CHEMICAL AND PHYSICAL PRINCIPLES

1. The ion that would be iso-electronic with the noble gas Xenon is:
a. I-2
b. S-2
c. Mg+2
d.K+1
2. No two elements in the same atom can have the same set of quantum is a
statement of
a. Hunds Rule of Multiplicity
b. Daltons Atomic Theory
c. Heisenbergs Uncertainty Principle
d. Paulis Exclusion Principle
3. Defines as acid as a compound that dissolves in water to produce the H+ ions
is
a. Arthenius
c. Lewis
b. Bronsted-Lowry
d. Lowry
4. The electrons of metals are free to move in a solid. This explains why
a. metals are unstable
b. metals can easily be melted
c. metals have high reflectivity
d. metals have high conductivity
5. Buffer solution resists changes in acidity. If an acid is added to a buffer
solution, the ______________ remains the same
a. pH
b. concentration
c. ionization constant
d. hydrolysis constant
6. In silver plating, the anode is
a. copper
d. graphite
b. the object to be plated
e. silver
c. platinum
7. Brass is an alloy of
a. aluminum and nickel
c. copper and zinc
b. lead and tin
d. copper and tin
8. The first step in precipitation is the formulation of
a. Nuclei
c. Seeds
b. Supersaturated solution
d. Crystals
9. Which will dissolve faster in coffee?
a. lump sugar in hot coffee
b. granular sugar in hot coffee
c. granular sugar in cold coffee
d. lump sugar in cold coffee
10. The most important component of pitch blend
a. Lead
c. Uranium
b. Mercury
d. Gold
11. A catalyst is a substance that
a. increases the rate of reaction
b. is independent on the concentration of the reactants
c. has no effect on the activation energy
d. is recovered chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction
12. Which of the following are most alike?
a. compound and suspension
b. mixture and compound
c. foam and solution
d. solution and compound
e. emulsion and colloid
13. An element having three valence of electrons and four main energy levels
may belong to
a. Family III-A
c. Family VII-A
b. Period 3
d. Family IV-A
14. The mass contribution of an electron in an atom is
a. 1/1,837 that of the proton
b. equal to that of a proton
c. equal to that of a neutron
d. not known
15. The percentage abundance of Xe in the atmosphere (% Volume) is
a. 1.4 x 10-4
c. 1.32 %
b. 8.0 x 10-6
d. 93%

16. Discovered water by exploding H2 + O2

a. Lewis
c. Scavendish
b. Lavoisier
d. Usey
17. A solution of a weak acid and its salt which resists appreciable changes in
pH value is called
a. normal solution
b. colloidal dispersion
c. neutral solution
d. buffer solution
e. molar solution
18. The type in intermolecular force of attraction which exists between
molecules of oxygen, nitrogen of methane is
a. dipole-dipole
c. H-bonding
b. London
d. Interionic
19. Which of the following is insoluble in H2O?
a. aluminum sodium silicate
b. aluminum sulfate
c. ammonium oxalate
d. ammonium bromide
20. Arrange Ca, Be and Mg according to increasing electron affinity
a. Mg<Ca<Be
c. Be<Mg<Ca
b. Ca<Be<Mg
d. Ca<Mg<Be
21. A 620 mg ideal gas occupies 175 cc at STP. What is the molecular weight of
the ideal gas?
a. 79
b. 80
c. 60
d. 85
22. Gave the name oxygen .
a. Priestly
c. Lavoisier
b. Scheele
d. Scavendish
23. Mixing 10 ml of a 2M HCl solution with 20ml of a 1M HCl solution will
result in a solution whose molarity is
a. 1.33
b. 1.50
c. 1.65
d. 1.75
24. One of the following is not classified as native element
a. diamond
c. graphite
b. pyrite
d. quick silver
25. The basic conclusion drawn from experimental studies with X-rays is that
the atomic number is equal to the positive charge in the nucleus. These
studies are carried out by
a. Rutherford
c. Roentgen
b. Moseley
d. Mendeleev
26. One gmole of a species is that weight of the species equal to the
a. molecular weight
c. atomic number
b. atomic mass
d. Isotopic weight
27. Along a row in the periodic table elements have the same
a. energy level
c. size
b. electronegativity
d. ionization energy
28. Saltwater boils at
a. slightly higher than 1000C
c. slightly lower than 1000C
0
b. 100 C
d. 500C
29. Measurement of the wave lengths of emitter radiation is involved in
a. ultraviolet spectrophotometry
b. spectroscopy
c. infrared spectrophotometry
d. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
30. The strongest among the chemical bond is
a. ionic bond
b. covalent bond
c. coordinate covalent bond
d. metallic bond
e. hydrogen bond
31. Waxes are
a. Triglyceride
c. Alkyl sulfonates
b. Fatty acids alcohol esters
d. Salts of fatty acids
32. The Lucas test is used to determine the types of
a. alcohols
d. amino acids
b. amines
e. phenols
c. acids

33. Natural rubber is a polymer of

a. ethylene
d. chloroprene
b. propene
e. isoprene
c. isobutene
34. No carbonyl group is found in:
a. ether
c. ketone
b. aldehyde
d. carboxylic acid
35. Nylon is a copolymer of
a. urea formaldehyde
b. phenal formaldehyde
c. hexamethylene and adipic acid
d. styrene and adipic acid
36. Which of the following is not an aliphatic hydrocarbon?
a. n-octane
c. propylene
b. n-tridecane
d. toluene
37. An unsaturated fatty acid with one double bond in the chain:
a. Stearic
c. linoleic
b. linolenic
d. oleic
38. Following Markownikoffs Rule, when 1-butene is reacted with HOCl, the main
product is:
a. n-butane
c. 2-butanol
b. 1-chloro-2-butanol
d. 2-chloro-3-butano
39. The strongest acid among the following is
a. p-nitro phenol
d. p-chlorophenol
b. m-nitro phenol
e. m-chlorophenol
c. o-nitrophenol
40. 2.24 g of alkene A add 3.2g of bromine. The molecular formula of A is:
a. C10H20
b. C2H4
c. C6H12
d. C8H16
41. Conversion of poly-unsaturated vegetable oils to solid fats can be achieved
by
a. hydrooxylation
b. catalytic hydrogenation
c. hydrohalogenation
d. halogenation
42. This one is classified as an aromatic compound:
a. acetic acid
c. citric acid
b. carbolic acid
d. lactic acid
43. When C6H5CH2CH3 is oxidized by excess KmnO4 in acid, the main product is
a. C6H5CH2COOH
d. Phtalic acid
b. Phenol
c. Benzoic acid
44. ROSO2Ona is a general formula for:
a. soap
c. synthetic detergent
b. wax
d. fatty acid salt
45. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly named:
a. p-chloroaniline
d. ethyl benzene
b. 3-methyl pentane
e. 2-ethyl butane
c. methyl benzene
46. The chemical formula of pyruvic acid is:
a. OHC COOH
d. CH3COCOCH3
b. CH3COOH
e. OHCCHO
c. CH3COCOOH
47. The following are polymers, except:
a. natural rubber
d. Nylon
b. protein
e. Dynamite
c. PVC
48. A carbonyl compound is:
a. One carbon and one oxygen bounded by a double bond
b. One carbon and one oxygen bounded by a single bond
c. One carbon and two oxygen bounded by one single and one double bond
d. One carbon and two oxygen bounded by two double bonds
49. The saponification no. of a triglyceride is 200. The average MW of the
triglyceride is:
a. 200
b. 280
c. 600
d. 840

50. Teflon is chemically inert, tough and tolerant of high temperature. These
properties of Teflon are due to
a. the strength of the carbon-carbon bond
b. the strength of the carbon-hydrogen bond
c. the strong carbon-fluorine bond
d. high cost
A 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 solution can also be labeled as:
a. 0.1 molal
c. 0.1N
b. 0.2 N
d. 0.1 N
51. When 27 grams of Al are added to one liter of 3N CuSO4 the number of grams
of Cu that will be displaced is (atomic weights : Cu = 64; Al=27).
a. 32
d. 128
b. 64
e. 96
c. 192
52. The determination of lead ions by reduction to metallic lead and weighing
as such is
a. an electrometric method
b. an electrodeposition method
c. a precipitation method
d. a potentimetric method
53. What is the color of nickel chloride?
a. white
c. yellow
b. red
d. green
54. Ksp values are valid
a. for all salts
b. only for slightly soluble compounds
c. when determined under supersaturated conditions
d. only when measured at 250C
55. The ph value at the equivalence point when titrating a weak acid against a
strong base is:
a. at exactly 7
b. greater than 7
c. less than 7
d. neutral
56. As2O3 is oxidized by KmnO4. The millequivalent weight of As2O3 (MW=197.84) as
a reducing agent is:
a. 0.0989
c. 0.01978
b. 0.03957
d. 0.04946
57. In a general analysis NH4 is tested advance because
a. NH4 cannot be present in acid medium
b. Several ammonium containing reagents are added during analysis
c. It is the standard procedure
d. It will make the solution basis
58. Ferric ferrocyanide is
a. Indigo blue
b. Prussian blue
c. Turnbulls blue
d. Cobalt blue
59. Which reagent will dissolve Zn(OH)2 but not Ni(OH)2?
a. HCl
c. H2SO4
b. NH3
d. NaOH
60. A solution of cation gives a crimson red flame. This flame test is a
confirmatory test for:
a. Sr+2
c. Mn+2
+1
b. K
d. Ca+2
61. Which of the following should be considered in the choice of an indicator:
a. ph range
b. ph at equivalence pt.
c. Direction of titration
d. Color of indicator
62. Mixing 10ml of a 2M HCl solution with 20 ml of a M HCl solution will result
in a solution whose molarity is:
a. 1.33
b. 1.5
c. 1.65
d. 1.75

63. Which of these gravimetric factor is not correct?

a. CaO/CaC2O4
b. 4FeO/Fe3O4
c. 2MgO/Mg2P2O7
d. FeS2/2BaSO4
64. What weight in grams of Ca(OH)2 is chemically equivalent to 0.5g of CaO?
a. 0.3303
d. 0.7569
b. 0.3785
e. 1.514
c. 0.6605
65. A colorless solution was treated with HCl with no change in appearance.
Addition of NH3 formed a permanent white _____________ is present
d.
a. Zn++
b. Bi++
c. Cd++
Hg2++
66. In the systematic cation analysis, after the separation of the acid sulfide
group, the PO4-3 if found present must be eliminated because:
a. it will be destroyed in the latter part of the analysis
b. it reacts with a number of remaining cations in a basic med
c. it changes the acidity of the solution
d. it destroys the effect of the buffered solution
67. Analytical methods taking 1-10 mg. Size samples for analysis maybe referred
to as:
a. semi-micro methods
b. micro methods
c. macro methods
d. ultra micro methods
68. Which of the following should not be used for high temperature ignition?
a. porcelain crucible
b. Munroe crucible
c. Gooch crucible
d. Sintered glass crucible
e. Platinum crucible
69. The Hanging Drop Test is used to identify
a. MnO4
b. CO3-2
c. NO2
d. C2O4-2
71. The Cv of polyatomic substance like NO2, CH4, and NH3
a. 4-8 cal/molC
b. slightly greater than 6
c. less than 8
d. about 8
72.
A soap bubble of a 15 cm radius is formed by blowing through a 2.5 cm
diameter wire loop. Assume that all soap film goes into making bubbles. The
surface tension of the film is 0.02N/m. Find the total work require to make
a bubble.
a. 1.4x10-3 N-m
b. 2.25x10-3 N-m
c. 1.32x10-3 N-m
d. 2.10x10-3 N-m
73.
Which law is the basis for the manufacture of thermometer?
a. Boyles law
b. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
c. Raoults Law
d. Carnots principle
74.
The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas reacts with a solid CaO to
form solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter the data obtained gives a
direct measure of
a. U
c. H
d. Cp
b. VP
75.
When the system is in equilibrium , the change in the free energy is
a. zero
b. greater than zero
c.
1
d.
less than zero
76.
A Carnot cycle heat engine operating between 1540F and 440F has an
efficiency of approximately
a. 35%
b. 82%
c. 55%
d. 25%

77. The net energy available to a system is given by

a. entropy
c. enthalpy
b. free energy
d. none
of
these
78.
Liquid water at 0DC and atmospheric pressure has a density of 1.0g/cc.
AT the same conditions, ice has a density of 0.917 g/cc. How much work is
done in KJ at these conditions by 1.0 kg of ice as it melts to liquid water.
a. 0.00917
c. -0.00917
b. 0.0912
d. 0.0912
79.
The turbine in a hydraulic plant is fed by water falling from a height
of 30 m. Assuming 95% efficiency of converting potential energy to electrical
energy and 10% loss of resulting power in transmission, how many MT of water
per hr are needed to keep a 100W light bulb burning?
a. 1.43
b. 1.29
c. 1.63
d. 1.75
80.
Calculate the change in entropy when 100 grams of ice at 0C is converted
to steam
a. 645.23 eu
c. 205.28 eu
b. 302.34 eu
d. 342.25 eu
81. Calculate the change in molar Gibbs energy of liquid H2O treated as
incompressible fluid when pressure is increased from 1.0 bar to 2.0 bar at
298K.
a. +1.82 J
c. +1.82x10-4 J
b. 1.82 J
d. 1.82x10-4 J
82. Heat values of entropy are associated with
a. high possibility of a state
b. high randomness of the state
c. both a and b
d. none of these
83. The heat content of the system is called
a. a sensible heat
c. heat capacity
b. specific heat
d. enthalpy
84.
The study of the interrelation of the various forms of energy in a
system is called
a. physical chemistry
c. physics
b. chemistry
d. thermodynamics
85.
A measure of the total energy not available for useful work is the
a. entropy
c. enthalpy
b. free energy
d. none of these
86.
A 70% NaOH liquor at 160F with a heat content of 325 Btu/lb is diluted
with 20% NaOH liquor at 80F with a heat content of 40 Btu/lb to give a final
solution containing 40% NaOH ( heat content is 94 Btu/lb ). For every 100 lb
of product, how much heat must be removed to maintain a final product
temperature of 100F?
a. 6000 Btu
c. 11700 Btu
b. 20100 Btu
d. 7500 Btu
87.
The densities of liquid and solid mercury are 13.7 and 14.19 g/cc
respectively at a melting point of 38.87C. The heat of fusion of Hg is 566
cal/g-atom. The change in melting point per atmosphere change in pressure is
a. 0.505 K
c. 0.013 K
b. 0.0051 K
d. 0.231 K
88. The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at constant
pressure and at constant volume at 27 when liquid water forms is
a. 1192.2 cal
c. 1257.44 cal
b. 2314.5 cal
d. 1257.44 cal
89.
The more stable system with regard to S are systems that have
a. minimum S
b. zero S
c. maximum S
d. none of these
90.
A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watt and an input
rating to 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is
a. 5.67
b. 4.27
c. 3.26
d. 4.44

91.
The normal boiling point of chloroform, CHCl3, is 334K, its vapor
pressure is 0.824 atm. What is the enthalpy of chloroform fro this
temperature range?
a. 29.4 KJ/mol
c. 19.65 KJ/mol
b. 27.5 KJ/mol
d. 30.61 KJ/mol
92.
When the potential of 110 volts dc is applied to the terminals of an
electric lamp, a current of 2 amperes is found to flow. What is the
resistance of the lamp?
a. 62 ohms
c. 32 ohms
b. 55 ohms
d. 58 ohms
93.
How long would it take a current 1 ampere to reduce completely 80 cc
of 0.1 molal Fe2(SO4)3 to FeSO4?
a. 25.73 min
c. 31.26 min
b. 22.65 min
d. 19.69 min
94. A constant direct current flows through an iodine coulometer for a period
of 2 hours. At the end of this time, it is found that the coulometer contains
0.0020 equivalent of liberated I2. What was the current passing thorough the
coulometer?
a. 0.048 ampere
c. 0.027 ampere
b. 0.058 ampere
d. 0.034
ampere
95.
As a solid changes to a liquid, all of the following occur except
a. molecules become more disordered
b. kinetic energy of molecules decreases
c. intermolecular forces become separated
d. molecules become further separated
96. Absolute zero maybe regarded as that T at which a gas cease
a. all gases become liquids
b. all substances are solids
c. molecular motion increases
d. water freezes
97. Ethyl alcohol is to be used in an automobile carburetor that is adjusted to
give a 9 to 10 air-fuel ratio ( mass ratio ). If the temperature in the
manifold is 60dF and the pressure is atmospheric, what percentage of the
alcohol will be evaporated assuming the equilibrium between vapor and liquid
is reached?
a. 55%
d. 90%
b. 75%
c. 65%
98.
At what temperature will the velocity of CO2 molecules equal the
velocity of oxygen molecules at 0C
a. 102C
c. 132C
b. 632C
d. 125C
99. Suppose you are given a gaseous compound for which the formula is CxH2x-2 at
the same temperature and pressure at which oxygen weighs 4.8 grams per liter,
the unknown gas weighs 8.10 g/L. What is the formula of the compound?
a. C2H2
c. C4H6
b. C3H8
d. C4H10
100. A gas tends to expand indefinitely into a vacuum or into another gas. This
ability is referred as
a. viscosity
c. compressibility
b. turbulence
d. diffusion
101. If a given gas has a compressibility factor, z>1, this means that
a. attractive forces
b. repulsive forces
c. no force of attraction
d. exist between the molecules of gases
102. The vapor pressure of a liquid
a. always increases with temperature
b. always decreases with temperature
c. is independent of temperature
d. increases only up to boiling point
103. As the atmospheric pressure decreases, the boiling point of a liquid
a. cannot be determined
b. is not affected

c. increases
d. decreases
104. The direction of electron flow is from
a. from anode to cathode
b. from cathode to anode
c. either way
105. PCl5 (g) dissociates to PCl3 (g) and Cl2 (g) when heated at 250C and 1 atm.
If the density of the gas mixture at equilibrium is 4.4 g/L, the fraction of
PCl5 (g) dissociated is
a. 0.103
b. 0.328
c. 0.725
d. 0.209
106. An ideal gas is made up of molecules that have these properties except
a. Are points in space in time
b. have mass and velocity
c. attract or repel each other on the wall of the container
d. collide with the walls of the container without loss of energy
107. Which of these 0.1M solution will give the highest boiling at 1 atm
a. table salt solution
c. barium chloride
b. sugar solution
d. potassium
chloride
108. What term is used to define the phenomena of emission of light in a
chemical reaction
a. photosensitisation
b. chemical luminescence
c. photosensitisation and chemical luminescence
d. none of these
109. The vapor pressure of all the liquids
a. is the same at 100C
b. is the same at their frezzing pint
c. increases with the volume of liquid separated
d. increases with temperature
110. If ethanol are mixed 50/50 by weight at 60C, and the solution assumed
ideal, the composition of the vapor above the solution is
a. 28% ethanol, 72% methanol
b. 72% ethanol, 28% methanol
c. 59% ethanol, 41% methanol
d. 41% ethanol, 59% methanol
111. All of the following conclusion of the kinetic theory of gases except
a. a derivation of the Van der Waals equation
b. derivation of Boyles and Charles Law
c. relation of average kinetic energy of gases to temperature
d. Grahams law of diffusion
112. The freezing point of a substance is always lower than its
a. melting point
c. specific heat
b. boiling point
d. heat of vaporization
113. One colligative property of solutions is its freezing point depression.
Which observation will show that the solute is an electrolyte? t/m
a. is not constant
c. is less than Kf
b. is not Kf
d. is
greater
than
Kf
114. Colligative properties depend upon
a. the chemical properties of the solute
b. the physical properties of the solute
c. the chemical properties of solvent
d. the number of solute particles present in the solution
115. All of the following factor increases the strength of Van der Waals forces
between molecules except by an
a. increase in the molecular weight of the molecules
b. increase in the number of atoms in the molecules
c. increase in the number of electrons in the molecules
d. increase in the ionic strength of the molecule
116. For a chemical reaction in a state of equilibrium, a decrease in
temperature will
a. favor reaction that is exothermic
b. favors reaction that is endothermic
c. have no effect on the system
d. increase the equilibrium constant of the system

117. Which law governs the behavior of liquids in liquids?

a. Henrys Law
b. Le-Chateliers principle
c. Raoults Law
d. Nernst Distribution coefficient
118. A substance above its critical T
a. is gas at any P
b. is boiling
c. can be liquefied only by application of P
d. is ready to explode
119. A 0.2 mol aqueous solution of KCl freezes at 0.680C. The osmotic P at 0C
is
a. 9.8 atm
c. 8.2 atm
b. 16.3 atm
d. 10.8 atm
120. All of the following are characteristics of ideal gases except
a. absence of intermolecular forces
b. non ideal gases may exhibit ideal gases at high pressure and low
temperature
c. the molecules occupy no space
d. all of the above are correct
121.
What volume of water should be added to 300 ml of a 0.6 M solution to
make the molarity to 0.200? Assume that the volume is additives.
a. 300 ml
c. 900 ml
b. 100 ml
d. 600
ml
122. Hydrocarbons that contain one or more carbon triple bonds.
a. alkynes
c. alkenes
b. alkyl
d. alkanes
123. All these about redox are correct except
a. The total number of the electon lost by the element reduced is equal to
the total number of electrons gained by the element oxidized
b. The reducing agent is oxidized
c. Reduction is loss is in positive valence
d. Oxidation is loss of electrons
124. If the infrared radiation has a wavelength of 3.5 microns, what will be the
wave number in cm-1?
a. 3,000 cm-1
c. 2900 cm-1
-1
b. 2,500 cm
d. 2700 cm-1
125. The compressibility factor for every gas as its pressure approaches zero is
a. 0
c. 2
b. -1
d. 1
126. Choose the correct statement about a family of elements in the periodic
table
a. The atoms of all elements in a family have the same number of shells of
electrons
b. All elements in a family have the same physical state
c. All elements in a family have the same chemical reactivity
d. The atoms of all elements in a family have the same number of valence
electrons
127. All of the following are colligative properties except
a. solubility
b. vapor pressure lowering
c. freezing point depression
d. boiling point elevation
128.A system undergoes an irreversible cycle. The entropy of the universe
a. remains the same
b. decreases
c. increases
d. cannot be defined
129. A solution used principally to control the pH value of a solution to a
point where selective precipitation can be made
a. acid solution
c. basic solution
b. neutral solution
d. buffered solution

130. Doubling the concentration of the substances taking part in a chemical

reaction will:
a. double the rate of the reaction
b. have no effect on the rate of the reaction
c. have an effect which must be determined by experiments
d. quadruples
131. Methyl Chloride is represented by ___________
a. CH2Cl2
c. CH3Cl
b. CHCl3
d. CCl4
132. The pH of an aqueous solution which has an analytical concentration of 1 x
10-7 M is
a. 6.00
c. 6.79
b. 7.00
d. 6.69
133. A solution containing 1gmol of salt per cubic decimeter of solution at 0oC
or 76.6276 g of potassium chloride in 1000g of water both weighed in
air is:
a. a strong electrolyte
c. an aqueous solution
b. a supersaturated solution
d. a demal solution
134. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. The mole fraction is equal to the weight fraction
b. None of these
c. The mole fraction is equal to the volume fraction
d. The mole fraction is equal to the pressure fraction
135. What weight of ice could be melted at 0deg C by the heat liberated by
condensing 100g steam at 100 deg C to liquid?
Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g
Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g
a. -675 g
c. 660 g
b. 675 g
d. -660 g
136. Calculate the enthalpy of decomposition of calcium carbonate into calcium
oxide and carbon dioxide
a. 40.1 kcal
c. -42.6 kcal
b. 42.6 kcal
d. 43.6 kcal
137. The number that express the oxidation state of atom of an element or groups
of atom is called the
a. indicator
c. displacement factor
b. valence
d. electrolyte
138 All fats are
a. acids
c. ketones
b. unsaturated
d. esters
139. Aluminum chloride is found to exist as a
a. monomer
c. trimet
b. drimer
d. tetramer
140. All these about solutions are correct except:
a. the quantity of solute is not dissolved in saturated solution
b. the quantity of solute dissolved in a saturated solution give its
solubility of the solute as a certain temperature
c. an ionic solute dissolves in water through salvation brought about by
columbic attraction between the ions and water
d. the boiling of solution in water rise by 1.86 deg C molal increase in
the concentration of the solution
141. An uneven sharing of electrons between two atoms indicate__________
a. bonding
c. electronegativity
b. coupling
d. polarity
142. Bagasse is a by-product in the manufacture of raw sugar. This product
however can still be valuably used as
a.
suitable substitute for bunker fuel
b.
all of these
c.
raw material for the manufacture of plywood substitute
d.
raw material for paper substitute making
143. A chemical engineer wants to make chlorine from molten sodium chloride. If
he uses a current of one ampere for 5 min, how many grams could be
produced?
a.
0.11 g
c. 0.09 g
b.
0.15 g
d. 0.14
g

144. A NMR (proton) spectum of ethanol contain groups of

a.
2
c. 4
b.
5
d. 3
145. Calculate the neutralization equivalent for a 0.2 g of an organic acid
required 100 ml of 0.12 NaOH for neutralization
a.
p-benzoic acid
c. p-nitrobenzene acid
b.
benzoic acid
d. p-toluic acid
146. The radiation that produces the greatest number of ions as it passes
through matter is
a.
omega
c. beta
b.
alpha
d. gamma
147. Which of the following is an extensive property?
a.
molar volume
c. beta
b.
enthalpy
d. gamma
148. Carboxylic organic compounds contains rings made up solely of atoms known
as
a.
carbon
c. oxygen
b.
nitrogen
d. hydrogen
149. Assume the following, the ionization potential of C3 = 3.89 eV, h = 6.63 x
10-34/sec and C3 metal is sensitive to real light of 700 nm. What number of
electrons that can be removed from metallic cesium with the energy required
to remove one electron from an isolated cesium atom
a.
2
c.
3
b.
13
d.
4
150. Which solute is expected to be the most stable in water?
a.
ammonia
c. iodine
b.
hydrogen sulfide
d. methane
151. A chemical process used in manufacturing caustic soda
a.
Le Blanc Method
c.
Haber-Bosh Method
b.
Electrolysis
d.
Solvary process
152. Hypochlorite are strong agents in alkaline solution
a.
catalyzing
c.
reducing
b.
neutralizing
d.
oxidizing
153. The enthropy change for any closed system which undergoes a cycling process
a.
must be negative
c. may be positive or negative but
b.
must be zero
not zero
d. must be positive
154.The process of dissolving hydrogen sulfide gas in water is known as
a.
endothermic
c. exothermic
b.
hydrogenation
d. sulfonation
155.Which of the enumerated solvent is aprotic
a.
dimethyl formanide
c.
citric acid
b.
ethylene alcohol
d.
hydrochloric acid
156.The temperature of the calorimeter and contents is raised to 5.00 deg C
when 10000 kJ of electric energy is added to a calorimeter containing 400 g of
water. What is the water equivalent of the calorimeter?
a.
2.39 kcal
c.
2.39 kcal
b.
2.01 kcal
d. 2.01 kcal
157. The ionic strength of 0.1 solution of ferric sulfate is
a.
0.75
c. 0.50
b.
1.00
d. 0.25
158.Styrene is
a.
benzoyl chloride
c. vinyl benzene
b.
mesitylene
d. benzoyl
benzene
159.The phosphorus in a sample of phosphate rock weighing 0.5428 g is
precipitated as MgNH4PO4.6H2O and ignited to Mg2P2O7. If the ignited precipitate
weighs 0.2234 g calculate the percentage of P2O3 in the sample
a.
25.95%
c. 27.11%
b.
26.91%
d. 26.25%
160.Choose the organic compound that will not react with an aqueous solution of
the ammonia silver nitrate:
a.
acetylene
c. 1-butyne
b.
2-butyne
d. none of these
161.What is the law that governs ideal gas-liquid solutions
a.
Raoults Law
b.
Henrys Law

c.
Nerrist Distribution Law
d.
Law
of
Hess
162.In alcohol fermentation by yeast, this microorganism furnishes an organic
catalyst or enzyme which affects this hydrolysis
a.
bacterease
c. lactase
b.
zymase
d. invertase
163.At standard temperature and pressure, a gas occupies 0.213 liters. How many
moles are there in this sample of gas?
a.
0.0089 mole
c.
none of these
b.
0.0890 mole
d.
0.0095 mole
164. If common salt NaCl is dissolved in water, which of the following
statements is true about the behavior of the solution relative to the
behavior of pure water?
a. boiling point is lowered
c. freezing point is decreased
b. melting point increases
d. none of these is true
165. The osterified product of n-propanone acid and methane is:
a. none of these
c. methyl propanoate
b. n-propanoxy methane
d. ethyl acetate
166.Complete the following equation CH3CH2Br + 2Li
a. CH3CH2Li + LiBr
c. CH3CH2Br2Li + Li
b. CH3CH2Li2 + Li
d. CH3CH2Li2 + Br
167.L is a non-volatile, non-electrolytic liquid. A solid S, is added to L to
form a solution that just boils at 1 atmospheric pressure. The vapor pressure
of pure L is 850 torr. What is the mole fraction of liquid L in the solution?
a. 85.7%
b. 95.3%
c. 89.4%
d. 79.4%
168.The behavior of the plastics that can be simulated using physical models
such as Maxwell and Kelvin Models
a. elasticity
c. deformation
b. wear resistance
d. viscoelastic
169.The following 5 expressions describe general energy equation for an open
system
a. Transfer of energy out of mass flow
b. Accumulation of energy
c. Transfer of energy is by mass flow
d. Net energy transfer by work (std Sign concentration)
e. Net energy transfer by heat (std Sign concentration)
170.Which combination would represent the general energy equation representing
the first law of thermodynamics?
a. b = d + e + c + a
c. b = c e c a
b. b = d e c + a
d. b = d + e + c + a
171. The study of the interrelation of the various forms of energy in a system
is called
a.physical chemistry
b. chemistry
c. physics
d.
thermodynamics
172. The standard for mass measurement is
a. wavelength of kr 86
b. invariant property of Cs 133
c. earths pull
d. a cylinder of platinum-iridium alloy
173. The heat content of the system is called
a. sensible heat
b. specific heat
c. heat capacity
d.
a
or
b
174.The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit weight of
a substance 1 degree temperature is called
a. specific heat
b. heat capacity
c. sensible heat
d. a or b
175. During the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, work is done by the system
and change in internal energy
a. decreases
b. increases
c. does not
change
176. Which law is the basis for the manufacture of thermometers?
a. Boyles law
c. Raoults Law
b. Zeroth
Law
of
d. Carnots
principle
Thermodynamics

177.A homogeneously physically distinct and mechanically separable portion of a

system is called
a. phase
b. solid
c. true solution
d. mixture
178. During the adiabatic reversible expansion of an ideal gas, the amount of
heat absorbed by gas is equal to
a. zero
b. one
c. greater
than zero
d. U
179. When a certain gas expands, work is said to be
a. done by the gas on its
c. done on the gas by the
surroundings
surrounding
b. lost by the surrounding
d. none
of
the
above
180. When the system is in equilibrium, the change in the free energy is
a. zero
b. greater than zero
c. 1
d. less than zero
181.The network accomplished by an engine undergoing adiabatic compression
is equal to
a. U
b. Q
c. U
d. -Q
182. A sample of an ideal gas is allowed to escape reversibly and isothermally
into a vacuum. Which statement is correct?
a. W=0 U=Q= a positive number
b. W=PV
U=0
Q=PV and is a negative number
c. W=PV + VP
d. W=Q=U=0
183. The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas reacts with a solid CaO to form
solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter (at constant volume) the data
obtained give a direct measure of
a. U
b. VP
c. H
d.
C
184. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The standard heat of formation of an element is negative
b. Since H=U + PV and can never be equal to U
c. Q and W are state functions
d. Q-W is a state function
185. A more stable system with regard to H are systems that have
a. Zero H
c. Maximum H
b. Minimum H
d. None of these
186. A measure of the total energy not available for useful work is the
a. entropy
b. free energy
c.
enthalpy
d. none of these
187.
The more stable system with regard to S are systems that have
a. minimum S
b. zero S
c. maximum S
d. none of
these
188. The net energy available to a system is given by
a. entropy
b. free energy
c. enthalpy
d.
none
of
these
189. If G<0, then
a. the reaction is at equilibrium
b. a spontaneous reaction is possible
c. no reaction is possible
d. none of the above
190. High values of entropy are associated with
a. high possibility of a state
b. high randomness of the state
c. both a and b
d. none of these
191.
A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watt and an input
rating of 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is:
a. 5.67
b.
4.27
c. 3.26
d.
4.4
192.
A carnot cycle heat engine operating between 1540 F and 440 F has an
efficiency of approximately
a. 35%
b. 82%
c. 55%
d. 25%

193. A heat engine absorbs heat from the combustion of gasoline at 2200 C.
The gasoline has a specific gravity of 0.8 and a heat combustion of
11,200cal/gram. The engine rejects heat at 1200 C.
The maximum work in
calories that can be obtained from the combustion of 1 liter of gasoline is
a.
3.62 x 106 cal
b.
4.53 x 104
c. 3.78 x 105
d.
4.22
x
106
194. A 70% NaOH liquor at 160 F with a heat content of 325 Btu/lb is diluted
with 20% NaOH liquor at 80 F with a heat content of 40 BTU/lb to give a
final solution containing 40% NaOH (heat content is 94 Btu/lb). For every
100 lb of product, how much heat must be removed to maintain a final product
temperature of 100 F?
a. 6,000 Btu
b. 20,100 Btu
c. -11,700 Btu
d.
-7,500
Btu
195. A certain process requires cooling of a brine solution continuously from
70 F to 30 F. The atmospheric temperature is 80 F. There is an available
refrigerator with a power requirement of 40 kW. Can this refrigerator be used
if 100 gallons of brine is to be cooled per minute?
a. Yes
b. no
c. can not be
determined
196. Superheated steam flows at a steady state through an insulated nozzle with
an inlet diameter of 5 cm. At the nozzle entrance, steam P is 700 kPa and T is
300 C, and the velocity is 30 m/s. At the nozzle exit, the steam temperature
and pressure are 233 C and 350 kPa respectively, the exit diameter of the
nozzle is
b. 3.26 cm
b. 1.62 cm
c. 0.38 cm
d. 2.92 cm
197.It is proposed to warm a collector plate with solar energy. The collected
energy is then transferred as heat to a fluid in a heat engine which in turn
rejects heat to the atmosphere. If 200 BTU/hr-ft2 of energy can be collected
when the plate is operating at 190 F, estimate the minimum collector area
required for a plant producing 1 kW of useful shaft power. Assume atmospheric
temperature of 70 F.
a.86.2 ft2
b. 92.4 ft2
c. 97.5 ft2
d.
81.6
ft2
198. Eight grams of oxygen gas at 27 C and 10 atm expands adiabatically and
reversible to a final P of 1.0 atm. The work done in the process is
a. 842 J
b. 445 J
c. 798 J
d. 752 J
199. An inventor claimed that he has devised an engine that absorbs 1000 kW of
heat from the heat source and discards 700 kW of heat to the heat sink. If the
engine operates between 500 K and 200 K, is the inventors claim valid?
a. Yes
b. no
c. can not be
determined
200. The turbine in a hydroelectric plant is fed by water falling down from a
height of 30 m..
Assuming 95 % efficiency of converting potential energy to
electrical energy and 10 5 loss of resulting power in transmission, how many MT
of water per hour are needed to keep a 100W light bulb burning?
a.1.43
b. 1.29
c. 1.63
d. 1.75
201. Liquid water at 0 C and atmospheric pressure ahs a density of 1.0 g/cc.
At the same conditions, ice has a density of 0.917 g/cc. How much work is done
in kJ at these conditions by 1.0 kg of ice as it melts to liquid water?
a.0.00917
b. 0.0912
c. -0.00917
d. 0.0912
202. 3.0 g-mole of an idle gas at 1.0 atm and 20 C are heated at constant
pressure until the temperature is 80 C. (Cv = 7.50 + 3.2 x 10-2T, cal/mol-K).
The change in internal energy of the process is
a.5429.16 cal
b. 3425.27 cal
c . 3210.50 cal
d. 4590.42
cal
203.The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at constant
pressure and at constant volume at 27 C when liquid water is formed is
a.-1192.2 cal
b. -2314.5 cal
c. 1257.44 cal
d. -1257.44
cal

204.The minimum work required for the manufacture of 5 lbs of ice cubes from
water initially at 32 F is
a.87.6 Btu
b. 73.0 Btu
c. 90.2 Btu
d. 70.0
Btu
205.If the surrounding air is 80 F and the latent heat of fusion of water is
143.4 Btu/lb
Calculate the change in entropy when 100 grams of ice at 0 C is
converted to steam at 100 C and 1 atm.
a. 645.23 eu
b. 302.34 eu
c. 205.28 eu
d. 342.25
eu
206. The main concern in the study of thermodynamics is
a. change in enthalpy
b. the time element in transformation
c. the initial and final state of the system
d. the change in entropy
207. At 90 C, the vapor pressure of acetic acid 293 mmHg and its vapor
[pressure at a 100 C is 417 mmHg. Calculate the normal boiling point of acetic
acid.
a.271.4 K
b. 391.3 K
c. 298.2 K
d.
313.0 K
208.Calculate the change in molar Gibbs energy of liquid H2O treated as
incompressible fluid when pressure is increased from 1.0 bar to 2.0 bar at 298
K.
a.+ 1.82 J
b. 182 J
c. + 1.82 x 10-4 J
d.
-4
-1.82 x 10 J
209.One mol of N2O4(g) forms 2.0 mol of NO2 (g) under standard conditions. If S =
4.8 J/K, the reaction is
a. spontaneous
c. in equilibrium
b. non-spontaneous
d. can not be determined
210. The densities of liquid and solid mercury are 13.7 and 14.19 g/cc
respectively at a melting point of -38.87 C. The heat of fusion of Hg is 566
cal/g-atom. The change in melting point per atmospheric change in pressure is
a. 0.505 K
b. 0.0051 K
c. 0.013 K
d.
0.231 K