JEEKnocoutTestSolution 30thnov2014

JEE Knockout Test Solution
Exam Date: 30/11/2014
1. Time duration for this test is 180 minutes. This test consists of 90 questions. The
maximum marks are 360.
2. There are three parts in the question paper, namely, Part A: Physics, Part B: Chemistry
and Part C: Mathematics.
3. This test contains 90 Multiple Choice Questions with single correct answer. Each
Question has four choices (1), (2), (3) & (4), out of which Only One is Correct.
4.
Each question is awarded 4 (four) marks for correct response.
5. One-fourth (1/4) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
an item in the answer sheet. Filling up more than one response in any question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly
as per the instruction 5 above.
Part A Physics
Question 1: Figure (a) given below shows a circular disc that is uniformly charged. The central z-axis is
perpendicular to the disc. Figure (b) is the graph of the magnitude of the electric field along that axis in
terms of the maximum magnitude Em at the disc surface ( zS 16.0 cm).
(a)
What is the radius of the disc?
(1) 10.4 cm
(3) 13.9 cm
(b)
(2) 11.3 cm
(4) 14.1 cm
Solution: For the uniformly charged disc, the electric field along the z- axis is

z
E
1 2
2 0
z R2
Putting z 0 , we get
Em
From the graph,
2014 Wiley India Pvt. Ltd.
2 0
0.5Em

8.0
1
2 0
(8.0)2 R 2
From these we get

8.0
(8.0)2 R 2
0.5
(8.0)2 R 2 (16.0)2
Therefore,
R (16.0)2 (8.0)2 13.9 cm

Correct Option: (3)
Question 2: The amplitude of the electric field of a parallel beam of electromagnetic wave of intensity 8
Wm2 is
(1) 6.25 N C1
(2) 5.2 N C1
1
(3) 77.6 N C
(4) 91.3 N C1
Solution: Intensity of a plane electromagnetic wave is
1
I 0 E0 2 c
2
2I
0c
28
8.85 1012 3 108
77.6 N C1
Correct Option: (3)

Question 3: Two ideal p-n junction diodes are connected in an electrical circuit with resistances to a
battery of 12 V as shown in the figure. What will be the current flowing in the circuit?
(1) 0.2 A
(3) 2 A
(2) 1.7 A
(4) 2.4 A
Solution: Diodes are connected in such a way that the diode D1 is reverse biased and diode D2 is forward
biased.
So, the resistance of the diode D 1 is infinity and it can be replaced by a broken wire.
And the resistance of the diode D 2 is zero and it can be replaced by a resistance- less wire.
The equivalent circuit would be
4
12 V
So the current supplied by the battery would be = 12/6 = 2 A

Correct Option: (3)
Question 4: A 0.50 kg object moves in a horizontal circular track with a radius of 2.5m . A continuous
external force of 3.0 N , always tangent to the track, causes the object to speed up as it goes around. The
work done by the external force as the mass makes one revolution is nearly
(1) 24 J
(2) 47 J
(3) 59J
(4) 94J
Solution: Since the force acts tangentially, it is always in the same direction as displacement. Hence,
work done in one revolution
W F dr
F (2 r )
(3.0)(2 2.5)
47.1 J 47 J
Correct Option: (2)

Question 5: Angular velocity of a body changes from 25 rad s1 to 4 rad s1 without applying a torque but
by changing its moment of inertia about a particular fixed axis. The ratio of radii of gyration about that
particular axis in the two cases is
(1) 2 : 5
(2) 4 : 25
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 25 : 4
Solution: Angular momentum remains conserved as the net external torque is zero.
I11 I 22
I1 2
I 2 1
mk12 2
mk22 1
2
k1
4
2:5
k2
1
25
Correct Option: (1)
Question 6: A spherical object of radius 1cm and density 4 103 kg m3 is dropped gently into a large
container containing viscous liquid of density 2 103 kg m3 and viscosity 0.1 Ns m2 . The distance
moved by the object in 9 s after it attains terminal velocity is (Take g = 10 m s)
4
m
9
20
m
(3)
9
(1)
(2)
40
m
9
(4) 40m
Solution: Terminal velocity of the object will be
vt =
2 r2
9
g downward
Substituting values, we get

2 (1) 2
4 103 2 103 10 downward
9 0.1
40
vt = m/s, downwards
9
Once the body acquires terminal velocity, it will have uniform motion. So distance travelled by the object
9 s after attaining terminal velocity is
vt =
d=
40
9
9 = 40 m
Correct Option: (4)

Question 7: Four square plates, each with edge length a, are arranged as shown in the figure below. The
equivalent capacitance between A and C is
3 0 a 2
5d
2 a 2
(3) 0
3d
(1)
3 0 a 2
2d
5 a 2
(4) 0
3d
(2)
Solution: Now we know that capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by relation
0 A
d
where A is the area of cross-section of the plates and d is the separation between the plates.
The given figure can be redrawn as below:
Potential of B and D are equal as they are connected.
From the figure above, capacitors C2 and C3 are in parallel so their equivalent capacitance between points
D and point C is
C ' C2 C3
0a2
d
0a2
2d
3 0 a
2d
Now the equivalent capacitance between points A and point C will be
1
1
1
Ceq C ' C1
Ceq
C ' C1
C ' C1
3 0 a 2 0 a 2
d
2d 2
3 0 a
0a2
2d
d
2
3 a
0
5d
Correct Option: (1)

Question 8: An object on a vertical spring oscillates up and down at a frequency of 5.00 Hz. By how
much would this object, hanging from rest, stretch the spring at equilibrium?
(1) 0.10 m
(2) 0.05 m
(3) 0.01 m
(4) 0.50 m
Solution: Angular frequency
k
m
2
k (2 ) m
2
Hence,
When the object hangs from the spring,
kx mg
mg
x
k
mg
(2 ) 2 m
g
(2 ) 2
9.81
(2 3.14 5.00) 2
0.01m
Correct Option: (3)

Question 9: Two waveforms A and B are fed as input in a logic circuit shown in the diagram below.
What will be the correct output waveform?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: Given circuit can be understood as two NOT circuits being fed into a NOR circuit.
For the first pulse of A and B,
Input
1
1
A
B
First Gate
0
0
Second Gate
1
Options
(1), (2), (4)
For the second pulse of A and B
A
B
Input
0
0
First Gate
1
1
Second Gate
0
Options
(1), (2), (4)
For the third pulse of A and B
A
B
Input
0
1
First Gate
1
0
Second Gate
0
Options
Second Gate
0
Options
(1), (4)
For the fourth pulse of A and B

Input
A
1
B
0
Correct Option: (1)
First Gate
0
1
(1)
Question 10: A force of F 12.0 N is applied to a 8.00kg block at a downward angle of 30.0 , as shown
in the following figure.
The coefficient of static friction between the block and the floor is 0.700 and the coefficient of kinetic
friction is 0.400. What is the magnitude of the frictional force on the block?
(1) 19 N
(2) 59 N
(3) 12 3 N
(4) 6 3 N
Solution:
Applying equilibrium of forces in vertical direction, we get

N mg F sin(30)
8.00 9.81 12(1 / 2)
84.48 N
Applying equilibrium of forces in horizontal direction
(1)
F cos(30) N ma
Now,
3
F cos(30) 12
6 3N
(2)
2
Maximum value of static friction, which needs to be overcome for motion to take place, is
f max s N
0.700(84.48)
59.13N
(3)
2
Since this force is greater than F cos(30 ) , there will be no motion, and a 0ms .
Substituting the values from Eq. (2) and Eq. (3) into Eq. (1) we get
6 3 fs m(0)
o
6 3 fs 0
fs 6 3 N
Correct Option: (4)

Question 11: A charged particle is moving perpendicular to a uniform, constant magnetic field. Which
one of the following statements is false?
(1) The magnetic force does no work on the particle.
(2) The magnetic force does not change the velocity of the particle.
(3) The magnetic force can act only on a charged particle in motion.
(4) The magnetic force does not change the kinetic energy of the particle.
Solution: All the given statements are true except (2). While the magnetic force does not change the
particles speed (being a central force), but it does change its velocity by changing its direction of motion.
However, this change does not change the kinetic energy
Correct Option: (2)
Question 12: A hollow lens is made of thin glass as shown in the figure below.
It can be filled with air, water ( n 1.3 ), or CS2 ( n 1.6 ). The lens will diverge a beam of parallel light if
it is filled with
(1) air and immersed in air.
(2) air and immersed in water.
(3) water and immersed in CS2.
(4) CS2 and immersed in water.
Solution: From Lens makers equation:
1 1
1 n2
1
f n1
R1 R2
1 1
Using the Cartesian sign convention, R1 is negative and R2 is positive. Thus, is negative.
R1 R2
Now, for the given lens to act as a diverging lens, the focal length f must be negative. This implies that
n2
1 must be positive. Note that n2 is the refractive index of the medium inside, and n1 is the
n1
n
refractive index outside the lens. 2 1 is positive only when n2 > n1 or lens is filled with CS2 and
n1
immersed in water.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 13: An input signal of 22 kHz and peak voltage 25 V is modulated with a carrier wave of
frequency 23 MHz and peak voltage 24 V. What will be the bandwidth of the modulated wave in the case
of amplitude modulation?
(1) 44 kHz
(2) 44 kHz + 46 MHz
(3) 46 MHz
(4) 22 kHz + 23 MHz
Solution: Bandwidth in the case of amplitude modulation = Twice the frequency of the modulating signal
Bandwidth 2 m
2 22
44 kHz
Correct Option: (1)
Question 14: The term coherence relates to
(1) the diffraction of two waves.
(2) the polarization state of two waves.
(3) the phase relationship between two waves.
(4) the amplitude of two waves.

Solution: Two light waves are coherent if their phase difference is constant.
Correct Option: (3)
Question 15: The following question consists of two statements, 1 and 2. Of the four choices given,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: When pressure in an ideal gas increases, speed of sound in the gas increases.
P
Statement 2: Speed of sound in an ideal gas is given by v
where is the adiabatic constant of the
gas, P is the pressure in the gas and is the density of the gas.
(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
Solution: Though the speed of sound formula seems to suggest that v P , note that the other variable
in the denominator is not an independent variable but depends on pressure P. In fact, density is directly
proportional to P, given other independent parameters dont change, making v independent of P. So a
better formula to rely on is
RT
v
M0
Hence, Statement 1 is false though Statement 2 is true.

Correct Option: (4)
Question 16: The pressure increases by 1.0 104 Nm2 for every meter of depth beneath the surface of
the ocean. At what depth does the volume of a Pyrex glass cube of edge length 1.0 102 m at the oceans
surface decrease by 1.0 1010 m3 ? Bulk modulus of Pyrex glass is 2.6 1010 Nm2 .
(1) 140 m
(2) 260 m
(3) 380 m
(4) 400 m
Solution: Increase in pressure
V
p B
V
1.0 1010
(2.6 1010 )
2 3
(1.0 10 )
2.6 106 Nm 2
Since the pressure increases by 1.0 104 Nm2 for every meter,
Depth below the surface =
2.6 106 Nm2

2.6 102 m
4
2
1.0 10 (Nm ) / m
Correct Option: (2)
Question 17: An inductance L and a resistance R are connected in series to an ideal battery. A switch in
the circuit is closed at time t = 0, when the current is zero. The rate of increase of the energy stored in the
inductor is the maximum
(1) just after the switch is closed.
(2) at time t L / R after the switch is closed.
(3) at time t 2L / R after the switch is closed.
(4) at time t ( L / R) ln 2 after the switch is closed.
Solution: The transient current in an LR circuit is given by
V
t
i 1 exp
R
L / R
di V
t
exp
dt L
L/R
or
Energy stored in the inductor is given by
1
E Li 2
2
Rate of change of energy,
dE
di V 2
t
t
Li
exp
1 exp
dt
dt R
L / R
L / R
d2 E
V2
t
t
exp
1 2exp
2
dt
L
L / R
L / R
Now, for
dE
to be maximum,
dt
or
d2 E
0
dt 2
V2
t
t
exp
1 2exp
0
L
L / R
L / R
t 1
exp
L/R 2
t
ln 2
L/R
L
t ln 2
R
Correct Option: (4)
Question 18: The water in a glass kept on a table has a mass of 0.25 kg. It has the same temperature as
the room, which is 27C. A Carnot refrigerator is operating in this room. The water is put in the
refrigerator, the inside of which is maintained at 3C. How much work is done by the refrigerator in
cooling the water from 27C to 3C? Take the specific heat capacity of water to be 4.18 103 J kg 1K 1 .
(1) 2.2 kJ
(2) 6.7 kJ
(3) 8.3 kJ
(4) 5.9 kJ
Solution: For a refrigerator,
QC W QH
W QH QC
QC is the heat extracted from the cold reservoir; the water, in this case. So,
QC = mcT = (0.25kg)(4.18103 J kg1K 1 )(27 3) = 25103 J
Since its a Carnot refrigerator,
QH TH
QC TC
QH
TH
QC
TC
300
(25 103 )
276
27.2 103 J
Thus, work done by the refrigerator in cooling the water from 27C to 3C will be
W QH QC
2.2 103 J
2.2 kJ
Correct Option: (1)
Question 19: An ultraviolet lamp emits light of wavelength 400 nm at the rate of 400 W. An infrared
lamp emits light of wavelength 700 nm, also at the rate of 400 W. Which lamp emits photons at the
greater rate and by how much?
(1) UV, 8 1020 s 1
(2) UV, 6 1020 s 1
(4) IR, 6 1020 s 1
(3) IR, 8 1020 s 1
Solution: Since both lamps are emitting energy at the same rate (400 W), the energy emitted per second
by both is equal. The ultraviolet (UV) light has higher frequency, and hence its photons have higher
energy (since, E h ) than the photons of the infrared (IR) light. This means that the IR lamp emits
more number of photons per second.
Number of photons emitted per second by the UV lamp
N UV
400 4001
h 1
hc
Number of photons emitted per second by the IR lamp
400 400 2
h 2
hc
So, the IR lamp emits photons at a higher rate. The difference in number of photons emitted per second
by the IR lamp and UV lamp is
N IR
N N IR N UV
400 2
4001
hc
hc
400(700 400) 10 9
(6.63 1034 )(3 108 )
6.03 1020 s 1
Correct Option: (4)
Question 20: Seven 5 ohm resistors are connected in a circuit with a 10 volt battery and ammeter as
shown in the figure. The ammeter will read
(1) 5 A
(3) 3 A
(2) 0.5 A
(4) 0.3 A
Solution: Since five 5 ohm resistors between points A and B are connected in a Wheatstone bridge,
current through diagonal resistance of 5 ohm will be zero.
So, between points A and B, there are 3 sets of (5 + 5) ohm = 10 ohm resistors in parallel
combination.
So, equivalent resistance =10/3 ohm.
Current in the circuit
I
V
10
3 A
R (10 / 3)
Correct Option: (3)

Question 21: A particle moving with a velocity of (4i j ) ms1 strikes a fixed smooth wall and finally
moves with a velocity of (3i 2 j ) ms 1 . The coefficient of restitution between the wall and the particle
in the collision will be
3
7
(1)
(2)
7
3
(3)
13
17
(4)
17
13
Solution: Impulse due to collision = m vf vi = m(3 i + 2 j 4 i + j ) = m( i + 3 j ) N s.

Impulse will act along the outward normal of the wall. As the wall is smooth so the unit vector along the
10 .
inward normal to the wall is i 3 j
Now we take dot product of initial and final velocities with unit vector to find the components of
velocites along unit vector. The coefficient of restitution will be
v2, n v1, n
u2, n u1, n
or
3i 2 j i 3 j
4i j i 3 j
36
43
3
7
10 0
10 0
Correct Option: (1)

Question 22: In an experiment to determine acceleration due to gravity g, the length of the pendulum is
measured as 95 cm by a scale of least count 1 cm. The time period of oscillation is measured by a stop
watch having a least count of 1 s. For 40 oscillations, the time was found to be 78 s. The value of g is best
expressed as
(1) (9.8 0.4) ms2
(2) (9.8 0.2) ms2
2
(3) (9.8 0.3) ms
(4) (9.8 0.1) ms2
Solution: For a simple pendulum, the time period is given by
l
g
Given that time period of an oscillation is T = 78 / 40 1.95s.
Rearranging and substituting in the equation:
4 2 l
T 2
T2
4 (3.14)2 0.95
1.95 1.95
9.85 m s 2 9.8 m s 2
Permissible error in calculation
g l 2T
g
l
T
1 2 1
g 9.8
95 78
9.8(0.01 0.03)
9.8(0.04)
0.4 m s 2
g (9.8 0.4) ms 2
Therefore,
Correct Option: (1)
Question 23: A solid spherical region of radius R having a spherical cavity with diameter R, as shown in
the figure given below, has a total charge Q. The potential at a point P is
(1)
(3)
Q 7 x 4R
(2)
14 0 x 2 x R
4Q 7 x 4 R
(4)
21 0 x 2 x R
Q 7 x 4R
21 0 x 2 x R
2Q 7 x 4 R
7 0 x 2 x R
Solution: Charge density
Q
6Q
3
7
R3
4
R
3
R
3
2
Using the superposition principle, the potential at point P will be

3
4 3 4 R

R
3
3
2
R
1
1
V
R 3 0 x
R
4 0 x
4 0 x
8 x
2
2
R3 4 2 x R x
R3 1
1
3 0 x 4 2 x R 3 0 4 x 2 x R
R3 7 x 4 R
R3 1
1
3 0 x 4 2 x R 3 0 4 x 2 x R
(1)
R3 7 x 4R
V
12 0 x 2 x R
or
(2)
Substituting value of from Eq. (1) in Eq. (2) we get
3
Q 7 x 4R
6Q R 7 x 4 R
3
7 R 12 0 x 2 x R 14 0 x 2 x R
Correct Option: (1)

Question 24: A heated body emits radiation which has maximum intensity at frequency 700 THz . Which
of the following is true for the maximum intensity of the emitted radiation to be at 450 THz ?
(1) The temperature of the body must be increased by 50%
(2) The temperature of the body must be lowered by 36%
(3) The temperature of the body must be increased by 28%
(4) The temperature of the body must be lowered by 45%
Solution: According to Wiens displacement law,
T = constant
or
1T1 2T2
Therefore,

T2 T1 1
2

T1 2
1
450
T1
700
0.64 T1
Thus, T2 is 36% lower than T1 .
Correct Option: (2)
Question 25: A hollow cylindrical conductor (inner radius = a, outer radius = b) carries a current i
uniformly spread over its cross-section. Then which of the graphs given below correctly represents B as a
function of the distance r from the center of the cylinder?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: The solution can be found using Amperes law.

For r a , we have B 0.
For a r b , we have
B(2 r ) 0 J ( r 2 a 2 )
B
For r b , we have
0 J ( r 2 a 2 )
2r
B(2 r ) 0 J ( b 2 a 2 )
B
0 J (b 2 a 2 )
2r
It is given that the current density J is constant. Thus, the correct graphical representation is given in
option (3).
Correct Option: (3)

Question 26: A canon fires a projectile, as shown in the figure below. The dashed line shows its
trajectory in the absence of gravity.
Points N, O and P correspond to the position of the projectile at one second intervals. If g 10ms2 , the
lengths X, Y, Z are
(1) 5 m, 10 m, 15 m
(2) 5 m, 20 m, 45 m
(3) 10 m, 40 m, 90 m
(4) 10 m, 20 m, 30 m
Solution: It is implicitly stated in the question that the reason why the projectile follows a parabolic path
and not the path along the dashed line is because of the presence of gravity. So, at any instant, the
difference between a point on the dashed line and the corresponding point on the parabolic trajectory is
the height fallen by the projectile due to gravity, which is given by
1
h gt 2 .
2
Thus, the three lengths are
1
X g (1)2 5m
2
1
Y g (2)2 20m
2
and
1
Z g (3)2 45m
2
Correct Option: (2)
Question 27: The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an -particle are x1 and x2,
respectively. What will be the energy Q released in the following reaction?
2
2
42 He Q
1 H 1 H
(1) 4(x1 + x2)
(2) 4(x2 x1)
(3) 2(x1 + x2)
(4) 2(x2 xl)
Solution: Binding energy of reacting nuclei is
2 2 x1 4 x1
Binding energy of product nucleus is 4x2 .
We have to find the energy released (Q) which can be calculated as
Q = Binding energy of product nucleus Binding energy of reacting nuclei
That is,
Q 4 x2 4 x1 4( x2 x1 )
Correct Option: (2)

Question 28: An artificial Earth satellite is moved from a circular orbit having radius R to another
circular orbit having radius 2R . During this movement, which of the following is true?
(1) The gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the satellite decreases, and the
potential energy of the Earthsatellite system increases.
(2) The gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and the
potential energy of the Earthsatellite system increases.
(3) The gravitational force does positive work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and the
potential energy of the Earthsatellite system decreases.
(4) The gravitational force does negative work, the kinetic energy of the satellite increases, and the
potential energy of the Earthsatellite system decreases.
Solution: In the orbit of radius R , the kinetic energy of the satellite is
GMm
KR
2R
Potential energy of the Earthsatellite system is
GMm
UR
R
and total energy will be
TER K R U R
GMm GMm
2R
R
GMm
2R
In an orbit of radius 2R , the potential energy of Earthsatellite system is
GMm
U2R
2R
Kinetic energy of the satellite is
GMm
K2 R
4R
Total energy is
TE2 R K 2 R U 2 R
GMm GMm
4R
2R
GMm
4R
So, when an artificial Earth satellite is moved from a circular orbit having radius R to another circular
orbit having radius 2R :
The potential energy increases
The kinetic energy decreases
The total energy increases. This means that positive work has been done by an external agent,
which in turn means that negative work has been done by the gravitational force.
Correct Option: (1)
Question 29: At which point is the potential the highest in the circuit shown in the figure given below.
(1) A
(3) C
(2) B
(4) D
Solution: Battery creates potential difference, therefore to write down potentials of different points, we
have to start by assuming potential at some point to be zero. Let us say that the potential at point C is
zero. So,
VC 0V
The potential at point B will be
VB VC 3E
VB 3E VC
3E 0
3E
The potential at point A will be
VA VB 2 E
VA 2 E VB
2 E 3E
5E
The potential at point D will be
VD VA E
VD E VA
E 5E
4E
Clearly, the potential is highest at point A.
Correct Option: (1)
Question 30: Three light waves travel through a certain point P along the x-axis. They are polarized
parallel to the y-axis, with the following variations in their amplitudes.
E1 (10.0 Vm1 ) sin[(2.0 1014 rads1 ) t ]
E2 (5.00 Vm1 ) sin[(2.0 1014 rads1 ) t 45.0]
E3 (5.00 Vm1 ) sin[(2.0 1014 rads1 ) t 45.0]

What will be the amplitude and phase angle of their resultant at P?
(1) Amplitude = 20.0 Vm1 ; phase angle = 45.0
(2) Amplitude = 17.1 Vm1 ; phase angle = 0

(3) Amplitude = 10.0 Vm1 ; phase angle = 45.0
(4) Amplitude = 20.0 Vm1 ; phase angle = 0
Solution:
Since the light wave is polarized, we can add the three light waves using phasors.
The resultant will be directed along the x-axis. Its phase angle, 0.
The resultant amplitude
E 10.0 5.00cos45 5.00cos45 17.1 Vm1
Correct Option: (2)
Part B Chemistry
Question 1: Which of following compounds is a reducing sugar?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: Monosaccharides with hemiacetal (or hemiketal) linkages are in equilibrium with the openchain structures in aqueous solution and are therefore, reducing sugars. Monosaccharides with acetal (or
ketal) linkages are not in equilibrium with the open-chain aldehyde (or ketone) in neutral or basic aqueous
solutions, and hence are non-reducing.
Compound in option (3) contains OHCOR structure (hemiketal linkage), so, it is a reducing sugar.
Correct Option: (3)

Question 2: Which one of the following compounds is non-polar?
(1) CHCl3
(2) SiCl4
(3) SnCl2
(4) NH3
Solution: Molecules with either non-polar bonds or symmetric polar bonds are non-polar.
Cl
Si
Cl
Cl
Cl
(net moment = downward)

. .
..
Sn
H
Cl
(net moment = 0)
Cl
(net moment = upward)
H
H
(net moment = upward)
In SiCl4, the bond moments are cancelled out completely so the net dipole moment is zero and the
molecule is non-polar.
Correct Option: (2)
o
32 mm Hg and
Question 3: Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 300 K, ptoluene
o
pbenzene
103 mm Hg. A liquid mixture is composed of 3 mol of toluene and 2 mol of benzene. On
reducing pressure isothermally over the mixture at 300 K, the mixture vaporizes in a certain range of
pressure. The mole fraction of benzene in the last drop of liquid left is
(1) 0.17
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.68
Solution: On decreasing pressure over the liquid mixture, the first vapor occurs at 60.4 mm Hg. Further
decrease in pressure increases the vapor content of the mixture. Finally, when the last drop of liquid is
left, its vapor phase contains almost the same composition as it was for liquid phase in the beginning.
2
The initial mole fractions for benzene 0.4; and for toluene 0.6.
5
For the vapor phase in equilibrium with the last liquid drop, mole fractions: yB 0.4; yT 0.6
From Raoults law and Daltons law for liquid-vapour equilibria, the mole fraction of benzene in liquid
and vapor phases are related by
po po 1
1
1
32 32 1
1 To To
1
xB 0.17
yB
pB pB xB
0.4 103 103 xB
Correct Option: (1)
Question 4: Which of the following cations will have the same color in aqueous solution with the color
of aqueous solution of Pm3+ (atomic number = 61)?
(1) Eu3+ (63)
(2) Tb3+ (65)
(3) Yb3+ (70)
(4) Ho3+ (67)
Solution:
The ions having nf n and nf14n configuration will have similar color (expected) because they have the
same number of unpaired electrons.
Pm3+: [Xe] 4f 4, that is,
four unpaired electrons.
The electronic configurations of other ions are as follows:
Ho3+: [Xe] 4f 10, that is, four unpaired electrons.
Eu3+: [Xe] 4f 6, that is,
six unpaired electrons.
Yb3+: [Xe] 4f 13, that is,

Tb3+: [Xe] 4f 8, that is,
Correct Option: (4)
one unpaired electrons.
six unpaired electrons.
Question 5: Which of the following compounds contains the maximum number of lone pairs at the
central atom in its best Lewis structure?
(1) XeO3
(2) ClO2
(3) SOCl2
(4) IO 4
Solution: After sharing three electrons with three oxygen atoms, two electrons are left as non-bonding
electrons on Xe in XeO3, so only one lone pair exists on the central atom.
..
Xe
:O
..
:O
..
:O
..
In ClO 2 , chlorine shares three electrons with two oxygen atoms, four electrons are left as non-bonding
electrons on Cl, so two lone pairs exist on the central atom.
..
: Cl
:O
.. :
O..:
In SOCl2 sulphur shares two electrons with oxygen and one with each chlorine atom, two electrons are
left as non-bonding, so only one lone pair exists on the central atom.
..
S
:O
..
: Cl
.. :
:Cl
.. :
In IO 4 , iodine shares two electrons each with three oxygen atoms and one electron with one oxygen
atom, so no electron is left as non-bonding and zero lone pairs exist on the central atom.
..
O:
I
:O
.. :
:O:
O:
..
Correct Option: (2)

Question 6: Hydrogen peroxide solution can be purchased in drug stores for use as an antiseptic. A
sample of such a solution weighing 1.0 g was acidified with H 2SO4 and titrated with a 0.2 M solution of
KMnO4. The ionic equation for the reaction is H MnO4 H2O2 Mn 2 O2 H2O .
The titration required 17.6 ml of KMnO 4 solution. The percentage of H2O2 in the sample is
(1) 30%
(2) 12%
(3) 24%
(4) 60%
Solution: The balanced equation for the redox reaction is
6H 2MnO4 5H2O2 2Mn 2 5O2 8H2O
Moles of KMnO4 used 17.6 0.2 3.52 mmol
So, from balanced chemical equation,
5
2
5
2
Moles of H2O2 reacted Moles of KMnO4 3.52 8.8 mmol

Therefore, mass of H2O2 in 1 g sample = 8.8 34 = 299.2 mg
The percentage of H2O2 in the sample =
299.2
100 29.92% 30%
1000
Alternate solution: For the given redox reaction:

gm equivalents of H2O2 = gm equivalents of KMnO4
Moles of H 2O2 2 Moles of KMnO4 5
17.6 0.2
5
1000
So, moles of H2O2 8.8 103 .

Therefore,
Correct Option: (1)
Mass of H2O2 in 1g sample 8.8 103 34 0.299 g

Percentage 0.299 100 30%
Question 7: The amount of H2 gas produced by the reaction,
CH4 (g) 2H2S(g)

can be increased by
CS2 (g) 4H2 (g) Heat
(I) increasing pressure.

(III) increasing volume of container.
(1) I and II only
(3) I, II and III only
(II) increasing temperature.

(IV) adding inert gas by keeping volume constant.
(2) II and III only
(4) I, II, III and IV
Solution: CH4 (g) 2H2S(g) CS2 (g) 4H2 (g) Heat

In this reaction, gaseous moles are increasing and sign of heat is indicating that reaction is endothermic.
So, the production of hydrogen gas can be increased by changing any factor which will shift the
equilibrium to the right hand side. This equilibrium will shift to the right hand side if pressure is
decreased or volume of the container is increased.
Since reaction is endothermic, increasing the temperature will increase the production of hydrogen gas.
Adding inert gas at constant volume will not affect the partial pressure of gases inside the container, so no
change is observed.
Correct Option: (2)
Question 8: Which of the following complexes will cause the lowest depression in freezing point?
(1) CoCl33NH3
(2) CoCl34NH3
(3) CoCl36NH3
(4) CoCl35NH3
Solution: The coordination number of Co3+ is 6, and no NH3 molecule can be present outside the
coordination sphere as solvent of crystallization. Hence,
CoCl3 3NH3 [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] Number of particles produced in solution = 1
CoCl3 4NH3 [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]Cl Number of particles produced in solution = 2
CoCl3 5NH3 [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 Number of particles produced in solution = 3
CoCl3 6NH3 [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3 Number of particles produced in solution = 4
Any colligative property Number of particles in solution
Correct Option: (1)
Question 9: Out of the following, which element is not paramagnetic in its ground state? [Given: atomic
number of Cu = 29, Cd = 48, Se = 34, Au = 79]
(1) Cu
(2) Se
(3) Cd
(4) Au
Solution: Copper: The electronic configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1. It contains one unpaired
electron, so it is paramagnetic.
Selenium: The electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p4, so it contains two unpaired electrons and will
show paramagnetism.
Cadmium: The electronic configuration is [Kr] 4d10 5s2, so no unpaired electrons exist; hence, it will not
be paramagnetic.
Gold: It belongs to the copper family, so the electronic configuration is [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s1. This one
unpaired electron will show paramagnetism.
Correct Option: (3)
Question 10: Consider the reaction given below:
The final major product of the reaction is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: The reactant involved in the reaction contains highly deactivating nitro groups, so electrophilic
substitution is not possible at benzene ring in this case. Since it contains a good leaving group (Cl)
nucleophilic substitution reaction will take place.
The nucleophile in this reaction is hydroxide ion, so HO will substitute the chlorine atom from the
benzene ring.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 11: For a reaction A Pr oduct ; [A] is plotted against time as shown in the figure given
below:
The rate of reaction after 15 min is

(1) 1.2 103 Mmin 1
(2) 2.67 103 Mmin 1
(3) 6.67 103 Mmin 1
(4) 1.33 103 Mmin 1
Solution: Since the graph is not linear, so, average rate and instantaneous rates are different.
Here we need to calculate instantaneous rate after 15 min.
For the given reaction,
d[A]
Rate
dt
which is indicated by the slope of the graph at point P. The slope can be calculated by drawing tangent
line at point P. We need two points on this tangent line to find the slope.
The two points are (0, 0.03) and (15, 0.01). Therefore,
0.01 0.03
Rate
1.33 103 M min 1
15 0
Correct Option: (4)
Question 12: Choose the correct options from the following orders:
(1) Basicity order: NH3 > NH2NH2 > NH2OH > NF3
(2) Melting point order: NH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3
(3) Boiling point order: NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(4)Thermal stability: NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
Solution: Option (1) is correct as all the three bond pairs are attracted towards N-atom and increase the
electron density on N-atom in the case of NH3. While in the case of NH2NH2, bond pair is not attracted
towards any N-atom; for NH2OH oxygen withdraws the bond pair towards itself; and finally in NF3, three
F-atom having I effect decrease the electron density on N-atom.
Option (2) is incorrect as due to H-bonding in NH3, the effective molecular mass increases, and
overcomes all other molecular masses. Thus, the melting point is highest in NH 3.
Option (3) is incorrect as at the boiling point temperature, the extent of H-bonding is less and cannot
overcome the molecular weight of SbH3.
Option (4) is incorrect as the thermal stability depends upon bond energy of MH bond, which is the
highest (shortest bond length) for NH3 and thus it has the highest stability.
Correct Option: (1)

Question 13: The structure of metals can be explained by close packing of metal atoms. In structure of an
unknown metal (M), atoms are found to be packed in fcc lattice. Also, the effective radius of atoms is
1.414 . If its density is found to be 5.8 g cm3, the atomic mass of metal is
(1) 55.8
(2) 111.6
(3) 37.2
(4) 30.1
Solution: Since metal atoms are packed in fcc,
2a 4 R a
4R
2
4 1.414
2
4 where a is the unit
cell edge length and R is the radius of the sphere.

In fcc lattice, the number of atoms per unit cell (z) = 4,
So, atomic mass of metal is found as
d a3 N A
zM
d 3
M
a NA
z
M
5.8 (4 108 )3 6.022 1023

55.8 g mol1
4
Correct Option: (1)

Question 14: Which of the following products is not possible when cyclohexene reacts with bromine in
the presence of brine?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: Brine is 10% aqueous solution of NaCl, so the reaction mixture contains Br2, Cl and H2O, out
of which Br2 can initiate the reaction since the first step of addition is electrophilic in nature. For the
second step, a nucleophile is required for which Br, Cl and H2O are available and lead to the following
products.
Formation of 1,2-dichlorocyclohexane is not possible in this reaction since the first step in the addition to
double bond involves an electrophilic attack and chlorine is not available as Cl+ (electrophile) in the
reaction mixture.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 15: Which one of the following represents the order of the decreasing sizes in the given four
isoelectronic species?
(1) F > N3 > O2 > C4
(2) C4 > N3 > O2 > F
(3) N3 > C4 > F > O2
(4) O2 > N3 > C 4 > F
Solution: We have
Element
C
N
O
F
Nuclear Charge
(Number of Protons)
6
7
8
9
Number of
Electrons
10
10
10
10
The order of ionic sizes is C4 > N3 > O2 > F . For the isoelectronic species, greater the nuclear charge
(number of protons), lesser is the ionic or atomic size.
Correct Option: (2)
Question 16: Phenol gives broad spectrum of reactions because OH group makes benzene ring very
reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction. It reacts even with neutral electrophiles. Which of the
following reaction involves carbenes as electrophile?
(1) Gattermann reaction
(2) Reaction of phenol with HCHO in presence of acid
(3) Kolbe-Schmidt reaction
(4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Solution: Carbenes are electron-deficient neutral species due to which they act as electrophiles. Carbene
is formed during Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophiles involved in Kolbe-Schmidt, Gattermann
and chloromethylation of phenols are CO 2 (neutral), HCNH+ and H2C=OH+, respectively. The detailed
mechanism is as follows:
Correct Option: (4)

Question 17: Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the complete conversion of K2MnO4 to
KMnO4?
2KMnO4 MnO2 4KOH
(1) 3K2 MnO4 2H2O
(2) 2K2 MnO4 +Cl2 2KMnO4 +2KCl
(3) 2K2 MnO4 +O3 +H2O 2KMnO4 +2KOH+ O2
(4) Both (2) and (3)

Solution: Option (1) is incorrect because from three moles of KMnO4 only two moles K MnO4 are
formed, that is, conversion ratio is 66% , when the reaction is irreversible. Since the reaction is
reversible, the conversion ratio is even less than 66%. About one-third of Mn is lost as MnO2.
In options (2) and (3), the conversion ratio is almost 100%.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 18: Which of the following amines is least basic?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: The basicity of amines depends on the lone pair available on nitrogen atom. In benzyl amine,
lone pair is easily available since this lone pair is not delocalized over benzene ring. Also the nitrogen
atom is in sp3 hybridized state, so it is the most basic, even more basic than pyridine in which nitrogen
atom is sp2 hybridized. Increasing s-character in hybridization decreases basicity.
From the given options, however, p-nitroaniline is a weak base because nitrogens lone pair is delocalized
in the benzene ring. In pyrrole, nitrogens lone pair is involved in aromaticity and least available for
protonation. This effect makes it least basic among the given compounds.
Correct Option: (2)
Question 19: Select the correct product formed when cyclohexanone reacts with aqueous sodium
hydroxide at 100C?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: It is an aldol condensation of cyclohexanone followed by dehydration.
Correct Option: (4)

Question 20: A real gas obeys the equation of state p(V nb) = nRT where b is van der Waals constant
and R is the gas constant. If the pressure and temperature are such that the molar volume of the gas is 10b,
what is the value of compressibility factor?
(1) 10/9
(2) 8/9
(3) 12/11
(4) 10/11
Solution: We know that
(where Vm = V/n)
p(V nb) nRT p(Vm b) RT
The compressibility factor is given by
pV
pb
Z m 1
RT
RT
Suppose pressure and temperature are p and T when its molar volume is 10b, then
p
1
1
p(Vm b) RT
RT 10b b 9b
pb
1 10
Z 1
1
or
RT
9 9
Correct Option: (1)
Question 21: Find the ligand having the highest denticity from the following options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution
Denticity is the number of donor groups from a given ligand attached to the same central atom. The
denticity of compound (1) = 2; (2) = 3; (3) = 4; (4) = 2.
Correct Option: (3)
Question 22: Which of the following pair of alcohols can be distinguished by Victor-Meyer test?
(1) Methanol and ethanol
(2) Ethanol and 1-propanol
(3) 2-Pentanol and 3-pentanol
(4) 1-Propanol and 2-propanol
Solution: Victor-Meyer test is used to distinguish between 1, 2 and 3 alcohols.
Methanol, ethanol and 1-propanol are 1 alcohols and 2-pentanol, 2-butanol and 3-pentanol are 2
alcohols. So, 1-propanol and 2-propanol can be distinguished by Victor-Meyer test since these alcohols
have different degrees.
Correct Option: (4)
N2 H4 NH4+ , which of the following statements is

Question 23: For the reaction: NH3 N2 H5+
correct?
(1) N 2 H5+ is acting as base and ammonia is acting as acid.
(2) NH +4 is the conjugate base of N 2 H5+ .
(3) N2H4 is the conjugate base of NH3.
(4) N 2 H5+ is the conjugate acid of N2H4.
Solution: According to Brnsted, any compound which can furnish H+ ions is an acid and the compound
which can accept H+ ions is a base. So, acid and base actions are just opposite to each other. Also,
removal of one H+ from any compound produces its conjugate base and addition of H + produces its
conjugate acid.
N2 H4 NH4+ , ammonia is gaining protons, and hence acting as a
In the equilibrium, NH3 N2 H5+
base. Similarly, N 2 H5 is losing protons, so it is acting as an acid. In this way, conjugate acid of ammonia
is NH 4 and conjugate base of N 2 H5 is N2H4. So, N 2 H5+ is the conjugate acid of N2H4.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 24: Which one of the following is classified as a copolymer?
(1) Dacron
(2) Polyacrylonitrile
(3) Teflon
(4) Polyvinylacetate
Solution: Copolymers are the polymers which are formed by polymerization of two or more than two
different monomers. Polymers formed by single type of monomers are called homopolymers.
Out of the given options, only Dacron is formed by two monomers, ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid,
so, it is a copolymer.
Correct Option: (1)
Question 25: Calculate the number of photons of green light with wavelength 560 nm that can be
observed by human eye. Note that 2.5 107 J of light energy is required by the interior part of human
eye.
(1) 7 109
(2) 7 1013
(3) 7 1011
(4) 7 106
Solution: Energy of one photon, E h
hc
Light energy required by the eye = 2.5 10 J

6.636 1034 3 108 m s 1

560 109 m
Number of photons
Total energy required

2.5 107 J
7.03 1011
Energy of one photon 6.636 1034 J s 3 108 m s 1
560 109 m
Correct Option: (3)

Question 26: Under the right conditions, ammonia can be converted to nitrogen monoxide, NO, by the
following reaction: NH3 O2 NO H2O
How many grams of H2O could be formed from a mixture of 51 g of NH 3 and 48 g of O2?
(1) 32.4 g
(2) 81 g
(3) 27 g
(4) 54 g
Solution: First of all we need balanced chemical equation for these type of calculations.
4NH3
5O2 4NO 6H 2O
51
48
Moles
3 mol
1.5 mol
17
32
The limiting reagent in the reaction is O 2, since it will be consumed completely in the reaction. Therefore,
Mass of water produced
6
1.5 18 32.4 g
5
Correct Option: (1)

Question 27: What current would be required to deposit 1.00 m2 of chrome plate having a thickness of
0.052 mm in 4.5 h from a solution of H2CrO4? The current efficiency is 74% and density of chromium is
7.19 g cm3. [At. wt. of Cr = 52 u.]
(1) 347 A
(2) 185 A
(3) 125 A
(4) 0.25 A
Solution: We know that
Mass of Cr deposited Volume Density (1104 cm2 0.052 101 cm) 7.19 g cm3 52 7.19 g
Oxidation state of Cr in H2CrO4 = +6 Cr 6 6e Cr
Therefore, 1 mol or 52 g of Cr is reduced by 6 mol electrons or 6F charge. Hence,
6F
52 7.19 C
52
(6 F / 52) 52 7.19
or
Q it i
256.9 A 257 A
4.5 60 60
257
Current efficiency is 74%, so the actual current required is
347.3 A 347 A .
0.74
52 7.19 g would deposit by
Correct Option: (1)

Question 28: Consider the structures given below, the pair which represents the resonance structures of
each other is
(1)
and
(2)
and
(3)
and
(4)
and
Solution: For two structures to be in resonance only movement of electrons takes place but there should
be no change in the skeleton of the molecule.
The structures given in option (3) are resonance hybrids of each other since they satisfy both the
conditions.
However, in structures given in options (1),(2) and (4), the position of hydrogen atom changes, so the
molecule undergoes a change in the skeleton of the structure. Hence, these pairs do not represent
resonance structures. In option (3), there is only delocalization of electrons in both structures, and no
change in the skeleton of structure is observed; so both represent the resonance structures.
Correct Option: (3)
Question 29: Calculate the maximum work that could be obtained at 25C and 1 atm by burning 1 mol of
C2H5OH.
[Given: Gfo (C2 H5OH(l)) 174.8 kJ mol1 ; Gfo (CO2 (g)) 137.3 kJ mol1 ;
Gfo (H2O(l)) 237.2 kJ mol1 and Gfo (H2O(g)) 228.6 kJ mol1 ]

(1) 785.6 kJ
(2) 200 kJ
(3) 549.3 kJ
(4) 811.4 kJ
Solution: The combustion equation: C2 H5OH(l) 3O2 (g) 2CO2 (g) 3H2O(l)
o
Grxn
2 Gfo (CO2 (g)) 3 Gfo (H 2O(l)) Gfo (C2 H5OH(l))
2 (137.3) 3 (237.2) 174.8 811.4 kJ

The maximum work which can be obtained by this combustion is equal to the negative of its free energy
change (Wmax = G). So, the work obtained from it is 811.4 kJ.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 30: Which of the following compounds can be prepared by free radical halogenation without
complication by formation of isomeric by-products?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution: Option (3): In cyclopentane, all hydrogen atoms are equivalent, so only one product is
produced on chlorination.
Option (1): Although bromination is more selective than chlorination for substitution of particular
hydrogen atom, but 1,4-dimethylcyclohexane contains 1, 2 and 3 hydrogen atoms out of which 2 and
3 hydrogen atom would participate in the reaction and mixture of isomers is produced.
Option (4): n-pentane also contains two types of 2 hydrogen atoms, so, a mixture of at least two isomeric
forms is produced. Option (2): In the case of bromination of 2-methylhexane, mixture of structural as well
as optical isomers is produced since it contains 2 and 3 hydrogen atoms for bromination.
Correct Option: (3)
Part C Mathematics
Question 1: The condition ( p q) p is
(1) a contradiction
(2) a tautology
(3) neither a tautology nor contradiction
(4) equivalent to (~ p ~ q)
Solution: Truth table of ( p q) p is given as follows:

p
T
T
F
F
q
T
F
T
F
pq
T
F
F
F
( p q) p
T
T
T
T
Hence, ( p q) p is a tautology.
Correct Option: (2)
Question 2: Consider a set of 25 observations: x1, x2, , x25 whose mean and standard deviation are 20
and 5, respectively. Later on, it is noticed that x25 is taken as 25 instead of 50, the actual standard
deviation is
(1) 6
(2) 59
(3) 26
(4) 69
Solution: We note that

2
1
1
1
xi 20,
xi2 xi 25
25
25
25
2
xi 500,
xi 25(25 400) 10625
Actual xi 500 25 50 525 and xi2 10,625 252 502 12,500 .

However, the actual variance is
2
1
1
(12,500) 525 500 212

25
25
500 441
59
Thus, the actual standard deviation = 59 .

Correct option: (2)
2
2
Question 3: The area enclosed between the curve y x (1 x) and x-axis is
1
1
(1) 30
(2) 15
8
(3) 15
(4)
1
15
Solution: The power of x is even, which implies that the power of (1x) is also even. Therefore,
2
2
y f ( x) touches x axis at x =0 or x =1 . Therefore, the graph of y x (1 x) is as shown in the following
figure:
So the area enclosed by the curve and the x-axis is given as,
1
x
0
(1 x) dx x 2 (1 x 2 2 x)dx
2
( x 2 x 4 2 x3 )dx
0
x3 x5 x 4

5
2 0
3
1 1 1

3 5 2
10 6 15 1
30
30
Correct Option: (1)

1 z
1 z
Question 4: If z = e , then find the value of

1 z
1 z
1
(1) 2
(2)
2
(3)1
(4) 4
n
(if z 1 ).
Solution: We have z = ei . Therefore,

1 z
1 ei
1 z
1 ei
n
1 ei i
e ei 1
1 ei
Therefore,
1 z
1 z
11 2
1 z
1 z
n
Correct Option: (1)

Question 5: Two numbers are selected at random from the naturals 1, 2, 3, ..., 100 and are multiplied
together. The probability that the product thus obtained is divisible by 3 (up to two places of decimals) is
(1) 0.65
(2) 0.55
(3) 0.45
(4) 0.35
100
C2 99 50 ways. A product of two positive
Solution: Two numbers can be selected from 100 in
integers is divisible if and only if at least one of them is divisible by 3 (since 3 is a prime).
Let E be the event that the product is divisible by 3. Let a and b be the selected numbers. Therefore, 3
divides ab if and only if either 3 divides a or 3 divides b. Among the numbers 1, 2, 3, , 100, there are
33 multiples of 3.
Now, E Event that none of a and b is divisible by 3 so that there are

Therefore,
67
C2 favourable cases to E.
P( E )
67
C2
100
C2
67 33
99 50
67
150
Hence,
P( E ) 1 P( E )
83
0.55
150
Correct Option: (2)

Question 6: Let n be a positive integer and R (a, b)
a b nm , where m and m 0 . Then
R is
(1) reflexive on
(2) symmetric
(3) transitive
(4) equivalence relation on
Solution: R is not reflexive, since (2, 2) R. Here, R is symmetric since
(a, b) R a b nm, where m
and m 0
b a n(m), where m and m 0

(b, a) R
R is not transitive, since (2, n 2) R and (n 2, 2) R, but (2, 2) .
Correct Option: (2)
Question 7: If the ellipse
a b
2
the value of
c2
x2
a
y2
b
1 (where a > b) and the hyperbola x2 y2 = c2 cut orthogonally, find
(1) 1
(3) 3
Solution: It is given that
(2) 2
(4) 4
x2
a2
y2
b2
1 . Differentiating with respect to x, we get
2x
a
2 y dy
0
b 2 dx
dy
x b2
2
dx
a y
dy
dx
b2 x
2 1
a y1
where we assume that the two curves intersect at point A(x1, y1).
Again, consider the curve x2 y2 = c. Differentiating with respect to x, we get
dy
0
dx
dy x1
(at point A( x1 , y1 )
dx y1
Since the two curves intersect orthogonally, the product of the slopes of the tangents drawn at the point
A(x1, y1) to both the curves must be 1.
So we get,
b x x
b2 x 2
(1)
2 1 1 2 12 1
a y1
a y1 y1
Since point of intersection of the two given curves is (x1, y1), we have
x12 y12
1and x12 y12 c 2

a 2 b2
x2 y 2 x2 y 2
12 12 1 2 1
a
b
c
2
(x / y )
1 ( x / y )2 1
(dividing throughout by y12 )
1 21 2 1 21 2
a
b
c
c
2x 2 y
x1 / y1 2
a
x
1
y1
( x1 / y1 )2
c a
2 2
a c
2
c
2
1
1
2 2
c
b
b2 c2
2 2
b c
x
(b2 c 2 )a 2 a 2 (b2 c 2 )
1 2 2
b (c a 2 ) b 2 ( a 2 c 2 )
y1
From Eqs. (1) and (2), we get

a 2 a 2 (b 2 c 2 ) b 2 a 2 b 2 c 2
2
2
2
1
b 2 b 2 (a 2 c 2 ) a 2
b a c
b2 c2 a 2 c2
b 2 a 2 2c 2
a 2 b 2 2c 2
Correct Option: (2)

Question 8: If 4sin 27 5 5 3 k , then find the value of k.
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7
2
Solution : We know that (cos sin ) 1 sin 2 . Therefore,
(2)
(cos 27 sin 27) 1 sin 54

1 cos 36
5 1
1
4
5 5
2
(1)
2
We also know that (cos sin ) 1 sin 2 . Therefore,
(cos 27 sin 27) 1 sin 54

1 cos 36
5 1
1
4
3 5
2
(2)
Subtracting Eq. (2) from Eq. (1), we get
4sin 27 5 5 3 5
Correct Option: (3)
Question 9: If a, b and c are chosen from the domain of f ( x) =
x 2 4x 2
C 2 x2 2 x 1 not necessarily all
distinct, then the probability that 0 (where is complex cube root of unity) is
1
2
(1)
(2)
6
9
1
2
(3)
(4)
3
9
a
Solution: We have
x 2 4x 2
C 2 x2 2 x 1
x + 4x +2, 2x + 2x 1 must be whole numbers and

2
0 2x2 + 2x 1 x2 + 4x + 2
x 2x 3 0
(x 3) (x + 1) 0
1 x 3
2
x + 4x + 2 0 x ( , 2 2 ] [ 2 2, )
2
2x2 + 2x 1 0 x ( ,
3 1
, 3
x
2
x {1, 2, 3}
a, b, c {1, 2, 3}
3 1
1 3
] [
, )
2
2
( 1 2 0 )
As a, b, c are not necessarily distinct, sample space is 3 3 = 27.

For a b c 0 , a, b and c must be distinct, that is, six cases.
6
2
=
Probability =
27 9
Correct Option: (2)
Question 10: Let a1 , a2 , a3 , be an arithmetic progression of positive real numbers. Then
1
1
1
a1 a2
a2 a3
an 1 an
(1)
n 1
a1 an
(2)
n 1
a1 an
(3)
n
a1 an
(4)
n
an a1
Solution:
a2 a1
a2 a1
a3 a2
a3 a2
a4 a3
a4 a3
an a n 1
an a n 1
a a1
an a1
n
(n 1)
an a1
n 1
an a1
Correct Option: (2)

Question 11: Sum of all four digit numbers whose all four digits are prime and non-repeated is
(1) 112233
(2) 113322
(3) 479952
(4) 119988
Solution: Only prime digits are 2, 3, 5, 7
Each digit at any place occurs 6 times hence sum of each column is
(2 +3 + 5 + 7) 3! = 17 6 = 102
Hence, the sum is given by 102 103 + 102 102 + 102 10 + 102
= 102 1111 = 113322
Correct Option: (2)
Question 12: Let A = [aij]33 , B = [bij]33 where bij = 3ijaij and C = [cij]33 where cij = 4ijbij be any three
matrices. If A 4, find B C .
(Note: X denotes determinant of matrix X.)
(1) 8
(2) 48
(3) 192
(4) 4
Solution: From the given data, we can write
a11
A a21
a
31
a13
a23 , A 4
a33
a12
a22
a32
a11
a11 31 a12 32 a13
B 3a21
a22
31 a23 3a21
32 a31 3a32
a
33
9a31
1
1
a12
a13
a11
12
144
1
C 12a21
a22
a23
12
a33
144a31 12a32
1
a12
3
a22
3a32
1
a13
9
1
a23
3
a33
Note that
|B| = |C| = |A|
Therefore,
|B| + |C| = 4 + 4 = 8
Correct Option: (1)
Question13: The equation of a plane which lies mid-way
( x 1) 2( y 2) 3( z 3) 0 and 2(x 2) 4( y 4) 6( z 6) 0 is
(1) 3x 6 y 9 z 70 0
(2) 3x 6 y 9 z 35 0
(3) x 2 y 3z 21 0
between
(4) x 2 y 3z 21 0
Solution: Given planes are
x 2 y 3z 14 0
and 2 x 4 y 6 z 56 0 or
x 2 y 3z 28 0
(1)
(2)
The mid-parallel plane given in Eqs. (1) and (2) is
14 28
x 2 y 3z
0
2
x 2 y 3z 21 0
(3)
Note
Any point on plane given in Eq. (3) is (0, 0, 7). Its distance from plane given in Eq. (1) is
0 0 21 14
1 2 3
2
7
14
14
Its distance from plane given in Eq. (2) is
0 0 21 28
1 2 3
2
the
planes
Correct Option: (3)

Question 14: For non-zero a, b and c which are real and distinct, the equation (a2 + b2)x2 2b(a + c)x +
b2 + c2 = 0 has non-zero real roots. Then, one of these roots is also the roots of the equation
(1) a 2 x2 a(b c) x bc 0
(2) a 2 x2 a(c b) x bc 0
(3) (b2 c2 ) x2 2a(b c) x a 2 0
(4) (b2 c2 ) x2 2a(b c) x a 2 0
Solution:
(a 2 b 2 ) x 2 2b(a c) x b 2 c 2 0
a 2 x 2 2abx b 2 b 2 x 2 2bcx c 2 0
(ax b) 2 (bx c) 2 0
As x is real and a, b and c are also real, we have

ax b 0
bx c 0
b c
x
a b
That is,
b2 ac
Hence, both roots are equal to
b
c
b
or . Moreover, also satisfies option (2), that is,
a
b
a
a2 x2 a(c b) x bc 0
Correct Option: (2)
x
Question 15: Evaluate: lim x( x ) .

x 0
(1) 0
(3) 1
(2) 1
(4) Does not exist
x
Solution: Let f lim x . Therefore,
x 0
ln f lim ln x x
x 0
ln f lim x ln x
x 0
(0 form)
ln x
form
x 0 1 / x
1/ x
lim
lim ( x) 0
x 0 (1 / x 2 )
x 0
lim
f e0 1
Therefore, the required limit is
lim x y ,
x 0
1
(0 )
Correct Option: (1)
y 1 as x 0
15
Question 16: Find approximate value of
f ( x) dx
by using piecewise linear function from the following
table:
x
f(x)
0
50
3
48
6
44
9
36
(1) 543
(3) 143
12
24
15
8
(2) 343
(4) 43
15
Solution: Assuming f(x) to be piecewise linear continuous function, we have
f ( x) dx, which is the

0
approximate area under the curve y = f(x) and x-axis. Using the data provided in the table, we can write as
f (0) f (3)
f (3) f (6)
f (6) f (9)
f (9) f (12)
f (12) f (15)
3
3
3
3
3
2
2
2
2
2
50 48 48 44 44 36 36 24 24 8
3
2
2
2
2
2
3 (49 46 40 30 16)
3 181 543
Correct Option: (1)
a 2 b2 c2
Question 17: In ABC, if R 2 R 2 cos A cos B cos C
, find the value of n.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8
Solution: We have
R2
(2cos A cos B)[cos ( ( A B))]
2
R2
R2
[cos( A B ) cos( A B )] [( cos( A B )]
2
R2
R2
[cos 2 ( A B) cos( A B) cos( A B )]
2
R2
R2
[cos 2 ( c) cos 2 A sin 2 B]
2
R2
R2
(cos 2 c cos 2 A sin 2 B)
2
R2
R2
[(1 sin 2 c) (1 sin 2 A) sin 2 B]
2
R2
R2 R2
(sin 2 A sin 2 B sin 2 C )
2
2
2
R
a
b2
c2
2 4R
4 R 2 4 R 2
1
(a 2 b 2 c 2 )
8
R 2 R 2 cos A cos B cos C R 2
Correct Option: (4)

Question 18: The sum of first 10 terms of an AP is 155, and the sum of the first 2 terms of a GP is 9. If
the first term of the AP is equal to the common ratio of GP and the first term of the GP is equal to the
common difference of AP, then the sum of the common difference of AP and the common ratio of GP is
(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 16
Solution: Let the first term of AP = Common ratio of GP = r and
the first term of GP = Common difference of AP = d
SAP 5(2r 9 d ) 155

SGP
Now,
d (1 r 2 )
9
1 r
2r 9d 31 and d (1 r ) 9
99
2r
31
(1 r )
2r 2r 2 81 31(1 r )
2r 2 29r 50 0
Therefore,
(1)
(2)
29 841 400
4
29 21
12.5 or 2
4
Substituting value of r in Eq. (1), we get

9
9
or 3
13.5
3
Therefore, the sum of the common difference of AP and the common ratio of GP is 3 + 2 = 5.
Correct Option: (2)
d
Question 19: Let a, b and c be non-coplanar vectors. Suppose A, B, C and D are four points with
position
vectors
a 4b 3c, 3a 2b 5c, 3a 8b 5c
AB xAC y AD, then

(1) x 1, y 1
(3) x 1, y 1
and
3a 2b c respectively.
If
(2) x 1, y 1
(4) x 1, y 1
Solution: We have
AB x AC y AD
4a 2b 2c x(2a 4b 2c) y (2a 2b 4c)
Equating the corresponding coefficients of both sides, we get
2 x 2 y 4
(1)
4 x 2 y 2
(2)
2 x 4 y 2
(3)
Solving Eqs. (1) and (2), we get that x 1 and y 1 which also satisfy Eq. (3).
Correct Option: (4)
Question 20: Let f be differentiable on R and f ' ( x) 3 x . If x, y ; which of the following is
always correct?
(1) f ( x) f ( y) 9 x y
(2) f ( x) f ( y) 6 x y
(3) f ( x) f ( y) 3 x y
(4) 3 x y f ( x) f ( y) 9 x y
Solution: According to mean value theorem on f, we can say that there is at least one number c in (x, y)
such that
f ( x) f ( y )
f ' (c )
x y
Given that f '(c) 3 . This implies that
f ( x) f ( y )
3
x y
f ( x) f ( y ) 3 x y
Correct Option: (3)
Question 21: Find the transformed form of the equation x 10 xy 3 y 0 if the origin is shifted to the point
(3, 5).
2
2
(1) X 3Y 10 XY 50 X 60Y 234 0
(2) X 2 3Y 2 10 XY 56 X 30Y 234 0
2
2
2
(3) X 3Y 10 XY 56 X 60Y 225 0
2
2
(4) X 3Y 10 XY 56 X 60Y 234 0
Solution: Substituting x 3 X and y 5 Y where ( x, y) represents the old coordinate system and
( X , Y ) represents the new coordinate system (see the following figures).
2
2
Now, x 10 xy 3 y 0 becomes
(3 X )2 10(3 X )(5 Y ) 3(5 Y ) 2 0

9 X 2 6 X 10 15 XY 5 X 3Y 3(25 Y 2 10Y ) 0
X 2 3Y 2 56 X 60Y 10 XY 234 0
X 2 3Y 2 10 XY 56 X 60Y 234 0
Correct Option: (4)
Question 22: If ( x ln x)2 dx

(1) 0
(3) 3
A 3
B
C 3
x (ln x)2 x3 (ln x)
x constant , then find A + B + C
3
9
27
(2) 1
(4) 5
Solution: We have
( x ln x)
t
dx
Let ln x = t; therefore, x = e and dx = e dt. Thus,

2
2t 2 t
( x ln x) dx e t e dt
e3t t 2 dt
Note: (et)2 = e2t, e2tet = e2t + t = e3t
Integration by parts gives
e3t
e3t
2t
dt
3
3
t 2 e3t 2 e3t
e3t
dt
3
3 3
3
I t 2 e3t dt t 2
I
II
t 2 e3t 2 3t 2 1 3t
te e c
3
9
9 3
x3 (ln x)2 2 3
2
x (ln x) ( x3 ) c
3
9
27
Therefore,
A + B + C = 1 2 + 2 = 1.
Correct Option: (2)
1 3 1 2
x x x 1 ; x 0
Question 23: If f ( x) 6
2
ex
; x0
which of the following statements is correct?

(1) f (x) is continuous at x = 0 but it is not differentiable at x = 0.
(2) f (x) is neither continuous nor differentiable for x = 0.
(3) f' (x) is not continuous at x = 0.
(4) f" (x) is continuous at x = 0.
1 3 1 2
x x x 1 ; x 0
Solution: f ( x) 6
2
ex
; x0
lim f ( x) 1
x 0
lim f ( x) lim e x 1
x 0
x 0
That is, f (0) = 1. Therefore, f ( x) is continuous at x = 0. Thus, option (2) is incorrect.

Let us consider
1 2
x x 1 ; x 0
= g(x)
f ( x) 2
x
e
; x0
f (0 h) f (0)
,h 0
h0
h
(h3 / 6) (h2 / 2) h 1 1
lim
h0
h
2
h
h
lim
1 1
h 0 6
2
Let us consider
f (0 ) lim
f (0 ) lim
h0
f (0 h) f (0)
,h 0
h
f (h) f (0)
h 0
h
3
(h / 6) (h2 / 2) h 1 1
lim
h 0
h
h2 h
lim 1 1
h 0 6
2
Therefore, f (0) 1 , that is, f ' (x) exists for x = 0. Now,

1 2
x x 1 ; x 0
g ( x) 2
ex
; x0
g(0) = g(0) = g(0+) = 1; therefore, g(x) is continuous at x = 0.

lim
Let us consider
x 1 ; x 0
g ( x) h( x) x
; x0
e
Therefore,
f (0) 1
g (0 h) g (0)
;h 0
h0
h
[(1 / 2)(h)2 ] h 1 1
lim
h0
h
h
lim
1 1
h 0 2
lim
Again let us consider

g (0 h) g (0)
;h 0
h0
h
(h2 / 2) h 1 1
h
= lim
lim 1 1
h
0
h 0
h
2
Therefore, g (0) 1 , that is, g'(0) exists. Thus,
g (0 ) lim
x 1 ; x 0
g ( x) x
; x0
e
= h(x)
(say)
Correct Option: (4)

1
Question 24: The greatest term in the expansion of 1
(1) T6
(2) T7
(3) T8
(4) T9
1
Solution: Let us consider the expansion of 1
20
is
20
as follows:
(20 1) 1 / 3
1 1/ 3
p 1.
Therefore
p
(20 1)(1 / 3)
1 (1 / 3)
21
3 1
7.686
which implies that T[p] + 1, that is, T8 is numerically greatest.

Correct Option: (3)
Question 25: If a, b and c are real and satisfy the equation a 2 9c2 6ac 4b2 0, then az by c 0
represents two family of concurrent lines. The distance between their points of concurrence is
2
4
(1)
(2)
3
3
3
7
(3)
(4)
4
3 3
Solution: Given that
a2 9c2 6ac 4b2 0
(a 3c)2 (2b)2 0
(a 3c 2b)(a 3c 2b) 0
a 2b 3c 0 or a 2b 3c 0
1
2
1
2
a bc0
a bc0
3
3
3
or 3
Point of concurrency is 1 , 2 or 1 , 2
3 3
3 3
Therefore, the distance between these points is
4
.
3
Correct Option: (2)

1 1
n
Question 26: If matrix A
, satisfies A = 5I 8A, then find the value of n.
1
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7
Solution: We have
1 1
A
1 2
Therefore,
1 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 1 1
A2
I A
1 2 1 2 1 3 0 1 1 2
Thus,
A3 = A A2 = A ( I A) = 2A I
A4 = 2A2 A = 2 (I A) A = 2I 3A
A5 = 2A 3A2 = 2A 3(I A ) = 5A 3I
A6 = 5A2 3A = 5(I A) 3A = 5I 8A
n6
Correct Option: (3)

Question 27: The angle between the tangents drawn from the point (1, 3) to the parabola y2 = 6x is
4 3
12
(1) tan 1
(2) tan 1
5
5
6
(3) tan 1
5
2 3
(4) tan 1
5
Solution: It is given that

y2 = 6x
3
4 x
2
Therefore,
a
3
2
(3 / 2)
touches the parabola y2 = 6x for all real values of m (m 0) . This tangent line
m
passes through the point (1, 3), which implies that
3
3m
2m
2m 2 6m 3 0
Let the roots of this equation be m1 and m2, then m1 + m2 = 3 and,
3
m1 m2 =
2
Let be the acute angle between the tangents, then
The line y mx
m m2
tan 1
1 m1m2
(m1 m2 )2 4m1m2
1 m1m2
96 2 3
3
5
1
2
2 3
tan 1
Correct Option: (4)

Question 28: The equation of the circle that touches y-axis at (0, 5) and passes through the point (5, 5) is
2
2
(1) x y 5x 10 y 25 0
2
2
(2) x y 5x 10 y 25 0
2
2
(3) x y 5x 10 y 25 0
2
2
(4) x y 10 x 5 y 25 0
Solution: Theorem: The equation of circle having diameter extremities as (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is
( x x1 )( x x2 ) ( y y1 )( y y2 ) 0
Since (0, 5) and (5, 5) are extremities of a diameter of the circle, the equation is expressed as
( x 0)( x 5) ( y 5)( y 5) 0
or
x2 y 2 5x 10 y 25 0
Note: If a circle touches y-axis at (0, 5), then the centre of the circle must lie on y = 5. Therefore, (0, 5)
and (5, 5) must be the extremities of its diameter.
Correct Option: (3)
Question 29: The equation of the line represented by x 3 y 5 and z 7 x 9 in symmetrical form is
(1) z 7(3 y 5) 9
(2) z 7(3 y 5) 9
(3) x 21y 35 z 9
(4) z 5 7 x 4 21y 31
Solution: If x 3 y 5 represents one plane and z 7 x 9 represents another plane. Let , and be the
points common to both of these planes. This implies that
3 5 and 7 9
9
3 5
7
z 9
x 3y 5
(The line of intersection of the two given plane)
7
7 x 21y 35 z 9
7 x 4 21y 31 z 5
Correct Option: (4)

Question 30: The differential equation representing all circles in the xy-plane having centre on x = 1 and
radius 3 is given by
2
x 1 yy'
(1) x 1 y
9
y'
x 1 yy '
(2) x 1 y
9
y'
1 x yy '
2
x 1 yy '
(3) x 1 y
9
9 (4) x 1 y
y'
y'
Solution: The general equation of a circle is
x xc 2 y yc 2 r 2
where xc , yc is the centre and r is the radius of the circle. Therefore,

x 12 y yc 2 32
(1)
where yc is a parameter (or variable). Since the number of parameter is one, we need to differentiate only
once. That is,
2 x 1 2 y yc
dy
0
dx
x 1 yy ' yc y ' 0
yc y ' x 1 yy '
x 1 yy '
yc
y'
Substituting this in Eq. (1), we get

2
x 1 yy '
x 1 y
9
y'
which is the required differential equation; which we obtained by eliminating the parameter yc .
Correct Option: (3)
2
(2)

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JEE Knockout Test Solution

Exam Date: 30/11/2014

Each question is awarded 4 (four) marks for correct response.

From the graph,

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From these we get

R (16.0)2 (8.0)2 13.9 cm

Correct Option: (3)

So the current supplied by the battery would be = 12/6 = 2 A

Correct Option: (2)

Solution: Terminal velocity of the object will be

Substituting values, we get

4 103 2 103 10 downward

Correct Option: (4)

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Potential of B and D are equal as they are connected.

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Correct Option: (1)

Correct Option: (3)

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For the second pulse of A and B

For the third pulse of A and B

For the fourth pulse of A and B

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Applying equilibrium of forces in vertical direction, we get

Correct Option: (4)

(4) the amplitude of two waves.

Hence, Statement 1 is false though Statement 2 is true.

2.6 106 Nm2

Correct Option: (2)

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(3) IR, 8 1020 s 1

Number of photons emitted per second by the IR lamp

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(6.63 1034 )(3 108 )

Correct Option: (3)

Solution: Impulse due to collision = m vf vi = m(3 i + 2 j 4 i + j ) = m( i + 3 j ) N s.

Correct Option: (1)

Permissible error in calculation

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Solution: Charge density

Using the superposition principle, the potential at point P will be

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Substituting value of from Eq. (1) in Eq. (2) we get

Correct Option: (1)

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Solution: The solution can be found using Amperes law.

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Correct Option: (3)

Correct Option: (2)

The potential energy increases

The kinetic energy decreases

E2 (5.00 Vm1 ) sin[(2.0 1014 rads1 ) t 45.0]

E3 (5.00 Vm1 ) sin[(2.0 1014 rads1 ) t 45.0]

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(2) Amplitude = 17.1 Vm1 ; phase angle = 0

Correct Option: (3)

(net moment = downward)

(net moment = upward)

(net moment = upward)

six unpaired electrons.

Yb3+: [Xe] 4f 13, that is,