypasses
the galvanometer.
(b)

IG
R1
G
R
IS
I
16
Connect the shunt of resistance R in parallel to the
galvanometer of resistance R1, where R<<R 1.

R
Current in galvanometer, IG

=
I << I.
R + R
7. (a) Continuous spectrum is produced when fast
electrons from the cathode are decelerated on
collision with the target. The decrease in energy of
the decelerated electrons is radiated as photons in
the continuous spectrum.
Characteristic X-ray is produced when a vacancy
in the inner shell (e.g. K-shell) of the target atom
is filled by an electron from a higher shell. The
difference in energy of the electron is radiated as
a characteristic X-ray photon.

hc
(b) eV =
min

(6.63 10
34
)(3.00 10
8
)
min

= = 6.22 10
11
m
(1.60 10
19
)(20 10
3
)
8. (a) Due to the very high temperature (>10
7
K) in the
Sun,
hydrogen atoms travel at high speed (or have
sufficiently high kinetic energy)
to overcome repulsive electrostatic force
fusion between hydrogen atoms occurs.
During each fusion, the energy equivalent of the
mass defect is radiated.
(b) If P = power radiated from the Sun, then

P
intensity, I =
4R
2
P = (4R
2
)I
Energy radiated in a year
= Pt = (4R
2
)It
= (4)(1.50 10
11
)
2
(1340)(3.15 10
7
)
= 1.19 10
34
J
Section B
9. (a) Work done = F
.
s
F = force on the object,
and s = displacement of the object.
Work-energy theorem: Work done on an object
= increase in the mechanical energy of the object.
(b) Example: When an object travels on a rough
surface, the decrease in the kinetic energy equals
the increase in the random kinetic energy of the
atoms or heat in the object.
(c) Gain in kinetic energy = loss in potential energy

1
mv
2
= mgh
2
Velocity, v =
2gh

=
2(9.81)(1.0)
= 4.43 m s
1
(d)
Length of incline =
1
2
+ 3
2
=
10 m
(i) Friction = R = mg cos
Work done against friction
= (mg cos )(
10
)
= (0.2)(5.0)(9.81)
3.0
10
10

= 29.4 J
(ii) Net work done = net force displacement
= (mg sin mg cos )
10
=
(5.0)(9.81)
1.0
10

(0.2)(5.0)(9.81)
3.0
10
(
10
)

= 19.6 J
(iii) Gain in kinetic energy = net work done

1
mv
2
= 19.6 J
2
v =
2 19.6
5.0
= 2.80 m s
1
10. (a) (i) Diffraction: Spreading of a wave after passing
a narrow slit or obstacle.
(ii) Points on the wavefront that arrive at the slit
behave as point sources emitting spherical
wavelets in phase. Along directions where
constructive interference occurs, light of high
intensity is detected. No light is detected along
directions where destructive interference
occurs.
(iii)
(b) (i)
If P is the m
th
minimum, divide the slit into 2m
equal parts.
a
Distance between two point sources A and B = .
2m
Intensity
Diffraction angle,
0
1.0 m
3.0 m
mg sin
mg cos
R
R
mg
2m
P, m
th
minimum
B
Slit
C
N
A
17
Wavelets from A and B produce destructive
interference at P when

1
BP AP = BN =
2
Angle PBC = angle BAN =

BN
In triangle ANB, sin =
AB
AB sin = BN

a 1
sin =
2m 2
m
sin =
a

(ii) If is small, sin = radians =
a
500 10
9
Optical resolution, = =
a 3.0 10
3
= 1.7 10
4
rad
(iii) de Broglies wavelength of electron beam,
e << , wavelength of light.

For optical microscope, resolution =
a
e
For electron microscope, resolution e =
a
Since e << , e<< .
Hence compared to the optical microscope,
the electron microscope is able to distinguish
clearly two points that are much closer.
dQ
11. (a) (i) Rate of heat flow,
dt
d 100 0
= kA = (205)(0.005)
2
dx 1.0
= 1.61 W
(ii) Temperature gradient = 100 C m
1

Temperature 25 cm from C or 75 cm from B
= 100 + (100 0.75) = 25

C
(b) Heat transferred in 10 minutes,
Q = (1.61)(10 60) = 966 J

Q 966
Mass of ice melted = =
L 3.34 10
5
= 2.89 10
3
kg
(c) (i) Let = temperature at the junction.
1
Temperature gradient
k
100 1
For aluminium, (1)
0.50 205
0 1
For brass, (2)
0.50 109
100 109

(1)
,
(2)
=
205
= 65.3
o
C

dQ d
(ii) Rate of heat flow, = kA
dt dx

100 65.3
= (205)(0.005)
2

= 1.12 W

0.50
(d) Rate of heat flow in copper rod
= rate of heat flow in aluminium rod
100 0 100 0
(385)(0.005)
2

= (205)(0.005)
2
x 1.0

385
Length of copper rod, x =
1.0 = 1.88 m
205
12. (a) (i)
(ii) At any time = t,
x
horizontal displacement, x = v
o
t, t =
v
o
1
vertical displacement, s = ut + at
2

2
1 x
y = 0 + a()
2

2 v
o

eE
(Acceleration = a = = constant)
m

eEx
2

y

=
2mv
0
2
(iii) Parabolic path
(iv) When x = 5.0 cm = 0.050 m, y = 1.50 cm
= 0.0150 m

eEx
2
y

=
2mvo
2
Initial velocity, v
0
=
eE
x

2my
= (0.050)
(1.60 10
19
)(500)
2(9.11 10
31
)(0.0150)
= 2.71 10
6
m s
1
(b) (i) Kinetic energy increases, electric potential
energy decreases.
Gain in kinetic energy
= loss in electric potential energy
(ii) Loss in electric potential energy
= gain in kinetic energy
1
e(V
1
V
2
) = mv
2
2
mv
2
(V
1
V
2
) =
2e
(1.67 10
27
)(2.0 10
6
)
2
= = 2.09 10
4
V
2(1.60 10
19
)
13. (a) (i) Stopping potential: Minimum reverse potential
that is required to stop all photoelectrons from
reaching the anode.
(ii) Existence of threshold frequency, which is the
minimum frequency of the electromagnetic
radiation that would eject photoelectrons
from a metal, or the existence of work
function which is the minimum energy
required for a photoelectron to escape from
a metal surface.
Instantaneous emission of photoelectrons.
Photoelectric current increases when the
intensity of electromagnetic radiation
increases.
E
Path
+
18
Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron
does not depend on the intensity of the
electromagnetic radiation but increases
when the frequency of the radiation
increases.
hc
(b) (i) Work function =
max
(6.63 10
34
)(3.00 10
8
)
max

= = 5.81 10
7
m
2.14(1.60 10
19
)
hc
(ii) Maximum kinetic energy, Kmax = W

(6.63 10
34
)(3.00 10
8
)
= 2.14 = 0.610 eV
(452 10
9
)(1.60 10
19
)
(c) (i) Power = intensity area
= (120)(1.0 10
4
) = 0.0120 W

hc
(ii) Power = N

(0.0120)(550 10
9
)
N =
(6.63 10
34
)(3.00 10
8
)
= 3.32 10
16
photons s
1
14. (a) Half-life: Time taken for half the number of radioactive
atoms in a sample to decay, or the time taken for
the number of radioactive atoms in a sample to
decay to half of its initial number.

dN

dt

rate of decay of a
radioactive sample
Decay constant = =
N
number of radioactive
atoms in the sample

(b) (i)
226
88
Ra
222
86
Rn +
4
2
He

(ii) Mass defect, m = 226.025402 u (222.017570
+ 4.002603) u
= 0.005229 u
Total kinetic energy = (m)c
2

= (0.005229)(1.66 10
27
)(3.00 10
8
)
2
J
= 4.88 MeV
(c) High penetration power of -ray: Emissions from
a radioisotope in the body can be detected by a
detector that is outside the body.
Produce ionisation: Used in radiotherapy to
destroy cells.
A radioactive isotope retains its activity whatever
compound its atoms are attached to: Used as
radioactive tracer.
(d) (i) Number of I-131 nuclei
1.49 10
6
=
131
(6.02 10
23
) = 6.85 10
15

dN In 2
(ii) Initial activity, = N and =
dt T
1
2
dN In 2

=
N
dt T
1
2

In 2
=
(6.85 10
15
)
8.0 24 3600
= 6.87 10
9
Bq

Physics STPM Past Year Questions With Answer 2006

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Majlis Peperiksaan Malaysia 2006

(A = cross-sectional area of the rod)

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