1.

The unit of force in S.I. unit is

(a) kilogram
(Ans)

(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne

2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. unit is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram metre
(d) joule

(Ans)

3. The unit of power in S.I. unit is

(a) newton metre
(b) watt (Ans)
(c) joule
(d) pascal per sec

4. Forces are called concurrent when their line

(a) one point

(Ans)

(b) two point

(c) one plane
(d) different planes

5. A force is completely defined when we specify

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
(d) all the above

(Ans)

6. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?

(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(Ans)

(d) milestone

7. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?

(a) kw (kilo watt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) k cal/sec
(d) k cal/kg sec

(Ans)

8. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
(a) k cal
(Ans)

(b) kg m
(c) kwhr
(d) hp

9. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?

(a) kg/cm

(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) newton

(Ans)

10. When trying to turn a key into lock, following is applied

(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar force
(c) lever

(Ans)

(d) couple

11. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity ?

(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) acceleration

12. Which of the following is a vector quantities ?

(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum

(Ans)

(d) speed

13. Which of the following is not vector quantities ?

(Ans)

(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) force
(d) moment

14. The unit of moment of inertia of an area are

(a) kg m
(b) m

(Ans)

(c) kg/m
(d) m

15. The unit of moment of inertia of mass are

(a) kg m
(b) m

(Ans)

(c) kg/m
(d) m

16. Which of the following is not the unit of energy ?

(a) kgm
(b) watt

(Ans)

(c) K cal
2

(d) kgm x (m/sec )

17. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order ?

(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of the clinical tongs
(Ans)

(d) all of the above

18. A pair of Smith's Tong's is an example of the lever of

(a) zeroth order
(b) first order
(c) second order

(Ans)

(d) third order

19. Tension in a string is maximum at

(a) left support
(b) right support
(c) midway

(Ans)

(d) quarter span

20. Which of the following is the unit of energy ?

(a) joules

(b) N-m
(c) electron-volt
(Ans)

(d) all the above

21. The product of mass and velocity is known as

(a) work
(b) moment
(c) impulse
(d) momentum

(Ans)

22. For a m/c to be self locking its efficiency should be

(a) 100%
(b) >67%
(c) >50%

(Ans)

(d) more than 50%

23. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation

(a) energy
(b) mass
(Ans)

(c) linear momentum

(d) angular momentum

24. Work is equal to

(a) force x velocity
(b) force x time
(c) force x distance

(Ans)

(d) mass x acceleration

25. One N is equal to

(a) 10 dyne

(Ans)

(b) 10 dyne
4

(c) 10 dyne
3

(d) 10 dyne

26. Rate of change of momentum is proportional to the

(a) displacement
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration

(Ans)

(d) impressed force

27. The unit of momentum are same as of

(a) work
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) impluse

(Ans)

1. Which one o the following statements is not correct ?

(a) Fusion is the combination of heavy nuclei of elements resulting in the release of heat
energy (Ans)
(b) Neutron bombardment is the most common and practiced method of initiation of
reaction in fission materials
(c) When the multiplication factor is greater than 1, the chain reaction is uncontrollable
(d) The reactor produces , , and neutron radiations. Of all these radiation is the
most dangerous

2. The reflectivity in a reactor depends upon

(a) Geometry of the reflector
(b) Energy of neutrons
(c) Properties of reflector
(d) All of these

(Ans)

3. Shielding in a nuclear power plant is done

(a) To protect against neutron and gamma rays

(Ans)

(b) To absorb excess neutrons

(c) To slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
(d) To return the neutrons back into the core of the reactor

4. This substance has the minimum value of thermal conductivity

(a) Air

(Ans)

(b) Water
(c) Plastic
(d) Rubber

5.Dimensionless number is represented by

(a) Biot number
(b) Fourier number

(Ans)

(c) Euler number

(d) Gratez number

6. If the radius of any current carrying conductor is less than the critical radius, then the
addition of electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a higher current because
(a) The heat loss from the wire would decrease
(b) The heat loss from the wire would increase

(Ans)

(c) The thermal resistance of the insulation is reduced

(d) The thermal resistance of the conductor is increased

7. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
List - I

List - I

(A) Number of Transfer Units

1. Regenerators

(B) Periodic flow heat exchangers

2. Fouling factor

(C) Phase change

exchanger size

3.

(D) Deposition on heat exchanger

measure

of

heat

4. Condensers

Codes :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 2

(Ans)

8. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to

(a) Accumulate vapours released
(b) Decrease pressure drop
(c) Regulate the flow

(Ans)

(d) Avoid deformation of tubes due to thermal expansion

9.

If the thermal conductivity of a material of wall varies as K0 (1 + t) then the

temperature at the centre of the wall as compared to that n case of constant thermal
conductivity will be
(a) More

(Ans)

(b) Less
(c) Same
(d) Possible in all as above
10. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List - I

List - I

(A) Stanton number

1. Natural convection

(B) Grashof number

2. Mass transfer

(C) Peclet number

3. Forced convection

(D) Schmidt number

Pr.Number

4.

Forced convection for small

Codes :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 3

(Ans)

11. In the film established along a vertical plate during condensation of any vapour over
the plates, the temperature distribution curve is
(a) Concave upwards

(Ans)

(b) Concave downwards

(c) Parabolic
(d) Straight line
12. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used
advantageously when the entire surface is exposed to
(a) Nucleate boiling
(b) Film boiling

(Ans)

(c) Transition boiling

(d) Pool boiling
13. For a fluid flowing over a flat plate, the Nusselt number at a point 1.25 m from the
leading edge is 100. If the thermal conductivity of the fluid is 0.025 W/mK, the coefficient of
convective heat transfer is
(a) 2000 W/m K
2

(b) 2 W/m K

(Ans)

(c) 5 * 10 W/m K
-4

(d) 1.25 * 10 W/m K

-4

14. The unit of the following parameter is not m /s :

2

(a) Thermal diffusivity

(b) Kinematic viscosity

(c) Mass diffusivity

(d) Dynamic viscosity

(Ans)

15. Ice is very close to a

(a) Gray body

(Ans)

(b) Black body

(c) White body
(d) Specular body
16. In a refrigeration plant, if the condenser temperature increase, the power input to the
compressor will
(a) Increase

(Ans)

(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Be unpredictable
17. In gas cycle refrigeration system, an expander replaces the throttle valve of a vapour
compression system, because
(a) The pressure drop obtained is not adequate
(b) The drop in temperature by throttling the gas is very small

(Ans)

(c) It reduces the irreversibility in the system

(d) Heat loss is significantly decreased with the expander
18. In an aircraft refrigeration system, the pressure at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to
(a) Ambient pressure
(b) Cabin pressure

(Ans)

(c) Compressor inlet pressure

(d) Evaporator pressure
19. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while the
compressor of the system consumes a power of 30 kW. The COP of the system will be
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 3
(d) 4

(Ans)

20. Which of the following is not an essential component of refrigeration system, where
refrigeration effect is produced by vaporization of refrigerant ?
(a) Compressor
(b) Condenser
(c) Evaporator
(d) Expansion device

(Ans)

21. If the specific humidity of moist air remains the same but its dry bulb temperatures
increases, its dew point temperature
(a) Remains the same

(Ans)

(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) May increase or decrease depending on its relative humidity
22. In an adiabatic saturation process of air
(a) The enthalpy remains constant

(Ans)

(b) The temperature remains constant

(c) The absolute humidity remains constant
(d) The relative humidity remains constant
23. If air flows over a cooling coil, dehumidification of air will take place if the coil surface
temperature is below the following of the entering air
(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry bulb temperature
(c) Dew point temperature

(Ans)

(d) Adiabatic saturation temperature

24. In winter air-conditioning, the process is
(a) Heating, humidification and cooling
(b) Heating, humidification and heating
(c) Heating, dehumidification and heating
(d) Cooling, dehumidification and heating

(Ans)

25. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity decreases, the wet bulb
temperature will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease

(Ans)

(c) Be the same

(d) Depend on other factors

1. Which one of the following represents open thermodynamic system ?

(a) Manual ice cream freezer
(b) Centrifugal pump

(Ans)

(c) Pressure cooker

(d) Bomb calorimeter

2. A thermodynamic system is considered to be an isolated one if

(a) Mass transfer and entropy change are zero
(b) Entropy change and energy transfer are zero
(c) Energy transfer and mass transfer are zero

(Ans)

(d) Mass transfer and volume change are zero

3. Reduced pressure is
(a) Always less than atmospheric pressure
(b) Always unity
(c) An index of molecular position of a gas

(Ans)

(d) Dimensionless

4. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List - I

(A) n =
(B) n = 1.4
(C) n = 1.0

(D) n = 0
Codes :
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(a) 4

(b) 1

(c) 4

(d) 1

(Ans)

5. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I

List - I

(A) Interchange of matter is not possible in a

(B)

Any processes in which

original condition or state is called

the

1. Open system
system

(C) Interchange of matter is possible in a

(D)

The
quantity
of
in thermodynamics is called

matter

returns

to

its

under

consideration

(C) (D)

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 3

System

4.

Cycle

3. Closed system

Codes :
(A) (B)

2.

(Ans)

6. A closed system is one in which

(a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) Neither mass nor energy cross the boundary of the system
(d) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system

(Ans)

7. Work transfer between the system and the surroundings

(a) Is a point function
(b) Is always given by P dv
(c) is a function of pressure only
(d) Depends on the path followed by the system

(Ans)

8. Air is being forced by the bicycle pump into a tyre against a pressure of 4.5 bars. A slow downward
movement of the piston can be approximated as
(a) Isobaric process
(b) Adiabatic process
(c) Throttling process
(Ans)

(d) Isothermal process

9. Isentropic flow is
(a) Irreversible adiabatic flow
(b) Reversible adiabatic flow

(Ans)

(c) Ideal fluid flow

(d) Frictionless reversible flow

10. Increase in entropy of a system represents

(a) Increase in availability
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Decrease in pressure
(d) Degradation of energy

(Ans)

11. The value of dQ/T for an irreversible cycle is

(a) Equal to zero
(b) Greater than zero
(c) Less than zero

(Ans)

(d) Unity

12. Lowest COP is of vapour

(a) Compression cycle with superheated vapour
(b) Compression cycle with dry compression
(c) Compression cycle with wet compression
(Ans)

(d) Absorption cycle

13. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle

(Ans)

(d) Rankine cycle

14. The boundary layer separation occurs when

(a) Pressure gradient is positive
(b) Pressure gradient is zero
(c) Pressure gradient is negative

(Ans)

(d) None of the above

15. For minimum work input in a two-stage compression process the intermediate pressure is the
(a) Arithmetic mean of suction and discharge pressures
(b) Logarithmic mean of suction and discharge pressures
(c) Geometric mean of suction and discharge pressures
(d) Hyperbolic mean of suction and discharge pressures

16. Air injection in IC engine refers to injection of

(a) Air only
(b) Liquid fuel only

(Ans)

(Ans)

(c) Liquid fuel and air

(d) Supercharging air

17. Supercharging is the process of

(a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding
atmosphere (Ans)
(b) Providing forced cooling air
(c) Injection of compressed air to remove combustion products fully
(d) Raising exhaust pressure

18. Turbo prop-engine has the following additional feature over the turbojet
(a) Propeller

(Ans)

(b) Diffuser
(c) Starting engine
(d) Turbine and combustion chamber

19. In the SI engine, highest concentration of unburned hydrocarbon is observed during

(a) Maximum load

(Ans)

(b) Acceleration
(c) Deceleration
(d) Idling

20. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I

(A)

The rich mixture which

power gives large amounts of

List - I

provides

maximum

1.

Hydrocarbon

(B) The condition like wall quenching and wall

deposits result in

2.

NOx in exhaust gases

(C) Addition of tetraethyl lead is being eliminated

because of

emission

3. CO and hydrocarbons in exhaust gases

(D) The normal compression ratio is dropped from

10.5 : 1 to 8 : 1

4. Adverse effects on exhaust emission

Codes :
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 3

(Ans)

21. Pistons of Diesel engines are usually cooled by

(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Lubricating oil

(Ans)

(d) Fuel oil

22. When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in excess air, Orsat analysis of products of combustion will show
(a) CO, CO2 and N2 (Ans)
(b) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(c) CO2, N2, O2 and H2O
(d) CO2, N2 and O2

23. What will be the products of combustion shown by an Orsat analyzer when natural gas burns in deficit
air ?
(a) CO2, O2 and N2
(b) CO2, CO and N2 (Ans)
(c) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(d) CO2, CO, N2 and O2

24. The energy produced by 4.5 tons of high grade coal is equivalent to the energy produced by
(a) 1 kg of Uranium
(b) 1 gram of Uranium

(Ans)

(c) 100 grams of Uranium

(d) 10 grams of Uranium

25. Enriched Uranium is one in which

235

(a) Percentage of U has been artificially increased

(Ans)

238

(b) Percentage of U has been artificially increased

234

(c) Percentage of U has been artificially increased

(d) Extra energy is pumped from outside
1. Pistons of Diesel engines are usually cooled by
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Lubricating oil

(Ans)

(d) Fuel oil

2. When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in excess air, Orsat analysis of products of combustion will show
(a) CO, CO2 and N2 (Ans)
(b) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(c) CO2, N2, O2 and H2O
(d) CO2, N2 and O2
3. What will be the products of combustion shown by an Orsat analyzer when natural gas burns in deficit
air ?
(a) CO2, O2 and N2
(b) CO2, CO and N2 (Ans)
(c) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
(d) CO2, CO, N2 and O2
4. The energy produced by 4.5 tons of high grade coal is equivalent to the energy produced by
(a) 1 kg of Uranium

(b) 1 gram of Uranium

(Ans)

(c) 100 grams of Uranium

(d) 10 grams of Uranium
5. Enriched Uranium is one in which
235

(a) Percentage of U has been artificially increased

(Ans)

238

(b) Percentage of U has been artificially increased

234

(c) Percentage of U has been artificially increased

(d) Extra energy is pumped from outside
6. Which one o the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Fusion is the combination of heavy nuclei of elements resulting in the release of heat energy

(Ans)

(b) Neutron bombardment is the most common and practiced method of initiation of reaction in fission
materials
(c) When the multiplication factor is greater than 1, the chain reaction is uncontrollable
(d) The reactor produces a, , g and neutron radiations. Of all these g radiation is the most dangerous
7. The reflectivity in a reactor depends upon
(a) Geometry of the reflector
(b) Energy of neutrons
(c) Properties of reflector
(d) All of these

(Ans)

8. Shielding in a nuclear power plant is done

(a) To protect against neutron and gamma rays

(Ans)

(b) To absorb excess neutrons

(c) To slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
(d) To return the neutrons back into the core of the reactor
9. This substance has the minimum value of thermal conductivity
(a) Air

(Ans)

(b) Water
(c) Plastic
(d) Rubber

10. Dimensionless number is represented by

(a) Biot number
(b) Fourier number

(Ans)

(c) Euler number

(d) Gratez number
11. If the radius of any current carrying conductor is less than the critical radius, then the addition of
electrical insulation will enable the wire to carry a higher current because
(a) The heat loss from the wire would decrease
(b) The heat loss from the wire would increase

(Ans)

(c) The thermal resistance of the insulation is reduced

(d) The thermal resistance of the conductor is increased
12. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I

List - I

(A) Number of Transfer Units

1. Regenerators

(B) Periodic flow heat exchangers

2. Fouling factor

(C) Phase change

3. A measure of heat exchanger size

(D) Deposition on heat exchanger

Codes :
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 2

(Ans)

13. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to

(a) Accumulate vapours released
(b) Decrease pressure drop
(c) Regulate the flow

(Ans)

(d) Avoid deformation of tubes due to thermal expansion

4. Condensers

14. If the thermal conductivity of a material of wall varies as K0 (1 + at) then the temperature at the centre
of the wall as compared to that n case of constant thermal conductivity will be
(Ans)

(a) More
(b) Less
(c) Same

(d) Possible in all as above

15. Match List-I with List - II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List - I

List - I

(A) Stanton number

1. Natural convection

(B) Grashof number

2. Mass transfer

(C) Peclet number

3. Forced convection

(D) Schmidt number

4. Forced convection for small Pr.Number

Codes :
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 3

(Ans)

16. In the film established along a vertical plate during condensation of any vapour over the plates, the
temperature distribution curve is
(a) Concave upwards

(Ans)

(b) Concave downwards

(c) Parabolic
(d) Straight line
17. In spite of large heat transfer coefficients in boiling liquids, cavities are used advantageously when the
entire surface is exposed to
(a) Nucleate boiling
(b) Film boiling

(Ans)

(c) Transition boiling

(d) Pool boiling

18. For a fluid flowing over a flat plate, the Nusselt number at a point 1.25 m from the leading edge is 100.
If the thermal conductivity of the fluid is 0.025 W/mK, the coefficient of convective heat transfer is
2

(a) 2000 W/m K

(Ans)

(b) 2 W/m K
-4

(c) 5 * 10 W/m K
-4

(d) 1.25 * 10 W/m K

2

19. The unit of the following parameter is not m /s :

(a) Thermal diffusivity
(b) Kinematic viscosity
(c) Mass diffusivity
(d) Dynamic viscosity

(Ans)

20. Ice is very close to a

(a) Gray body

(Ans)

(b) Black body

(c) White body
(d) Specular body
21. In a refrigeration plant, if the condenser temperature increase, the power input to the compressor will
(a) Increase

(Ans)

(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Be unpredictable
22. In gas cycle refrigeration system, an expander replaces the throttle valve of a vapour compression
system, because
(a) The pressure drop obtained is not adequate
(b) The drop in temperature by throttling the gas is very small

(Ans)

(c) It reduces the irreversibility in the system

(d) Heat loss is significantly decreased with the expander
23. In an aircraft refrigeration system, the pressure at the cooling turbine outlet is equal to
(a) Ambient pressure

(b) Cabin pressure

(Ans)

(c) Compressor inlet pressure

(d) Evaporator pressure
24. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while the compressor of the
system consumes a power of 30 kW. The COP of the system will be
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 3

(Ans)

(d) 4
25. Which of the following is not an essential component of refrigeration system, where refrigeration
effect is produced by vaporization of refrigerant ?
(a) Compressor
(b) Condenser
(c) Evaporator
(d) Expansion device

(Ans)

26. If the specific humidity of moist air remains the same but its dry bulb temperatures increases, its dew
point temperature
(a) Remains the same

(Ans)

(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) May increase or decrease depending on its relative humidity
27. In an adiabatic saturation process of air
(a) The enthalpy remains constant

(Ans)

(b) The temperature remains constant

(c) The absolute humidity remains constant
(d) The relative humidity remains constant
28. If air flows over a cooling coil, dehumidification of air will take place if the coil surface temperature is
below the following of the entering air
(a) Wet bulb temperature
(b) Dry bulb temperature

(c) Dew point temperature

(Ans)

(d) Adiabatic saturation temperature

29. In winter air-conditioning, the process is
(a) Heating, humidification and cooling
(b) Heating, humidification and heating

(Ans)

(c) Heating, dehumidification and heating

(d) Cooling, dehumidification and heating
30. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity decreases, the wet bulb temperature will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease

(Ans)

(c) Be the same

(d) Depend on other factors