Systems Test Boeing 737-300

POWER PLANT
1. The engine fuel pumps are powered by:
a. N1 drive.
b. N2 drive.
c. Electrically.
d. Hydraulic pressure.
2. If the oil filter by pass light have illuminated and you have reduced N2 to idle but the
indication remains illuminated, what should you do?
a. Continue to operate engine at idle.
b. Increase N2 to increase fuel flow.
c. Shut down the engine after 15 minutes.
d. Shut down the engine straight away.
3. Which igniters should be selected during an inflight windmill start?
a. Left igniter.
b. Right igniter.
c. Both igniters.
d. Either igniters.
4. The normal starter duty cycle is:
a. 2 min. On, 20 sec. Off (once, then 3 min. Off).
b. 5 min. On, 30 sec. Off (twice, then 5 min. Off).
c. 3 min. On, 30 sec. Off (twice, then 3 min. Off).
d. Use as often as you like.

APU
1. The maximum altitude for placing the electrical load on the APU is:
a. 10.000 ft.
b. 17.000 ft.
c. 25.000 ft.
d. 35.000 ft.
2. What is the maximum permitted EGT during the APU start cycle?
a. 280C.
b. 320C.
c. 560C.
d. 760C.

3. APU generator electrical load is displayed on:

a. DC ammeter.
b. DC voltmeter.
c. AC ammeter.

FUEL SYSTEM
1. When both the crossfeed switch and the crossfeed valve are open, the VALVE OPEN
light illuminates:
a. Bright blue.
b. Dim blue.
c. Red.
d. Will not illuminate.
2. The freeze point of the fuel you are using in minus 46C, what is the minimum fuel
temperature limit?
a. Minus 41C.
b. Minus 42C.
c. Minus 43C.
d. Minus 44C.
e. Minus 45C.
3. In which tank is fuel temperature sensed?
a. Center tank.
b. Tank 1.
c. Tank 2.
d. All of the above.
4. You can manually measure fuel in:
a. All tanks.
b. Tanks 1 and 2.
c. Center tank only.
d. Tank 1 only.
e. Tank 2 only.

AC ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1. Which one the following busses provide power to the ground service bus during
normal in-flight conditions?
a. Transfer bus 1.
b. Generator bus 1.
c. Main bus 2.
d. Transfer bus 2.
e. Main bus.

2. The APU can provide power to which one of the following combinations of
generator busses?
a. Both busses on the ground and both in the air.
b. Neither busses on the ground and both in the air.
c. Both busses on the ground and one in the air.
d. One bus on the ground and both in the air.
e. Both busses on the ground and none in the air.
3. To which one of the following busses does the APU generator switch connect the
APU generator to?
a. Main bus.
b. Transfer bus.
c. Generator bus.
d. Ground service bus.
e. External AC bus.
4. In which one of the following aircraft locations is the external power receptacle
located?
a. In the main wheel well.
b. Behind the nose wheel.
c. On the underside of the aircrafts tail.
d. On the left side of the forward fuselage.
e. On the right side of the forward fuselage.

DC ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1. Each TR converts:
a. 115 volts DC to 28 volts DC.
b. 28 volts DC to 115 volts AC.
c. 28 volts AC to 115 volts DC.
d. 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC.
e. 115 volts AC to 115 volts DC.

OXYGEN SYSTEM
1. The flight crew oxygen system uses:
a. Chemical oxygen.
b. Gaseous oxygen.

PNEUMATIC SYSTEM
1. Which of the following statements is correct?
With the isolation valve switch selected to open, the isolation valve will:
a. Only close when the engine bleed air switches are selected to Off.
b. Always stay open as there are no conditions that will cause it to close.
c. Only close when the air conditioning pack switches are selected to Off.
d. Only close when the APU bleed air switch is selected to Off.
2. If you are taking-off from an airfield 2.000 ft. ASL, what would the minimum duct
pressure for engine start be?
a. 30 psi.
b. 28 psi.
c. 31 psi.
d. 29 psi.
3. If a wing/body overheat illuminates, will it extinguish:
a. During master caution recall.
b. During master caution recall, but only if the overheat condition has been
corrected?
c. When the trip reset switch is pressed, but only if the overheat condition has
been corrected?
d. Only when the overheat condition has been corrected?

AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM

1. Which pack switch configuration should never be used for take-off?
a. Both pack switches to OFF.
b. Both pack switches to HIGH.
c. Both pack switches to AUTO.
d. One pack switch OFF and the other in AUTO.

PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM
1. If operating in standby from an airfield elevation of 667 ft., before the engines are
started which of these altitudes would you enter in the cab alt indicator?
a. 00367 ft.
b. 00167 ft.
c. 00467 ft.
d. 00667 ft.

HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
1. If one system A Hyd. pump is deactivated, system A pressure should read:
a. 0 psi.
b. Approximately 2.500 psi.
c. 3.000 psi.
2. The landing gear transfer unit provides for gear retraction in event of failure of:
a. Hydraulic system A.
b. Hydraulic system B.
c. The left engine.
d. Either a or c.
3. Which of the following statements is correct? The power transfer unit provides back
up pressure for:
a. The autopilot if system B pressure falls below limits.
b. The autoslats if system A pressure falls below limits.
c. The autopilot if system B pressure falls below limits.
d. The autoslats if system A pressure falls below limits.
4. If a leak developed in the standby system, would the standby reservoir:
a. Empty.
b. Stabilize at approx. 22% full.
c. Stabilize at approx. 64% full.
d. Stabilize at approx. 50% full.

LANDING GEAR
1. When selected RTO is available:
a. Immediately following brake release.
b. Between 60 and 90 kts.
c. Above 90 kts.
2. When the normal extension of gear is not possible, the gear may be extended:
a. By hydraulic system A.
b. By hydraulic system B.
c. By standby hydraulic system.
d. Manually.
3. The maximum permitted airspeed for retracting the landing gear is:
a. 165 knots.
b. 235 knots.
c. 270 knots.
d. 320 knots.

4. When selecting RTO mode the amber light illuminates for two seconds then goes
out. You should then:
a. Switch autobrake OFF and back to RTO.
b. Switch autobrake OFF and use manual brakes.
c. Continue take-off as normal.
d. Switch antiskid switch to OFF.

FIRE PROTECTION
1. Which one of the following actions discharges an engine extinguisher bottle?
a. Pulling out of the fire warning switch.
b. Pressing the fire warning switch light switch.
c. Pressing fire warning switch over-ride.
d. Rotating the fire warning switch.
e. Extinguishing the master caution light.
2. Which is the alternative method for cancelling a fire warning other than pressing the
master fire warning light switch?
a. Pressing the master caution light switch.
b. Moving the ovht/det switch from the normal position.
c. Pressing the bell cut-out switch.
d. Placing the standby power switch to BAT.
e. Pulling the appropriate engine warning switch out.
3. The engine/apu extinguishing system is powered by which one of the following
busses?
a. DC standby bus.
b. Battery bus.
c. Generator bus.
d. AC standby bus.
e. Hot battery bus.
4. The FAULT light monitors which detector loops?
a. Engine 1 and 2.
b. The APU.
c. Engine1, 2 and APU.

ICE AND RAIN

1. The wing anti-ice system heats:
a. The leading edge slats.
b. The leading edge flaps.
c. The leading edge devices.

2. Failure of pitot static heat is indicated by:

a. The appropriate green light extinguishing.
b. The illumination of the transit light bright blue.
c. The illumination of amber light.

WARNING SYSTEM
1. Which statement best describes the function of the manual pressurization green
light?
a. The control is in transit, or may be faulty.
b. This is a normal indication verifying a switch position.
c. You should observe this light to ensure it dims.
d. This light is linked to the master caution and may be recalled.
2. When the CTR tank low pressure light illuminates, which statement is correct?
a. Master caution light and fuel annunciator will be illuminated.
b. Master caution light and fuel annunciator will be illuminated on recall only.
c. Master caution light and ENG annunciator will be illuminated.
d. No indications will be displayed on recall.
3. Which two of these warnings can be silenced manually?
a. Fire warn bell.
b. Stall.
c. Altitude horn.
d. Maximum airspeed clacker.

CONVENTIONAL FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

1. To set target airspeed manually on the MACH/ASI, how does the cursor control
work?
a. By pushing it and rotating it.
b. By pulling it and rotating it.
c. By simply rotating it.

ELECTRONIC FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS SYSTEM (EADI)

1. When is the V1 symbol displayed?
a. Prior to initiating the take-off roll.
b. When airborne.
c. During initial take-off roll when V1 speed is within displayed range.
d. During the approach.

2. The pitch limit symbol on the EADI is in view:

a. At all times.
b. When flaps are not up.
c. Below 2.500 ft. radio altitude.
d. At take-off only.

EHSI/MAP
1. EHSI range selections are available from:
a. 10 to 20 miles.
b. 10 to 40 miles.
c. 10 to 160 miles.
d. 10 to 80 miles.
e. 10 to 320 miles.
2. Altitude constraints and ETAs are displayed when the following switch is selected
on:
a. NAV AID switch.
b. VOR/ADF switch.
c. WPT switch.
d. ARPT switch.
e. RTE DATA switch.

NAVIGATION SYSTEM
1. The narrow bearing pointers on the RDMI receive signals from:
a. VHF NAV 1.
b. VHF NAV 2.
c. VHF NAV 1 or ADF 2.
d. VHF NAV 2 or ADF 1.
e. VHF NAV 1 or DME 1.

INERTIAL REFERENCE SYSTEM

1. The airplane should not be moved approximately minutes after placing the IRS
mode selector to the NAV position, starting the IRS alignment.
a. 2.
b. 5.
c. 10.
d. 15.

2. The navigation mode (NAV) is used for which one the following:
a. Fast alignment.
b. Providing attitude and heading.
c. Removing accumulated errors.
d. Normal operations.
e. Operating in DC power only.

AUTOFLIGHT SYSTEM
1. Which of the following occurs when only one autopilot is engaged for an ILS
approach and the TO/GA switch is pressed for a missed approach at minimums?
a. Autopilot will disengage.
b. TO/GA mode of the F/D is engaged.
c. A/T advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1.
d. All of the above.
2. Level change climbs and descents are made at the airspeed selected on the:
a. FMC.
b. A/T computer.
c. MCP.
d. Always 250 or 300 kts.
3. What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for engaging the second A/P during ILS
approach?
a. 2.000 ft.
b. 1.500 ft.
c. 800 ft.
d. 500 ft.
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