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Issues from Paper 1 and Paper 2 raised in the Principal Examiners Report

There are three versions of Paper 1 and three versions of Paper 2 to accommodate the
candidates in the different time zones around the world. This document highlights those
questions across all three versions of each paper that have been identified by the
Principal Examiner as being found difficult by candidates.
Key messages
The use of precise terms in physics is important when stating definitions and
explaining phenomena.
Candidates at this level should be encouraged to use the correct words or terms in
formal definitions.
Language that is often acceptable in everyday speech does not necessarily convey
correct meanings.
For example, in physics, there are clear differences between distance and
displacement, speed and velocity.
Candidates should be encouraged to start numerical questions with the defining
equation and give their
working at each stage. In this way partial credit can be awarded if the final answer is
incorrect.
Power-of-ten errors are a relatively common cause of lost credit. Candidates should
be encouraged to take a moment to consider whether their answers are of a
reasonable order of magnitude, as this check can often detect mistakes with powersof-ten or arithmetic.
General comments
The marks scored by candidates varied over almost the whole mark range. There were
parts of some questions that were testing. Well-prepared candidates were able to show
their understanding of the relevant concepts. Other parts of questions were
straightforward and allowed weaker candidates to gain credit. Candidates were generally
competent in dealing with calculations, although a common cause of incorrect answers
was in power-of-ten errors. In descriptive questions many candidates would have
benefited from having more thorough knowledge and understanding to give accurate
and precise answers.

Definitions and explanations the issue that these questions have in common is the
generally imprecise language used by candidates to answer them.
9072/21 Q1ai
Define velocity.

[1 mark]

Examiner report: Velocity should be defined in terms of rate of change of displacement. In


many scripts, reference was made to distance moved. Where a ratio is involved, as in this case,
candidates should be discouraged from using loose wording such as over time.
9072/21 Q1aii
Distinguish between speed and velocity.

[2 marks]

Examiner report: Rather than refer to magnitude and magnitude and direction, many
candidates gave their answers by categorising the quantities as a scalar or a vector. Stating that
velocity is speed in a given direction does not distinguish clearly between the two.
9702/21 Q2ai
Define power.

Examiner report: Candidates should appreciate that power involves a transfer of energy. Thus,
power should be defined in terms of energy transfer or work done, not just energy.
9702/21 Q2aii
Use your definition in (i) to show that power may also be expressed as the product of force and
velocity.
Examiner report: In any derivation, it is important to explain the working, especially the
symbols used. It was very common to find that this derivation was completed using symbols
without explanation, or that nonstandard symbols were used rather than those listed in the
syllabus.
9702/21 Q3ai
A uniform plank AB of length 5.0 m and weight 200 N is placed across a stream, as shown in Fig.
3.1.

A man of weight 880 N stands a distance x from end A. The ground exerts a vertical force FA on
the plank at end A and a vertical force FB on the plank at end B.
As the man moves along the plank, the plank is always in equilibrium.
Explain why the sum of the forces FA and FB is constant no matter where the man stands on the
plank.
Examiner report: There were very few complete answers and many candidates merely stated
that upward forces equal downward forces. Candidates should be advised to use more precise
terminology. Stronger candidates discussed the direction and summation of the various forces.
9702/21 Q5a
Explain what is meant by the following quantities for a wave on the surface of water:
(i) displacement and amplitude
(ii) frequency and time period. [4 marks]
Examiner report: Some candidates lost credit as a result of imprecise terminology. This is
relatively common in
questions on waves. Candidates would benefit from learning the meanings of terms used to
describe waves in more detail.
9702/21 Q5cii
State and explain whether the waves on the surface of the water shown in Fig. 5.1 are transverse
or longitudinal.
[1 mark]
Examiner report: The great majority of answers included a reference to transverse waves.
However, the reasoning was frequently inadequate. Candidates were expected to state that the
direction of the vibrations is normal to the direction of travel of wave energy. Inappropriate
statements such as the particles move at right angles to the direction of the wave were
common.

9207/21 Q6a
Distinguish between electromotive force (e.m.f.) and potential difference (p.d.). [2 marks]
Examiner report: Many answers did not make reference to energy changes. Where energy
changes were identified, few went on to state that both e.m.f. and p.d. are defined in terms of
some form of energy change per unit charge.
9207/21 Q7a
State what is meant by
-particle:
-particle:
-radiation: [2 marks]
Examiner report: In many answers, -particles were stated as being helium ions or particles. It
is more precise to refer to helium nuclei. Similarly, -radiation was often said to be energy,
whereas a more precise answer is to say that it is electromagnetic radiation or photons.
9207/22 Q3a
State Newtons first law of motion. [1 mark]
Examiner report: Many candidates were imprecise in this definition. The majority omitted
constant speed in a straight line or the resultant external force.
9207/22 Q3bi
A box slides down a slope, as shown in Fig. 3.1.

The angle of the slope to the horizontal is 20. The box has a mass of 65 kg. The total resistive
force R acting on the box is constant as it slides down the slope.
State the names and directions of the other two forces acting on the box. [2 marks]
Examiner report: Many candidates gave imprecise directions for the two forces or no
directions at all. A normal force upwards and a weight downwards were considered to be given
with insufficient detail, as it is unclear whether up and down refer to the slope or to the
vertical.
9702/22 Q7a
A laser is placed in front of a double slit, as shown in Fig. 7.1.

The laser emits light of frequency 670 THz. Interference fringes are observed on the screen.
Explain how the interference fringes are formed. [3 marks]

Examiner report: The answers often lacked the detail required at this level. Rays or light
were terms often used instead of waves. Candidates should be encouraged to use correct terms
when asked for an explanation. The need for the waves to be coherent after passing through the
slits was seldom described by candidates. The description of crest on crest for a maximum is
not sufficient at this level. A description involving path or phase difference between the waves
that reach the screen should be encouraged. There were a significant number of candidates who
confused path and phase difference. Repeating the words in the question without any further
explanation will not gain any credit and should be discouraged.
9702/23 Q3a and bi
Explain what is meant by work done. [1 mark]
Examiner report: Many candidates gave an answer that was not sufficiently precise at this
level. The explanation should refer to a force moving a body in the direction of the force. Work
done being described merely as the product of force and distance does not gain credit (this
could also describe a moment).
A boy on a board B slides down a slope, as shown in Fig. 3.1.
The angle of the slope to the horizontal is 30. The total resistive force F acting on B is constant.

The angle of the slope to the horizontal is 30. The total resistive force F acting on B is constant.
State a word equation that links the work done by the force F on B to the changes in potential
and kinetic energy.
[1 mark]
Examiner report: Very few candidates followed the instruction to give a word equation in
terms of the quantities work done, change in kinetic energy and change in potential energy.
Those that did were often not specific with the sign of the change for the kinetic and potential
energies, and hence it was not clear whether the change was a gain or a loss.
9702/23 Q4a
A spring hangs vertically from a point P, as shown in Fig. 4.1.

Explain how the apparatus in Fig. 4.1 may be used to determine the load on the spring at the
elastic limit. [2 marks]
Examiner report: Very few candidates described a method of determining the load at the
elastic limit. A majority described how the limit of proportionality or Hookes law could be
determined. There were a small number who described adding loads in small amounts and
removing the load at each stage to see if the spring returned to its original length.
9702/23 Q6aii, aiii and c
A hollow tube is used to investigate stationary waves. The tube is closed at one end and open at
the other end. A loudspeaker connected to a signal generator is placed near the open end of the
tube, as shown in Fig. 6.1.

The tube has length L. The frequency of the signal generator is adjusted so that the loudspeaker
produces a progressive wave of frequency 440 Hz. A stationary wave is formed in the tube. A
representation of this stationary wave is shown in Fig. 6.1.
Two points P and Q on the stationary wave are labelled.
Explain how the stationary wave is formed in the tube. [3 marks]
Examiner report: There were many answers that described the general formation of stationary
waves without any reference to the situation in the question. Candidates should be encouraged
to describe phenomena with specific reference to the question. Very few candidates gained full
credit for this part.
State the direction of the oscillations of an air particle at point P.

[1 mark]

Examiner report: A small minority of candidates recognised that the stationary wave in this
question had been formed by a sound wave and that the vibration of particles was parallel to the
length of the tube.
State the phase difference between points P and Q on the stationary wave.

[1 mark]

Examiner report: The concept of phase difference within a loop of a stationary wave was
poorly understood by the majority of candidates. Candidates would benefit from further study of
the phase relationships in a stationary wave.
Base quantities and units and uncertainties many questions in these sections were
answered well, but the Principal examiner has identified a significant number as causing
problems for candidates.
9702/11 Q1
Which pair of units contains one derived unit and one SI base unit?
A
B
C
D

ampere
kilogram
metre
newton

coulomb
kelvin
second
pascal

Examiner report: This question tested straightforward recall but many candidates did not
choose the correct answer.
9702/11 Q2
What is equivalent to 2000 microvolts?
A 2JC-1

B 2 mV

C 2 pV

D 2000 mV

Examiner report: This type of routine question needs to be practised more carefully, not only
for the multiple choice paper but also for the written papers. Candidates often do not notice
impossibly incorrect answers because of incorrect units or powers of ten.
9702/13
Which quantity can be measured in electronvolts (eV)?
A electric charge
B electric potential

C energy
D power
Examiner report: Many candidates chose answer B, perhaps connecting electro... or ...volt
in the stem with the electrical answers.
9702/23 Q1a
Underline all the base quantities in the following list. [2 marks]
ampere

charge

current

mass

second

temperature

weight

Examiner report: A considerable number of answers included the base units instead of the
base quantities. A significant number considered charge to be a base quantity. Mass was
frequently omitted from the list of correct answers.
9702/11 Q5
The Young modulus of the material of a wire is to be found. The Young modulus E is given by the
equation below.
E = 4Fl
d2x
The wire is extended by a known force and the following measurements are made.
Which measurement has the largest effect on the uncertainty in the value of the calculated
Young modulus?

Examiner report: Many candidates did not double the percentage uncertainty in the diameter.
9702/12 Q5
A thermometer can be read to an accuracy of 0.5 C. This thermometer is used to measure a
temperature rise from 40 C to 100 C.
What is the percentage uncertainty in the measurement of the temperature rise?
A 0.5 %

B 0.8 %

C 1.3 %

D 1.7 %

Examiner report: Almost half of the candidates assumed that the uncertainty was 0.5 C in the
temperature difference of 60 C, but this is only half of the uncertainty since this happens at
both the low and the high temperatures. The correct answer is D.
9702/22 Q2bi and ii
A coin is made in the shape of a thin cylinder, as shown in Fig. 2.1.

Fig. 2.2 shows the measurements made in order to determine the density of the material used
to make the coin.

Calculate the percentage uncertainty in .

[3 marks]

Examiner report: The majority of candidates found this part difficult. A significant proportion of
candidates did not seem to understand the process for calculating a total percentage
uncertainty. Common mistakes were to give the fractional uncertainty instead of the percentage
uncertainty and not including all the quantities used to calculate the density. Many candidates
did not use twice the percentage uncertainty for the diameter or used the same uncertainty in
the radius as was given for the diameter.
State the value of with its actual uncertainty. [1 mark]
Examiner report: Many candidates found this part difficult. The majority of answers gave two
or more significant figures for the uncertainty or an answer for the density that did not have a
value to the same decimal place as the uncertainty.
Projectile motion although some aspects of these questions were answered well the
independence of the horizontal and vertical components seems to have caused some problems.
9702/11 Q6
A tennis ball is thrown horizontally in air from the top of a tall building.
If the effect of air resistance is not negligible, what happens to the horizontal and vertical
components of the balls velocity?

Examiner report: Many candidates assumed that the horizontal component of the velocity was
constant. These candidates would have benefited from careful reading of the question, noting
that air resistance is not negligible.
9702/11 Q7
An object is thrown with velocity 5.2 m s 1 vertically upwards on the Moon. The acceleration due
to gravity on the Moon is 1.62 ms-2
What is the time taken for the object to return to its starting point?
A 2.5 s

B 3.2 s

4.5 s

D 6.4 s

Examiner report: A common mistake was to choose B. Candidates choosing B correctly


calculated the time for the object to reach its maximum height, but then did not double this to
give the total time taken to return to its starting point.
9702/22 Q4bi2
A ball of mass 400 g is thrown with an initial velocity of 30.0 m s 1 at an angle of 45.0 to the
horizontal, as shown in Fig. 4.1.

Calculate the maximum height H of the ball. [2 marks]

Examiner report: A significant number of candidates showed a basic misunderstanding of this


type of motion. The common errors were to use the initial velocity instead of the component in
the vertical direction, to equate the loss in kinetic energy with the gain in potential energy or to
use a positive acceleration.
9702/23 Q2biii
A ball leaves point P at the top of a cliff with a horizontal velocity of 15 m s 1, as shown in Fig.
2.1.

The height of the cliff is 25 m. The ball hits the ground at point Q.
Air resistance is negligible.
Calculate the magnitude of the displacement of the ball at point Q from point P. (candidates have
already shown that it takes 2.3 seconds for the ball to fall to the ground) [4 marks]
Examiner report: Candidates who had practised this type of calculation generally scored high
marks. A considerable
number of candidates were unable to calculate the horizontal displacement of the ball. Many
used an equation of constant acceleration. The idea that the displacements in the horizontal and
vertical directions could be treated independently was missed by a large majority of candidates.
The significance of direction there are many situations where the vector nature of a
quantity is important and this often seems to be missed.
9702/11 Q15
A weight W hangs from a trolley that runs along a rail. The trolley moves horizontally through a
distance p and simultaneously raises the weight through a height q.

As a result, the weight moves through a distance r from X to Y. It starts and finishes at rest.
How much work is done on the weight during this process?
A Wp

B W(p + q) C Wq

D Wr

Examiner report: It is likely that many candidates would have realised that Wq was the gain in
potential energy, but many candidates chose Wr as the work done. These candidates should be
encouraged to remember that the work done is the change in potential energy, or alternatively
that work done = force distance moved in the direction of the force.
9702/11 Q29
The diagram shows two points P and Q which lie 90 apart on a circle of radius r.

A positive point charge at the centre of the circle creates an electric field of magnitude E at both
P and Q.

Which expression gives the work done in moving a unit positive charge from P to Q?
A 0

B Exr

C E x (r/2)

D E x (r)

Examiner report: Answer C was common, and this showed a similar misunderstanding to
Question 15. As the charge moves from P to Q, the force is always at right-angles to the
motion, and so no work is done, giving A as the correct answer.

9702/12 Q12
A tiny oil droplet with mass 6.9 1013 kg is at rest in an electric field of electric field strength
2.1 107 N C1, as shown.

The weight of the droplet is exactly balanced by the electrical force on the droplet.
What is the charge on the droplet?
A
B
C
D

3.3 1020 C
3.3 1020 C
3.2 1019 C
3.2 1019 C

Examiner report: Most did the arithmetic of this question correctly, but many candidates did
not take into account the fact that the arrows on an electric field diagram show the direction of
the force on a positive charge. Here the charge must be negative.
9702/13 Q31
An electron enters a region of space where there is a uniform electric field E as shown.
Initially, the electron is moving parallel to, and in the direction of, the electric field.
What is the subsequent path and change of speed of the electron?

Examiner report: The force on the electron is opposite to the direction of its motion. This
causes deceleration but the path will be linear, so the answer is A.
9207/12 Q16
An escalator is 60 m long and lifts passengers through a vertical height of 30 m, as shown.

To drive the escalator against the forces of friction when there are no passengers requires a
power of 2.0 kW.
The escalator is used by passengers of average mass 60 kg and the power to overcome friction
remains constant.
How much power is required to drive the escalator when it is carrying 20 passengers and is
travelling at 0.75 m s1?
A 4.4 kW

6.4 kW

C 8.8 kW

10.8 kW

Examiner report: The gain in potential energy per second depends on the vertical distance
moved per second. Two common mistakes were to use 60 m rather than 30 m and forgetting to
add on the 2.0 kW.
9702/21 Q1c
The direction of motion of the car in (b) at time t = 2.0 s is shown in Fig. 1.2.

On Fig. 1.2, show with arrows the directions of the acceleration (label this arrow A) and the
resultant force (label this arrow F). [1 mark]
Examiner report: It was common to see the two arrows pointing in opposite directions.
Candidates should be
reminded that resultant force and acceleration are always in the same direction.
The particle nature of matter There were not many questions on this topic in the June 2014
papers, but those that there were seemed to have caused problems.
9702/11 Q18
There is one temperature, about 0.01 C, at which water, water vapour and ice can co-exist in
equilibrium.
Which statement about the properties of the molecules at this temperature is correct?
A Ice molecules are closer to one another than water molecules.
B The mean kinetic energy of water molecules is greater than the mean kinetic energy of ice
molecules.
C Water vapour molecules are less massive than water molecules.
D Water vapour molecules have the same mean speed as both ice and water molecules.
Examiner report: It is worth emphasising to candidates that the molecules in a solid and those
in a liquid have similar spacing.
Ice is slightly less dense than water at 0 C (it floats on water), so its molecules are slightly
further apart than molecules in water.
9702/13 Q19

When the water in a pond freezes, it changes from a liquid to a solid. When this occurs, it
changes volume and exchanges energy with the surroundings.
Which row is correct?

Examiner report: Water expands when it freezes and becomes ice. This should have enabled
candidates to rule out options A and B.

Manipulating equations and using graphs this covers a wide range of topics, but seems to
cause problems in whichever context it comes up.
9702/11 Q24
The speed v of waves in deep water is given by the equation
v2 = g
2
where is the wavelength of the waves and g is the acceleration of free fall.
A student measures the wavelength and the frequency f of a number of these waves.
Which graph should he plot to give a straight line through the origin?
A
B
C
D

f2 against
f against 2
f against 1/
f2 against 1/

Examiner report: The manipulation of this equation into f2 = g/2 caused problems. A large
number of candidates gave the incorrect answer C.
9702/12 Q29
Two oppositely-charged horizontal metal plates are placed in a vacuum. A positively-charged
particle starts from rest and moves from one plate to the other plate, as shown.

Which graph shows how the kinetic energy EK of the particle varies with the distance x moved
from the positive plate?

Examiner report: The field is uniform and so the electrical potential energy decreases
uniformly with distance. The kinetic energy therefore increases uniformly too, which is answer D.
This answer could also be obtained by reasoning that a constant force gives a constant
acceleration, and then using v2 = 2ax shows that the kinetic energy is proportional to x. Many
candidates may have assumed that the horizontal axis represents time, and these candidates
would have benefited from more careful reading of the question.
9702/13 Q10
A tennis ball is dropped onto a table and bounces back up. The table exerts a force F on the ball.
Which graph best shows the variation with time t of the force F while the ball is in contact with
the table?

Examiner report: Candidates found this question difficult. The table does not exert any force
on the ball at the instant they make contact or at the instant they separate. The force must
gradually increase and then decrease between these points, so only C could be correct.
9702/13 Q16
An electric motor has an input power Pin, useful output power Pout and efficiency .

How much power is lost by the motor?

Electric circuits and networks this was one of the most heavily examined sections of the
syllabus and although many questions were answered well, those with a twist seemed to cause
problems.
9702/11 Q31
A battery, with a constant internal resistance, is connected to a resistor of resistance 250 , as
shown.

The current in the resistor is 40 mA for a time of 60 s. During this time 6.0 J of energy is lost in
the internal resistance.
What are the energy supplied to the external resistor during the 60 s and the e.m.f. of the
battery?

Examiner report: Candidates found this question difficult. The energy transferred in the
external resistor is I2Rt which gives 24 J. The battery must therefore supply a total of 30 J of
energy to the whole circuit. The charge transferred is It
(= 2.4 C) and so the e.m.f. of the battery is (30 J / 2.4 C) = 12.5 V, answer D.
9702/13 Q34
A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6 V and internal resistance R. An external resistor,
also of resistance R, is connected across this cell, as shown.

Power P is dissipated by the external resistor.


The cell is replaced by a different cell that has an e.m.f. of 6 V and negligible internal resistance.
What is the new power that is dissipated in the external resistor?
A 0.5P

B P

C 2P

D 4P

Examiner report: Replacing the cell with a different cell with negligible internal resistance
gives half the total resistance, so double the current. The power dissipated in the external
resistor is I2 R, so it must increase by a factor of 4, giving D.
9702/11 Q33
In the circuit below, a voltmeter of resistance Rv and an ammeter of resistance RA are used to
measure the resistance R of the fixed resistor.

Which condition is necessary for an accurate value to be obtained for R?


A
B
C
D

R
R
R
R

is
is
is
is

much
much
much
much

smaller than
smaller than
greater than
greater than

RV.
RA.
RV.
RA.

Examiner report: The resistance of the ammeter has no effect because the voltmeter is
connected to measure the potential difference across only the fixed resistor. The voltmeter must
have a much greater resistance than R, otherwise there will be a significant current in the
voltmeter and the value obtained from V/I will not be an accurate value for R.
9702/23 Q5a
Explain why the terminal potential difference (p.d.) of a cell with internal resistance may beless
than the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell. [2 marks]

Examiner report: There were numerous answers that did not make reference to energy being
used in the battery or lost volts in the battery due to the internal resistance. There were very
few answers that added that this only occurs when the battery supplies a current. The idea that
the terminal potential difference is numerically equal to the electromotive force when the
battery is not supplying a current was seldom mentioned.
9702/11 Q36
What is the total resistance between points P and Q in this network of resistors?

A8

B 16

C 24

D 32

Examiner report: This question requires careful thought. The two corners of the circuit each
have resistance 32 , so their combined resistance in parallel is 16 . This is in parallel with the
diagonal of resistance 16 , so the total resistance must be 8 , answer A.

9702/13 Q37
What is the current in the 40 resistor of the circuit shown?

A zero

B 0.13 A

C 0.25 A

D 0.50 A

Examiner report: The answer to this question can be reasoned by symmetry. The junctions on
either side of the 40 resistor must be at the same potential, so there is no current in this
resistor.
9702/12 Q32
The diagram shows an electric pump for a garden fountain connected by an 18 m cable to a 230
V mains electrical supply.

The performance of the pump is acceptable if the potential difference (p.d.) across it is at least
218 V. The current through it is then 0.83 A.
What is the maximum resistance per metre of each of the two wires in the cable if the pump is to
perform acceptably?
A 0.40 m1

B 0.80 m1

C 1.3 m1

D 1.4 m1

Examiner report: Candidates found this question to be one of the most difficult on the paper. If
the pump performs acceptably, the potential difference across the pump is 218 V, so the
potential difference across the cables is 12 V. The current is 0.83 A so the cables have a total
resistance of 14.5 . The total length of the cables is 36 m, giving a resistance per unit length of
0.40 m1, which is answer A.
9702/12 Q33
Cell X has an e.m.f. of 2.0 V and an internal resistance of 2.0 . Cell Y has an e.m.f. of 1.6 V and
an internal resistance of 1.2 . These two cells are connected to a resistor of resistance 0.8 , as
shown.

What is the current in cell X?


A 0.10 A

B 0.50 A

C 0.90 A

D 1.0 A

Examiner report: This question can be answered using Kirchhoffs second law: (2.0 V 1.6 V)
= (2.0 + 0.8 + 1.2 )I.
Candidates must take care with the signs of the e.m.f. terms.
9702/21 Q6biv and 6c
A battery of e.m.f. 12 V and internal resistance 0.50 is connected to two identical lamps, as
shown in Fig. 6.1.

Each lamp has constant resistance. The power rating of each lamp is 48 W when connected
across a p.d. of 12 V.
Calculate the power dissipated in one lamp. [2 marks]
Examiner report: Candidates found this part difficult, even allowing for error-carried-forward
from an incorrect answer in (iii). The value of the current was often taken as the current from
the battery, rather than the current in an individual lamp.
A third identical lamp is placed in parallel with the battery in the circuit of Fig. 6.1. Describe and
explain the effect on the terminal p.d. of the battery. [2 marks]
Examiner report: Candidates who had an understanding of this topic usually gave a good
explanation. Some thought that an additional lamp would increase the resistance of the circuit.
Of those who stated that the total resistance would decrease and that the current would
increase, many then incorrectly stated that the terminal p.d. would increase. Candidates should
be reminded that increased current in a battery with internal resistance results in a lower
terminal p.d.
9701/12 Q35
A power supply and a solar cell are compared using the potentiometer circuit shown.

The e.m.f. produced by the solar cell is measured on the potentiometer.


The potentiometer wire PQ is 100.0 cm long and has a resistance of 5.00 . The power supply
has an e.m.f. of 2.000 V and the solar cell has an e.m.f. of 5.00 mV.
Which resistance R must be used so that the galvanometer reads zero when PS = 40.0 cm?
A 395

795

C 995

1055

Examiner report: The potential difference across PS is given by 2.000 V (0.400 5.00 / [R
+ 5.00 ]). Equate this to the e.m.f. of the solar cell and rearrange to obtain R, which is 795 ,
answer B.
9702/13 Q35
The diagram shows a low-voltage circuit for heating the water in a fish tank.

The heater has a resistance of 3.0 . The power supply has an e.m.f. of 12 V and an internal
resistance of 1.0 .
At which rate is energy supplied to the heater?
A 27 W

B 36 W

C 48 W

D 64 W

Examiner report: The current is obtained from the e.m.f. and the total resistance, and is 3.0 A.
The power in the heater is given by I2R, which is 27 W, answer A.
9702/13 Q36
The diagrams show the same cell, ammeter, potentiometer and fixed resistor connected in
different ways.

The distance d between the sliding contact and a particular end of the potentiometer is varied.
The current measured is then plotted against the distance d.
For which two circuits will the graphs be identical?
A W and X B W and Y C X and Y

D Y and Z

Examiner report: Candidates found this question difficult. W and X will give identical graphs. In
each of these arrangements, the resistance of the length d of the potentiometer is connected
into the circuit but the right-hand end does not contribute.
9702/22 Q6b, 6cii and 6d
A battery is connected in series with resistors X and Y, as shown in Fig. 6.1.
The resistance of X is constant. The resistance of Y is 6.0 . The battery has electromotive force
(e.m.f.) 24 V and zero internal resistance. A variable resistor of resistance R is connected in
parallel with X.
The current from the battery is changed by varying R from 5.0 to 20 . The variation with R
of is shown in Fig. 6.2.

Use Fig. 6.2 to state and explain the variation of the p.d. across resistor Y as R is increased.
Numerical values are not required. [2 marks]
Examiner report: A significant number of candidates understood that, if the current decreases
in the circuit, the potential difference across Y must decrease. Many candidates did not use the
graph that showed the current decreasing with increasing R. There were many
misinterpretations of the circuit which often came as a result of not reading the circuit or text
carefully. The effect of R increasing was used in the equation V = IR to suggest that the p.d.
would increase. The fact that there was an effect on the current of increasing R and that the V
required was not that across R was missed by many of these candidates. A significant number of
candidates understood that, if the current decreases in the circuit, the potential difference
across Y must decrease. Many candidates did not use the graph that showed the current
decreasing with increasing R. There were many misinterpretations of the circuit which often
came as a result of not reading the circuit or text carefully. The effect of R increasing was used
in the equation V = IR to suggest that the p.d. would increase. The fact that there was an effect
on the current of increasing R and that the V required was not that across R was missed by
many of these candidates.
For R = 6.0 , calculate the resistance of X (they have already shown that VAB = 9.6V) [3
marks]
Examiner report: The majority of candidates found this calculation difficult. The determination
of the resistance using the parallel formula caused most candidates a problem. A significant
number of candidates determined the correct resistance for the parallel section but then found it
difficult to determine the resistance of X or gave this answer as the resistance of X. There were
some good answers from the stronger candidates.
State and explain qualitatively how the power provided by the battery changes as the resistance
R is increased. [1 mark]
Examiner report: There were very few correct answers. Many candidates did not comment on
the e.m.f. of the battery remaining constant.
Nuclear reactions although candidates seem to have been quite adept at using nuclear
reactions, questions involving only words caused some problems.

9702/11 Q39
U++ is a doubly-ionised uranium atom. The uranium atom has a nucleon number of 235 and a
proton number of 92.
In a simple model of the atom, how many particles are in this ionised atom?
A 235

B 325

C 327

D 329

Examiner report: The nucleus contains 235 nucleons. A neutral atom would have 92 electrons,
but this atom is doubly-ionised and positive, so it must have 90 electrons. There are 325
particles in total, answer B.
9702/12 Q38
A nucleus X decays into a nucleus Y by emitting an alpha particle followed by two beta particles.
Which statement about this nuclear decay is correct?
A
B
C
D

Beta particle decay occurs when a proton changes into a neutron.


Nucleus Y has the same nucleon number as nucleus X.
Nucleus Y is an isotope of nucleus X.
The total mass of the products is equal to the mass of the initial nucleus X.

Examiner report: Some candidates gave D. The mass cannot be conserved because the decay
releases energy. The correct answer C can be obtained by carefully writing out the nuclear
equation with correct proton numbers for the alpha and beta particles, and this shows no overall
change in proton number.

General questions the questions in this section do not fit a particular pattern, but have
caused problems for candidates.
9702/11 Q21
The graph is a load-extension graph for a wire undergoing elastic deformation.

How much work is done on the wire to increase the extension from 10 mm to 20 mm?
A 0.028 J

B 0.184 J

C 0.28 J

D 0.37 J

Examiner report: Candidates found this question difficult. Some candidates forgot g and some
seem to have ignored the
gradient of the line (i.e. that the load is not constant).

A direct way to reach the answer is to use (2.85 9.8 0.01) = 0.28.
9702/21 Q6
A radio-controlled toy car travels along a straight line for a time of 15 s.
The variation with time t of the velocity v of the car is shown below.

What is the average velocity of the toy car for the journey shown by the graph?
A 1.5 m s1

B 0.0 m s1 C 4.0 m s1 D 4.5 m s1

Examiner report: Many candidates chose C. These candidates had determined the average
speed. The question asked for the average velocity, which is zero: the car starts and finishes at
the same point. Candidates should be encouraged to read the question carefully. In this case,
there is a significant difference between speed and velocity.
9702/12 Q15
A small mass is placed at point P on the inside surface of a smooth hemisphere. It is then
released from rest. When it reaches the lowest point T, its speed is 4.0 m s 1.
The diagram (not to scale) shows the speed of the mass at other points Q, R and S as it slides
down. Air resistance is negligible.

The mass loses potential energy E in falling from P to T.


At which point has the mass lost potential energy E/4?
A
B
C
D

Q
R
S
none of these

Examiner report: This is more easily seen in terms of kinetic energy. When the mass is at R, it
has half the final speed so has gained energy E/4. This is when it has lost potential energy E/4.
9702/13 Q18
A ball drops onto a horizontal surface and bounces elastically.
What happens to the kinetic energy of the ball during the very short time that it is in contact
with the surface?
A
B
C
D

Most of the kinetic energy is lost as heat and sound energy.


The kinetic energy decreases to zero and then returns to its original value.
The kinetic energy remains constant because it is an elastic collision.
The kinetic energy remains constant in magnitude but changes direction.

Examiner report: Kinetic energy is a scalar so does not have a direction, so D cannot be the
correct answer. Some candidates chose C, but this cannot be correct because the ball stops
(during which time all the energy becomes elastic potential energy).
9702/12 Q24
The diagram shows a vertical cross-section through a water wave moving from left to right.

At which point is the water moving upwards with maximum speed?

Examiner report: This question was found to be difficult. Candidates would benefit from
drawing on the exam paper. If they did draw a wave, at most a tenth of a wavelength further on,
they would have seen that at A and B the water is moving downwards. At D it is just slightly
upwards but the answer is clearly C.
9702/13 Q12
A stationary body explodes into two components of masses m and 2m.
The components gain kinetic energies X and Y respectively.

What is the ratio X/Y?


A 1/4

B 1/2

C 2/1

D 4/1

Examiner report: This question needs care. The speed of m is twice the speed of 2m because
momentum is conserved. The kinetic energy of m is therefore multiplied by 4 as a result of the
v2 term and divided by 2 because it has half the mass. This gives answer C.
9702/13 Q14
A uniform solid cuboid of concrete of dimensions 0.50 m 1.20 m 0.40 m and weight 4000 N
rests on a flat surface with the 1.20 m edge vertical as shown in diagram 1.

What is the minimum energy required to roll the cuboid through 90 to the position shown in
diagram 2 with the 0.50 m edge vertical?
A 200 J

B 400 J

C 1400 J

D 2600 J

Examiner report: This question is unusual and candidates found it difficult. The energy
required depends on working out the rise in potential energy when the cuboids bottom right
edge is the only contact with the ground and the top left edge is vertically above it. This gives a
5, 12, 13 triangle and the centre of mass is then 0.65 m above the surface.
9207/13 Q22
The Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean has a depth of about 10 km.
Assuming that sea water is incompressible and has a density of about 1020 kg m 3, what would
be the approximate pressure at that depth?

A
B
C
D

105 Pa
106 Pa
107 Pa
108 Pa

Examiner report: Some candidates found this difficult. The formula for pressure is given in the
question paper, and candidates should be reminded to use the formulae given rather than
relying on memory.
9207/13 Q26
What is the approximate range of frequencies of infra-red radiation?
A
B
C
D

1 103 Hz to 1 109 Hz
1 109 Hz to 1 1011 Hz
1 1011 Hz to 1 1014 Hz
1 1014 Hz to 1 1017 Hz

Examiner report: This was a somewhat different question but the syllabus does require
candidates to know the orders of magnitude of the wavelengths of different components of the
electromagnetic spectrum. Candidates should also be able to change these to frequencies.
9702/22 5bii
Two wires P and Q of the same material and same original length l0 are fixed so that they hang
vertically, as shown in Fig. 5.1.

The diameter of P is d and the diameter of Q is 2d. The same force F is applied to the lower end
of each wire.
Show your working and determine the ratio strain in P/strain in Q (candidates have already
found
stress in P/stress in Q)
Examiner report: The majority of candidates found this part very difficult. Very few realised
that, as the wires were made from the same material, the value of the Young modulus would be
the same. Candidates should be encouraged to think of the Young modulus as a property of a
material itself, rather than being a property of a sample with specific size or shape. A significant
number of candidates gave an answer without the necessary working.
9702/21 Q2bii
A lorry moves up a road that is inclined at 9.0 to the horizontal, as shown in Fig. 2.1.
The lorry has mass 2500 kg and is travelling at a constant speed of 8.5 m s 1. The force due to
air resistance is negligible.

State two reasons why the rate of change of potential energy of the lorry is equal to the power
calculated in (i).
Examiner report: There were very few answers where reference was made to constant kinetic
energy because the speed is constant. Some stated that the kinetic energy would be zero.

Likewise, very few candidates stated that no work would be done against air resistance. In a
significant number of scripts, the answer was given as constant speed with no air resistance. It
should be emphasised to candidates that paraphrasing the question does not score any credit.
9702/11 Q11
The diagrams show two ways of hanging the same picture.

In both cases, a string is attached to the same points on the picture and looped symmetrically
over a nail in a wall. The forces shown are those that act on the nail.
In diagram 1, the string loop is shorter than in diagram 2.
Which information about the magnitude of the forces is correct?
A
B
C
D

R1 = R2
R1 = R2
R1 > R2
R1 < R2

T1
T1
T1
T1

=
>
<
=

T2
T2
T2
T2

Examiner report: The forces R1 and R2 are always equal to the weight of the picture, so only A
and B have a correct statement involving these forces. Consideration of the angles shows that T1
> T2, or alternatively candidates could simply rule out A by reasoning that T1 and T2 cannot be
equal.

9702/22 Q6
A tractor of mass 1000 kg is connected by a tow-bar to a trailer of mass 1000 kg. The total
resistance to motion has a constant value of 4000 N. One quarter of this resistance acts on the
trailer.
When the tractor and trailer are moving along horizontal ground at a constant speed of 6 m s 1,
what is the force exerted on the tractor by the tow-bar?
A0N

B 1000 N

C 3000 N

D 4000 N

Examiner report: This question involves equilibrium of an object moving with constant
velocity. The resultant force on the trailer is zero, so the force exerted by the tractor on the
trailer is 1000 N. This is equal and opposite to the force exerted on the tractor by the tow-bar.

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