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Test - 1 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Time : 3 Hrs.

MM : 360

TEST - 1 (Paper-I)
PART - A (PHYSICS)
4.

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

(1) The body never stops

Choose the correct answer :


1.

2.

3.

A point object moves along straight line with


retardation a v , where a is constant and v is the
speed of particle. Initially the speed of the particle
was v0. Then select correct statement

(2) The body stops after covering a distance

At a distance L = 550 m from the traffic signal,


brakes are applied to a rail road train moving at a
velocity v = 72 km/hr. Determine the distance of rail
road train from the traffic signal, one minute after the
application of brakes if its acceleration a = 0.4 m/s2
(1) 70 m

(2) 30 m

(3) 40 m

(4) 50 m

(3) In time

A boy runs away from a pole in a straight line so


that its velocity is inversely proportional to the
distance from the pole. When boy is at a point A at
a distance x1 = 100 m from the pole, its velocity is
v1 = 2 m/s. What time will boy take to run away
from point A to point B which is at a distance
x2 = 200 m from the pole?
(1) 50 s

(2) 60 s

(3) 75 s

(4) 90 s

and time taken to cover this distance is

v 03/2
3a

2 v0
a

2 v 03/2
2 v0
body covers a distance
3 a
a

(4) Total distance travelled by body till it stops is


v 03/2
3a

5.

A particle moves along x axis. Its velocity time


graphs is given below. The distance travelled by the
particle in 0 to 3 s is

A lift whose floor to ceiling distance is equal to 2.7 m


starts ascending with constant acceleration
1.2 m/s2, 2.0 s after the start a bolt begins falling
from the ceiling of the car. Find the distance covered
by bolt as seen by observer on ground.

O
3 m/s

(g = 9.8 m/s2)

1s 2s
3s
Parabola

(1) 1 m

(2) 1.7 m

(1) Zero

(2) 4 m

(3) 2.7 m

(4) 1.3 m

(3) 8 m

(4) 12 m

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6.

7.

A cannon fires successively two shells with speed


250 m/s, the first at an angle 60 and second at an
angle 45 to the horizontal in same plane. Find time
interval between firings leading to the collision of shells.
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 11 s

(2) 5 s

(3) 7 s

(4) 6 s

A ball is thrown from a point A with a speed v0 at an


angle with horizontal from a point A. A smooth wall
is approaching the ball with speed v as shown in
figure, after colliding with the wall it bounces back on
the point of projection A. Then its time of flight is

v0

2v 0 sin
g

(3)

2v 0 sin
g

2u
. At what angle should he
3
run to intercept the ball in the shortest time?

the ball with a speed

2u
3

30

1 3
(1) sin

2
(4) sin1
3
10. An athlete jumps to throw a javelin from a height of
3 m with a speed of 15 m/s. Then find the maximum
possible range on the ground (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 22.5 m

(4) Information is not sufficient to decide time of


flight
8.

x hits a ball along the ground with a speed u in a


direction which makes an angle 30 with the line
joining him and fielder y. Fielder y runs to intercept

4
(3) sin1
5

2v 0 sin
g

(2)

9.

3
(2) sin1
4

(1)

Test - 1 (Paper-I)

If there is no air drag in the ascent of a projectile,

(2) 25.3 m
(3) 21 m
(4) 28.1 m

(1) The magnitude of tangential acceleration


increases while magnitude of normal acceleration
decreases

11. A man can swim in still water with a speed of

(2) The magnitude of tangential acceleration


decreases while magnitude of normal
acceleration increases

wants to move along a line at an angle 60 with the


flow direction. At what angle from flow direction
should he start swimming?

(3) Both increases

(1) 90

(2) 75

(4) Both decreases

(3) 120

(4) 74

3 3 m/s and flow velocity of water is 3 m/s. He

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Test - 1 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

12. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 second,


with a velocity of 10 j m/s and moves in the x-y

15. Initially the system shown in figure is in equilibrium.


Find the acceleration of block C immediately after
lower string is cut

plane with a constant acceleration of (8i 2 j ) m/s2 .

Find the speed of the particle when x = 16 m


(1) 21.26 m/s
(2) 13 m/s
(3) 16.4 m/s

m C

(4) 25.2 m/s

A m

13. A particle is moving in a vertical circle under the


action of a force that gives a tangential acceleration
of 4 m/s2 in addition to the radial acceleration. At the
position P, its speed is

m D

3 m/s and acceleration is

B 2m

horizontal. The value of is

(1) g upward

(2) g downward

(3) Zero

(4)

g
downward
2

16. In the system shown the triangular wedge is fixed,


mass of block A is 50 kg and mass of block B is
75 kg. The tension in the string is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 37

(2) 30

(3) 53

(4) 60

14. The position vector of a particle is



r a [cos t i sin t j ] . The acceleration of the

particle is

50 kg A

75 kg

(1) Parallel to velocity vector

37

(2) Directed towards origin


(3) Directed away from origin

(1) 500 N

(2) 400 N

(4) Perpendicular to position vector

(3) 300 N

(4) 600 N

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17. At the instant shown in figure, the block moves
downwards with velocity u 1, the wedge moves
rightwards with velocity u2. The correct relation
between u1 and u2 is

Test - 1 (Paper-I)
20. A ball is held at rest in position A and another
identical ball is released from rest in position B. The
ratio of tensions

T1
is given by
T2

u2

(2)

u1

T1

4
(3)
3

(1) u2 = u1

(2) u2 = u1sin

(3) 2u2sin = u1

(4) u2(1 + sin) = u1

18. In the figure shown A and B are free to move. All the
surfaces are smooth. Mass of A is m, then

(4)

3
4

T2

21. In the arrangement shown in figure


1 = 0.1

m A

1
2

30
30

(1) 1

2 = 0.4

M = 20 kg

(1) The acceleration of A will be more than gsin

Find the maximum value of m so that arrangement


is in equilibrium

(2) The acceleration of A will be less than gsin


(3) Normal reaction on A due to B will be more than
mgcos
(4) Normal reaction on A due to B will be equal to
mgcos
19. A solid uniform 45 kg ball of diameter 32 cm is
supported against a vertical wall (smooth) using a
30 cm massless string. The normal reaction of the
wall on the ball is nearly (g = 9.8 m/s2)

30 c
m

2
(1) 4 kg

(2) 5 kg

(3) 6 kg

(4) 3 kg

22. In the figure shown, there is exist friction between


the blocks but the ground is smooth. The friction
force acting between the blocks is (g = 10 m/s2)

5N

2 kg = 0.6
3 kg

20 N

Smooth

(1) 163 N

(2) 221 N

(1) 12 N

(2) 11 N

(3) 140 N

(4) 240 N

(3) 6 N

(4) 5 N

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Test - 1 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

23. A cylinder of mass m rest in a supporting block as


shown. If = 60 and = 30, calculate the
maximum acceleration which the block may be given
up the incline so that the cylinder does not lose
contact at P (neglect friction everywhere)

(1) mgsin + mgcos

60

(2) mg

(sin cos )
(cos sin )

(3) mg

(sin cos )
cos sin

(4) mgtan

P
Q

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions

= 30
(1) g

(2)

g
2

g
(4) 2g
4
24. A block of mass m is stationary relative to a trolley
car which moves with an acceleration a. The frictional
force acting on the block is
(3)

Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
26. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are
kept over a rough horizontal plank whose inclination
with horizontal is increased slowly. The coefficient of
friction for all surface in contact is same

m1

(1) mg

m2
Plank

(2) ma in forward direction

Statement-1 : m1 will begin to slip before m2 does.

(3) ma in backward direction

and

(4) Zero

Statement-2 : The force causing m1 to slip is more


than that for m2.

25. A horizontal force F pushes a block of mass m so


that it moves up the plane with a constant velocity.
Assume = coefficient of kinetic friction. The value
of F is

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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27. Statement-1 : For a particle moving in a curved path,


dv
dv
must be greater than
.
dt
dt

Test - 1 (Paper-I)
29. Statement-1 : If a body is moving on a curved path
and it is speeding then angle between velocity and
acceleration is always acute.
and
Statement-2 : Rate of change of velocity is
acceleration.

and
Statement-2 : The magnitude of rectangular
component of a vector cannot be more than
magnitude of a vector.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
30. In the figure shown.

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False


(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
28. Statement-1 : A particle moves so that its coordinate
vary with time as x = acost and y = asint. The
trajectory of the particle is circular.

A 2 kg
3 kg B

Statement-1 : Block B will exert greater force on


string in comparison to block A.

and
Statement-2 : Two mutually perpendicular velocities
when added, give rise to a circular motion.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

and
Statement-2 : Block A will exert a force on string
greater than 2g and block B will exert a force less
than 3g on the string.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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Test - 1 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
37. The mass of carbon that contains same number of
atoms as are present in 2.4 g of S is

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Overlap of which of the following atomic orbitals
would be maximum to give the strongest covalent
bond?
(1) 2p 2p()

(2) 2p 2p()

(3) 1s 2s()

(4) 1s 2p()

32. The vapour density of a mixture of NO2 and N2O4 is


33.35, at 25C. Calculate the number of moles of
NO2 in 10 mole of the mixture.
(1) 3.0

(2) 4.5

(3) 5.5

(4) 7.0

33. The correct order of second ionisation energy of


carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(1) O > F > N > C

(2) F > O > N > C

(3) C > O > N > F

(4) O > N > F > C

34. Which one of the following orders of bond angles is


correct?
(1) NH3 < NF3

(2) PH3 < PF3

(3) BF3 < BCl3

(4) H2O < OF2


(2) 120

(3) 150

(4) 180

(2) 1.8 g

(3) 1.35 g

(4) 2.15 g

38. The radius of 4th orbit in He+ is X times the radius


of first orbit of H-atom. What is the value of X?
(1) 4.5

(2) 6

(3) 8

(4) 9.25

39. The difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr's


radius of H-atom is equal to its (n 1)th Bohr's
radius. The value of n is
(1) 5

(2) 4

(3) 2

(4) 1

40. Which of the following species has one lone pair of


electrons in the valence shell of the central atom?
(1) XeF4

(2) SiF4

(3) BrF3

(4) SF4

41. Which of the following is most covalent?


(1) Na2S
(2) MgCl2
(3) MgS

35. The maximum F Xe F bond angle in XeOF2 is


(1) 90

(1) 0.90 g

36. What mass of HNO3 is needed to convert 12.7 g of


I 2 to HIO 3 according to the following reaction?
[Atomic mass : N = 14, I = 127]

(4) NaCl
42. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is half
of uncertainty in position. What is the value of
uncertainty in velocity?
(1)

1 h
m

(2)

1
h
2m 2

(3)

1 h
m 4

(4)

h
2m

I2 + HNO3 HIO3 + NO2 + H2O


(1) 24.8 g

(2) 13.5 g

(3) 31.5 g

(4) 48.2 g

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43. The specific gravity of a solution is 1.4 g/ml. It has
54% (mass/mass) of a salt. What is the mass of salt
in 750 ml of the solution?

Test - 1 (Paper-I)
50. An electron comes back from 4th excited state of
H-atom. How many lines will appear in the visible
region of its emission spectrum?

(1) 537 g

(2) 555 g

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 567 g

(4) 586 g

(3) 10

(4) 2

44. The first four ionisation energies of an element (M)


are 8.30 eV, 25.15 eV, 37.93 eV and 259.30 eV.
What would be the formula of its chloride?

51. In 6th period of periodic table the electrons fill the


orbitals in the order of
(1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 7s

(1) MCl

(2) MCl2

(2) 4s, 3d, 4p

(3) MCl3

(4) MCl4

(3) 5s, 4d, 5p

45. Which one of the following elements/ions has


positive electron gain enthalpy?
(1) B

(2) N

(3) S

(4) O

46. Which of the following oxides is/are amphoteric


oxide(s)?
(1) BeO

(2) Al2O3

(3) ZnO

(4) All of these

(2) 0.33

(3) 0.55

(4) 0.40

52. Which one of the following has highest dipole


moment?
(1) CH3 F

(2) CH3 Cl

(3) CH3 Br

(4) CH3 I

53. Which of the following is correct order of bond


angle?
(1) NF3 < PH3 < NH3

47. 2.74 g of a mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 lost


0.62 g of its weight on strong heating. The mole
fraction of NaHCO3 in the original mixture is
(1) 0.67

(4) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p

(2) PH3 < NH3 < NF3


(3) PH3 < NF3 < NH3
(4) NF3 < NH3 < PH3
54. What is the hybridisation of S-atom in S8 molecule?

48. A sample containing H3PO4 and P4O10 is labelled in


the analogous manner as oleum. The mass of P4O10
in a sample labelled as 127%, would be (Atomic
mass : O = 16, P = 31)

(1) sp3

(2) sp2

(3) sp

(4) dsp2

55. Pick out the isostructural species having similar


shape from the following

(1) 24 g

(2) 37 g

I.

(3) 53 g

(4) 71 g

III. XeF2

49. Which one among the following species has longest


bond length?
N2+

(1) N2

(2)

(3) N2

(4) N22

(1) II and III


(2) III and IV
(3) I and II
(4) II, III and IV

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NH2

II.

OF2

IV. CS2

Test - 1 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
56. Statement-1 : A metal is heated in an atmosphere of
oxygen to form its oxide having 53.33 % oxygen.
The equivalent weight of metal is 7.
and
Statement-2 : In the above reaction 7 parts of metal
have combined with 8 parts of oxygen.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
57. Statement-1 : The shape of

ICl2

is linear.

and
Statement-2 : Hybridisation of I in ICl2 is sp.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

58. Statement-1 : Atomic radius of aluminium is lower


than that of gallium.
and
Statement-2 : Aluminium and gallium belong to the
same group of periodic table.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
59. Statement-1 : NO2 is paramagnetic and undergoes
dimerisation to form N2O4 which is diamagnetic.
and
Statement-2 : NO2 is mixed anhydride.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
60. Statement-1 : Orbital 4d has one radial node and
two angular nodes.
and
Statement-2 : Number of radial nodes is given by
n1 and number of angular nodes is given by .

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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Test - 1 (Paper-I)

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
65. If the quadratic equation (ln a) x2 + 2(ln a)2x 3 = 0,
a > 1, has exactly one root in (1, 2), then ln a lies
in

SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1
(1) 0,
2

(2) (1, )

61. The radius of the circle

(3) 1,
2

1
(4) , 1
2

2 z z (3 2i )z (3 2i )z 6 0 is

(1) 5

(2) 4

5
2

(4) 1

(3)

66. Let A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) be three points in the argand


plane such that z1 + 7z2 8z3 = 0. Then
(1) ABC is right angled triangle

62. Consider the quadratic equation ax 2 bx a 0 ,


where a, b, C (set of complex number) such that
Im(a) 0 and Im(b) = 0. Then
(1) Both roots of the equation are always real
(2) Both roots of the equation are complex numbers
and conjugate of each other
(3) Both roots of the equation are always complex
numbers, but not the conjugate of each other

(2) ABC is a triangle whose area is

(3) A, B, C are collinear and B divides AC in the


ratio 7 : 1 internally
(4) A, B, C are collinear and B divides AC in ratio
8 : 1 externally
67. The least value of |z| satisfying z

(4) Roots may be real as well as complex numbers

(1) 0

(2) 1

63. Let z1, z2, z3, ....., z11 be the roots of the equation
z11 1 = 0, where z1 = 1. If is the fifth complex
root
of
unity
(Im
()
0)
then

(3) 2

(4) 4

( z2 2 ) ( z3 2 )..... ( z11 2 )
is equal to
( z2 ) ( z3 )...... ( z11 )
(3)

(4) 1

(1)

,
1 1

(2)

,
1 1

(3)

,
1 1

(4)

1 1
,

64. The term independent of x in the expansion of


7

69. If x 1 , x 2 are the roots of x 2 + x 2 = 0 and


y1, y2 are the roots of y2 + y + 2 = 0, then (x1 y1)
(x2 y2) (x1 y2) (x2 y1) is equal to

1
1

x x x x is

(1) 35

(2) 6

(1) 16

(2) 8

(3) 0

(4) 35

(3) 4

(4) 2

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4
3 is
z

68. Let , be the roots of x2 + 2x + 3 = 0. Then the


roots of x2 2x (1 x) + 3(1 x)2 = 0 are

(2)

(1) 1

21
sq. unit
2

Test - 1 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

70. The greatest term in the expansion of (3 + 5x)15


when x

71.

9
, is
25

(1) T6 only

(2) T7 only

(3) T6 and T7 only

(4) T5 and T6 only

[(2 3) ] , where [.] represents the greatest integer

76. The sum of the series 10C0 + (10C0 + 10C1) + (10C0


+ 10C1 + 10C2) + ..... + (10C0 + 10C1 + ..... + 10C10)
is equal to

(2) 723

(3) 724

(4) 725

72. Let

be

the

7th

root

log3 1 2 3 4 5

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

of

unity.

Then

73. The least argument of the complex number z

(3)
3

(2)

(4) 6144

(1) 14

(2) 13

(3) 12

(4) 11

2
3 x x is

(1) 254

(2) 260

(3) 270

(4) 280

79. Let z and be two complex numbers such that


arg( z ) arg()

satisfying | z 2 3 6i | 2 3 , is
(1)

(3) 5632

78. The co-efficient of x 4 in the expansion of

8
is equal to

(1) 0

(2) 5120

77. The first negative term in the expansion of (1 + x)35/3,


0 < x < 1, is

function, is equal to
(1) 722

(1) 1536

, | z | 2 | | . Then z equals
4

(1) (1 i )

2 (1 i )

(3)

2
(4)
3

74. If and ( > ) are the roots of the equation


x2 px q = 0, where p > 0, q > 0. Then

2(1 i )

(4)

2 (1 i )

80. The number of real roots of the equation 4x3 x2 +


2x = 0, R, > 1, is
(1) 1

(1) || > > 0 >

(2) > > 0

(2) 3

(3) || > > 0 >

(4) > || > 0 >

(3) Dependent on

75. If , , are the roots of x 3 + 3x 2 1 = 0, then

1
1
1

is equal to
( ) ( ) ( )

(2)

(4) Dependent of both and


81.

35 C

35
35 C . 35 C
0 . C 15
1
16
35C .35C is equal to
20
35

(1) 0

(2) 3

(1) 0

(3) 3

(4) 1

(3)

35C
25

35 C

2.

35 C

17

..... +

(2) 35C25
(4) 1

Space for Rough Work

11/13

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


12

82.

2k

sin 13

k 1

i cos

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

2k
is equal to
13

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) i

(4) i

83. Let origin, z1 and z2 are the vertices of an equilateral


triangle. If z1 and z2 are the roots of the quadratic
x2 + 2x b = 0. Then b is

2
(2)
3

(1) 1
(3)

4
3

(3) 2

(4) 4

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False


(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
n

84. The sum of the real values of x satisfying the


equation |x 1|2 + 4|x 1| 5 = 0 is
(2) 0

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

n
87. Statement-1 : P(n) : (n 1)! holds for all
2
natural numbers n.

(4) 2

(1) 4

Test - 1 (Paper-I)

85. If n > 1, then (1 2x)n 1 + 2nx is always divisible


by (for all n)

and
Statement-2 : P(1) is true.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) x2

(2) 2x2

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) x 1

(4) x + 1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False


(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
86. Statement-1 : The 4 th term from the end in the
11

expansion of 3 5

is 275 5 .

and
Statement-2 : The r th term from the end in the
expansion of (1 + x)n is (n r + 1)th term from the
beginning.

88. Statement-1 : Origin, 2 + 3i,


and

Statement-2 : If origin, z1 and z2 are collinear then


|z1 + z2| = |z1| + |z2| for all complex numbers z1 and
z 2.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

12/13

4 6
i are collinear.
5 5

Test - 1 (Paper-I)

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014


90. Statement-1 : The number of points of intersection of

is 1.
|z 2| = 2 and arg ( z 3 i )
4

89. Statement-1 : For all nN, P(n) : 64n/2 7n 1 is


divisible by 7.
and

and

Statement-2 : If P(k + 1) is true wherever P(k) is


true and P(1) is true then P(n) is true for all kN.

Statement-2 : Point 3 + i lies on the circle


| z 2 | 2 .

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Space for Rough Work

13/13

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