You are on page 1of 93

Awassa College of Health Science

Department Of Public Health


Nutrition Final Exam for year III Public Health
Nursing Students

Name
ID No
Time allowed
1:30
hrs
Instructor Tewodros
M.
Date 13/,7/99E.C

Exam Profile
1. Part I Matching

10 Que. = 10%

2. Part II - True or False

10 Que.

3. Part III - Multiple Choice

20 .

4. Essay and case study

4 = 10 %

= 10%
= 20%

Total 50%

General Instruction
1. Attempt All Questions And Give Your Answers On The Space
Provided Before The Questions
2. Use the two clean papers to give your answers for essay part
3. Use Block letters for part I to III.

Matching ( 1 mark each)


A

1. A document which shows countries


ability to supply food for the citizens
2. A regular, timely collection, analysis,

A) Nutritional anemia
B) Weaning practice
C) Food balance sheet

& reporting of nutrition relevant data


3. Has an objective of regular contact of
clients with primary health care services
4. Decreased intake of nutrients while
increment of demand

5. Initiation of pathogenesis of PEM


lies on
6. Intake of nutrients beyond the normally
needed value
7. Energy requirement of individuals
in a group
8. Measuring scale used for weighing of

D) Beam balance
E) Estimated average requirement
F) Growth monitoring
G) Anthropometry
H) Breast feeding

I) Salter scale
J) Nutritional survey
K) Tonicities of nutrient
L) Standing
M) Biochemical method
N) Body mass index
O) Wasting

ages greater than 2yrs.


9. Term which shows acute malnutrition
10. Measurement of total amount of nutrients
stored in a body parts

Part II Say true of False (1 mark each)


1. A pregnant women should gain an average of 1-2 kg weight each week after
the 1st 3 months.
2. Breast feeding is totally useful for the babies only.
3. Acceptability of infant feeding method is determinant to apply for babies
feeding.
4. Wet nursing should be applied for all babies born from HIV positive mothers.
5. MUAC method is one of the methods of dietary survey in the nutritional
assessment.
6. Secular change in height shows stunting in generations following with
improvement in nutritional habit.
7. Re- feeding Diarrhea with weight loss should let the patient to return back to
phase 1 of treatment of severs PEM.
8. The principle of treatment in transition phase of management of severe PEM is
decrement of complications of cases in transferring from phase 1 to phase 2
9. Routine medicine like Amoxicillin should be given for all phases of treatment
in management of sever PEM.
10. If we collect data about nutritional status of Tb patients in Awassa health
center and perform it in the Tb & leprosy clinic, the survey is passive one.

Part III Multiple choice question (1 mark each)


1. Prescriptive reasons of nutritional requirement of individuals includes all,
except.
A) Designing of nutritional education
B) Assessing nutritional status
C) Procuring food for national consumption
D) Treating of nutritional problems.

2. Which part of life time is vulnerable for nutritional problems because of rapid
growth.
A) Infancy
B) Adolescence
C) Old age
D) Adult hood
3. Risk of early cessation of breast feeding
A) Maternal dehydration
B) Infant anorexia
C) Infant depression
D) All

4. Which of the following is not the option if the AFASS conditions do exist
A) Exclusive breast feeding
B) Never mixing feedings
C) Use of commercial infant formula
D) Use of home prepared infant formula
E) None of the above
5. Anthropometric measures of nutritional assessment used clinically in
A) Post- traumatic pt
B) Severe PEM
C) Chronically sick medical case
D) Patient preparing for operation
E) All of the above
6. Which one of the following is helpful for measuring fat mass in the body
A) Body mass index
B) Head circumference
C) Waist to hip ration
3

D) Length
E) All
7. Quality control measures the in Anthropometry includes all except
A) Standardize the procedure
B) Training of data collectors
C) Use of skillful professionals for data collection
D) Calibration of instruments after each measurement
8. Which one is false about functional Biochemical tests?
A) It can be easily affected by physiological state of patients
B) Useful for sub clinical deficiency test
C) Have greater Biological value
D) If incorporate tests like test actually for Zink & capillary fragility for vit. C

9. Not included in growth mentoring


A) Analysis of Data
B) Organizing of data
C) Assessing of data
D) Action towards the problem
10. False about growth monitoring
A) have educational value
B) Response to home intervention until normal growth resumes
C) All individual children in a country are involved
D) Refers to diagnostic activities
11. Growth retardation has observed to occurs in the 1st
A) One year
B) 2-3 yrs
C) 18 yr
D) Any year

12. Which can be level III process for sever PEM develop
A) Drought

B) Anorexia

C) Infection

D) Poverty

13. Pathological predisposing factor for marasmus includes all except


A) Dilute dirty formula
B) Late gradual weaning around 1 year
C) Diarrhea
D) Repeated Age
14. Children with sever PEM usually have all the deficiencies except.
A) Vitamin D

B) Iron

C) Riboflavin

D) Vitamin A

E) None

15. Which classification to diagnose protein energy malnutrition is not best


because of its high cut off point for diagnosis
A) Water

B) Gomez

C) Well come trust

D) None of the above

16. Which classification to diagnose PEM shows the onset of duration of PEM
A) Water low
B) Gomez
C) Well come trust
D) None of the above
17. Edema is incorporated in one of the following classifications to diagnose
PEM.
A) Water low classification
B) Gomez
C) Well- come trust
D) All of the above
18. Routine surveillance of measurements are incorporated in all process of
management of sever PEM, except
5

A) Admission

B) Phase I

C) Transition phase

D) Phase 2

19. Body Temperature of patients measured twice in a day in process of


management of sever PEM
A) Admission
B) Phase I
C) Transition phase
D) Phase 2
20. IV fluid should never be given during management of sever PEM as
A) Routine management
B) As prophylaxis
C) Prevention of Dehydration
D) Management of some dehydration
E) All

Part IV Essay
1. Write the criteria to process from phase one to transition phase in management
of PEM (2 marks)
2. Write the criteria to move back from transition phase to phase 1 in management
of PEM (3 marks)
3. Write Discharge criteria in management of PEM for children & adults (2 marks)
4. Define Failure to thrive in growth monitoring (3 marks)

Part I Matching (0.5 Mark each)


A

1. Any thing edible as defined by culture, religion etc

A) polysaccharides

2. Nutrients necessary in the body in a very small amount

B) essential aas

3. A catalyst used in the process of photosynthesis

C) Chlorophyll

4. Not soluble in water & have no crystalline structure

D) ascorbic acid

5. Major fuel source that is oxidized by cells for energy

E) Micronutrient

6. Amino acids not formed in human body & must be

F) Staples food

supplied in food

G) Malnutrition

7. Vitamin that is soluble inside water

H) Food

8. Observation of clinical sign & symptoms of

I) Carbohydrates

particular nutrient deficiency or excess

J) Dairy products

9. Foods which form largest part of nutritions


diet and from plant origin
10 Milk & its products as food stuffs

K) Monosaccharide
L) Non- essential aas
M) Disaccharides
N) Macronutrient

II True and false (0.5 mark each)


1. Mostly we get high quality & complete proteins from plant sources
2. Fatigue ness in pregnancy is related with anemia
3. When we digest maltose we get one glucose & one fructose
4. Proteins containing all the essential amino acids are called incomplete proteins
5. All mono & disaccharides have a suffix ose
6. Muscle weakness & swollen gums come because of the deficiency of
chemicals involved in collagen formation & tissue repair.
7. If triglycerides contains more long chain in the fatty acids it is called mixed
triglycerides
_______8. Alpha tocopherol is involved in production of blood clothing factors

9. Saturated F.A is greatly found in animals source and tend to raise blood
Cholesterol level.
10. Hemoglobin & other substances which are formed from protein & added nonprotein materials are termed as conjugate proteins.
Part III MCQ (1 mark each)
1. Which one of the following macronutrient is the chief source of energy for
animal kingdom.
A) Carbohydrate
B) Protein
C) Fat /lipid
D) Water
E) All of the above
2. Monosaccharide are said to be simple CHO because
A) They can not be hydrolyzed into smaller molecule
B) They can not be broken down in to smaller molecule
C) They are absorbed directly in to the blood stream with out undergoing
digestion
D) all of the above
3. All of the following are similar except
A) Maltose

C) Sucrose

B) Fructose

D) Lactose

4. Which of the following carbohydrates is used at home in daily diet?


A) Glucose

C) Galactose

B) Fructose

D) Sucrose

E) Sugar alcohol

5. All of the following statements are false about oligosaccharides except.


A) Most of them escape digestion in the upper GTI
B) Anaerobic bacteria break them down includes bifido bacteria &
lactobacillus
C) They increase fecal biomass resulting in increase peristalsis
D) None of the above
9

6. Which one of the following is not considered to be water soluble vitamins?


A) Vitamin C

C) Retinol

B) Pyridoxine

D) cobalamin

E) None of the above

7. Vitamin A has a function of all except


A) Antioxidant
B) Normal reproduction
C) Maintenance of epithelial tissue
D) Formation of bones, teeth, & soft tissue
E) None of the above
8. Which is not the result of vitamin D deficiency
A) Osteomalacia

C) Beriberi

B) Tetanny

D) Rickets

9. Identity the correct match


A) Pyridoxine Vitamin B6
B) Niacin Vitamin B1
C) Thiamine Vitamin B3
D) Riboflavin vitamin B9
E) All are correct
10. Function of iron includes all of the following except
A) Oxygen transport ( Hgb formation)
B) Mental development
C) Physical growth
D) As cell mediated immunity
E) None of the above
11 One of the following has high value for food energy density than others
A) Sugars

C) Fats & lipids

B) Protein

D) Organic acid

E) Sugar alcohols

________12. All but one is not the principal minerals

10

A) Ca

B) Mg

C) NA

D) Fe

13. Which one of the following is false about protein?


A) It was the first substance to be recognized as a vital part of living tissue
B) Are the second most abundant components of the body.
C) It contains the elements carbon, hydrogen & oxygen only
D) Plants can synthesize them by bacteria in the root nodules of legumes
14. One of the following is not true about the function of protein
A) Building the body growth of new tissue
B) Source of energy
C) Buffering action
D) Maintain fluid movement in the body
E) Promoting normal functioning of the lower intestinal tract
15. The general characteristics of lipids include all except.
A) Are not soluble in alcohol, ether, chloroform
B) Are the forms of stored energy in animals?
C) Acts as carriers for fat soluble vitamins
D) Fats oils b/c of similar solubility are classified as lipids.
16. Saturated fat in characterized by all, except
A) Have no double bonds
B) Includes all long & extra long chain fatty acid
C) Solid at room temperature
D) Raise total blood cholesterol
E) Have been shown to increase the risk of coronary heart disease
17. Which of the following enzymes have no action on lipid digestion?
A) Lipoprotein lipase
B) Gastric lipase
C) Pancreatic lipase
11

D) None of the above


18. One of the following in not function of water
A) Body temperature regulation
B) Media for chemical reaction at cell level
C) Sanitation function
D) Food preparation
E) none
19. Goiter is the deficiency of
A) Iron

C) Iodine

B) Glucose

D) Florien

20. Short chain fatty acids have

number of C-chain

A) 6 12 carbon

C) 2 - 4 carbon

B) 8 12 carbon

D) > 20 carbon

Part IV Essay
1. Write the name & clinical feature of Beriberi (3 mark)
2. Explain the classification & important points of each of the lipoproteins (3 marks)
3. Wright the preventive supplementation of vitamin A administration protocol in
Ethiopia for each target groups (2 marks)
4. Write the definition of trace elements & their examples (2 marks)

12

1. Patients who are symptomatic & asymptomatic

A)

Lympho

granuloma

vencrum
2. Dysurea & with urethral discharge after 6th

B)

Lepromatus

leprosy
Days of exposure.

C) Shigellosis

3. Non- tender, hard & solitary genital ulcer after


21 days of exposure.

D) Gonorrhea
E) Cholera

4. A small painless erosion with lymph node

F)

sexually

transmitting infection
swelling which need treatment of doxcylline
5. Patient on supine position & when passively
Flex his neck the pt. flex his hip
6. Numerous bacilli found in different parts of
the body in

G) TF stage
H) Syphilis
I) Chancroid
J) Typhoid fever

type of leprosy

7. Large amount , pouring watery stool with

K) Amobeosis
L) Brugenskis sign

flakes of mucous proceeded by vomiting

M) Kerning sign

8. High grade fever, raising step by step in days

N) Paucy leprosy

gap with associated headache,, myalgia arthralagia etc.

O)

Sexually

transmitted disease
9. Acute onset of diarrhea mixed with blood & sever
abdominal cramp associated with tenasmus
10. Greater than 5 whitish follicles at the tarsal conjactiva in trachoma

13

Part II True or False (0.5 mark each)


1. Children have got better prognosis in meningitis.
2. Decreased level of consciousness, seizer & general anesthesia are risk factors
for aspirative pneumonia.
3. Rotated or elevated testis can suggest scrotal swelling is necessary to STIS.
4. There is always associated fever with diarrhea & vomiting in cholera.
5 a leprosy case on RDT is termed as defaulter after missing only 3 four
weekly doses.
6. People who have fairly high cell mediated immunity develop pauci bacillary
leprosy.
7. Prevalence & incidence of STI can vary between urban & rural population.
8. There is odor full diarrhea mixed with blood in bacillary dysentery.
9. N. meningitis is the commonest cause in developed countries.
10. Short on set of time & short incubation period are indicators of poor
prognosis in tetanus.
Part III MCQ (1 mark each)
1. Yellowish honey comb crest is a characteristic of
A) Diphtheria
B) Impetigo
C) Leprosy
D) Anthrax
2. Hypoxia & strider is common in which part of anthrax.
A) Gastro-intestinal
B) Wool sorters disease
C) Coetaneous
D) All
14

3. Which one of the following is false about conjunctivitis


A) Human beings are reservoirs
B) Conjactiva redness is maximal in the fornices often with
discharge
C) There is impairment of vision
D) Tetracycline 1% eye ointment is a drug of choice for treatment.
4. Environmental factors for trachoma transmission
A. lack of water
B. dirty human faces
C. Discharge on children faces
D. All
E. B & C only
5. Painful genital ulcer is caused by
A) Hepatitis B virus
B) H. ducrey
C) T. Pallidum
D) C. Trachomatis
E) B & C
6. Which of the following is least essential for syndromic approach of STI management?
A) Laboratory investigation
B) Proper history
C) Follow up of patients
D) Physical examination
E) None of the above

15

7. A 20 years old female presented with fever & vaginal discharge on


examination she has cervical motion tenderness and uterine tenderness. This
patient should be considered as a case of
A) Inguinal bulbo syndrome
B) Vaginal discharge syndrome
C) Lower abdominal pain syndrome
D) Genital ulcer syndrome
8. The etiologic agent for scrotal swelling includes
A) C. trachomatis
B) T. pallidum
C) H. ducreyi
D) G. vaginalis
E) None
9 .Components of the public health package of STI prevention & care includes
A) Promotion of sager sexual behavior
B) Condom promotion & provision
C) Comprehensive case management of STI
D) Promotion of health seeking behavior
E) All of the above
10. Disadvantage of syndromic approach is /re
A) Over treatment
B) Time consuming
C) Includes both symptomatic & asymptomatic case
D) All
E) A & C are correct

16

11. Hypo pigmented or reddish skin lesion (s) with definite loss of sensation is for

A) Coetaneous anthrax
B) Impetigo
C) Leprosy
D) Trachoma
12. Contact racing & Institutional survey stands for
A) Passive case finding
B) Active case finding
13. Tender reddish skin nodules appearance is in one of the leprosy reaction
A) Erythema nodalsum leprom
B) Mild reversal reaction
C) Sever reversal reaction
D) All
14. True about carbuncle
A)

M. leprea is the causative agent

B)

Human beings are rarely animals

C)

Auto infection is responsible for at least half of


infections

D)

Diagnosis made clinically

15. The most virulent disease of shigella complication with hemolytic uremic
syndrome because of

A) S. dystere
B) S. flexneri
C) S. boyaii
D) S. sonnei
17

Fill in the blank space


1. Sudden on set of fever, purulent sputum and cough is shown in
(1 mark) type of pneumonia
2. The four type of tetanus (2 marks)
1.
2.
3.
4.
3. Results in sensation taste in leprosy examination are (2 marks)
A)

( C ) for

B)

( - ) for

C)

for

D)

for

V. Essay & case study


1. Behaylu is a 24 years old male pt presenting with urethral discharge & burning during
urination. There is also a history of sexual contact with commercial sex workers
before a week. Based on this :a) What is your action according to syndromic approach (1 mark)
b) What is /are your probable microorganism that cause the syndrome (1 mark)
c) What is your drug management (1 mark)
d) Write other service given to the patient other than the antibiotics (1 mark)
2. How do you manage sever dehydration in different age group in cholera (2 mark)
3. Write the WHO grading for trachoma (2.5 mark)
18

3. Write the management protocol for tetanus case (1.5 marks)

1. Globally distributed strain of HIV

A) Acute HIV syndrome

2. Well stabilized in general population

B)Deficient medical service

of the country

C) Generalized stage

3. Favors transmission of HIV

D) PPD- Test

4. High viral load, spleenomegally,

E) treatment failure

fever , oral & body rash


5. Reason for wide spread of TB

F) AFB sputum exam.


G) HIV -2

6. Screening test for infection of Tb bacilli H) Breast feeding


7. A patient with no sputum AFB result at
the 7th month of treatment

I) Treatment complete
J) HIV-1

8. One of the preventive measures for Tb

K) BCG vaccine

9. A stage starting when the CD4 cell is

L) Kaposi Sarcoma

between 500-200/ml

M) Clinical disease

10 One criteria for AIDS diagnosis in


CDC Diagnostive measure

Part II Say True /False (0.5 mark each)


1. Low level of female literacy has contributed a share to high prevalence of
HIV/AIDS in sub Saharan Africa.
2. The time from HIV infection to diagnosis of AIDS has a range of 1-3 months
3. Apoptosis (cell death) is the only mechanism for depletion of CD 4 cells in
HIV/AIDS.
4. There is always an immune response of the body in the period of latency and
also latter on.
19

5. WHO criteria is the good criteria to diagnose AIDS because it encloses the
sero status of cases
6. If cases has disappeared from DOTs after taking greater than 4 week
treatment, and they become smear positive you start re treatment regimen
7. A patient taking Isoniazide developed Jaundice, then you give him
symptomatic treatment & stop treatment for a while.
8. Ethambutol is a bactericidal drug.
9. A Tb meningitis case will be treated as category I cases in DOTs clinic
10. From all cases of Tb 30% of cases will develop chronic infection

Part III Multiple Choice questions (1 mark each)


1. One is not identified to be important for the wide spread of Tb in sub
Saharan countries
a) Neglect of Tb program
b) Lack of access to modern health care
c) Increased susceptibility of infants & the elderly
d) HIV infection
2. Which one of the following is infectious type of P.Tb
a) Cavitary Tb
b) Culture ve P.Tb
c) Extra pulmonary Tb
d) P.Tb through treatment regimen
3. Not included as risks of infection for Tb
a) Closed & prolonged contact
b) Indoor exposure
c) Smear +ve P.Tb contact
d) None of the above
4. The place for delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction (DTH) in P.Tb
a) Activating macrophages
b) Destroying non activated macrophages
20

c) Killing the CD4 cells


d) Digesting the bacilli

5. Type of Tb where lung damage is localized to middle & lower lung zones
a) Primary Tb

b) Post primary Tb

6. PPD test could be false -ve in


a) Malnutrition
b) Steroid drugs
c) repeated PPD-test
d) HIV/AIDS
7. Ato Gebeyehu is a farmer he has been treated with Anti Tb drugs for the last 5
months, but he discontinued the treatment for 6 weeks because of his job. He is
a) Defaulter
b) Transfer case
c) Others case
d) Relapse case
8. The whole phases of anti Tb treatment is under strict supervision in
a) category I
b) Category IV
c) Category III
d) Category II
9. If a person took anti Tb for 4-8 weeks & discontinue for 2-8 wks, you order
AFB sputum & it become negative
a) Continue the same treatment
b) One extra month of intensive phase
c) Start re treatment regimen
d) Restart the same treatment
10. Not included in control measures of Tb
21

a) Surveillance & monitoring


b) Absence of retrieval
c) Screening of contacts
d) Health education
11. AIDS is manifested by
a) Prolonged & recurrent diarrhea
b) Unexplained weight loss
c) Prolonged fever
d) all
12. Not part of AIDS related complex
a) Herpes zoster infection
b) Kaposi sarcoma
c) recurrent herpes simplex infection
d) Generalized Lymphadenopathy

Part IV Fill in the blank space


1. Base on the degree of imuno deficiency HIV/AIDS has an intermediate stage if the
CD4 cells are

(0.5 mark)

2. The minor criteria of WHO to diagnose AIDS (write at least 3 criteria)


________________, _________________, _______________(1.5 marks)
3. Culture media for mycobacterium Tuberculosis with relatively short period of result of
2-3 weeks is

(1 mark)

Part V Essay
1. Write the case definition of smear +ve P.Tb & smear ve P.Tb (2 marks)
2. Write the criteria of CDC for diagnosis of AIDS ( 1 mark)
3. Write the sputum AFB follow up of smear +ve P.Tb cases during treatment (2
marks)

22

Awassa College Of Health Sciences Department Of Public Health


Name

ID No

Part I Matching
1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part II True /False


1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

Part III MCQ


1.

6.

11.

2.

7.

12.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part IV Fill the blank Space


1.
2.

3.

23

Part V Essay

24

Awassa College of Health Science


Department Of Public Health
Nursing Health Assessment test for
Year II Public Health Nursing Students

Name
ID No
Time allowed
2:00
hrs
Instructor Tewodros
M.
Date Nov, 8/3/99

Exam Profile
E) Multiple Choice

10 Que.

= 10%
F) Matching

22 Que.

= 22%
G) True or False

2 Que. = 8%
25

H) Essay

1 Question = 3.1 %
Total 43.1%

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS AND Write the answer ON THE


SPACE PROVIDED ON THE ANSWER SHEET.

Good Luck!!
Part I Matching (1mark each)
A
1. Matching between the patient and the
nurse for the purpose of data collection

B
A) Apnea
B) Chief complaint

2. Abnormally fast pulse rate

C) Empathy

3. Prominent structures on the half of the

D) History of present illn

chest on medial side of mid-clavicular line shows. E) Interviewing

4. The ability to understand the thought &


emotion of another person
5. Repletion of the patient words to get some detail

F) Family history
G) Thachycardia
H) Reflection

6. The absence of respiration for 10 seconds or above I) Malignance disease


7. Characterized by having fixed & hard lymph nodes J) Ricket rosary
8. Part of vital signs measuring the pressure exerted
on the wall of the arteries.

9. Major problem why the patient came to

K) Pulse rate
L) Blood pressure

M) Dyspnea

your institution
10. Part of history which focus on the pattern
of health of the family

26

Part II Choose the best answer & write the choice on the space
provided (1 mark each)
1. A patient visited your OPD and while you are inspecting his chest, you find a
depression in the lower portion of the sternum. This shows
i. Rickets rosary
ii. Pigeon chest
iii. Funnel chest
iv. Dislocation of the sternum

2. Which one of the following is not included in the menusteral pattern


history
A) Bleeding amount
B) Associated illness
C) Regularity
D) Last Date sex conducted
3 Which one of the following is false about 1 and marks of the chest
ratory system examination
A) Around 5cm down the
Bacteria

B) Fungi

C) Parasites D) None

3. Having Alcohol drink in the hepatitis patients is


A) Predisposing factor

C) aggravating factor

B) Contributing factor

D) Causative agent

4. Presence of mash water (stagnant water) in the living environment is a


factor related to
A) The host

C) The agent

B) The environment

D) All

5. Not an indicator for wellness


A) The capacity of the person to perform the best of his ability
B) A reported feeling well being
27

C) The ability to adjust and adapt to varying situation


D) None
6. Not characteristics of nursing process
A) Frame work for proving nursing care to patient family & community

B) Dependent
C) Cyclical
D) Interrelated
7. All are parts of nursing process except
A) Diagnoses

C) Implmentation

B) Planning

D) Evaluation

E)None

8. A diagnosis concentrated on certain diagnosis and leads us to the general


condition of the specific diagnosis
A) Initial assessment

C) Emergency assessment

B) Time - lapsed assessment

D) Focus assessment

9. The skills necessary for assessment in nursing process


A) Observation

C) Physical examination

B) Interviewing history

D) All are necessary

10. Collecting, recording, validating & organizing data is an activity of


A) Assessment

C) Intervention

B) Diagnosis

D) Evaluation

11. The parts of nursing diagnosis formulation


A) Related factors

C) Defining characteristics

B) Definition

D) All

12. One of the following is not purpose of nursing diagnosis


A) Promotes continuity of care
B) Guides patients care activities
C) Encloses all activities in one person
28

D) Focus charting requirements


13. An outcome should be containing
A) Verb

B) Subject

D) Sensitivity

E) none

C) Condition

14. You set priority based on all, except


A) Patients condition
B) Time & resources available for nursing intervention
C) The relationship with the staff
D) Nursing experience
15. Knowledge of standards of care, normal patient response, conceptual of
nursing etc is needs for
A) Evaluation

C) Planning

B) Implementation

D) Diagnosis

Part II Matching (1mark each)


A
1. Problems solving, decision making
and teaching skills
2. The judgment of effectiveness of
nursing care to meet our goal
3. A subject state of the person who
feels aware of not being well

B
A). Technical skill
B) illness
C) high risk nursing diagnosis

D) Evaluation
E) Negative health model
F) Validation

4. An absence of a disease is health

G) Intellectual skill

5. Actual initiation of a plan on the

H) Implementation

nursing diagnosis
6. Clinical judgment that a person, family or

I) Planning
J) Positive health model

community is more vulnerable to develop


29

the problem
7. The process of confirming the accuracy of
assessment from data collected

Part II True or false (1 mark each)


1. You analyze, assume information & derive meaning in nursing
assessment
2. Nursing diagnosis fells us the response of the patient towards the
disease process
3. The broad statement about the state of the patient after the nursing
Interventions are carried out in the Goal.
4. In malaria, a person having a wife who has malaria is predisposed to the
disease
5. A history from the attendants of the patient has a primary source.

Part IV Essay
1. Ato Mamo, a 28 yrs old farmer from Amhara region has a body temperature
of 390C he has loss of appetite , joint pain, Generalized body weakness.
A) Write your nursing diagnosis (2 marks)
B) Give Your Goal & outcome (1 mark)

30

A fracture with one end penetrating the skin

A) puncture

2. Inadequate tissue perfusion in the body

B) Bleeding

3. Torn up of a skin with sharp objects

C) Avulsion

4. Pricing of a skin layered to form a

D) Open fracture

small hole in the tissue


5. A tissue is torn off from the normal body part

E) Log rose

6. Fear at the crowded group of

F) Unstable fracture

population because of
7. A procedure (technique) done to turn
a casualty with a spinal injury

G) Shock
H) Panic
I) Stable fracture

8. Escape of blood from the blood vessels.

J) Incision

9. Joint injury resulting in pulling out of

K) Dislocation

position of articulating bones

L) Strains

10. Fracture whose two ends are movable


Part II. True /False (1 mark each)
1. Proper disposal of expired drugs is the preventive method for poising.
2. Inhaling chemicals, fumes of sprays may cause breathing problem.
Leading to confusion & collapse.
3. Brain injury occurs only from wounds of the scalp & open or close
31

Fracture of the skill.

4. Bleeding from the nose, or ear is indicative of skill fracture


5. Complete form of muscles may occur at the junction of muscle & bone.
6. A patient with fracture should immediately helped with traction.
7. You give milk or water for all swallowed poisoning patients.
8. You give charcoal for convulsing patient to induce vomiting
9. Violent or sudden movement results in strains on the bones.
10. Applying a direct pressure is enough to stop bleeding from capillaries.
Part III MCQ. (1 Mark each)
1. All are involved in treatment of shock, except
A) Body positioning
B) Treating the possible cause
C) Regulating body temperature
D) Fluid administration
E) None
2. One is not first aid for fear in Disasters
A) Discriminating information to casualties
B) Instructing casualties what to do to be safe.
C) Tell of casualties to stay at home always.
D) Making peoples to feel every thing is under control
E) None
3. One of the following is true.
A) Five peoples are necessary for log-role technique
B) Bruise & swelling is common in Dislocation
C) You check the air ways in log-role technique
D) All are true.
4. Oozing blood from a cut may because
A) Capillary bleeding

32

B) Arterial bleeding
C) Venous bleeding
D) All
5. One is not necessary in oral fluid preparation at home
A) 2-3 table spoon of sugar or honey
B) Lemon juice
C) tea spoon of salt
D) Milk juice with orange
E) None
6. You wont give fluid orally far a patient of shock if
A) Unconscious patient
B) Extensive vomiting
C) If the patient is going to have surgery
D) Convulsing casualty
E) All of the above
7. All are sign & symptoms of infection except
A) Local hotness
B) Swelling of lymph nodes
C) Muscle contraction
D) Redness of the affected area
8. If you have got a fractured patient, you first do
A) You splint the fractured bones
B) You immobilize the bones
C) Simply let him transported to hospitals
D) Pour water to decrease swelling
9. All first aider should include one of the following to prevent disaster, except
A) Prepare health facilities for possible disaster
B) Training of all voluntary health workers
C) Increase certain professional skills

33

D) None
10. One is included as sign & symptom of spinal cord damage
A) Nausea & vomiting
B) loss of bladder or bowel control
C) Sever headache
D) Pain on the limbs

11. One is not included in body positioning for shock pt


A) Raise foot of the stretched or bed from 20 -30 inches commonly.
B) Shock with head injury needs keeping patient flat or propped up.
C) Raise their foot up ward and the head lowered always.
D) Shock with sever wound on the face or jaw needs to face on the side of body.
Part IV Essay
1) Write the procedures of cardio pulmonary resuscitation (4 marks)

34

Awassa College of Health Science


Department of health sciences
Answer Sheet
Name

ID No

Part One Multiple Choice


1.

6.

11.

2.

7.

12.

3.

8.

13.

4.

9.

14.

5.

10.

15.

Part Two Matching


1.

6.

2.

7.

3.
4.
5.

Part Three True or False


1.
35

2.
3.
4.
5.

Part Four - Essay

36

1. In the first Aid we always try to keep injured person alive


2. General management of first Aid starts with calming oneself.
3. We get signs from the history from the casualty.
37

4. The Epidermis is involved in superficial burn.


5. We, first Aiders, have a big responsibility to protect any casualty from
possible danger though it is dangerous for us.
6. When we get air ways obstructed by foreign object we simple pull out it
by our fingers
7. If one person is not able to response for person, place, and time but easily
aroused from his condition is termed as drowsiness
8. Our fist objective of first aid for drowning casualty is to keep him warm.
9. Skin detects sensations by its deep routed blood vessels.
10. All superficial burns should be admitted to hospital.
Part II Matching (1 mark each)
A

1. Any variation from normal events or


situations ascertained by the first aider
2. Medial border of the sterno mastoid
muscle taken as site for pulse

A) Dermis
B) Discharge
C) Epidermis
D) Full thickness burn

3. Fluid expulsion for opening in the body

E) Carotid artery

4. Inner layer lying on the fatty tissue

F) Partial thickness burn

(subcutaneous fat)

G) Sign

5. Burn involving the whole skin

Part II Multiple Choice questions

H) Brachial artery

(1 mark each)

1. One is not part in steps in emergency care:


A) Giving first aid
B) Looking for general condition
C) Transport the casualty to health institution
D) Decision of the problem
E) None
38

2. We see paler on:


A) Forehead
B) Palms and eye lid
C) Trunk
D) Sclera
3. Abnormal or an acceptable positioning of the body part:
A) Swelling
B) Fracture
C) Numbness
D) Deformity
4. During transpiration you do all, except:A) Keep the patients Air way open
B) Keep temperature normal
C) Make the patient comfortable
D) Assess the burden on emergency
5. Incomplete air way obstruction:
A) Annabel to speak totally
B) Annabel to breath
C) Coughing and distress
D) Loss of consciousness
6. High level of exposure to suffocating gases, except :A) Rapid, difficult of breathing
B) Nausea and vomiting
C) Impaired consciousness
D) None
7. Which of the following is a point to assess burn:
A) Circumstance the burn occurred
B) Location (Site) of burn

39

C) The depth of the burn


D) all of the above
E) None of the above
8. To relieve pain for burn casualty
A) Pour cold water
B) Lie down the patient
C) Cover the area with sterile goose
D) Put on disposable glove
9. Not sign and symptom for electrical burn
A) Brown and coppery reside
B) Signs of shock
C) Hoarseness of the voice
D) Loss of consciousness
10. In A, B,C,D,E of first Aid D stands for
A) Drying
B) Departure
C) Deformity
D) Drowsiness

Part IV Essay /Discussion


1. Write the objective and the emergency treatment given for casualty with burn in Air
ways (3 marks)
2. Write the hospitalization criteria for burn patients (as lest for ) (2 marks)

40

Awassa College Of Health Science Department Of Pubic Health Nursing


Answer Sheet
Part I True/False
1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

41

Part II Matching
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part III MCQ
1.

6.

2.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part IV Essay

42

matching (1 mark each)


A

1. Maximum point for palpable heart beat

A) PR examination

2. Sounds because of turbulent blood

B) Para Phimosis

Flow in the heart.

C) Fissure

3. Introduction of the index finger into

D) Genuvarum

the anus to palpate prostate gland

E) Apical point

4. A swollen and tights prepuce that can not


be retracted over the Glans
5. Inflammation of the Glans pennies
6. Abnormal in curving of the legs resulting
in excessive separation of the feet
7. Circumscribed flat, discoloration of

F) Glasgow coma scale

G) Murmur
H) Phimosis
I) Point of maximum pulse

J. Patch
K) Balanities
43

greater than 5mm size

L) Scale

8. Abrasion and scratch marks on the skin

M) gallop

9. Measurement scaling to show level of consciousness

N) fracture

10. Discontinuity of the bone in the skeletal system

O) Genuvlgum

Part II Say true or false (1 mark each)


1. Superficial reflex is to measure the integrity of afferent and efferent nerve fibers.
2. In tetanus Generalized hypotonia is expected
3. The lowest score in Glasgow coma scale is three.
4. Primary lesion arise from normal skin
5. Vitilgo is hyper pigmentation
6. Cracking directly shows fracture
7. Normal sound in percussion over the abdomen is resonance
8. Pain during moving of the cervix shows cervical infections
9. Tympani city changes into dullness in examination of presence of fluid, if it is
positive
10. Masses and areas of tenderness can easily be palpated superficially
Part III Multiple choice (1 mark each)
1. If your patient open his eye to pain only, withdrawn a pain, and take out
inappropriate words he will get
A) 10

B) 9

in Glasgow coma scale


C) 15

D) 6

2. Ayele, 22 years old male patient can not hold air in his mouth while puffing
by his cheeks he has got
A) Sensory loss

C) Facial nerve palsy

B) Trigeminal nerve palsy

D) Hypo pharyngeal palsy

3. You compare both sides of the muscles by their firmness in examination of


A) Tone

C) Power

B) Bulk

D) gait

4. Limbbing may occur in all except one


A) Dislocation

C) Trauma

B) Fracture

D) Achondroplasia

5. Cyanosis shows absence of


44

A) Melanin

C) Oxygen

B) Carotene

D) Protein

6. Yellowish discoloration of the palms


A) Ecturus

C) Hypo pigmentation

B) Caroteenemia

D) chloasma

7. Percussion during abdominal examination is used in one of the following use except
A) To determine mass presence
B) To show tenderness
C) To see shifting dullness
D) To show vertical span of liver
E) None
8. If your patient has got swelling of the Scrotom the possibilities could be
A) Scrotal edema

C) Hernia

B) Hydrocelle

D) All

E) None

9. You palpate the skin for all except


A) Texture

C) Symmetry of lesion

B) Temperature

D) Turger

10. Flat circumscribed and elevated skin lesion with size of greater than 5 mm.
A) Vesicle

B) Plague

C) Bullae

B) Tumor

C) Vesicle

D) Wheal

11. One is secondary lesion


A) Pustule

12. A patient is in comma if he got


A) 6

B) 10

D) Fissure

score in Glasgow coma scale.


C) 12

D) 9

13. In examination of sensation you see


A) Position

B) Pain

C) Temperature

D) Tactile sensibility D) All are answers

14. Tricuspid valve is expected between


A) 4th and 5th ICS left

C) 3rd ICS left

B) 4th and 5th ICS right

D) 2nd ICS right

45

Part III explanation


1. Write the grading of murmur (3 marks)
2. Write at least 2 ways to differentiate hydrocelle from indirect inguinal hernia (2
marks)
3. write the procedure and results of shifting dullness with their pathologic reasons
(3 marks)
4. Write the procedure of vertical liver span (2 marks)
5. Write how to examine (4 marks)
A) Kernings sign (1 marks)
B) Brudgneskis sign (1 mark)
C) Accessory nerve palsy. (1 mark)
D) Facial nerve palsy. (1 mark)
6. Write the upper and lower level of body exposure in Abdominal examination (2
marks)

Awassa College of Health Science Department of public Health


Answer Sheet
Name

ID

Year

Part I Matching
1

6.

7.

3.

8.

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part II True /False


1

6.

7.

3.

8.
46

4.

9.

5.

10.

Part III MCQ


1

6.

11.

7.

12.

3.

8.

13.

4.

9.

14.

5.

10.

Part IV Explain
1

Prominent structures on the half of

a) Apnea

the chest on medial side of mid-

b) Thachipnea

clavicular line shows

c) Bradicardia

2. Abnormally fast pulse rate

d) Thachicardia

3. The absence of respiration for

e) Bradipnea

10 seconds or above
4. Part of vital signs measuring the

f) Pigeon chest
g) Rickets rosary

pressure exerted on the wall of the

h) Pulse rate

arteries.

i) Blood pressure

5. Characterized by having fixed


and hard lymph node

j) Benign disease
k) Malignance disease

Part II Choose the best answer and write the choice on the space
47

provided (1 mark each)


1. Which one of the following is false about land marks of the chest respiratory
system.
a) Around 5 cm down the sternum there is a notch called sternal angleshows horizontally the first inter costal space.
b) The lower border of the scapula shows the 7th rib or intercostals space
c) The anterior, lower border of the lungs is located or expected on the 6 th
8th ICS.
d) All are true.
2. A patient visited your OPD and while you are inspecting his chest, you find a
depression in lower portion of the sternum. This shows
a) Rickets rosary

c) Funnel chest

b) Pigeon chest

d) Dislocation of the sternum

3. A patient with hepatitis was reported by having ecteric sclera, what do that
mean?
a) The sclera has some scratch
b) The eye is red
c) The sclera is not working at all
d) The sclera is yellowish in color
4. While examining a patient with snellen chart the patient can not see the letters
on the 6 meters mark but can see 9 meter marks you report the result as:
a) 6/6

b) 6/60

c) 6/9

d) 6/36

5. The lymph node detected at the site of few centimeters behind the tip of the
mandible is
a) Sub mandibular

c) Submental

b) Posterior servical

d) Pre ouricular

6. The examination of a breast to palpate quadrant by quadrate is helpful for


a) See consistency of tissue

c) Lumps

b) Tenderness

d) All of the above


48

7. Inspecting for general appearance you see that the patient is emaciated and
weak, and has generalized paleness, you report as.
a) Conscious pt.

c) Chronically sick looking

b) Acutely sick looking

d) Well-looking

8. While appreciating the pulse you use the artery on the medial border of the
sternomastiod muscle, the artery you touch is
a) Radial artery

c) Pedal artery

b) Carotid artery

d) femoral artery

9. Mamush , a 3 years old male patient has come to your health institution by his
parents and you took a vital sign, in the respiration he has increased rate and depth
respiration with alternate period of apnea. Mamush has
a) Kusmaul respiration

c) Chynees talk respiration

b) Biots respiration

d) Apneustic respiration

10. The best site for temperature measuring of a patient with rectal surgery is
a) Axillarys temperature

c) Oral temperature

b) Rectal temperature

d) No need to take To

11. In the examination of a chest of patient with plural effusion. In percussion


you get
a) Resonance

c) Tympani

b) Hyper resonance

d) Stony dullness

12. In the respiratory examination, the trachea deviates to:


a) Away from Air like in pneumothorax
b) Towards the collapsed lung like in athelectasis
c) Towards fluid filled lung like in pleural effusion
d) A and B
e) B and C
13. Louder and higher in pitch sound which have a longer expiratory sound than
inspiratory sound
a) Called vesicular breath sound
b) Well heard all over normal chest
49

c) Called Bronchial breath sound


d) Located between scapula.
14. In auscultation its better to check in lateral chest carefully because it shows
all the lobes of the chest
a) True

b) false

15. Which one of the following is not added sound


a) Rhonchii

c) cryptation

b) Vesicular sound

d) wheezing

Part III. Explain


1. Explain the procedure for techtile fremitus and tell the results with their
pathologic reasons (2 marks)
2. Explain how to examine axillaries lymph nodes (2 mark)
3. Write the procedure and normal value range of blood pressure taking (1
mark)

50

Awassa College of health science


Department of public health
Answer Sheet
Name

ID

Year

Part I Matching
1.

6.

11.

2.

7.

12.

3.

8.

13.

4.

9.

14.

5.

10.

15.

Part II Multiple Choice

51

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Part III Explanation

52

Awassa College of health science


Environmental Health Mid Exam for year
II Public Health Nurse students

Name
ID No
Date
Time allowed 1:30 hrs
Instructor Gashaw Dagne

53

Content of exam
Part I
Multiple choice question
Part II
True or False question
Part III Matching questions
Part IV Short answer questions

= 15
=5
=5
=4

Attempt all question and give your answer on the place provided!

Good Luck!!
Part I . Multiple choice questions (15 points)

Choose the best answer for the following questions and write
your response on the space provided.
1. The most common human excreta disposal system in Ethiopia is
A. Pit privy

C. Aqua privy

B. VIP latrine

D. Water flush latrine

2. Which one of the following types of latrine is constructed during emergencies


such as disasters and wars:A. Pit latrine
B. Bucket latrine
C. Water carriage latrine
D. Trench latrine
3. The amount of fresh waters such as lakes, rivers and ground water important
for human consumption are about
A. 97.2% of all forms of water
54

B. 8% of all forms of water


C. 0.8% of all forms of water
D. 2 % of all forms of water
4. Water which contains harmful microorganisms or toxic chemicals is
A. Contaminated water

C. Potable water

B. Polluted water

D. Hard water

5. Which one of the following minerals are responsible for hardness of water
A. Calcium

C. hydrogen

B. Aluminum

D. Fluorine

6. Which one of the following is the disadvantage of under ground water


Supplies?
A. It is exposed to evaporation
B. It requires continuous treatment before use
C. It may contain excess minerals
D. All of the above
7. The type of ground water that occurs when ground water gushes out of its own
accord above ground is:
A. Shallow well
B. Deep well

C. Artesian spring
D. Main spring

8. The distance between the construction of well water and pit latrine should be at
least.
A. 10 meter

C. 15 meter

B. 20 meter

D. 25 meter

9. Which of the following group of chemicals cause acidity of water


A. CO2 and H2S

C. Ca and Mg

B. Na and K

D. None of the above

10. Which one of the following is not important in the protection box of a spring
55

water supply.
A. Diversion ditch

C. Faucet

B. Fencing

D. None of the above

11. Which of the following is /are important factors that affect the type and
construction of latrine methods
A. Climate
C. Economic standards of the family
B. availability of water
D. Culture
E. All of the above
12. The correct step in solid waste disposal system are
A. Collection Storage Disposal
B. Collection Disposal storage
C. Storage Disposal Collection
D. Storage Collection Disposal
13. Which one of the following is false about pit latrines
A. Constructed at least 10m distance from living house
B. It is possible to use all type of anal cleansing
B. It is possible to dig a pit at any depth as required
D. None of the above
14. Incineration can reduce the volume of combustible solid wastes by :
A. 50- 60%

C. 70 80%

B. 80 90%

D. 90 100%

15. Which one of the following is a non putrescible solid wastes?


A. Paper

B. Ashes

C. Glass

D. Wood

Part II. True or False Questions (5 point)


Write True If The Statement Is Correct Or False If The Statement Is Incorrect.
56

1. Sanitary land fill is considered as complete and final disposal method of solid wastes
2. Presence of toxic elements such as lead, Arsenic and chromium in a small
amount in drinking water are not harmful.
3. One of the advantages of VIP latrines is the possibility of installing it inside
homes.
4. Incinerator is important technology to reduce the volume of both combustible
and non combustible solid wastes.
5. The distance between the ground water table and the bottom of the pit latrine
Should be at least 3 meters.
Part III Matching Questions (5 point)
Match A to B.
A

1. Aeration

A. Purification of water by passing through sand media

2. Sedimentation

B. To kill or render harmful microorganisms

3. Filtration

C. To remove odor or taste causing substances

4. Coagulant

D. Suspended particles are deposited or settle at the bottom

5. Chlorination

E. Aluminum sulfate

Part IV Short answer Question (10)


Give short and precise answers for the following questions
1. List methods used for water treatment at household level (1.5 point)

57

2. List methods of solid waste disposal systems (1.5)

3. Describe four types of water related disease (define and give at least one example
of each. (4 point)

4. Write the advantages and disadvantages of pit latrines. (3 point)

58

True /False (1 Mark each)


Right true or false on the space provide.
. 1. A history of using tobacco is included in past illness history
2. A question saying where did you feel the pain? is a direct question
3. You should not ask about private things because a nurse should have empathy.
4. Interpretation is one of responses which need non- verbal skill.
III. Explain
1. Write the components in history of menstrual pattern (2 marks)

59

2. What do we mean by goal and outcome in planning of nursing process (2


marks)

3. Explain the difference between nursing diagnosis and medical diagnosis in


nursing process. (2 marks)

Part I . Multiple choice questions (15 points)


Choose the best answer for the following questions and write
your response on the space provided.
1. The most common human excreta disposal system in Ethiopia is
A. It is cyclical

C. Use full for admitted patients only

B. It is practical

D. It is orderly

2. S.r Ayelch is a nurse in one of the health centers in south region. She took
history and does some examination from one patient, her work is taken at
A. Diagnosis

C. Evaluation

B. Assessment

D. Nursing process

60

3. If you believe that absence of malaria or any disease in a person means it is


being a healthy, you are following
A. Positive health model

B. Negative health model

C. None

4. The balance between physical, psychological, social and spiritual aspect of life
is taken as
A. Health

B. Illness

C. Sickness

D. Wellness

5. An assessment done in the life treating conditions is called


A. Focus assessment

C. Emergency assessment

B. Time lapsed

D. Initial assessment

6. Ato kebede has come to your OPD and complains that he has got abdominal
cramp. The type of data you get is
A. Subjective data

B. Objective data

C. Validation

D. Organized data

7. A clinical judgment that a person, family or community is more vulnerable to


develop the problem is taken as
A. Actual nursing diagnosis

C. Medical diagnosis

B. Diagnostic Activity

D. Risk nursing diagnosis

8. You set priority based on:


A. The patient condition
B. Time and resource available
C. Social interaction
D. Feed back from the family
E. All are used
F. All except C
9. While you are working you secure IV line for shock patient. This is your
A. Intellectual skill
B. Technical skill
C. Interpersonal skill
61

D. None
10. When you take history you begin with
A. Introduction

B. Chief complain

B. Revision of chart

C. History of present illness

11. Ato Alemu a 28 year a farmer from Bolosore Woreda came to your health
institution and tells you that he came for his high grade fever. Fever is
A. History of present illness

C. Present health status

B. Chief complain

D. Past illness

12. History of previous hospital admission or surgery is included in


A. Chief complain

C. Physical and personal history

B. Family history

D. Past medical history

13. A person who has a family history of diabetic mellitus has more chance of
developing the disease, family illness here is
A. Aggravating factor

C. Predisposing factor

B. Relieving factor

D. Contributing factor

14. The symptom in the chief complaint should be describe in one of the
following in the present history of illness (HPI),except.
A. Onset

C. Location

B. Setting in which they occur

D. Severity

E. None

15. A sign is
A. Overt cue B. Overt cue C. Subjective data

D. None

True /False (1 Mark each)


Right true or false on the space provide.
. 1. A history of using tobacco is included in past illness history
2. A question saying where did you feel the pain? is a direct question

62

3. You should not ask about private things because a nurse should have empathy.
4. Interpretation is one of responses which need non- verbal skill.
III. Explain
4. Write the components in history of menstrual pattern (2 marks)

5. What do we mean by goal and outcome in planning of nursing process (2


marks)

6. Explain the difference between nursing diagnosis and medical diagnosis in


nursing process. (2 marks)

63

64

65

66

MCQ- Attempt all questions and fill your answer on the space provided (0.5
mark each)
1. Bacterial infection of the skin manifested by swelling, localized hotness,
pain, redness etc is:
A) Malaria

C) Carbuncle

B) Psoriasis

D) Acne vulgaris

2. The disease stated on the Q1 is caused by


A) S. Aures

C) P. Ovalae

B) S. Preumonia

D) Psendomona spicies

3. A patient came to your health institution with acute painful red eye,
swelling of the eye lids. In your examination you see that the cornea is
clear and pupil normal
=> You give

for this pt.

A) Tetracyclline with oral administration


B) Clothrimazol with topical administration
C) Tetracyclline with topical administration
D) Penicilline with topical administration
4. One can not be factor fevering repeated infection with Chlamydia
A) Fingers

B) Flies

C) Fear

D) Fomites

5. Not true about a disease caused by Borella recurrenties


A) Vectors of the disease are body lice
67

B) Fomites of house hold are reservoirs


C) Common in rainy season
D) Infection caused increased body parts with introduction of colonic fluid of
body lice
E) None
6. One happens in chills phase of JH reaction
A) Fever declines
B) drenged swetting
C) dramatic fall in systemic blood pressure
D) All
E) None
7. Ricketesia prowazekii is related with all of the following except
A) Cold weather condition
B) Direct transmission from one person to the other
C) Rapid raising temperature and severe headache with generalized rash
D) Photophobia and conjactival infection
8. False about endemic typhus
A) Has a causative agent Ricktesia prawazekii
B) Occurs world wide
C) Rattus rathus are common reservoirs
D) Fleas transmit the disease
9. In lempropmatous leprosy
A) There are few bacillies in the skin and nerve
B) Occurs with a patient with fairly high cell mediated immunity.
C) Usually only one nerve trunk is involved
D) Bacilli are present with macrophages and a few lymphocytes.
10. False about malaria causing plasmodium protozoa
A) Has sexual life cycle in the human beings

68

B) The sporzoit stage transmit from human to mosquito


C) Transmits through female anopheles mosquito
D) All the true.
11. Chronic complication of malaria
A) Lactic acidosis
B) Sever anemia
C) Dismininated intravascular coagulation
D) Nephrotic syndrome
12. Your health institution is a health an post you can diagnose malaria by
A) Clinical assessment
B) With result of microscopy of blood film
C) With result of rapid diagnostic test
D) A and B
E) A and C
13. Not taken as mode of transmission for sexually transmitted infection
A) Penetrative unprotected sexual intercourse
B) Mother to child
C) Breast milk
D) None
14. One correctly joined
A) Vaginal discharge Genital herbs
B) Scrotal swelling syphilis
C) Lower abdominal pain Gonorrhea
D) Inguinal bulbo - Chlamydia
15. True about toxoplasmosis
A) Symptomatic always
B) Ingestion of sporulated oocyst from raw meet is cause
69

C) Fancidar is the treatment


D) Has a diagnosis of identification of body immunity for toxoplasmosis.
16. The prevalence of active trachoma is represented by the proportion of
A) TS and TT

B) TI and OC

B) TF and TI

D) TS and OC

17. Prompt treatment of inflammation is for


A) TS

B) TI

C) TT

D) CO

18. Visual impairment is related with the prevalence of


A) TS

B) TT

C) CO

D) TI

II. Matching (malaria) (0.5 mark each)


A
1. Greater than two generalized
tonic clonic seizure in 24 hrs
2 Systemic blood pressure less than
80 mm Hg.
3. Unarousable comma for greater than
30 minutes

B
A) Hypoglycemia
B) DIC
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Acute renal failure
E) Lactic acidosis
F) Sever anemia

4. Blood glucose level <40 mg /dl

G) Hypotension

5. Hemoglobin is less than 5mg/dl

H) Generalized convulsion

6. Increased serum urea and creatinin

I) Cerebral malaria

III Matching (trachoma ) (1 mark each)


A

1. Presence of five or more follicles

A) TS

in the conjunctive

B)TI

2. Presence of easily visible

C) TF

corneal inability to pass light

D) CO

3. Thickening of the upper tarsal conjunctiva

E) TT

4. Scaring of the tarsal conjunctiva


70

5. Eye lash touching cornea.

IV ESSEY
1. Explain what precautions you take and management for relapsing fever (2
marks)
2. Explain management of uncomplicated malaria at health center level both
for P.Vivax and P.falciparum (2 mark)
3. Why do we need syndromic approach for a treatment of sexually
transmitted infection (2 marks)
4. Explain the difference between the sexually transmitted infection (STI)
and sexually transmitted disease (STD) (2 marks)

71

Awassa College of Health Science


Department of public Health Nurses

Communicable Disease control


Assessment test for Year II PHN students
Date:- Dec, 30,2005
Time Allocated = 1:00hrs
Instructor Tewodros M.(BSC)
Name
ID.No

72

Attempt all questions and give your answer on the place


provided.

Good Luck!!
Part I .
Choose the correct answer and fill on the space provided (1 mark each)
1. Which one of the following can not be taken as a reason for wide spread of
pulmonary Tb
a) Lack of health care service
b) Neglect of pulmonary Tb program
c) The different strains of causative agents
d) HIV infection
E) None
2. The risk of infection of susceptible host is high with
a) Open infection
b) prolonged indoor pollution
c) Asymptomatic patient
d) Smear ve infection
3. Common in immuno compromised patients and happen in reactivation or re
infection
a) Extra pulmonary Tb
b) Primary Tb
c) Tb peritonitis
d) Secondary Tb

73

4. The risk of progression of infection to disease depends on


a) Endogenous factors
b) Exogenous factors
c) Level of cell mediated immunity
d) A and C
e) B and C
5. In Natural history of infected Tb
a) 30% undergo spontaneous
b) 30% die on the same year
c) 50% die in 5 years
d) all
e) A and B are correct
6. We can not use culture for primary way for diagnosis of P.Tb because
a) It is time wasting
b) It is not cost effective
c) We have no culture
d) Can not detect the bacteria
7. Which can not be seen on chest X- ray of Typical
a) Bilateral infiltration
b) Cryptation
c) upper lobe infiltration
d) Cavity
e) None
8. Patient who have taken P.Tb treatment for four weak and transferred to
your health center will be registered as
a) New case

c) Transfer in

b) Defaulter

d) Transfer out

e) treatment failure

74

9. Category II in National guideline for treatment of Tb


a) Newly diagnosed smear ve P.Tb
b) Defaulter
c) Need high supervision
d) Default after re-treatment
e) All except A
10. Which one is not correctly joined with its minor side effects?
a) Rifampicine Anorexia, vomiting
b) Phyrazinamide Arthralgia
c) Streptomcycine Diarrhea
d) Isomiazide fever
e) All are correctly joined
11. Which one has not jaundice (yellowish discoloration of the sclera) as main
side effect
a) Streptomycine
b) Rifampicine
c) Phyrazinahide
d) Isoniaized
12. Which will not be control measure
a) Absence retrieval
b) Screening of control
c) Isolation of patients
d) Surveillance and monitoring

Part II Explain
1. Write the cases for false positivity for PPD test (1 mark )
2. Write the cases for false negativity for PPD test (1 mark)
3. Explain when to say a patient is smear positive pulmonary Tb. (1 mark)

75

4. Explain the patient category in the anti-Tb drugs according to National guideline.
Treatment. (2 mark)
5. Write the drug regimens in Anti-Tb treatment (1 mark)
6. Write the steps in PPD testing and reading of result (2 marks)

76

Answer Sheet
Name

ID No

Year

Part I Choose
1
2.
3.
4.
5.

6.

11.

7.

12.

8.

13.

9.

14.

10.

15.

Part III. True or False


1.
2.

3.
4.

Part IV Explain
1.

77

2.

3.

2.

78

4.

5.

6.

79

Awassa College of Health Science


Department of public Health Nurses

Communicable Disease control


Assessment test for Year II PHN students
Date:- Dec, 7.2005
Time Allocated = 21/2hrs
Instructor Tewodros M.(BSC)
Name
ID.No

80

Attempt all questions and give your answer on the place


provided.

Good Luck!!

II.

Multiple choice (0.5 marks each)


1. True Statement about infectious hepatitis
A. It can be transmitted through blood transfusion
B. Recovery with out seqelae is a rule
C. If can be transmitted through contaminated food
D. All
2. Which type of influenza virus (S) is /are commonly associated with wide
spread epidemics & pandemics
A. Type A

B. Type B & CC. Type C

D. A and C

3. The major cause (S) of mortalities and morbidities in Africa are


A. Non-communicable disease

B. Communicable disease

C. Viral disease

D. All

4. HIV can be transmitted when the HIV positive individual is in


A. Acute sero- conversion illness

B. Latent phase

C. Early HIV/AIDS

D. All

5. The interval between the initial effective exposure to an infectious organism


and the first appearance of symptoms of infection is
A. Latent phase

B. Infections period
81

C. Incubation period

D. Period of communicability

6. The degree of communicability of yellow fever in humans is affected by the


coexistence of:
A. Susceptible people and abundant infected monkeys.
B. Infected monkeys and abundant mosquitoes.
C. Susceptible people and abundant vector mosquito
D. Communicability is always high regardless of factors.

7. All of the following diseases can be prevented through immunization except.


A. Infectious hepatitis

B. Yellow fever

C. HIV/AIDS

D. None

8. All of the following increases the risk for infection with HIV except.
A. Ulcerative forms of STDS
B. STDS with discharge
C. Unsafe sexual intercourse
D. None of the above
9. Communicable disease are very important in Africa because.
A. Some are serious and cause death and disability
B. Most of them are very common
C. Most of them are preventable by fairly simple means
D. All
10. Which one of the following is viral water born disease?
A. Typhoid fever
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Amoebiasis
D. Cholera.
11. Which one of the following is not included in chain of disease transmission?
A. Reservoir

82

B. Management of agent
C. Portal of exit
D. Susceptible host
E. None
12. Which one is a direct transmission?
A. Air born transmission

B. Vector born

C. Mother to child
D. Mechanical transmission

E. None

13. Normal value of CD4+ cells in adult is


A. 2500 cells /mm3
B. 500 cells/mm3
C. 1500 cells/mm3
D. 200 500 cells /mm3
14. According to WHO criteria which one is a major criterion for diagnosis of
AIDS
A. Chronic cough
B. Wight loss
C. Lympadenopaty
D. Herpes infection
15. To prepare 0.5% chlorine solution from 5% solution you add

lt. of water

for 1 letter of 5% solution


A. 2

B. 9

C. 4

D. 10

E. None

16. Which may happen in measles?


A. Spleenomegally

B. Lymphad enopathy

C. Diarrhea

D. None

E/ All except D

17. Which one is a live attenuated Vaccine

83

A. Measles

C. Sabin

B. Salk

D. A and B are correct

E. A and C are correct

18. Pathology of measles is not in one of the following.


A. Nasopharynx
B. Conjacitve

C. Buccal mucosa

D. Dermis

19. Which one is not included in AIDS related complex?


A. herpes zoster infection
B. thrombocytopenia
C. Tuberculosis
D. recurrent herpes simplex
E. None
20. Which one is true in the sequence of skin rash in measles
A. neck abdomen upper arm feet thigh
B. face neck Abdomen thigh feet
C. Thigh feet Abdomen faces chest
D. Face feet chest Abdomen thigh

III.

True /False (0.5 marks each)


1. The rate of paralysis among polio virus infected non-immune adults is
higher that among non-immune infants and young children.
2. Administration of prepared antibody which is necessary for fighting
against disease is called active immunization.
3. Prophylaxis may not be taken as a means of prevention of susceptible
host.

84

4. HIV2 is a less dangerous compared to HIV1


5. Present of Kaposi sarcoma can be taken as a definition of HIV/AIDS in
CDC.
6. We initiate measles vaccination at 9 months of age during epidemics and
repeat at 16 months of age.
7. In most cases of poliomyelitis patients, there is antibody and the virus can
be cultured from stool.
8. One of the use of information and education (TE) about sexual behavior is
to improve and maintain sexual relationship.
9. Influenza disease always causes epidemics with a combination of viral
types.
10. Anti rabies vaccine is a must for all animal bite cases.

IV.

Matching (0.5 marks each)


A

1. Delta hoplites

A. Measles

2. Molescum contagiosum

B. Rabies

3. Kopliks spot

C. Typhoid fever

. Salk

D. Poliomyelitis

5. Ades agypti mosquitoes

E. Yellow fever

6. Hydrophobia

F. AIDS
G. Viral hepatitis.
H. Influenza

V.

Explain

1. Write the procedure in first aid for all animal bites (2 marks)
85

2. Write stool sample collection protocol in acute flaccid paralysis (2 marks)


3. Write the necessary information included in patient referral (1 mark)
4. Write the phases of measles in clinical feature and the duration of each phase (2
marks)

Awassa College of health science


Department of public health
Communicable disease control final exam for
Year II Public health nursing students
86

Name
ID No
Time allowed 2 hrs
Instructor Tewodros M.

Good Luck!!

MCQ- Attempt all questions and fill your answer on the space provided (0.5
mark each)
1. Bacterial infection of the skin manifested by swelling,localized hotness,
pain, redness etc is:
A) Malaria

C) Carbuncle

B) Psoriasis

D) Acne vulgaris

2. The disease stated on the Q1 is caused by


A) S. Aures

C) P. Ovalae

87

B) S. Preumonia

D) Psendomona spicies

3. A patient came to your health institution with acute painful red eye,
swelling of the eye lids. In your examination you see that the cornea is
clear and pupil normal
=> You give

for this pt.

A) Tetracyclline with oral administration


B) Clothrimazol with topical administration
C) Tetracyclline with topical administration
D) Penicilline with topical administration
4. One can not be factor fevering repeated infection with Chlamydia
A) Fingers

B) Flies

C) Fear

D) Fomites

5. Not true about a disease caused by Borella recurrenties


A) Vectors of the disease are body lice
B) Fomites of house hold are reservoirs
C) Common in rainy season
D) Infection caused increased body parts with introduction of colonic fluid of
body lice
E) None
6. One happens in chills phase of JH reaction
A) Fever declines
B) drenged swetting
C) dramatic fall in systemic blood pressure
D) All
E) None
7. Ricketesia prowazekii is related with all of the following except
A) Cold weather condition
B) Direct transmission from one person to the other
C) Rapid raising temperature and severe headache with generalized rash
D) Photophobia and conjactival infection
88

8. False about endemic typhus


A) Has a causative agent Ricktesia prawazekii
B) Occurs world wide
C) Rattus rathus are common reservoirs
D) Fleas transmit the disease
9. In lempropmatous leprosy
A) There are few bacillies in the skin and nerve
B) Occurs with a patient with fairly high cell mediated immunity.
C) Usually only one nerve trunk is involved
D) Bacilli are present with macrophages and a few lymphocytes.
10. False about malaria causing plasmodium protozoa
A) Has sexual life cycle in the human beings
B) The sporzoit stage transmit from human to mosquito
C) Transmits through female anopheles mosquito
D) All the true.
11. Chronic complication of malaria
A) Lactic acidosis
B) Sever anemia
C) Dismininated intravascular coagulation
D) Nephrotic syndrome
12. Your health institution is a health an post you can diagnose malaria by
A) Clinical assessment
B) With result of microscopy of blood film
C) With result of rapid diagnostic test
D) A and B
E) A and C

89

13. Not taken as mode of transmission for sexually transmitted infection


A) Penetrative unprotected sexual intercourse
B) Mother to child
C) Breast milk
D) None
14. One correctly joined
A) Vaginal discharge Genital herbs
B) Scrotal swelling syphilis
C) Lower abdominal pain Gonorrhea
D) Inguinal bulbo - Chlamydia
15. True about toxoplasmosis
A) Symptomatic always
B) Ingestion of sporulated oocyst from raw meet is cause
C) Fancidar is the treatment
D) Has a diagnosis of identification of body immunity for toxoplasmosis.
16. The prevalence of active trachoma is represented by the proportion of
A) TS and TT

C) TI and OC

B) TF and TI

D) TS and OC

17. Prompt treatment of inflammation is for


A) TS

C) TI

B) TT

D) CO

18. Visual impairment is related with the prevalence of


A) TS

C) TT

B) CO

D) TI

II. Matching (malaria) (0.5 mark each)


A

B
90

1. Greater than two generalized


tonic clonic seizure in 24 hrs
2 Systemic blood pressure less than
80 mm Hg.
3. Unarousable comma for greater than
30 minutes

A) Hypoglycemia
B) DIC
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Acute renal failure
E) Lactic acidosis
F) Sever anemia

4. Blood glucose level <40 mg /dl

G) Hypotension

5. Hemoglobin is less than 5mg/dl

H) Generalized convulsion

6. Increased serum urea and creatinin

I) Cerebral malaria

II Matching (trachoma ) (1 mark each)


A

1. Presence of five or more follicles

A) TS

in the conjunctive

B)TI

2. Presence of easily visible

C) TF

corneal inability to pass light

D) CO

3. Thickening of the upper tarsal conjunctiva

E) TT

4. Scaring of the tarsal conjunctiva


5. Eye lash touching cornea.

IV ESSEY
1. Explain what precautions you take and management for relapsing fever (2
marks)
2. Explain management of uncomplicated malaria at health center level both
for P.Vivax and P.falciparum (2 mark)
3. Why do we need syndromic approach for a treatment of sexually
transmitted infection (2 marks)
4. Explain the difference between the sexually transmitted infection (STI)
and sexually transmitted disease (STD) (2 marks)

91

92

You might also like