Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Name
ID No
Time allowed
1:30
hrs
Instructor Tewodros
M.
Date 13/,7/99E.C
Exam Profile
1. Part I Matching
10 Que. = 10%
10 Que.
20 .
4 = 10 %
= 10%
= 20%
Total 50%
General Instruction
1. Attempt All Questions And Give Your Answers On The Space
Provided Before The Questions
2. Use the two clean papers to give your answers for essay part
3. Use Block letters for part I to III.
A) Nutritional anemia
B) Weaning practice
C) Food balance sheet
D) Beam balance
E) Estimated average requirement
F) Growth monitoring
G) Anthropometry
H) Breast feeding
I) Salter scale
J) Nutritional survey
K) Tonicities of nutrient
L) Standing
M) Biochemical method
N) Body mass index
O) Wasting
2. Which part of life time is vulnerable for nutritional problems because of rapid
growth.
A) Infancy
B) Adolescence
C) Old age
D) Adult hood
3. Risk of early cessation of breast feeding
A) Maternal dehydration
B) Infant anorexia
C) Infant depression
D) All
4. Which of the following is not the option if the AFASS conditions do exist
A) Exclusive breast feeding
B) Never mixing feedings
C) Use of commercial infant formula
D) Use of home prepared infant formula
E) None of the above
5. Anthropometric measures of nutritional assessment used clinically in
A) Post- traumatic pt
B) Severe PEM
C) Chronically sick medical case
D) Patient preparing for operation
E) All of the above
6. Which one of the following is helpful for measuring fat mass in the body
A) Body mass index
B) Head circumference
C) Waist to hip ration
3
D) Length
E) All
7. Quality control measures the in Anthropometry includes all except
A) Standardize the procedure
B) Training of data collectors
C) Use of skillful professionals for data collection
D) Calibration of instruments after each measurement
8. Which one is false about functional Biochemical tests?
A) It can be easily affected by physiological state of patients
B) Useful for sub clinical deficiency test
C) Have greater Biological value
D) If incorporate tests like test actually for Zink & capillary fragility for vit. C
12. Which can be level III process for sever PEM develop
A) Drought
B) Anorexia
C) Infection
D) Poverty
B) Iron
C) Riboflavin
D) Vitamin A
E) None
B) Gomez
16. Which classification to diagnose PEM shows the onset of duration of PEM
A) Water low
B) Gomez
C) Well come trust
D) None of the above
17. Edema is incorporated in one of the following classifications to diagnose
PEM.
A) Water low classification
B) Gomez
C) Well- come trust
D) All of the above
18. Routine surveillance of measurements are incorporated in all process of
management of sever PEM, except
5
A) Admission
B) Phase I
C) Transition phase
D) Phase 2
Part IV Essay
1. Write the criteria to process from phase one to transition phase in management
of PEM (2 marks)
2. Write the criteria to move back from transition phase to phase 1 in management
of PEM (3 marks)
3. Write Discharge criteria in management of PEM for children & adults (2 marks)
4. Define Failure to thrive in growth monitoring (3 marks)
A) polysaccharides
B) essential aas
C) Chlorophyll
D) ascorbic acid
E) Micronutrient
F) Staples food
supplied in food
G) Malnutrition
H) Food
I) Carbohydrates
J) Dairy products
K) Monosaccharide
L) Non- essential aas
M) Disaccharides
N) Macronutrient
9. Saturated F.A is greatly found in animals source and tend to raise blood
Cholesterol level.
10. Hemoglobin & other substances which are formed from protein & added nonprotein materials are termed as conjugate proteins.
Part III MCQ (1 mark each)
1. Which one of the following macronutrient is the chief source of energy for
animal kingdom.
A) Carbohydrate
B) Protein
C) Fat /lipid
D) Water
E) All of the above
2. Monosaccharide are said to be simple CHO because
A) They can not be hydrolyzed into smaller molecule
B) They can not be broken down in to smaller molecule
C) They are absorbed directly in to the blood stream with out undergoing
digestion
D) all of the above
3. All of the following are similar except
A) Maltose
C) Sucrose
B) Fructose
D) Lactose
C) Galactose
B) Fructose
D) Sucrose
E) Sugar alcohol
C) Retinol
B) Pyridoxine
D) cobalamin
C) Beriberi
B) Tetanny
D) Rickets
B) Protein
D) Organic acid
E) Sugar alcohols
10
A) Ca
B) Mg
C) NA
D) Fe
C) Iodine
B) Glucose
D) Florien
number of C-chain
A) 6 12 carbon
C) 2 - 4 carbon
B) 8 12 carbon
D) > 20 carbon
Part IV Essay
1. Write the name & clinical feature of Beriberi (3 mark)
2. Explain the classification & important points of each of the lipoproteins (3 marks)
3. Wright the preventive supplementation of vitamin A administration protocol in
Ethiopia for each target groups (2 marks)
4. Write the definition of trace elements & their examples (2 marks)
12
A)
Lympho
granuloma
vencrum
2. Dysurea & with urethral discharge after 6th
B)
Lepromatus
leprosy
Days of exposure.
C) Shigellosis
D) Gonorrhea
E) Cholera
F)
sexually
transmitting infection
swelling which need treatment of doxcylline
5. Patient on supine position & when passively
Flex his neck the pt. flex his hip
6. Numerous bacilli found in different parts of
the body in
G) TF stage
H) Syphilis
I) Chancroid
J) Typhoid fever
type of leprosy
K) Amobeosis
L) Brugenskis sign
M) Kerning sign
N) Paucy leprosy
O)
Sexually
transmitted disease
9. Acute onset of diarrhea mixed with blood & sever
abdominal cramp associated with tenasmus
10. Greater than 5 whitish follicles at the tarsal conjactiva in trachoma
13
15
16
11. Hypo pigmented or reddish skin lesion (s) with definite loss of sensation is for
A) Coetaneous anthrax
B) Impetigo
C) Leprosy
D) Trachoma
12. Contact racing & Institutional survey stands for
A) Passive case finding
B) Active case finding
13. Tender reddish skin nodules appearance is in one of the leprosy reaction
A) Erythema nodalsum leprom
B) Mild reversal reaction
C) Sever reversal reaction
D) All
14. True about carbuncle
A)
B)
C)
D)
15. The most virulent disease of shigella complication with hemolytic uremic
syndrome because of
A) S. dystere
B) S. flexneri
C) S. boyaii
D) S. sonnei
17
( C ) for
B)
( - ) for
C)
for
D)
for
of the country
C) Generalized stage
D) PPD- Test
E) treatment failure
I) Treatment complete
J) HIV-1
K) BCG vaccine
L) Kaposi Sarcoma
between 500-200/ml
M) Clinical disease
5. WHO criteria is the good criteria to diagnose AIDS because it encloses the
sero status of cases
6. If cases has disappeared from DOTs after taking greater than 4 week
treatment, and they become smear positive you start re treatment regimen
7. A patient taking Isoniazide developed Jaundice, then you give him
symptomatic treatment & stop treatment for a while.
8. Ethambutol is a bactericidal drug.
9. A Tb meningitis case will be treated as category I cases in DOTs clinic
10. From all cases of Tb 30% of cases will develop chronic infection
5. Type of Tb where lung damage is localized to middle & lower lung zones
a) Primary Tb
b) Post primary Tb
(0.5 mark)
(1 mark)
Part V Essay
1. Write the case definition of smear +ve P.Tb & smear ve P.Tb (2 marks)
2. Write the criteria of CDC for diagnosis of AIDS ( 1 mark)
3. Write the sputum AFB follow up of smear +ve P.Tb cases during treatment (2
marks)
22
ID No
Part I Matching
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
3.
23
Part V Essay
24
Name
ID No
Time allowed
2:00
hrs
Instructor Tewodros
M.
Date Nov, 8/3/99
Exam Profile
E) Multiple Choice
10 Que.
= 10%
F) Matching
22 Que.
= 22%
G) True or False
2 Que. = 8%
25
H) Essay
1 Question = 3.1 %
Total 43.1%
Good Luck!!
Part I Matching (1mark each)
A
1. Matching between the patient and the
nurse for the purpose of data collection
B
A) Apnea
B) Chief complaint
C) Empathy
F) Family history
G) Thachycardia
H) Reflection
K) Pulse rate
L) Blood pressure
M) Dyspnea
your institution
10. Part of history which focus on the pattern
of health of the family
26
Part II Choose the best answer & write the choice on the space
provided (1 mark each)
1. A patient visited your OPD and while you are inspecting his chest, you find a
depression in the lower portion of the sternum. This shows
i. Rickets rosary
ii. Pigeon chest
iii. Funnel chest
iv. Dislocation of the sternum
B) Fungi
C) Parasites D) None
C) aggravating factor
B) Contributing factor
D) Causative agent
C) The agent
B) The environment
D) All
B) Dependent
C) Cyclical
D) Interrelated
7. All are parts of nursing process except
A) Diagnoses
C) Implmentation
B) Planning
D) Evaluation
E)None
C) Emergency assessment
D) Focus assessment
C) Physical examination
B) Interviewing history
C) Intervention
B) Diagnosis
D) Evaluation
C) Defining characteristics
B) Definition
D) All
B) Subject
D) Sensitivity
E) none
C) Condition
C) Planning
B) Implementation
D) Diagnosis
B
A). Technical skill
B) illness
C) high risk nursing diagnosis
D) Evaluation
E) Negative health model
F) Validation
G) Intellectual skill
H) Implementation
nursing diagnosis
6. Clinical judgment that a person, family or
I) Planning
J) Positive health model
the problem
7. The process of confirming the accuracy of
assessment from data collected
Part IV Essay
1. Ato Mamo, a 28 yrs old farmer from Amhara region has a body temperature
of 390C he has loss of appetite , joint pain, Generalized body weakness.
A) Write your nursing diagnosis (2 marks)
B) Give Your Goal & outcome (1 mark)
30
A) puncture
B) Bleeding
C) Avulsion
D) Open fracture
E) Log rose
F) Unstable fracture
population because of
7. A procedure (technique) done to turn
a casualty with a spinal injury
G) Shock
H) Panic
I) Stable fracture
J) Incision
K) Dislocation
L) Strains
32
B) Arterial bleeding
C) Venous bleeding
D) All
5. One is not necessary in oral fluid preparation at home
A) 2-3 table spoon of sugar or honey
B) Lemon juice
C) tea spoon of salt
D) Milk juice with orange
E) None
6. You wont give fluid orally far a patient of shock if
A) Unconscious patient
B) Extensive vomiting
C) If the patient is going to have surgery
D) Convulsing casualty
E) All of the above
7. All are sign & symptoms of infection except
A) Local hotness
B) Swelling of lymph nodes
C) Muscle contraction
D) Redness of the affected area
8. If you have got a fractured patient, you first do
A) You splint the fractured bones
B) You immobilize the bones
C) Simply let him transported to hospitals
D) Pour water to decrease swelling
9. All first aider should include one of the following to prevent disaster, except
A) Prepare health facilities for possible disaster
B) Training of all voluntary health workers
C) Increase certain professional skills
33
D) None
10. One is included as sign & symptom of spinal cord damage
A) Nausea & vomiting
B) loss of bladder or bowel control
C) Sever headache
D) Pain on the limbs
34
ID No
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
6.
2.
7.
3.
4.
5.
2.
3.
4.
5.
36
A) Dermis
B) Discharge
C) Epidermis
D) Full thickness burn
E) Carotid artery
(subcutaneous fat)
G) Sign
H) Brachial artery
(1 mark each)
39
40
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
41
Part II Matching
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part III MCQ
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part IV Essay
42
A) PR examination
B) Para Phimosis
C) Fissure
D) Genuvarum
E) Apical point
G) Murmur
H) Phimosis
I) Point of maximum pulse
J. Patch
K) Balanities
43
L) Scale
M) gallop
N) fracture
O) Genuvlgum
B) 9
D) 6
2. Ayele, 22 years old male patient can not hold air in his mouth while puffing
by his cheeks he has got
A) Sensory loss
C) Power
B) Bulk
D) gait
C) Trauma
B) Fracture
D) Achondroplasia
A) Melanin
C) Oxygen
B) Carotene
D) Protein
C) Hypo pigmentation
B) Caroteenemia
D) chloasma
7. Percussion during abdominal examination is used in one of the following use except
A) To determine mass presence
B) To show tenderness
C) To see shifting dullness
D) To show vertical span of liver
E) None
8. If your patient has got swelling of the Scrotom the possibilities could be
A) Scrotal edema
C) Hernia
B) Hydrocelle
D) All
E) None
C) Symmetry of lesion
B) Temperature
D) Turger
10. Flat circumscribed and elevated skin lesion with size of greater than 5 mm.
A) Vesicle
B) Plague
C) Bullae
B) Tumor
C) Vesicle
D) Wheal
B) 10
D) Fissure
D) 9
B) Pain
C) Temperature
45
ID
Year
Part I Matching
1
6.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
6.
7.
3.
8.
46
4.
9.
5.
10.
6.
11.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
Part IV Explain
1
a) Apnea
b) Thachipnea
c) Bradicardia
d) Thachicardia
e) Bradipnea
10 seconds or above
4. Part of vital signs measuring the
f) Pigeon chest
g) Rickets rosary
h) Pulse rate
arteries.
i) Blood pressure
j) Benign disease
k) Malignance disease
Part II Choose the best answer and write the choice on the space
47
c) Funnel chest
b) Pigeon chest
3. A patient with hepatitis was reported by having ecteric sclera, what do that
mean?
a) The sclera has some scratch
b) The eye is red
c) The sclera is not working at all
d) The sclera is yellowish in color
4. While examining a patient with snellen chart the patient can not see the letters
on the 6 meters mark but can see 9 meter marks you report the result as:
a) 6/6
b) 6/60
c) 6/9
d) 6/36
5. The lymph node detected at the site of few centimeters behind the tip of the
mandible is
a) Sub mandibular
c) Submental
b) Posterior servical
d) Pre ouricular
c) Lumps
b) Tenderness
7. Inspecting for general appearance you see that the patient is emaciated and
weak, and has generalized paleness, you report as.
a) Conscious pt.
d) Well-looking
8. While appreciating the pulse you use the artery on the medial border of the
sternomastiod muscle, the artery you touch is
a) Radial artery
c) Pedal artery
b) Carotid artery
d) femoral artery
9. Mamush , a 3 years old male patient has come to your health institution by his
parents and you took a vital sign, in the respiration he has increased rate and depth
respiration with alternate period of apnea. Mamush has
a) Kusmaul respiration
b) Biots respiration
d) Apneustic respiration
10. The best site for temperature measuring of a patient with rectal surgery is
a) Axillarys temperature
c) Oral temperature
b) Rectal temperature
d) No need to take To
c) Tympani
b) Hyper resonance
d) Stony dullness
b) false
c) cryptation
b) Vesicular sound
d) wheezing
50
ID
Year
Part I Matching
1.
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
51
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
52
Name
ID No
Date
Time allowed 1:30 hrs
Instructor Gashaw Dagne
53
Content of exam
Part I
Multiple choice question
Part II
True or False question
Part III Matching questions
Part IV Short answer questions
= 15
=5
=5
=4
Attempt all question and give your answer on the place provided!
Good Luck!!
Part I . Multiple choice questions (15 points)
Choose the best answer for the following questions and write
your response on the space provided.
1. The most common human excreta disposal system in Ethiopia is
A. Pit privy
C. Aqua privy
B. VIP latrine
C. Potable water
B. Polluted water
D. Hard water
5. Which one of the following minerals are responsible for hardness of water
A. Calcium
C. hydrogen
B. Aluminum
D. Fluorine
C. Artesian spring
D. Main spring
8. The distance between the construction of well water and pit latrine should be at
least.
A. 10 meter
C. 15 meter
B. 20 meter
D. 25 meter
C. Ca and Mg
B. Na and K
10. Which one of the following is not important in the protection box of a spring
55
water supply.
A. Diversion ditch
C. Faucet
B. Fencing
11. Which of the following is /are important factors that affect the type and
construction of latrine methods
A. Climate
C. Economic standards of the family
B. availability of water
D. Culture
E. All of the above
12. The correct step in solid waste disposal system are
A. Collection Storage Disposal
B. Collection Disposal storage
C. Storage Disposal Collection
D. Storage Collection Disposal
13. Which one of the following is false about pit latrines
A. Constructed at least 10m distance from living house
B. It is possible to use all type of anal cleansing
B. It is possible to dig a pit at any depth as required
D. None of the above
14. Incineration can reduce the volume of combustible solid wastes by :
A. 50- 60%
C. 70 80%
B. 80 90%
D. 90 100%
B. Ashes
C. Glass
D. Wood
1. Sanitary land fill is considered as complete and final disposal method of solid wastes
2. Presence of toxic elements such as lead, Arsenic and chromium in a small
amount in drinking water are not harmful.
3. One of the advantages of VIP latrines is the possibility of installing it inside
homes.
4. Incinerator is important technology to reduce the volume of both combustible
and non combustible solid wastes.
5. The distance between the ground water table and the bottom of the pit latrine
Should be at least 3 meters.
Part III Matching Questions (5 point)
Match A to B.
A
1. Aeration
2. Sedimentation
3. Filtration
4. Coagulant
5. Chlorination
E. Aluminum sulfate
57
3. Describe four types of water related disease (define and give at least one example
of each. (4 point)
58
59
B. It is practical
D. It is orderly
2. S.r Ayelch is a nurse in one of the health centers in south region. She took
history and does some examination from one patient, her work is taken at
A. Diagnosis
C. Evaluation
B. Assessment
D. Nursing process
60
C. None
4. The balance between physical, psychological, social and spiritual aspect of life
is taken as
A. Health
B. Illness
C. Sickness
D. Wellness
C. Emergency assessment
B. Time lapsed
D. Initial assessment
6. Ato kebede has come to your OPD and complains that he has got abdominal
cramp. The type of data you get is
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data
C. Validation
D. Organized data
C. Medical diagnosis
B. Diagnostic Activity
D. None
10. When you take history you begin with
A. Introduction
B. Chief complain
B. Revision of chart
11. Ato Alemu a 28 year a farmer from Bolosore Woreda came to your health
institution and tells you that he came for his high grade fever. Fever is
A. History of present illness
B. Chief complain
D. Past illness
B. Family history
13. A person who has a family history of diabetic mellitus has more chance of
developing the disease, family illness here is
A. Aggravating factor
C. Predisposing factor
B. Relieving factor
D. Contributing factor
14. The symptom in the chief complaint should be describe in one of the
following in the present history of illness (HPI),except.
A. Onset
C. Location
D. Severity
E. None
15. A sign is
A. Overt cue B. Overt cue C. Subjective data
D. None
62
3. You should not ask about private things because a nurse should have empathy.
4. Interpretation is one of responses which need non- verbal skill.
III. Explain
4. Write the components in history of menstrual pattern (2 marks)
63
64
65
66
MCQ- Attempt all questions and fill your answer on the space provided (0.5
mark each)
1. Bacterial infection of the skin manifested by swelling, localized hotness,
pain, redness etc is:
A) Malaria
C) Carbuncle
B) Psoriasis
D) Acne vulgaris
C) P. Ovalae
B) S. Preumonia
D) Psendomona spicies
3. A patient came to your health institution with acute painful red eye,
swelling of the eye lids. In your examination you see that the cornea is
clear and pupil normal
=> You give
B) Flies
C) Fear
D) Fomites
68
B) TI and OC
B) TF and TI
D) TS and OC
B) TI
C) TT
D) CO
B) TT
C) CO
D) TI
B
A) Hypoglycemia
B) DIC
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Acute renal failure
E) Lactic acidosis
F) Sever anemia
G) Hypotension
H) Generalized convulsion
I) Cerebral malaria
A) TS
in the conjunctive
B)TI
C) TF
D) CO
E) TT
IV ESSEY
1. Explain what precautions you take and management for relapsing fever (2
marks)
2. Explain management of uncomplicated malaria at health center level both
for P.Vivax and P.falciparum (2 mark)
3. Why do we need syndromic approach for a treatment of sexually
transmitted infection (2 marks)
4. Explain the difference between the sexually transmitted infection (STI)
and sexually transmitted disease (STD) (2 marks)
71
72
Good Luck!!
Part I .
Choose the correct answer and fill on the space provided (1 mark each)
1. Which one of the following can not be taken as a reason for wide spread of
pulmonary Tb
a) Lack of health care service
b) Neglect of pulmonary Tb program
c) The different strains of causative agents
d) HIV infection
E) None
2. The risk of infection of susceptible host is high with
a) Open infection
b) prolonged indoor pollution
c) Asymptomatic patient
d) Smear ve infection
3. Common in immuno compromised patients and happen in reactivation or re
infection
a) Extra pulmonary Tb
b) Primary Tb
c) Tb peritonitis
d) Secondary Tb
73
c) Transfer in
b) Defaulter
d) Transfer out
e) treatment failure
74
Part II Explain
1. Write the cases for false positivity for PPD test (1 mark )
2. Write the cases for false negativity for PPD test (1 mark)
3. Explain when to say a patient is smear positive pulmonary Tb. (1 mark)
75
4. Explain the patient category in the anti-Tb drugs according to National guideline.
Treatment. (2 mark)
5. Write the drug regimens in Anti-Tb treatment (1 mark)
6. Write the steps in PPD testing and reading of result (2 marks)
76
Answer Sheet
Name
ID No
Year
Part I Choose
1
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
11.
7.
12.
8.
13.
9.
14.
10.
15.
3.
4.
Part IV Explain
1.
77
2.
3.
2.
78
4.
5.
6.
79
80
Good Luck!!
II.
D. A and C
B. Communicable disease
C. Viral disease
D. All
B. Latent phase
C. Early HIV/AIDS
D. All
B. Infections period
81
C. Incubation period
D. Period of communicability
B. Yellow fever
C. HIV/AIDS
D. None
8. All of the following increases the risk for infection with HIV except.
A. Ulcerative forms of STDS
B. STDS with discharge
C. Unsafe sexual intercourse
D. None of the above
9. Communicable disease are very important in Africa because.
A. Some are serious and cause death and disability
B. Most of them are very common
C. Most of them are preventable by fairly simple means
D. All
10. Which one of the following is viral water born disease?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Amoebiasis
D. Cholera.
11. Which one of the following is not included in chain of disease transmission?
A. Reservoir
82
B. Management of agent
C. Portal of exit
D. Susceptible host
E. None
12. Which one is a direct transmission?
A. Air born transmission
B. Vector born
C. Mother to child
D. Mechanical transmission
E. None
lt. of water
B. 9
C. 4
D. 10
E. None
B. Lymphad enopathy
C. Diarrhea
D. None
E/ All except D
83
A. Measles
C. Sabin
B. Salk
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Dermis
III.
84
IV.
1. Delta hoplites
A. Measles
2. Molescum contagiosum
B. Rabies
3. Kopliks spot
C. Typhoid fever
. Salk
D. Poliomyelitis
E. Yellow fever
6. Hydrophobia
F. AIDS
G. Viral hepatitis.
H. Influenza
V.
Explain
1. Write the procedure in first aid for all animal bites (2 marks)
85
Name
ID No
Time allowed 2 hrs
Instructor Tewodros M.
Good Luck!!
MCQ- Attempt all questions and fill your answer on the space provided (0.5
mark each)
1. Bacterial infection of the skin manifested by swelling,localized hotness,
pain, redness etc is:
A) Malaria
C) Carbuncle
B) Psoriasis
D) Acne vulgaris
C) P. Ovalae
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B) S. Preumonia
D) Psendomona spicies
3. A patient came to your health institution with acute painful red eye,
swelling of the eye lids. In your examination you see that the cornea is
clear and pupil normal
=> You give
B) Flies
C) Fear
D) Fomites
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C) TI and OC
B) TF and TI
D) TS and OC
C) TI
B) TT
D) CO
C) TT
B) CO
D) TI
B
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A) Hypoglycemia
B) DIC
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Acute renal failure
E) Lactic acidosis
F) Sever anemia
G) Hypotension
H) Generalized convulsion
I) Cerebral malaria
A) TS
in the conjunctive
B)TI
C) TF
D) CO
E) TT
IV ESSEY
1. Explain what precautions you take and management for relapsing fever (2
marks)
2. Explain management of uncomplicated malaria at health center level both
for P.Vivax and P.falciparum (2 mark)
3. Why do we need syndromic approach for a treatment of sexually
transmitted infection (2 marks)
4. Explain the difference between the sexually transmitted infection (STI)
and sexually transmitted disease (STD) (2 marks)
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