Reading comprehension and vocabulary. Test 1.

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Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.

As viewed from space. Earth's distinguishing characteristics are its blue waters and white
clouds. Enveloped by an ocean of air consisting of 78%nitrogen and 21% oxygen, the planet
is the only one in our solar system known to harbour life. Circling the Sun at an average
distance of 149 million km (93 million miles). Earth is the third planet from the Sun and the
fifth largest planet in the solar system. Its rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core give rise to
an extensive magnetic field which, coupled with the atmosphere, shields us from nearly all of
the harmful radiation coming from the Sun and other stars. Most meteors burn up in the
Earth's atmosphere before they can strike the surface. The planet's active geological
processes have left no evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly received soon after
it was formed.The Earth has a single natural satellitethe Moon.

1. Approximately how much of the Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen?

(A) One-fourth
(B) One-half
(C) Three-fourths
(D) All of it
2. Which of the following helps to create Earth's magnetic fields?
(A) Its blue waters
(B) Its nitrogen atmosphere
(C) Its molten metal core
(D) The Moon
3. What two factors help protect the Earth from radiation?
(A) Magnetic field and atmosphere
(B) Rapid spin and molten iron-nickel core
(C) The Sun and the Moon
(D) Blue waters and white clouds

4. In line 2, "consisting" most nearly means

(A) hardening.
(B) containing.
(C) withholding.
(D) shortening
5. Why does the Earth show almost no signs of having been hit bynumerous meteors in the
past?
(A) Humans have built over most of the craters.
(B) Most meteors fell into the ocean and not on land.
(C) Earth's magnetic field repeled most meteors.
(D) Earth's natural geologic activity has eliminated most traces.
6. The main idea of this passage is that
(A) there are life-supporting characteristics on Earth.
(B) Earth is predominantly water.
(C) Earth has no common characteristics with other planets.
(D) Earth is the only planet with a moon.
7. The word "distinguishing" as it is used in thisselection means
(A) elevating in nature.
(B) devastating in nature.
(C) characteristics like all other planets.
(D) characteristics that set it apart from other planets.
8. It's probable that the next paragraph would discuss
(A) people on planets.
(B) the solar system as a whole.
(C) the Earth's natural satellitethe Moon.
(D) rings around Saturn.
9. As used in this selection, the word "harbor" issynonymous with
(A) support
(B) surround

(C) water
(D) include
10. This selection leads one to believe that
(A) Earth never gets hit by meteors.
(B) Earth always gets hit by meteors.
(C) Earth was hit by meteors in some past time period.
(D) Earth may be bombarded by meteors in the near future.

Questions 11-20 refer to the following passage

Since life began eons ago, thousands of creatures have come and gone. Some, such as
the dinosaurs, became extinct due to naturally changing ecologic conditions. More recent
threats to life forms are humans and their activities. Man has drained marshes, burned
prairies, damned and diverted rivers. Some of the more recent casualties of man's
expansion have been the dodo, great auk, passenger pigeon, Irish elk, and Steller's sea
cow.
Sadly, we can no longer attribute the increasing decline in our wild animals and plant
species to "natural" processes. Many species are dying out because of exploitation, habitat
alteration or destruction, pollution, or the introduction of new species of plants and animals
to an area. As mandated by Congress, protecting endangered species, and restoring them
tothe point where their existence is no longer jeopardized, is the primary objective of the
U.S.
Fish and Wildlife Service's Endangered Species Program.

11. In line 1, "eons" most nearly means

(A) ages.
(B) particles.
(C) animals.
(D) conditions.

12. Which of the following is a form of man's habitat alteration?

(A) Glacial encroachment
(B) Hurricanes
(C) Damned rivers
(D) Snowstorms
13. Which of the following have become extinct due to man'sdestruction ??
(A) African elephants
(B) Irish elk
(C) Giant panda
(D) White bengal
14. Which of the following would be a likely theme for the nextparagraph ?
(A) Naturally changing ecological conditions
(B) Animals that have become extinct
(C) Achievements of the government Endangered Species program
(D) Programs that have destroyed natural habitats
15. In line 6, "attribute" most nearly means
(A) assign.
(B) characteristic.
(C) introduce.
(D) change.
16. The tone of this passage is
(A) nationalistic
(B) pro-wildlife
(C) anti-wildlife
(D) feminist
17. "Habitat alteration" as used in this paragraphmeans
(A) changing clothes.
(B) changing animals' environments.

(C) changing humans' environments.

(D) climate change.
18. According to this passage,
(A) man is the cause of some animal extinction.
(B) animals often bring about their own extinction.
(C) Congress can absolutely end extinction of animals.
(D) a law is more important than human responsibility.
19. Which of the following is NOT a cause of increasing declineof wild animal population?
(A) Exploitation
(B) Pollution
(C) Habitat alteration
(D) Congressional law
20. The primary objective of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service'sEndangered Species
Program can be stated as
(A) custodial care of endangered species.
(B) enforcement of Congressional law.
(C) education of the public.
(D) stopping pollution.

Questions 21-30 refer to the following passage.

With the sudden onset of severe psychotic symptoms, theindividual is said to be

experiencing acute schizophrenia. "Psychotic" means outof touch with reality, or unable to
separate real from unreal experiences. Some people have only onesuch psychotic episode;
others have many episodes during a lifetime but lead relativelynormal lives during interim
periods. The individual with chronic (continuous or recurring)schizophrenia often does not
fully recover normal functioning and typically requires long-termtreatment, generally
including medication, to control the symptoms. These symptoms mayinclude hallucinations,

incoherence, delusions, lack of judgment, deterioration of theabilities to reason and feel

emotion, and a lack of interaction between the patient and hisenvironment. The
hallucinations
may be of a visual, auditory, or tactile variety. Some chronicschizophrenic patients may
never be able to function without assistance of one sort oranother.

21. In line 3, "episode" most nearly means

(A) program.
(B) experience.
(C) treatment.
(D) assistance.
22. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of schizophrenia?
(A) Hallucinations
(B) Delusions
(C) Incoherence
(D) Vertigo
23. According to the passage, how many different types ofhallucinations are there?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
24. In line 4, "interim" most nearly means
(A) temporary.
(B) continuous.
(C) constant.
(D) unreal.
25. In line 10, "tactile" most nearly means
(A) touch.
(B) smell.

(C) sight.
(D) taste.
26. "Acute" as used to describe schizophrenia in thepassage means
(A) chronic.
(B) recurring.
(C) severe.
(D) mild.
27. It can be inferred from the passage that a personexperiencing acute schizophreniamost
likely
(A) cannot live without medication.
(B) cannot go on living.
(C) can hold a full-time job.
(D) cannot distinguish real from unreal.
28. According to this passage, thinking that one can fly might bean example of
(A) medicine overdose.
(B) being out of touch with reality.
(C) recovering normal functioning.
(D) symptom control.
29. The passage suggests that the beginning of severe psychoticsymptoms of acute
schizophrenia may be any of the followingEXCEPT
(A) debilitating.
(B) sudden.
(C) occurring after a long period of normalcy.
(D) drug-induced.
30. The passage implies that normal life may be possible for thechronic schizophrenic with
the help of
(A) medicines.
(B) neurotic episodes.
(C) psychotic episodes.
(D) time.

Questions 31-40 refer to the following passage.

Stress is with us all the time. It comes from mental or emotional activity as well as
physical activity. It is unique and personal to each of us. Sopersonal, in fact, that what may
be relaxing to one person may be stressful to another. Forexample, if you're a busy
executive
who likes to keep occupied all of the time, "taking it easy"at the beach on a beautiful day
may
feel extremely frustrating, nonproductive, and upsetting. You maybe emotionally distressed
from "doing nothing." Too much emotional stress cancause physical illnesses such as high
blood pressure, ulcers, or even heart disease. Physical stressfrom work or exercise is not
likely to cause such ailments. The truth is that physicalexercise can help you to relax and to
better handle your mental or emotional stress.

31. In line 2, "unique" most nearly means

(A) stressful.
(B) distinctive.
(C) brisk.
(D) relaxing.
32. Which of the following people would find "taking it easy"stressful?
(A) Construction worker
(B) Business executive
(C) Farm worker
(D) Truck driver
33. In line 5, "distressed" most nearly means
(A) upset.
(B) distinctive.

(C) relaxed.
(D) active.
34. In line 8, "ailments" most nearly means
(A) traits.
(C) episodes.
(B) characteristics.
(D) illnesses.
35. Which of the following would be a determinant as to whatpeople find stressful?
(A) Personality
(B) Education
(C) Marital status
(D) Shoe size
36. This article, published by the Department of Health and HumanServices, probably came
from the
(A) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
(B) Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Administration.
(C) Education Administration.
(D) Communicable Diseases Administration,
37. Stress is
(A) optional.
(B) relaxing.
(C) manageable.
(D) the same for all people.
38. A source of stress NOT specifically mentioned in this passageis
(A) educational activity.
(B) physical activity.
(C) mental activity.
(D) emotional activity.
39. Physical problems caused by emotional stress can appear asall of the following except

(A) ulcers.
(B) pregnancy.
(C) heart disease.
(D) high blood pressure.
40. One method mentioned to help handle stress is
(A) physical exercise.
(B) tranquilizers.
(C) drugs.
(D) taking it easy.

Questions 41-50 refer to the following passage.

The "Karat" marking on jewelry tells youwhat proportion of gold is mixed with other
metals. If 14 parts of gold are mixed with 10 parts of base metal,the combination is called
14 Karat (14K) gold. The higher the Karat rating, the higher theproportion of gold in the
object. The lowest Karat gold that can be marketed in the UnitedStates is 10 Karat. Jewelry
does not have to be marked with its Karat quality, but most of itis. If there is a Karat quality
mark, next to it must be the U.S. registered trademark of theperson or company that will
stand
behind the mark, as required by the National Gold and SilverStamping Act.

41. In line 1, "proportion" most nearly means

(A) ratio.
(B) mix.
(C) registered.
(D) quality.
42. If a ring is stamped 24K, it has
(A) 204 parts gold.

(B) 24 parts gold.

(C) two and four-tenths parts gold.
(D) 10 parts gold.
43. In line 6, "registered" most nearly means
(A) documented.
(B) marketed.
(C) mixed.
(D) stamped.
44. According to the passage, the phrase "stand behind"most nearly means
(A) not in front.
(B) to the side.
(C) back up.
(D) give up.
45. In line 4, "marketed" most nearly means
(A) engraved.
(B) registered.
(C) mixed.
(D) sold.
46. "Karat," as it used in the jewelry industry, refersto the
(A) jeweler's appraisal.
(B) U.S. registered trademark.
(C) amount of gold mixed with other metals.
(D) money value.
47. Gold which is 10 Karat in proportion
(A) represents the highest grade of gold in the U.S.
(B) cannot be sold in the U.S.
(C) never carries a Karat quality mark.
(D) represents the lowest-grade gold marketable in the U.S.

48. If gold is marked with a Karat quality mark, it must also

(A) bear a national gold and silver stamp.
(B) bear the registered trademark of the entity standing behindthe mark.
(C) bear a "made in the USA" mark.
(D) bear a percentage mark.
49. If the jewelry is marked, 14 parts of gold mixed with 10parts of base metal will always
bear
(A) a 14K mark.
(B) a 10K mark.
(C) an 18K mark.
(D) a platinum mark.
50. This paragraph serves the consumer as
(A) important buying information.
(B) a challenge to buy more gold.
(C) a debate over gold prices.
(D) advice about buying silver.

Questions 51-60 refer to the following passage.

Mr. Faugel was convinced that student nervousnesshad affected their scores; to
reduce the anxiety of these students who had already been tested,he gave 22 of them a
beta
blocker before readministration of the test. Their scoresimproved significantly. The other 8
students (who did not receive the beta blockers) improved onlyslightly. Second-time testtakers nationwide had average improvements which were similar tothose in Faugel's nonbeta blocker group.
Beta blockers are prescription drugs which have been around for25 years. These
medications, which interfere with the effects of adrenalin, havebeen used for heart conditions

and for minor stress such as stage fright. Now they are used fortest anxiety. These drugs
seem
to help test-takers who have low scores because of test fright,but not those who do not know
the material. Since there can be side effects from these betablockers, physicians are not
ready
to prescribe them routinely for all test-takers.

51. In line 2, "reduce" most nearly means

(A) increase.
(B) maximize.
(C) lessen.
(D) build up.
52. Beta blockers have been around since approximately what year?
(A) 1790
(B) 1907
(C) 1950
(D) 1970
53. Where is the only place a person can obtain beta blockers?
(A) Supermarket
(B) Convenience store
(C) Stationary store
(D) Doctor's office
54. In line 8, "interfere" most nearly means
(A) hinder.
(B) aid.
(C) help.
(D) prescribe.
55. Why are beta blockers not prescribed regularly?
(A) Students are expected to do poorly.

(B) There are side effects.

(C) The drugs are only 25 years old.
(D) They cause test anxiety.
56. According to the passage
(A) all people can take beta blockers.
(B) beta blockers are widely prescribed.
(C) beta blockers work only on test anxiety.
(D) beta blockers work only to improve test scores if she test-takertruly knows the material.
57. "Readministration" in this passage refers to
(A) giving the test again to people without administering betablockers.
(B) giving the test again to both groups after beta blockers havebeen administered to one
group.
(C) giving the test to both groups of test-takers and then givingthem beta blockers.
(D) giving the beta blockers without retesting.
58. What possible use for beta blockers was NOT discussed in thispassage?
(A) Test anxiety
(B) Pain relief
(C) Minor stress
(D) Heart conditions
59. Beta blockers work on some physical and emotional symptomsbecause they
(A) fool a person into a healthier stance.
(B) interfere with the side effects of adrenalin.
(C) produce side effects worse than the symptoms
(D) primarily change human thought processes.
60. Faugel's research showed that beta blockers given to hissample
(A) increased scores less than the national average.
(B) increased scores the same as the national average.
(C) decreased scores.
(D) increased scores much more than the national average

Key

Reading comprehension and vocabulary.

1. (C) The answer to this question is found in the sentence, "Enveloped by

an ocean of air consisting of 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen, the planet is the
only one in our solar system known to harbor life." Seventy-eight percent is
approximately equivalent to three- fourths. The other answer choices do not
convey the correct percentage.
2. (C) In order to answer this question, you must know that a nickel-iron
core is a metal core. The answer comes from the first sentence of the second
paragraph "Its rapid spin and molten nickel-iron core give rise to an extensive
magnetic field which, coupled with its atmosphere, shields us from nearly all
the harmful radiation coming from the Sun and other stars." Choice (B)
nitrogen atmosphere-mentioned in the same sentence, but it is not a reference
to the magnetic field. Choices (A) and (D) are also not part of the magnetic
field.
3. (A) The answer to this question appears in the same sentence as the
previous question. It is the "magnetic field, coupled with the atmosphere," that
protects the Earth from radiation. Choice (B) "Rapid spin and molten nickeliron core" contribute to the magnetic field and therefore indirectly protect the
Earth from radiation, but this is not the best choice from the answers given.
Choices (C) and (D) are simply wrong.
4. (B) The best choice for the meaning of "consisting" is "containing." The
air contains nitrogen and oxygen. It does not (A) harden, (C) withhold, or (D)
shorten the oxygen and nitrogen.
5. (D) The last sentence of the second paragraph holds the answer to this

question. "The planet's active geological processes have left almost no

evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly received soon after it was
formed." In this case "left almost no evidence" is synonymous with "has
eliminated most traces." Also in this question, "processes" is equivalent to
"activity." The other choices are not mentioned in the passage.
6. (A) In the first paragraph there is the statement, "the planet is the only
one in our solar system known to harbor life." Coupled with the statement in
the second paragraph that Earth is shielded from radiation rays, they show why
life is possible on Earth. Although Earth's moon (D) is mentioned, the passage
says nothing about the existence of moons near other planets. There are no
facts given to support choices (B) or (C).
7. (D) Basic knowledge enables the reader to know that not all planets are
covered with blue oceans. This characteristic is unique to the Earth, making
(D) "characteristics that set it apart from other planets" the correct answer.
8. (C) Since paragraph three discusses the Moon, it may be assumed that
further discussion of the Moon will follow, making (C) "the Earth's natural
satellite-the Moon" the next probable paragraph. "People on planets" (A) and
"rings around Saturn" (D) are not mentioned, and (B) "the solar system as a
whole" is too unspecific.
9. (A) One definition of "harbor" is "support." (B) and (D) are not relevant.
Another meaning of harbor is as a body of water. That is not the correct
meaning in this case, as can be discerned by examining the context of the word
within the passage.
10. (C) The words in the last paragraph, "the planet's active geological
processes have left no evidence of the ancient pelting it almost certainly
received soon after it formed," lead the reader to believe that Earth was hit by
meteors in some past time period. (A) "Earth never gets hit by meteors" is
directly opposite to this. (B) "Earth always gets hit by meteors" is probably

false, and (D) "Earth may be bombarded by meteors in the near future" is not
discussed in the passage.
11. (A) In this sentence, "eons" most nearly means "ages." The answer can be
obtained from the context of the sentence from which it was taken. "Since life
began eons ago, thousands of creatures have come and gone." Neither choice
(B)-particles, choice (C)-animals, nor choice (D)-conditions fit within the
context of the sentence.
12. (C) The answer to this comes directly from the passage. "Man has
drained marshes burned prairies, damned and diverted rivers." The other
answer choices are also forms of habitat alteration, but they are natural
occurrences. The question asks specifically for what man does to habitats.
13. (B) This answer is taken directly from the reading. "Some of the more
recent casualties of man's expansion have been the dodo, great auk, passenger
pigeon, Irish elk and Stellar's sea cow." The other choices are all animals that
are currently on the endangered species list, but are not mentioned in the
passage.
14. (C) The last sentence of the passage describes the role of the Endangered
Species Program. This provides a logical transition to the achievements of the
program as mentioned in choice (C). Choices (A), (B), and (D) would all have
fit somewhere in the first paragraph.
15. (A) In this sentence, "attribute" is used as a verb. In this case it most
closely means "assign." Choice (B)-characteristic, is a definition of "attribute"
when it is used as noun, but in this case that is the wrong answer. The other
choices are just wrong.
16. (B) "Pro-wildlife" is the correct answer, since everything said favors the
protection of wildlife. Words such as "sadly" infer sympathy towards the
cause. (A) "nationalistic" is not discernible nor is (D) "feminist." (C) "antiwildlife" cannot be correct because of the use of "sadly" in connection with

certain wildlife due to human factors.

17. (B) "Changing animals' environments" is correct. (A) is incorrect because
the paragraph does not refer to members of religious orders whose articles of
clothing are called "habits." (C) "changing humans' environments" is not
correct because the word "habitat" does not usually apply to human
environments. (D) is not correct because the phrase does not apply to weather.
18. (A) The words "more recent threats by humans" implies that "Man is the
cause of some animal extinction." Animals are not mentioned as a cause (B).
Congress can only pass laws, not guarantee their success (C), and (D) "a law is
more important" is directly opposite to the truth.
19. (D) (A) "exploitation," (B) "pollution," and (C) "habitat alteration" are
all mentioned in the passage as reasons why many species are dying out. Only
Congressional law is mentioned as mandating protection.
20. (A) Choice (A) is mentioned as the primary objective of the U.S. Fish
and Wild-life Service's Endangered Species Program. While (B) "law
enforcement," (C) "education," and (D) "stopping pollution" are all methods of
protection, the main goal of the service is custodial care.
21. (B) This comes from the sentence, "Some people have only one such
psychotic episode; others have many episodes during a lifetime but lead
relatively normal lives during interim periods." In this sentence, "episode"
refers to an "experience." The other choices refer to help that a person having a
psychotic episode can receive.
22. (D) The answer to this question appears in the sentence, "These
symptoms may include hallucinations, incoherence, delusions, lack of
judgment, deterioration of the abilities to reason and feel emotion, and a lack
of interaction between the patient and his environment." Only choice (D)vertigo is not listed as a symptom. In fact, vertigo is a type of phobia that is
another mental illness.

23. (C) This is another direct content question. It only requires you to know
how many items were in a list. The answer is in the sentence, "The
hallucinations may be of a visual, auditory, or tactile variety." There are three
items listed as types of hallucinations.
24. (A) The answer for this question is found in the following sentence,
"Some people have only one such psychotic episode; others have many
episodes during a lifetime but lead relatively normal lives during interim
periods." The best choice is (A)-temporary. Choices (B) and (C) are the
opposite of the meaning of the sentence because the non-psychotic periods are
not long-term episodes. Choice (D) is also incorrect because the interim
periods are the times when things are real for the patient.
25. (A) The question tests your knowledge of vocabulary. From the content
of the sentence, you can guess that the answer is probably going to be one of
the senses. Unfortunately, all the answer choices are senses. The correct
answer is (A)-touch. The other three choices are incorrect
26. (C) The word "acute" in the first sentence is a clue that (C) "severe" is
the correct answer. The word "sudden" in the first sentence shows that (A)
"chronic" could not be correct. (B) "recurring" means "happening again" so it
is not correct. (D) "mild" is the opposite of the correct answer.
27. (D) This choice is correct as stated in the passage. (A) is wrong, as the
passage states that only chronic schizophrenics necessarily need medication.
(B) is incorrect, as nothing is said about dying. (C) is incorrect, since chronic
schizophrenics have employment problems.
28. (B) "Being out of touch with reality" is correct. (A) "medicine overdose"
is never discussed. (C) "recovering normal functioning" is the opposite of
thinking that one could fly and (D) "symptom control" refers to the absence of
symptoms; reality distortion is a symptom.
29. (D) "Drug-induced" is the only possibility not discussed so it is the

correct answer. (A) "debilitating," (B) "sudden," and (C) "occurring after a
long period of normalcy" are all given as possibilities.
30. (A) "Medicines" is the correct answer. (B) "neurotic episodes" are not
mentioned. (C) "psychotic episodes" are mentioned as abnormal, and (D)
"time," without treatment methods, will not permit a long-term normal life.
31. (B) "Distinctive" is the correct answer. According to the passage, stress
is unique and personal. It follows that the answer needed would be one that
was capable of describing stress. The other choices are not able to do that.
32. (B) According to the passage, "a busy executive who likes to keep
occupied all of the time, 'taking it easy' at the beach on a beautiful day may
feel extremely frustrating, nonproductive, and upsetting." The other choices
may be correct, but there is no indication of that from the passage.
33. (A) "Upset" is the correct answer. This word comes from the sentence,
"You may be emotionally distressed from 'doing nothing.'" When the word or
phrase is put into quotes within a passage, and the item in quotes is not
repeating what someone else wrote, then it usually means that the item in
quotes is not going to be used in the literal sense. In the case of this sentence,
you would think doing nothing would be relaxing, choice (C), but when taken
in the context of the previous sentence, it actually would be the opposite,
which is choice (A). Choices (B) and (D) do not fit into the context of the
sentence.
34. (D) "Illnesses" is the correct choice. Ailments refer back to the list of
diseases in the previous sentence. Because "high blood pressure, ulcers, and
heart disease" are all health problems, choices (A), (B), and (C) are not the
best choices for the context.
35. (A) To answer this question, you will need to infer from the passage
which of the choices would be correct. There is no sentence which will give
you the answer. The passage talks about mental stress and emotional stress. It

also explains how each person feels differently about what causes stress. This
should lead to the conclusion that personality is the determinant. Choices (B)education and (C)-marital status both may cause stress and both are part of a
person's personality, but the best choice is (A) because it encompasses both
(B) and (C). Choice (D) is just wrong.
36. (B) The "Alcohol, Drug Abuse, and Mental Health Administration" is the
correct answer as stress falls under the category of mental health. (A) Federal
Bureau of Investigation, (C) Education Administration, or (D) Communicable
Disease Administration would not publish an article on this topic.
37. (C) Physical exercise is mentioned as a method to reduce stress, thus
making it manageable. (A) "optional" implies that we have a choice, which is
not true, since everyone experiences stress at some time. (B) "relaxing" may
help to relieve stress, but it does not define it. The words "it is unique and
personal to each of us" shows that (D) "the same for all people" is not correct.
38. (A) "Educational activity" is the only source of stress that is not
mentioned. (B)"physical activity," (C) "mental activity," and (D) "emotional
activity" are all mentioned.
39. (B) "Pregnancy" is the only condition not mentioned, so it is the correct
answer (A) "ulcers," (B) "heart disease," and (D) "high blood pressure" are all
mentioned.
40. (A) "Physical exercise" is mentioned as a stress
handler.(B)"tranquilizers" and(C) "drugs" are not mentioned. (D) "taking it
easy" is mentioned as actually couseing stress in some individuals.
41. (A) "Ratio" is the correct answer. A proportion is how much of each item
are in a combination. In the case of this passage, how much gold is mixed
with base metal. Proportion refers to the ratio of ingredients and not the actual
mix, so choice (B) is wrong. Choices (C) and (D) refer to other parts of the
passage.

42. (B) The answer to this question is simply being able to identify that 24K
translates to 24 parts gold. Choice (A) would be 204 parts, choice (C) would
be 2.4 parts, and choice (D) refers to the base metal content and not the gold.
43. (A) "Documented" is the correct response. To register an item, whether it
be a car or a name, means to have it legally documented with the proper
government agency. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are all verbs used within the
passage, but they do not refer to "registered."
44. (C) To "stand behind" a mark, means to pledge that what is stamped on
the gold is accurate. Although in this passage "stand behind" does not mean
"in back of," a phrase similar to "stand behind" is (C) "back up." Choices (A)
and (B) are phrases of position, which are not correct for the context of this
passage. Choice (D) refers to surrendering and also does not work in this
passage.
45. (D) "Sold" is the correct answer. To market an item means to put it up
for sale.The other choices given do not fit within the context of the sentence.
46. (C) The first sentence defines Karat as the proportion of gold mixed with
other metals. (A) "jeweler's appraisal" refers to the worth of the gold and other
metals. (B) "U.S. registered trademark" refers to a symbol announcing
authenticity. (D) "money value" is very unspecific and could refer to any item,
not necessarily gold.
47. (D) The sentence, "the lowest Karat gold that can be marketed in the
U.S. is 10 Karat" shows (D) to be the correct answer. (A) "represents the
highest grade of gold sold in the U.S." cannot be the answer as no "highest
grade" is given in the passage. (B) "cannot be sold in the U.S." is untrue
according to the passage. (C) "never carries a Karat quality mark" is not
correct; although some jewelry may be unmarked, not all of it is.
48. (B) The sentence, "If there is a Karat quality mark, next to it must be the
U.S. registered trademark of the person or the company that stands behind the

mark" shows (B) to be correct. (A) cannot be correct as there is no mention of

a national gold and silver stamp. (C) is not correct, as only the person or
company is required to be stamped. (D) is not correct because the measure is
in Karats and not in percentages.
49. (A) A 14K mark is defined in the second sentence. "If 14 parts of gold
are mixed with 10 parts of base metal, the combination is called 14 Karat
(14K) gold." (B) "a 10K mark" refers to 10 parts of gold. (C) "an 18K mark"
refers to 18 parts of gold. (D) "a platinum mark" is not discussed in the
passage.
50. (A) "Important buying information" is the correct answer, as a consumer
educated about gold marking is a more skilled gold buyer. (B) "a challenge to
buy more gold," (C) "a debate over gold prices," and (D) "advice about buying
silver" are never mentioned.
51. (C) "Lessen" is the correct response. To reduce an item means to
decrease it. Choices (A)-increase, (B)-maximize, and (D)-build up are all the
opposite of the context of the sentence. The students did not need to have their
anxiety increased, but decreased.
52. (D) The first sentence of the second paragraph says that beta blockers
have been around for approximately 25 years. Simple subtraction from the
current year puts the approximate date at choice (D)-1970. The other choices
are too far in the past to be correct.
53. (D) The first sentence of the second paragraph says, "Beta blockers are
prescription drugs which have been around for 25 years." If a drug is obtained
through a prescription, then it can only be obtained from a doctor. Therefore,
choice (D)-doctor's office is correct. The other choices do not involve doctors,
therefore, they are incorrect.
54. (A) "Hinder" is the correct response. To interfere is to prevent something
from doing what it is doing or expected to do. Choice (B)-aid and (C)-help are

opposites of what is intended of the sentence. Choice (D) is incorrect in this

sentence.
55. (B) The answer to this question is lifted directly from the reading.
"Since there can be side effects from these beta blockers, physicians are not
ready to prescribe them routinely for all test-takers." Choice (A) is not
mentioned in the passage. Choice (C) is accurate in describing the drug, but is
not the answer to the question. Choice (D) is the opposite effect of what the
drug does.
56. (D) "Not those who do not know the material" implies that beta blockers
will only work with test-takers who know the material. The last sentence
implies that (A) "all people" and (B) "are not widely prescribed" are not
correct. The second sentence of the second paragraph, "have been used for
heart conditions..." shows that (C) "work only on test anxiety" is not correct.
57. (B) Improvements are noted in both groups, indicating all people were
retested whether or not they took the beta blockers. (A) "without beta
blockers" and (C) "testing and then giving beta blockers" are incorrect. (D)
"without retesting" is incorrect.
58. (B) Pain relief is the only one not discussed. All other answers (A) "test
anxiety (C) "minor stress," and (D) "heart conditions" were discussed.
59. (B) "Interfere with the effects of adrenalin" is mentioned in the second
sentence of the second paragraph. (A), (C), and (D) are not presented or
explained fully.
60. (D) The passage states that the beta blocker group had significant
improvement in their test scores. It also states that the non-beta blocker group
showed only a slight improvement, which was similar to the nationwide
average for second-time test-takers. From this it can be determined that the
beta blockers "increased scores much more than the nationwide average."
Choices (A), (B), and (C) are incorrec