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1.
2.
Out of the following aircraft performance classifications to meet airworthiness requirements, the one
that is applicable to reciprocating engines is
[
]
A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
3.
The field length that refers to the balance between the distance required to continue the take-off to
clear the screen height and the distance required to bring the aircraft to a halt is called--- [
]
A)Balanced field length
(B) Un-balanced field length
(C) Critical field length
(D) None of these
4.
The first section of landing approach obstacle limitation surface has a gradient of
A)3 %
(B) 2%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 4%
5.
The fuel required for the intended flight from the point of departure to the destination is [
A)Trip fuel
(B) reserve fuel
(C) tankered fuel
(D) diversion fuel
6.
The speed to which the airplane must be accelerated at or before reaching 35 feet above the end of the
runway
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
7.
Takeoff distance is
A)Directly proportional to the acceleration
C)Inversely proportional to the acceleration
8.
If the weight of an airplane W2 is increased above the design gross weight W1, the limit load factor
[
]
A)Remains the same
(B) increases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(C) decreases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(D) None of the above
9.
The minimum indicated airspeed at which an engine failure can be experienced and the takeoff safely
continued
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
10.
The take-off flight path extends from the take-off screen height to a height of--- above the airfield
level
[
]
A)35 feet
(B) 1500 feet
(C) 50 feet
(D) 2000 feet
Cont2
D
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[
]
B)Inversely proportional to the velocity cubed
D)Directly proportional to the velocity squared
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:2:
Set No. 1
II
11.
The combat aircraft spends a significant proportion of its mission time in---flight
12.
The equivalent-weight method is the most appropriate method for aircraft with --- engines
13.
The space required by the aircraft to perform a particular manoeuvre increases with--- of the aircraft
14.
An extension of runway on which the aircraft can be stopped in the event of an abandoned take-off but
cannot be used for take-off is called---
15.
The discontinued landing in which the aircraft is required to go-round after the thrst has been reduced
in the flare is known as---
16.
The total length of the approach obstacle limitation surface during landing of an aircraft is ---
17.
The weight of the aircraft prepared for flight but with no payload or fuel is known as
18.
A generalized statement of the aircraft performance used for a broad assessment of the ability of the
aircraft to carry out a mission is called ---
19.
The maximum angle of attack at which the aircraft can be flown in steady flight is limited by ---
20.
A coordinated manoeuvre in the vertical, or pitching plane with no rate of turn or sideslip is called --manoeuvre
D
L
R
O
W
U
T
N
-oOo-
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1.
The first section of landing approach obstacle limitation surface has a gradient of
A)3 %
(B) 2%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 4%
2.
The fuel required for the intended flight from the point of departure to the destination is [
A)Trip fuel
(B) reserve fuel
(C) tankered fuel
(D) diversion fuel
3.
The speed to which the airplane must be accelerated at or before reaching 35 feet above the end of the
runway
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
4.
Takeoff distance is
A)Directly proportional to the acceleration
C)Inversely proportional to the acceleration
5.
If the weight of an airplane W2 is increased above the design gross weight W1, the limit load factor
[
]
A)Remains the same
(B) increases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(C) decreases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(D) None of the above
6.
The minimum indicated airspeed at which an engine failure can be experienced and the takeoff safely
continued
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
7.
The take-off flight path extends from the take-off screen height to a height of--- above the airfield
level
[
]
A)35 feet
(B) 1500 feet
(C) 50 feet
(D) 2000 feet
8.
9.
Out of the following aircraft performance classifications to meet airworthiness requirements, the one
that is applicable to reciprocating engines is
[
]
A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
10.
The field length that refers to the balance between the distance required to continue the take-off to
clear the screen height and the distance required to bring the aircraft to a halt is called--- [
]
A)Balanced field length
(B) Un-balanced field length
(C) Critical field length
(D) None of these
D
L
R
O
[
]
B)Inversely proportional to the velocity cubed
D)Directly proportional to the velocity squared
W
U
T
N
Cont2
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:2:
Set No. 2
II
11.
An extension of runway on which the aircraft can be stopped in the event of an abandoned take-off but
cannot be used for take-off is called---
12.
The discontinued landing in which the aircraft is required to go-round after the thrst has been reduced
in the flare is known as---
13.
The total length of the approach obstacle limitation surface during landing of an aircraft is ---
14.
The weight of the aircraft prepared for flight but with no payload or fuel is known as
15.
A generalized statement of the aircraft performance used for a broad assessment of the ability of the
aircraft to carry out a mission is called ---
16.
The maximum angle of attack at which the aircraft can be flown in steady flight is limited by ---
17.
A coordinated manoeuvre in the vertical, or pitching plane with no rate of turn or sideslip is called --manoeuvre
18.
The combat aircraft spends a significant proportion of its mission time in---flight
19.
The equivalent-weight method is the most appropriate method for aircraft with --- engines
20.
The space required by the aircraft to perform a particular manoeuvre increases with--- of the aircraft
D
L
R
O
W
U
T
N
-oOo-
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1.
The speed to which the airplane must be accelerated at or before reaching 35 feet above the end of the
runway
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
2.
Takeoff distance is
A)Directly proportional to the acceleration
C)Inversely proportional to the acceleration
3.
If the weight of an airplane W2 is increased above the design gross weight W1, the limit load factor
[
]
A)Remains the same
(B) increases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(C) decreases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(D) None of the above
4.
The minimum indicated airspeed at which an engine failure can be experienced and the takeoff safely
continued
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
5.
The take-off flight path extends from the take-off screen height to a height of--- above the airfield
level
[
]
A)35 feet
(B) 1500 feet
(C) 50 feet
(D) 2000 feet
6.
7.
Out of the following aircraft performance classifications to meet airworthiness requirements, the one
that is applicable to reciprocating engines is
[
]
A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
8.
The field length that refers to the balance between the distance required to continue the take-off to
clear the screen height and the distance required to bring the aircraft to a halt is called--- [
]
A)Balanced field length
(B) Un-balanced field length
(C) Critical field length
(D) None of these
9.
The first section of landing approach obstacle limitation surface has a gradient of
A)3 %
(B) 2%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 4%
10.
The fuel required for the intended flight from the point of departure to the destination is [
A)Trip fuel
(B) reserve fuel
(C) tankered fuel
(D) diversion fuel
[
]
B)Inversely proportional to the velocity cubed
D)Directly proportional to the velocity squared
D
L
R
O
W
U
T
N
Cont2
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:2:
Set No. 3
II
11.
The total length of the approach obstacle limitation surface during landing of an aircraft is ---
12.
The weight of the aircraft prepared for flight but with no payload or fuel is known as
13.
A generalized statement of the aircraft performance used for a broad assessment of the ability of the
aircraft to carry out a mission is called ---
14.
The maximum angle of attack at which the aircraft can be flown in steady flight is limited by ---
15.
A coordinated manoeuvre in the vertical, or pitching plane with no rate of turn or sideslip is called --manoeuvre
16.
The combat aircraft spends a significant proportion of its mission time in---flight
17.
The equivalent-weight method is the most appropriate method for aircraft with --- engines
18.
The space required by the aircraft to perform a particular manoeuvre increases with--- of the aircraft
19.
An extension of runway on which the aircraft can be stopped in the event of an abandoned take-off but
cannot be used for take-off is called---
20.
The discontinued landing in which the aircraft is required to go-round after the thrst has been reduced
in the flare is known as---
D
L
R
O
W
U
T
N
-oOo-
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1.
If the weight of an airplane W2 is increased above the design gross weight W1, the limit load factor
[
]
A)Remains the same
(B) increases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(C) decreases by the weight ratio W1/W2
(D) None of the above
2.
The minimum indicated airspeed at which an engine failure can be experienced and the takeoff safely
continued
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
3.
The take-off flight path extends from the take-off screen height to a height of--- above the airfield
level
[
]
A)35 feet
(B) 1500 feet
(C) 50 feet
(D) 2000 feet
4.
5.
Out of the following aircraft performance classifications to meet airworthiness requirements, the one
that is applicable to reciprocating engines is
[
]
A) Class A
(B) Class B
(C) Class C
(D) Class D
6.
The field length that refers to the balance between the distance required to continue the take-off to
clear the screen height and the distance required to bring the aircraft to a halt is called--- [
]
A)Balanced field length
(B) Un-balanced field length
(C) Critical field length
(D) None of these
7.
The first section of landing approach obstacle limitation surface has a gradient of
A)3 %
(B) 2%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 4%
8.
The fuel required for the intended flight from the point of departure to the destination is [
A)Trip fuel
(B) reserve fuel
(C) tankered fuel
(D) diversion fuel
9.
The speed to which the airplane must be accelerated at or before reaching 35 feet above the end of the
runway
[
]
A)Takeoff decision speed
(B) takeoff safety speed
(C) refusal speed
(D) ground minimum control speed
10.
Takeoff distance is
A)Directly proportional to the acceleration
C)Inversely proportional to the acceleration
D
L
R
O
W
U
T
N
[
]
B)Inversely proportional to the velocity cubed
D)Directly proportional to the velocity squared
Cont2
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:2:
Set No. 4
II
11.
A generalized statement of the aircraft performance used for a broad assessment of the ability of the
aircraft to carry out a mission is called ---
12.
The maximum angle of attack at which the aircraft can be flown in steady flight is limited by ---
13.
A coordinated manoeuvre in the vertical, or pitching plane with no rate of turn or sideslip is called --manoeuvre
14.
The combat aircraft spends a significant proportion of its mission time in---flight
15.
The equivalent-weight method is the most appropriate method for aircraft with --- engines
16.
The space required by the aircraft to perform a particular manoeuvre increases with--- of the aircraft
17.
An extension of runway on which the aircraft can be stopped in the event of an abandoned take-off but
cannot be used for take-off is called---
18.
The discontinued landing in which the aircraft is required to go-round after the thrst has been reduced
in the flare is known as---
19.
The total length of the approach obstacle limitation surface during landing of an aircraft is ---
20.
The weight of the aircraft prepared for flight but with no payload or fuel is known as
D
L
R
O
W
U
T
N
-oOo-
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