VISIONIAS GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550 Question Paper

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No.
1550
VISION IAS ONLINE SYSTEM
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Q.1
Consider the following statements:
1. The Writ jurisdiction of the High Court under Article 226 can be restricted through a constitutional
amendment passed by 2/3rd majority of members present and voting.
2. The ward of a British Citizen resident in India can claim the Right to Elementary Education.
3. Education is a Central subject.
4. Article 301 complements/reinforces some clauses of Article 19.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
(a) 2, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3
(d) 1, 3
Q.2
Which is not true for the Government of India act of 1919?
(a) It divided the provincial subjects into two parts.
(b) It introduced bicameralism.
(c) It introduced direct elections for the first time.
(d) It required the two of the six members of the Viceroys executive council to be Indian.
Q.3
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A money bill is introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. Under article 249, resolution passed by Rajya Sabha in the national interest allows parliament to enact laws
on only such items of state List which are specified in the said resolution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.4
Choose the correct statement:
1. The governor is the chief legislative head of the state.
2. The governor also acts as an agent of the central government
3. The office of governor of a state is an employment under the central government
GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

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4. Office of governor is under the direct control of central government.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) None of the above.
Q.5
Which of the following are tools of e-governance?
(a) Emails
(c) Social Media
(b) Messages
(d) All of the above
Q.6
Read the following statements regarding the Legislative Council carefully.
1. It can both discuss and vote on the demands for grants.
2. It can participate in the elections of President of India.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) None
Q.7
Match the following columns appropriately.
Name of Scheme
A. SABLA
Feature/Objective
1.Addresses the specific vulnerability of each of group
of women in difficult circumstances through a Homebased holistic and integrated approach.
2. The Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) and Nutrition
Programme for Adolescent Girls (NPAG) have been
merged in this scheme.
3. An integrated scheme for women's empowerment
and a recast of Indira Mahila Yojana.
4. A Comprehensive Scheme for Prevention of
Trafficking and Rescue, Rehabilitation and Reintegration of Victims of Trafficking for Commercial
Sexual Exploitation.
B.Swayamsidha
C.Swadhar
D.Ujjawala
(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Q.8
With reference to the Right of citizens for time bound delivery of goods and services and redressal of their
Grievances bill, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Publishing of citizens charter is a must for the public authority stating the time in which the service needs to
be rendered.
2. The Head of the Department in each public authority shall be responsible for updating and verifying the
Citizens Charter every year.

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3. Any person who, does not receive a decision within the time specified or is aggrieved by a decision of the
designated authority may appeal to the State Public Grievance Redressal Commission.
4. Appeal against the decisions of the State Public Grievance Redressal Commission can be filed in the high
court.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.9
Which of the following statements regarding RTE Act is/are correct?
1. It provides for prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educative work.
2. It does not provide for educational qualifications of teachers.
3. Establishment of School Management Committee in all schools.
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only
Q.10
Which of the following statements regarding national emergency is/are correct?
1. Both law and executive action can take away fundamental rights during national emergency.
2. Only parliament and not state legislature can make laws to suspend fundamental rights during national
emergency.
3. If national emergency is imposed in a part of the territory of India, then fundamental rights under article 19
can be suspended only in that part of the country only.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.11
Consider the following statements
1. Untouchability is defined is the constitution:
2. A person convicted of the offence of untouchability is disqualifies for the elections to the parliament or state
legislature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.12
Consider the following statements regarding double membership:
1. If a person is elected to both the houses of the parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which house he
desires to serve else his seat in the Lok Sabha becomes vacant.
2. A sitting member of one house cannot be elected to another house.
3. If a person is elected to both state legislature and the parliament, his seat in the state legislature becomes
vacant.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Q.13
Which of the following are the socialistic principles mentioned in Part IV of the constitution?
1. Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
2. Equal justice and free legal aid.
3. Separation of judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
4. To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
Q.14
Which of the following is/are about Uranium mining?
1. It is more dangerous for smokers than non-smokers
2. It leaves radioactive impact on vegetation even in far away places
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.15
Consider the following statements regarding the responsibility of state council of ministers
1. Article 164 states that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the
state.
2. The individual responsibility means that a minister holds office during the pleasure of the chief minister.
Choose the correct statements
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

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(c) Both
(d) None
Q.16
Which of the following is/are correct about world Social forum?
1. It is an organ of United Nations to promote equal rights for indigenous people
2. It is an annual meeting of various advocacy groups to oppose Neo-imperialism and capitalism.
3. Its headquarter is located in Porto Alegre, Brazil.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q.17
Consider the following statements about Money Bill:
1. Money Bill can be introduced by any member of the lower house but only in Lok Sabha.
2. The defeat of Money Bill in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.18
consider the following statements regarding the censure motion.:
1. it should state the reason for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
2. it can be moved against the entire council of ministers only and not against an individual minister.
3. if it is passed in the lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign from office.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.19
While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation in the country under article 352, which of the following are
not correct?
1. The parliament is empowered under article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the state list.
2. The power of the state legislature to make a law which it is entitled to make, under the constitution is
suspended.

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3. The Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to a state on any matter.
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) 1 and 2
Q.20
Read the following statement carefully.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding office of the Governor:
1. India adopted Australian model to appoint Governor.
2. According to the constitution, a Governor should not belong to the state where he/she is appointed.
3. State Executive consists of the Governor, CM and Council of Ministers and the advocate general of the state.
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 3
(d) Only 3
Q.21
According to Articles 12 and 36, the term State, apart from the Government of India includes which of the
following?
1. The Parliament of India
2. The State Legislatures
3. Panchayats
4. Municipality Boards
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
Q.22
The coil of the heating devices are generally made very thin and long to
(a) Increase the resistance of the wire so that the heating effect is increased
(b) Make the current flow easily through it.
(c) Decrease the cost of production of the coil
(d) None of these
Q.23
What are natural sinks?
(a) These are regions inside the alimentary canal of higher animal rich in the presence of bacteria, which in turn
degrade the undigested food.

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(b) These are natural or artificial reservoirs that have capacity to absorb the greenhouse gases and storm-them
for an indefinite period.
(c) These are region inside the deep trenches of the pacific ocean which have high degree of Magnetic field.
(d) These are river sinks or basins developed in the valley regions of mountainous river during the Pleistocene
epoch by the volcanic eruption.
Q.24
Which of the following are the features of parliamentary form of the government?
1. Bicameralism
2. Leadership of the chief minister
3. Individual responsibility of the executive to the president
4. Membership of the ministers in the legislature
Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.25
The deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot be the presiding officer of which Committeesa. Business Advisory Committee
b. The Rules Committee
c. General Purpose Committee
Options:
(a) Only a
(b) b and c
(c) a, b and c
(d) None
Q.26
Consider the following statements regarding the effect of national emergency on Fundamental Rights under
Article 359:
1. The Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement is suspended.
2. Right to seek remedy may be suspended by the Presidential order for any of the Fundamental rights.
3. Any of the legislative and executive actions taken during the operation of the Order cannot be challenged
even after the Order expires.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 only

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(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.27
Which of the following statements is/are true about Ozone :1. Ozone is a yellow gas.
2. It can be converted back into oxygen after oxidising process.
3. Ozone generators produce ozone by passing oxygen through an electrical field.
4. Ozone is used in disinfection.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.28
1. The Supreme Court can issue writs other than the five mentioned in Article 32.
2. The writ of Mandamus is available against the Administrative tribunals.
3. Legislative power to enact laws on Preventive detention is divided between the Union and the states.
4. Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 is a preventive Detention
law.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q.29
Which of the following parts of Constitution have a bearing on Education?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 3
(c) 1, 2
(d) 1, 2, 3
Q.30
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha.
The power of Speaker in this regard is-

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(a) Arbitrary
(b) Tribunal
(c) Civil court
Q.31
Consider the following provisions:
1. Election of the President and its manner.
2. Distribution of legislative powers between the union and the states.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the supreme court.
Which of the above provisions can be amended by special majority with involvement of states.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.32
Which of the following statements is/are true about foods cooked in salt water compared to unsalted water :1. Food Will cook slower because of the action of the salt.
2. Food Will cook faster because of the action of the salt.
3. It raises the boiling temperature.
4. It raises the maximum temperature.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.33
Which of the following positions of constitutional entitled for emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on
under Schedule Two of the constitution
1. President
2. Prime Minister
3. Governors of states
4. UPSC Chairman and Members
Option :
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4

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(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3
Q.34
Consider the following statements with regards to Directive Principles:
1. The minimum Wages Act, child labor Prohibition Act, the Factories Act etc. are statutory provisions to give
effect to Directive Principles.
2. 73rd Constitutional amendment Act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution.
3. Aggrieved person can approach court for its implementation.
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.35
consider the following statements:
1. President, on advice of council of ministers can impose reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights of
the citizens.
2. Parliament decides about the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on fundamental rights.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.36
Which of the following Statements are correct?
1. The power conferred by the President by Article 123 is not available when the two houses of parliament are in
session.
2. The President addresses both houses of Parliament at the commencement of the first session each year and
inform the Parliament of the causes of its summons.
3. The President has the right to address either House of Parliament at any time.
4. The President has the power of appointing Indian representatives to other countries and receiving diplomatic
representatives of other states as is recognised by the Parliament.
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q.37
Consider the following statements regarding Article 32:

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1. Fundamental Rights as well as non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights etc. can be enforced
under Article 32.
2. In case of the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is original and
exclusive.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Q.38
Which of the following statements regarding nature of Indian polity is/are NOT correct?
1. Coalition government first came at centre and then at state level.
2. India follows first-past-the post system in election of the President.
3. President cannot revoke emergency without permission of Parliament.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.39
consider the following questions :
1. Writ of prohibition can be issued against judicial as well as administrative authorities.
2. Mandamus is a writ from a superior court commanding some officer to show his right to the office.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.40
Consider the following statements(a) Parliament can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward
classes.
(b) President appoints the attorney general of India and Parliament determines his remuneration.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) Only a
(b) Only b
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a and b

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Q.41
Under article 331 of the constitution of the India, president may nominate two members of Anglo-Indian
community to the house of people. Which of the following constitutional provisions is/are correct regarding it?
1. Members must be from two different states.
2. Members are nominated only if the said community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha in the
opinion of the president.
3. Member must not be less than thirty years of age.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.42
Vice President would ascend to the Presidency only under extraordinary circumstances such as:
1. Death of the President
2. Resignation of the President
3. Removal of the President by impeachment.
4. Invalidation of the election of the President by the Supreme Court
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
Q.43
Examine these two statements:
1. All part of constitution came into force on January 26, 1950
2. The Indian independence act, 1947 and Government of India act, 1935 were repealed on 26thNovember, 1949
(a) Both statements are true (b) Both statements are false
(c) 1 is true but 2 is false
(d) 2 is true but 1 is false
Q.44
Consider the following two statements with respect to citizenship:
1. Enemy aliens enjoy lesser rights than friendly aliens.
2. Aliens enjoy all the civil rights but not all the political rights as citizens.
(a) Both statements are true. (b) Both statements are false

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Q.45
Which of the following statements is/are true about Surface tension of liquids :1. It is because of adhesive forces of the liquid.
2. Hot water is a better cleaning agent because the higher surface tension.
3. Soaps and detergents lower the surface tension of the water
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.46
Read the following statements carefully.
1. In the Parliament, motion for the creation or abolition of Legislative Council requires simple majority.
2. If the motion for abolition or creation of Legislative Council is passed, it is deemed as an amendment of the
constitution.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d)None
Q.47
Which of the following is/are correct about Purchasing Managers' Index (PMI)?
1. It is an indicator of business activity in the manufacturing sectors only.
2. Started in 1948 by the US-based Institute of Supply Management.
3. It is a survey-based measure.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q.48
With regard to the sessions of State Legislature, consider the following statements.
1. The Speaker of legislative assembly from time to time summons each house of State Legislature to meet.
2. An adjournment suspends the work, in a sitting for a specified time which may be hours,days or weeks.
3. The Governor of the State declares the house adjourned sine die, when the business of the session is
completed. Within the next few days the Governor issues a notification for prorogation of the session.

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Which of the following is not correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.49
1. Hyderabad and Junagarh were integrated with India by means of referendum
2. Kashmir was integrated by the instrument of accession.
3. Both Nagaland and Mizoram was integrated to India with the use of army after independence
4. Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand were made new states based on linguistic reorganisation
5. Sikkim and Goa were integrated to India using similar means.
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3
Q.50
Consider the following with reference to the Pardoning power provided by the Constitution to the Executive:
1. Only the President can pardon sentences inflicted by Court Martial.
2. Even if a State law prescribes a death sentence, the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence.
3. Regarding Suspension, Remission or Commutation of a Sentence, the jurisdiction of the Governor is
concurrent with the President.
4. Remission means awarding a lesser sentence instead of the penalty prescribed in view of some special fact.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q.51
1. Tribal welfare ministry is compulsory in few states as per constitutional provision.
2. Autonomous state, under article 244A, can be formed only within Assam.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.52
Consider the following statements regarding writs:
1. Supreme Court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction under Article 32, while a high court may refuse
to exercise its writ jurisdiction under Article 226.
2. The writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto can only be sought by the
aggrieved person.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Q.53
Consider the following statements regarding financial emergency.
1. There is no maximum period prescribed for its operation.
2. Repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
3. Financial Emergency may be revoked by the president at anytime by a subsequent proclamation without any
parliamentary approval.
4. During the emergency the president can reduce the salaries and the allowances of the government
employees excluding the judges of supreme court and high courts.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q.54
1. Mandal Commission recommended for the exclusion of advanced section among the Other Backward
Classes (creamy layer) from reservation.
2. Reservation in promotion is not available to Other backward classes (OBCs).
3. National commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body.
(a) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3
Q.55
Which of the following is/are the example/examples of the progress made by Government of union and States in
implementing the DPSP?

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1. Establishing of all India Handicrafts Board, small scale Industries Board and Silk Board.
2. Launching of drought prone area Programme and Desert development Programme.
3. The Constitution 73rd and 74th amendment acts
Codes(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only 3
Q.56
Which one of the following statement is correct?
1. In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the same time.
2. The judges of the high court of the states are appointed by the governor of the state.
3. No procedure has been laid down in the constitution for the removal of a governor from his/her post.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Q.57
Malaria is caused by a parasite that is passed from one human to another by the bite of infected Anopheles
mosquitoes.Which of the following statements is/are true about causes behind its symptoms:1. The release of merozoites into the bloodstream.
2. Anemia resulting from the destruction of the red blood cells.
3. Large amounts of free hemoglobin being released into circulation.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Q.58
Which of the following is/are correct regarding Fundamental Duties?
1. These extend to citizens of India as well foreigners who come to India
2. These are non-justiciable in nature
3. To protect and improve the natural environment is one of the Fundamental duties
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q.59
Consider the following statements with respect to alleged inhuman conditions of relief camps for riots victims in
a state in India:
1. Taking suo motu cognizance, NHRC may order independent probe to inquire into violation of human rights
but only within one year of the incident.
2. NHRC may order the state government to make payment of compensation or damages to the victims.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
Q.60
Which among the following are not the salient feature of the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012?
1. Concept of one person company ('OPC') introduced.
2. Private Companies can have up to 200 shareholders.
3. Concept of 'small company' introduced.
4. There is no limit in respect of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor.
5. Independent directors shall be excluded for the purpose of computing one-third of retiring directors.
Code:
(a) 1, 5 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 3, 4, 5 only
(d) None
Q.61
1. Ratification, if required, of a constitutional amendment by the state legislatures is passed by simple majority.
2. Resolution for removal of chief election commissioner is passed by special majority under the article 249
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.62
What do you understand by loss of citizenship by deprivation:
(a) If someone renounces his/her citizenship
(b) If someone acquires the citizenship of another country

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(c) A person who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947
Q.63
From which countrys constitution has India borrowed the procedure for electing Rajya Sabha members:
(a) South Africa
(b) France
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Q.64
1. The privileges of the state legislature do not extend to the governor.
2. The governor of Kerala serves as the administrator of Lakshadweep.
3. If the legislature imposes a sentence on an individual on account of contempt of its privileges, the High Court
or the Supreme court cannot employ the writ of Habeas Corpus even if a petition under Article 32 or 226 is filed.
4. The government of Delhi does not have legislative power over Public Order and Land, though they are in the
state list.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Q.65
Consider the following statements about the preamble of India
1. It is not a part of the constitution
2. It can be amended and has been amended three times in the past.
3.During previous amendments words socialist, secular and dignity were added
4. It is non justiciable in nature.
Which of the following statements are true?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
Q.66
Which of the following directives are given to the state but not included in the part 4 of the constitution?
1. Every state should provide adequate facilities for the instructions in the mother tongue at the primary stage
to linguistic minority groups

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2. Union should promote the spread of Hindi Language so that it may serve as a medium of expression.
3. To bring about the prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs that are injurious to health.
4. Claims of SC/ST shall be taken into consideration in making appointments to services and posts related to
affairs of union or state.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b)1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.67
Read the following statements carefully.
1. The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is fixed at one-Third of the total strength of the Assembly,by
the Constitution.
2. The bonafides of the Governors nomination for Legislative Council can be challenged in the courts in case of
misuse of power.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) None
Q.68
Consider the following statements regarding the office of Whip(a) The office of Whip is mentioned in the Parliamentary Statute.
(b) He is appointed by the Speaker.
Which of the above statements are true(a) Only a
(b) Only b
(c) Both a and b (d) Neither a and b
Q.69
Which of the following features make RTE unique from amongst such acts from Other countries?
1. Definition of 'free' education goes beyond mere tuition fees to cover textbooks, uniforms and transportation
2. The compulsion for enrolment is on respective State Governments rather than parents
3. School education as a tri-partite partnership between the community, PRIs and the government
4. Defining minimum norms and standards for schools and prescribing quality principles for teaching-learning
process
Options:
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4

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(c) 2, 3 and 4
Q.70
Which of the following statements about is/are correct?
1. The executive functions of the centre can be delegated to a state without its consent.
2. Such a delegation of functions is made by the President.
(a) 1only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
Q.71
Consider the following statements regarding adjournment and prorogation(a) Adjournment is done by the presiding officer of the House and it does not affect the bills or any other
business pending before the House.
(b) Prorogation is done by the president of India and it does not affect the bills or any other business pending
before the House.
(b) Only b
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a and b
Q.72
Examine these two statements:
1. Both India and Pakistan ceased to be British dominions with commencement of their constitution.
2. Pakistan remained a British dominion even after India ceased to be.
(a) Both statements are true.
(b) Both statements are false
Q.73
Which of the following authorities makes recommendation to the governor of a state as to the principles for
determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the panchayats in that particular state.
(a) District planning committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance ministry of the state
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
Q.74

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1. Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in Schedule Sixth applies to whole North East Region.
2. Contemporary laws included in ninth Schedule are open to judicial review.
Option :
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.75
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39(b) or (c) shall be void
on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.
2. Articles 31 A, 31B and 31C act as exceptions to the fundamental rights.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Q.76
consider the following statements regarding the cabinet committees:
1. These are constitutional bodies.
2. These committees are set up by the President according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of
the situation.
3. Non-cabinet ministers are debarred from their membership.
4. These committees not only formulate proposals for the consideration of the cabinet but also take decisions.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.77
Consider the following statements regarding the fundamental duties:
1. They are statutory duties.
2. To pay tax is a fundamental duty of the citizen.
3. Parliament is allowed to enforce them by suitable legislation.
4. It extends to both citizens and foreigners.

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(c) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.78
Supreme Court of India has laid down certain proposition in SR Bomai case in relation to the President's rule in a
state.Which of the following statements is/are true about this :1. The Presidential rule is subjected to Judicial review.
2. Burden lies on the center to prove that relevant material exist to justify the imposition of the President's rule.
3. The state legislative assembly can not be dissolved.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 , 2 and 3
Q.79
Consider the following statements :
1. Gender inequality Index is prepared by UNDP.
2. Gender gap index is prepared by World Bank.
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.80
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Article 29 grants protection to only religious and linguistic minorities.
2. Article 30 grants protection to both minorities and the majority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Q.81
With reference to the Article 161,the pardoning power of Governor
1. does not extend to life imprisonment cases.

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2. does not extend to punishments or sentence given by a Court Martial.
3. is bound by the advice of his/her Councils of Ministers.
4. is subject to judicial review.
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.82
Consider the following statements and choose the right combination
1. A money bill can be introduced only in the lower house on the recommendation of Speaker.
2. All financial bills are not Money Bills.
3. Money Bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member.
4. The Rajya Sabha can detain money Bill for a maximum period of 10 days.
5. Money Bill can be returned by the President for reconsideration.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 only
Q.83
Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary Question?
1. Starred Questions requires a written answer and hence, supplementary question cannot follow.
2. Unstarred Questions requires an oral answer and hence, supplementary question can follow.
3. Maximum 20 Questions are included in the list of Starred Questions for a particular day.
4. Minimum of 15 clear days notice is required for tabling Unstarred Questions.
5. Short Notice Questions requires written answers only.
Identify the Right statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 3 and 4
Q.84
To increase the solubility of a gas in a liquid as much as possible,Which of the following should be done :1. High temperature
2. Low temperature

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3. High pressure
4. Low pressure
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Q.85
Which of the following statements is/are true about charcoal?
1. It burns with blue flames.
2. It produces heavy smoke on burning.
3. It is more heat efficient than wood.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Q.86
Some statements are given below regarding the Secretary General of Lok Sabha, choose the right combination.
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha appoints him.
2. His pay scale, position and status etc. is equivalent to that of the highest-ranking official in the Government
of India i.e. Cabinet Secretary.
3. He authenticates the bills in absence of speaker.
(a) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Q.87
Which of the following is/are a means of preparing carbon dioxide:1. Burning coke in the absence of air.
2. Combustion of methane.
3. Heating certain normal carbonates.
4. Action of acids on carbonates.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q.88
The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure.
(a) Fundamental rights to all individuals.
(b) Fundamental duties to citizen of India.
(c) Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.
(d) Security of service to government servant.
Q.89
Choose whether the following statements are a Directive Principle/ Fundamental duty / Both/ Neither. Select the
codes D/F/B/N respectively.
1. To value and preserve the rich heritage of the countrys composite culture
2. Protect and improve the natural environment.
3. Pay taxes.
(a) DDF
(b) FDN
(c) FBN
(d) BBF
Q.90
Plant protection code (PPC) , a set of guidelines for regulating the chemical inputs for which plantation crop :
(a) Tea
(b) coffee
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Rubber
Q.91
In the scheme of parliamentary form of government, the Chief Minister is the real executive authority of the
state. Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Minister
1. The constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the chief
minister.
2. The constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Legislative assembly before he
is appointed as the chief minister.
3. A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as chief minister.
4. The term of the chief minister is fixed.
Choose the correct statement(s):
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Q.92

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Consider the following statements about the Biodiversity of Arctic Region1. Due Global Warming, the ice sheet of Arctic region has become thinner and this has highly hampered the
predating nature of polar bear which depends on seals for feeding.
2. Polar bears have started feeding on the eggs of local birds and this has adverse effect on the population of
birds found in polar region.
3. Due to increase temperature, Penguin are migrating towards the cost of Arctic Sea and eventually they are
falling prey to polar bears.
Which one of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3
Q.93
Chlorine is used in swimming pools as a disinfectant. Which of the following statements is/are true about
Chlorine :1. It is a reddish-brown gas.
2. It has the highest electron affinity.
3. Chlorine is a strong oxidizing agent.
4. Free chlorine is rare on Earth.
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.94
Which of he following are the grounds on which state can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of
freedom of speech and expression?
1. public order
2. protection of interest of scheduled tribes
3. defamation
4. incitement to an offence
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.95

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1. Constitution deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement
2. Constitution provides five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and
incorporation of territory.
(a) Both statements are true. (b) Both statements are false
Q.96
Match the following and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Committee
A.Committee for negotiating with
states
B.Union constitution committee
C.Provincial constitution committee
D.Drafting committee
A
B
C
(a)
1
4
3
(b)
3
2
1
(c)
1
2
3
(d)
3
4
1
Chairperson
1Sardar Patel
234D
2
4
4
2
Jawaharlal Nehru
Rajendra Prasad
Dr. B R Ambedkar
Q.97
Which of the following is/are correct about national Air Quality Index (AQI)?
1. The AQI is a One Number-One Colour-One Description for people to judge air quality.
2. The AQI will map eight pollutants.
3. The AQI will provide one consolidated number and will use colour coding to describe associated health
impacts.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q.98
Consider the following statements(a) Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
(b) Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker has to vacate his office. He may continue in his office till
the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets, if President asks.
(b) Only b
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a and b

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Q.99
Ripening is a process in fruits that causes them to become more palatable. Which of the following statements
is/are true about artificial ripening of green fruits :1. A fruit becomes less green and softer as it ripens artificially but does not get sweeter.
2. Acetylene gas is used for artificial ripening of green fruits.
3. Calcium carbide is used for artificial ripening of green fruits.
4. Ethylene is used for artificial ripening of green fruits.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.100
Consider the following statements :
1. Himadri Station is India's first Arctic research station.
2. Maitri Station is India's second Arctic research station.
3. Dakshin Gangotri is India's first Antarctic research base.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above.

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Q.1
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Q.78 a
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Q.44 a
Q.79 a
Q.10 a
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Q.80 a
Q.11 a
Q.46 a
Q.81 a
Q.12 a
Q.47 a
Q.82 a
Q.13 a
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Q.83 a
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Q.16 a
Q.51 a
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Q.52 a
Q.87 a
Q.18 a
Q.53 a
Q.88 a
Q.19 a
Q.54 a
Q.89 a
Q.20 a
Q.55 a
Q.90 a
Q.21 a
Q.56 a
Q.91 a
Q.22 a
Q.57 a
Q.92 a
Q.23 a
Q.58 a
Q.93 a
Q.24 a
Q.59 a
Q.94 a
Q.25 a
Q.60 a
Q.95 a
Q.26 a
Q.61 a
Q.96 a
Q.27 a
Q.62 a
Q.97 a
Q.28 a
Q.63 a
Q.98 a
Q.29 a
Q.64 a
Q.99 a
Q.30 a
Q.65 a
Q.100 a
Q.31 a
Q.66 a
Q.32 a
Q.67 a
Q.33 a
Q.68 a
Q.34 a
Q.69 a
Q.35 a
Q.70 a

VISIONIAS GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550 Question Paper

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GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No.

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(d) None of the above.

(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(d) None of the above

(d) All of the above

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(c) Civil court

(d) None of the above

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both a and b

(d) Neither a and b

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(d) All of the above

(d) 2 is true but 1 is false

(d) 2 is true but 1 is false

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(b) Only 1 and 2

GENERAL STUDIES Prelims Mock TEST No. 1550

(d) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only