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Mark Scheme January 2008

GCE

GCE Biology (8040/9040)


GCE Biology (Human) (8042/9042)

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January 2008
Publications Code UA019777
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Contents

General Introduction

p ii

Unit Codes and Unit Titles

p iii

General Information

p iv

Mark Schemes
Unit 1

6101

Molecules and cells

p1

Unit 2

6102

Exchange, transport and reproduction

p 10

6112

Exchange, transport and reproduction in


humans

p 18

Unit 3

6103/03

Energy and the environment

p 26

Unit 4

Core material

Respiration and coordination

p 31

Option A

Microbiology and biotechnology

p 37

Option B

Food science

p 41

Option C

Human health and fitness

p 45

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GENERAL INTRODUCTION
Mark schemes are prepared by the Principal Examiners and revised, together with the relevant
questions, by a panel of senior examiners and subject teachers. The schemes are further
amended at the Standardisation meetings attended by all examiners. The Standardisation
meeting ensures as far as possible that the mark scheme covers the candidates' actual responses
to questions and that every examiner understands and applies it in the same way.
The schemes in this document are the final mark schemes used by the examiners in this
examination and include the amendments made at the meeting. They do not include any details
of the discussions that took place in the meeting, nor do they include all of the possible
alternative answers or equivalent statements that were considered to be worthy of credit.
It is emphasised that these mark schemes are working documents that apply to these papers in
this examination. Every effort is made to ensure a consistent approach to marking from one
examination to another but each marking point has to be judged in the context of the
candidates' responses and in relation to the other questions in the paper. It should not be
assumed that future mark schemes will adopt exactly the same marking points as this one.
Edexcel cannot under any circumstances discuss or comment informally on the marking of
individual scripts. Any enquiries about the marks awarded to individual candidates can be
dealt with only through the official Enquiry about Results procedure.

ii

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Unit Codes and Unit Titles


These Mark Schemes cover the units offered in this examination for Advanced Subsidiary
Biology and Biology (Human) (8040 and 8042) and Advanced Biology and Biology (Human)
(9040 and 9042). The units available in this examination series for the complete
qualifications are listed in the table below.
Level

Unit

AS

6101

6102

6103

Energy and the environment

6103

6104

Respiration and coordination and Options

6104

A2

Biology

Biology (Human)
Molecules and cells

Exchange, transport and


reproduction

Exchange, transport and


reproduction in humans

6101
6112

Cashing in
The following tables show the units that must be taken in order to obtain an award for AS or
Advanced GCE Biology, or for AS or Advanced GCE Biology (Human).
Advanced Subsidiary
Level
AS

Unit
1
2
3

8040 Biology
6101
6102
6103

8042 Biology (Human)


6101
6112
6103

9040 Biology
6101
6102
6103
6104
6105*
6106*

9042 Biology (Human)


6101
6112
6103
6104
6115*
6106*

Advanced GCE
Level
AS
A2

Unit
1
2
3
4
5
6

* Only available in Summer examination series.

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iii

GENERAL INFORMATION
The following symbols are used in the mark schemes for all questions:
Symbol
; semi colon
eq
/ oblique
{} curly brackets
() round brackets
[] square brackets
[CE] or [TE]

Meaning of symbol
Indicates the end of a marking point
Indicates that credit should be given for other correct
alternatives to a word or statement, as discussed in the
Standardisation meeting
Words or phrases separated by an oblique are alternatives
to each other
Indicate the beginning and end of a list of alternatives
(separated by obliques) where necessary to avoid
confusion
Words inside round brackets are to aid understanding of
the marking point but are not required to award the point
Words inside square brackets are instructions or guidance
for examiners
Consecutive error / transferred error

Crossed out work


If a candidate has crossed out an answer and written new text, the crossed out work can be ignored. If the
candidate has crossed out work but written no new text, the crossed out work for that question or part
question should be marked, as far as it is possible to do so.

Spelling and clarity


In general, an error made in an early part of a question is penalised when it occurs but not subsequently.
The candidate is penalised once only and can gain credit in later parts of the question by correct
reasoning from the earlier incorrect answer.
No marks are awarded specifically for quality of language in the written papers, except for the essays in
the synoptic paper. Use of English is however taken into account as follows:

the spelling of technical terms must be sufficiently correct for the answer to be unambiguous
e.g. for amylase, ammalase is acceptable whereas amylose is not
e.g. for glycogen, glicojen is acceptable whereas glucagen is not
e.g. for ileum, illeum is acceptable whereas ilium is not
e.g. for mitosis, mytosis is acceptable whereas meitosis is not

candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark.

a correct statement that is contradicted by an incorrect statement in the same part of an answer gains
no mark irrelevant material should be ignored

iv

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Unit 1 (6101)
Question
Number

Answer

Mark

1
Statement

Glycogen

Cellulose

Consists of glucose

Contains 1,4 glycosidic bonds

Is a branched molecule

Is a structural carbohydrate

max
4

Any two correct boxes for one mark

Question
Number
2

Answer

Mark

1. (simple ) diffusion ;
2. facilitated diffusion ;
3. active transport ;
4. ATP ;

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Question
Number

Answer

Mark

3 (a)(i)

the {sequence / order} of amino acids ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

3 (a)(ii)

hydrolysis ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

3 (b)

N C C
H

CH2 OH
OH

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

3 (c)

Collagen

Insulin

1.

fibrous

globular ;

2.

three {polypeptide chains} /


triple helix

two {polypeptide chains} /


reference to A and B chains ;

3.

chains not held together by


disulphide bonds / chains held
together by hydrogen bonds

chains held together by


disulphide bonds / eq ;

4.

large / about 1000 amino


acids OR length can be
variable

small / 51 amino acids


OR fixed / precise length ;

5.

repetitive / repeating
sequence / eq

no repetitive sequence ;

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max
3

Question
Number
4 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. reference to (same / similar) cells ;


2. of similar {structure / common origin / function} / eq ;

Question
Number
4 (b)

Answer

Mark

1. correct dimensions ;
2. folded inner lining ;
3. 5 or 6 tissues shown with no cell details ;

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Question
Number

Answer

Mark

5 (a)(i)

cell in anaphase correctly identified ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

5 (a)(ii)

cell in telophase correctly identified ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

5 (a)(iii)

2/3 ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

5 (b)

1. idea that during prophase {chromosomes / chromatids} (becoming)


visible ;
2. idea of centrioles move to opposite poles ;
3. reference to formation of {spindle /spindle-fibres /
microtubules} ;
4. disappearance of nucleolus / nucleoli ;
5. breaking down of nuclear {envelope / membrane} (in prophase) or
nuclear envelope is broken down by metaphase / eq ;
6. (at metaphase) {chromosomes / centromeres} attached to spindle
(fibres) ;
7. idea of {chromosomes / chromatids} lined up at equator ;

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max
5

Question
Number
6 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. {envelope / double membrane} clearly shown ;


2. granum clearly shown ;
3. {granum / thylakoid(s)} labelled ;
4. {stroma / ribosomes / starch grain / DNA / lipid droplet / {double
/ inner / outer} membrane / envelope / intergranal lamellae}
correctly labelled ;

Question
Number
6 (b)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. correct length ;
2. divided by 50 000 ;
3. correct length in m ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

6 (b)(ii)

vacuoles / vesicles / lysosomes / glycogen granules / ribosomes / lipid


droplets / centrioles / spindle fibre / microtubules ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

6 (b)(iii)

{resolution not high enough / eq} / damage / {angle of section / eq} / {poor
printing of photograph / eq} ;

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Question
Number
7 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. reference to use of {iodine solution / iodine in potassium iodide} ;


2. {observation / colour change} described ;
3. credit any valid experimental details ;

Question
Number
7 (b)

Answer

Mark

1. overall decrease in activity ;


2. increasing concentration up to 4 au increases the activity of
amylase ;
3. increasing concentration from 4 au (to 32 au) reduces activity ;
4. reference to change in activity at 20 au ;
5. correct manipulation of data ;

Question
Number
7 (c)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. {copper ions / inhibitor} block the active site / eq ;


2. idea that inhibitor is the same shape as substrate ;
3. preventing {starch / substrate} binding with {amylase / active site /
enzyme} ;
4. the more {copper ions / inhibitor} the more active sites are blocked ;
5. reduces enzyme activity / eq ;

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max
3

Question
Number
7 (d)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. it allows a comparison to be made (with and without copper ions) ;


2. reference to {starch / substrate} concentration being the same (with
and without copper ions) ;
3. the rate of reaction changes with time /eq ;
4. because substrate is being used up / eq ;

max
2

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

7 (d)(ii)

idea that the {maximum rate/ Vmax} (with copper ions present) is lower (than
without inhibitor) / if it was active site-directed it would take longer to reach
same maximum rate ;

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Question
Number
8 (a)

Answer

Mark

A phosphate
B deoxyribose ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

8 (b)(i)

Adenine 29, Guanine 21, Cytosine 21 ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

8 (b)(ii)

1. a purine always bonds to a pyrimidine ;


2. % thymine must equal % adenine / eq ;
3. guanine and cytosine must make up rest of molecule / eq ;
4. % guanine = % cytosine / eq ;

Question
Number
8 (c)

Answer

max
3
Mark

1. DNA contains genetic information / eq ;


2. DNA codes for protein / eq ;
3. a change in DNA could produce a different {protein / mRNA} / eq ;
4. idea that it is required throughout life (or {cell / organism} ) ;
5. idea that it is needed to pass on to next generation (of {cell /
organism}) ;

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8

max
2

Question
Number
8 (d)

Answer

Mark

1. part of the DNA (molecule) unwinds ;


2. DNA strands separate / {hydrogen / H} bonds break ;
3. idea only one strand acts as a template ;
4. (free) nucleotides line up against DNA ;
OR reference to complementary base pairing / correct description ;
5. correct reference to RNA polymerase ;
6. reference to {nucleotides joining together / formation of
phosphodiester bonds} ;
7. (to form) mRNA ;
8. exits through nuclear pore / from nucleus to cytoplasm / movement to
ribosomes ;

max
5

PAPER TOTAL: 60 MARKS

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9

Unit 2B (6102)
Question
Number
1

Answer

Mark

1. monocytes ;
2. antibodies / immunoglobulins ;
3. eosinophils / basophils ;
4. nucleus ;

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10

Question
Number

Answer

2 (a)

red blood (cell) / erythrocyte ;

(alveolar) epithelial cell / epithelium / squamous epithelium / ;

Question
Number
2 (b)

Mark

Answer

Mark

1. {thin / eq} cells ;


2. decreases diffusion distance ;
3. permeable (to respiratory gases) ;
4. (collectively) have a large surface area ;
5. increases diffusion ;
6. of respiratory gases / oxygen / carbon dioxide ;
7. (surrounded by) capillaries ;
8. idea that movement of blood maintains {diffusion / concentration}
gradient ;
9. reference to {the presence of / a description of} surfactant ;

max
4

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

2 (c)

8.1 (dm3) ;

11

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Question
Number

Answer

3 (a)

Mark
Carbohydrate

Enzyme

Products

amylase ;
glucose and
galactose ;
sucrose ;

Question
Number
3 (b)

sucrase ;

Answer

Mark

1. reference to active uptake / active transport (of glucose) ;


2. reference to sodium-glucose co-transport ;
3. reference to (specific) glucose carrier proteins / fewer transport
proteins for fructose / more transport proteins for glucose /
fructose is absorbed by diffusion (only) ;

12

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Question
Number

Answer

4 (a)

aorta / aortic arch ;

(right) atrioventricular valve / tricuspid valve ;

Question
Number
4 (b)

Mark

Answer

Mark

1. reference to coronary circulation ;


2. reference to coronary artery / coronary arteries ;
3. reference to capillaries (in wall of heart) ;
4. oxygen {transported / eq} by {red cells / haemoglobin} ;
5. oxygen diffuses out of {blood / red cells / capillaries} (to heart
muscle) ;

Question
Number
4 (c)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. pacemaker / SAN sends {impulse / eq} (to atria) ;


2. {causing/ eq} atria to contract ;
3. {impulse / eq} reaches AVN ;
4. reference to delay at the AVN ;
5. idea that the impulse travels to ventricles via {bundle of His /
Purkyne tissue / eq} ;

Question
Number
4 (d)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. increased {demand for / eq} {oxygen / glucose} / increased


respiration ;
2. increased heart rate / heart beats faster / eq ;
3. increased stroke volume / cardiac output ;
4. increased production of carbon dioxide ;
5. reference to dilation of blood vessels in muscle ;
max
3

6. reference to adrenaline ;

13

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Question
Number
5 (a)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. presence of gills ;
2. to increase surface area / increase uptake of oxygen ;

3. presence of haemoglobin / respiratory pigment ;


4. with high affinity for oxygen ;

5. presence of siphon / (breathing) tube / eq ;


6. to obtain oxygen (directly) from the air ;

max
4

NB paired points

Question
Number
5 (a)(ii)

Answer

Mark

1. presence of claws / hooks / suckers ;


2. to attach to substrate / eq ;

3. {flattened / streamlined / eq} body /reference to burrowing ;


4. less resistance to water flow / less likely to be washed away ;

max
2

NB paired points

Question
Number
5 (b)

Answer

Mark

1. inverse relationship / eq ;
2. credit a manipulated quantitative comment ;

14

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Question
Number
6 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. insect ;
2. large petals / coloured petals ;
3. scent / nectar / nectary ;
4. to attract insects ;
5. correct reference to position of anthers ;
6. correct reference to position of stigma ;

Question
Number
6 (b)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. increased (from 30) to 90 minutes ;


2. decreased from 90 (to 180) minutes ;
3. reached a max. at 90 minutes / reached a peak at 90 minutes ;
4. credit a manipulated quantitative comment ;

15

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max
3

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

7 (a)

xylem (vessel) ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

7 (b)

1. endodermal cells have Casparian strip ;


2. reference to {suberin / eq} ;
3. which is waterproof / eq ;
4. stops movement of water in apoplast pathway / description ;
5. water directed into symplast pathway / description ;
6. reference to {control of uptake / active transport of ions (into
xylem)} ;

Question
Number
7 (c)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. concentration increases as temperature increases / eq ;


2. credit a manipulated quantitative reference ;

Question
Number
7 (c)(ii)

max
3

Answer

Mark

1. uptake is active / eq ;
2. concentration in cells is higher than concentration in solution /
converse ;
3. ions are taken up against concentration gradient ;

16

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Question
Number

Answer

8 (a)

E D C B A ;;

Question
Number
8 (b)

Question
Number
8 (c)

Mark

NB All correct = 2 marks, 1 error (i.e. one letter out of sequence) = 1 mark

Answer

Mark

(i)
(ii)

46 ;
23 ;

Answer

Mark

1. {primordial (germ) cells / oogonia} divide by mitosis ;


2. oogonia (develop to) form primary oocytes ;
3. primary oocytes divide by meiosis I ;
4. to form a secondary oocyte ;
5. and a polar body ;
6. secondary oocyte divides by meiosis II ;
max
4

7. to form an ovum ;

PAPER TOTAL: 60 MARKS

17

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Unit 2H (6112)
Question
Number
1

Answer

Mark

1. monocytes ;
2. antibodies / immunoglobulins ;
3. eosinophils / basophils ;
4. nucleus ;

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18

Question
Number

Answer

2 (a)

red blood (cell) / erythrocyte ;

(alveolar) epithelial cell / epithelium / squamous epithelium / ;

Question
Number
2 (b)

Mark

Answer

Mark

1. {thin / eq} cells ;


2. decreases diffusion distance ;
3. permeable (to respiratory gases) ;
4. (collectively) have a large surface area ;
5. increases diffusion ;
6. of respiratory gases / oxygen / carbon dioxide ;
7. (surrounded by) capillaries ;
8. idea that movement of blood maintains {diffusion / concentration}
gradient ;
9. reference to {the presence of / a description of} surfactant ;

max
4

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

2 (c)

8.1 (dm3) ;

19

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Question
Number

Answer

3 (a)

Mark
Carbohydrate

Enzyme

Products

amylase ;
glucose and
galactose ;
sucrose ;

Question
Number
3 (b)

sucrase ;

Answer

Mark

1. reference to active uptake / active transport (of glucose) ;


2. reference to sodium-glucose co-transport ;
3. reference to (specific) glucose carrier proteins / fewer transport
proteins for fructose / more transport proteins for glucose /
fructose is absorbed by diffusion (only) ;

20

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Question
Number

Answer

4 (a)

aorta / aortic arch ;

(right) atrioventricular valve / tricuspid valve ;

Question
Number
4 (b)

Mark

Answer

Mark

1. reference to coronary circulation ;


2. reference to coronary artery / coronary arteries ;
3. reference to capillaries (in wall of heart) ;
4. oxygen {transported / eq} by {red cells / haemoglobin} ;
5. oxygen diffuses out of {blood / red cells / capillaries} (to heart
muscle) ;

Question
Number
4 (c)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. pacemaker / SAN sends {impulse / eq} (to atria) ;


2. {causing/ eq} atria to contract ;
3. {impulse / eq} reaches AVN ;
4. reference to delay at the AVN ;
5. idea that the impulse travels to ventricles via {bundle of His /
Purkyne tissue / eq} ;

Question
Number
4 (d)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. increased {demand for / eq} {oxygen / glucose} / increased


respiration ;
2. increased heart rate / heart beats faster / eq ;
3. increased stroke volume / cardiac output ;
4. increased production of carbon dioxide ;
5. reference to dilation of blood vessels in muscle ;
max
3

6. reference to adrenaline ;

21

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Question
Number

Answer

5 (a)

Frostbite:

Mark

1. reference to tissue / skin damage ;


2. due to exposure to (dry) cold / freezing ;
Trench foot:
1. damage to toes / feet ;
2. due to immersion in cold water ;

Question
Number
5 (b)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. increase in body temperature ;


2. credit manipulated quantitative comment ;
3. due to conduction of heat from water to body ;

Question
Number
5 (b)(ii)

Answer

max
2

Mark

1. reduction in body temperature ;


2. credit manipulated quantitative comment ;
3. heat lost by {radiation / conduction / evaporation of water /
convection / lower {air / room / chair} temperature} ;

22

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max
2

Question
Number
6 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. colostrum contains antibodies / eq ;


2. reference to imparting (passive) immunity / eq ;

Question
Number
6 (b)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. colostrum has more protein (than human milk) ;


2. calculated difference (e.g. 5.7 times more protein) ;
3. colostrum has less lactose (than human milk) ;
4. calculated difference (e.g. half the concentration of lactose) ;

Question
Number
6(b)(ii)

Answer

max
2

Mark

1. cows milk has more protein ;


2. protein is required for (tissue) growth / eq ;
3. cows milk has less fat ;
4. appropriate reference to benefit of less fat in diet ;

23

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max
2

Question
Number
7 (a)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. as altitude increases, partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli


decreases / eq ;
2. credit a manipulated quantitative comment ;

Question
Number
7 (a)(ii)

Answer

Mark

1. reference to low partial pressure of oxygen (at high altitudes) ;


2. haemoglobin poorly saturated with oxygen ;
3. insufficient {oxygen to maintain consciousness / oxygen reaching
the brain} ;
max
2

4. reference to hypoxia ;

Question
Number
7 (a)(iii)

Answer

Mark

1. wind speed ;
2. solar radiation ;

Question
Number

Answer

7 (b)

THREE of:

Mark

1. increased lung volume /eq ;


2. increased pulmonary capillaries / eq ;
3. increased cardiac output /eq ;
4. increased numbers of red cells / eq ;
5. increased haemoglobin ;
6. increased affinity of haemoglobin (for oxygen) ;
7. increased melanin / skin pigmentation ;
8. reference to short stature / eq ;

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24

max
3

Question
Number

Answer

8 (a)

E D C B A ;;

Question
Number
8 (b)

Question
Number
8 (c)

Mark

all correct = 2 marks, 1 error (i.e. one letter out of sequence) = 1 mark

Answer

Mark

(i)
(ii)

46 ;
23 ;

Answer

Mark

1. {primordial (germ) cells / oogonia} divide by mitosis ;


2. oogonia (develop to) form primary oocytes ;
3. primary oocytes divide by meiosis I ;
4. to form a secondary oocyte ;
5. and a polar body ;
6. secondary oocyte divides by meiosis II ;
max
4

7. to form an ovum ;

PAPER TOTAL: 60 MARKS

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25

Unit 3 Paper 3 (6103/03)


Question
Number
1 (a)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. reference to external digestion /eq ;


2. feed on organic material / both are heterotrophic /eq ;
3. reference to hypha(e) {secrete / eq} enzymes / absorb {digested
products / named product} / eq ;

Question
Number
1 (a)(ii)

Answer

max
2

Mark

1. (Rhizopus) is {saprobiontic / saprophytic} / eq ;


2. (Rhizopus) {feeds on / eq} {dead / eq } material ;
3. reference to importance of Rhizopus as {a decomposer / involved in
recycling of nutrients} and Phytophthora causing {harm / loss of crops
/ eq} ;

Question
Number
1 (b)

Answer

max
2

Mark

1. {less / eq} photosynthesis possible ;


2. (because) {leaves / palisade cells / photosynthetic cells /
chloroplasts} damaged / eq ;
3. less {glucose / starch / organic compounds} produced /eq / idea of
fungus using up the plants organic material ;
4. reference to {blocked stomata / inefficient gas exchange / eq} ;

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26

max
2

Question
Number
2 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. bacteria / fungi / saprophyte / saprobiont / decomposer / suitable,


correct organism ;
2. reference to respiration ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

2 (b)(i)

photosynthesis ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

2 (b)(ii)

1. reference to respiration (of some of the organic material) ;


2. idea that energy is required ;
3. for synthesis of {molecules / eq} / movement / active transport} ;

Question
Number
2 (c)

Answer

max
2

Mark

1. idea of {carbon / carbon dioxide} {locked away / stored} / eq ;


2. for {many years / a long time / eq} ;

Question
Number

Answer

2 (d)

24 391 37.98 ;

Mark

642.2 x 106 ha ;

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27

Question
Number
2 (e)

Answer

Mark

1. (different) {climates / rainfall / temperatures / eq} ;


2. (different) {species / types} of {tree / forest} ;
3. (different) {ages / maturity / size / eq} of forests ;
4. (different) tree density / number of trees ;
5. reference to (different) day lengths ;
6. reference to (different) light intensity ;
7. (different) carbon dioxide concentration / eq ;
8. any two other valid reasons ;;

Question
Number
2 (f)

Answer

max
2

Mark

1. idea of less carbon dioxide {fixed / taken up / eq} by photosynthesis ;


2. {respiration / combustion of {fossil fuels / trees}} continues to release
carbon dioxide ;
3. carbon dioxide builds up in {upper atmosphere / troposphere} ;
4. reference to carbon dioxide as greenhouse gas ;
5. description of the greenhouse effect ;
6. reference to {enhanced / eq} greenhouse effect ;
7. reference to global warming / increase in mean temperature (of
Earths surface) ;

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28

max
4

Question
Number

Answer

3 (a)(i)

{total biomass / eq} produced / {total energy / eq} taken in ;

Question
Number
3 (a)(ii)

Mark

by {plants / producers / photosynthesis / eq} ;

Answer

Mark

1. light intensity ;
2. light duration / eq ;
3. light wavelength ;
4. temperature ;
5. {carbon dioxide / carbonate} concentration ;
6. pH ;
max
2

7. named aquatic pollutant ;

Question
Number
3 (b)

Answer

Mark

1. (dead plant material) is decomposed / eq ;


2. by action of {bacteria / microoorganisms / eq} ;
3. idea that aerobic respiration involved ;
4. (more) dead material provides more nutrients which leads to an
increase in microorganisms / eq ;

Question
Number
3 (c)(i)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. CR in winter {usually greater/eq} than in summer ;


2. both show increase as distance (from headwaters) increases ;
3. in winter CR increases {greatly / eq}, in summer only {slight increase /
eq} ;
max
2

4. use of manipulated data ;

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Question
Number
3 (c)(ii)

Answer

Mark

1. idea that {more leaves / detritus / eq} added with distance from
source / more leaves shed in winter / (more dead material because)
algae die down in winter ;
2. far increased {bacterial / eq} activity ;

Question
Number
3 (d)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. GPP {increases as distance (from headwaters) increases / higher in


Motueka River} ;
2. high GPP indicates {high algal population / eq} ;
3. (because) algae release oxygen by photosynthesis ;
4. more algae means more {grazing invertebrates / eq} ;
max
3

5. more food (for fish / trout) ;

Question
Number
3 (d)(ii)

Answer

Mark

1. CR {higher / increases} (in winter) ;


2. (higher CR indicates) more {detritus / eq} ;
3. {algae / eq} may die down in winter ;
4. reference to {decay / eq} (of detritus and/or algae) uses up oxygen ;
max
3

5. fish population {falls / eq} ;

PAPER TOTAL: 38 MARKS

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30

Unit 4 Core (6104)


Question
Number

Answer

1 (a)

B = medulla (oblongata) ;

Question
Number
1 (b)

Mark

C = cerebellum ;

Answer

Mark

1. to receive sensory input / eq ;


2. idea of {interpretation/coordination} (of information) ;
3. {initiates / transmits} impulses to effector ;
4. idea of control of voluntary action / eq ;
5. reference to {thought / learning / intelligence / memory } ;
6. reference to speech ;
7. reference to {personality / emotion} ;

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31

max
2

Question
Number
2 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. idea of a deviation from the {norm / normal level / eq } triggers


mechanism to eliminate the deviation ;
2. increase in level of cortisol inhibits {CRH secretion /hypothalamus} ;
3. (which) reduces secretion {of ACTH / from (anterior) pituitary} ;
4. this causes drop in level of cortisol ;

max
3

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

2 (b)

{follicle stimulating hormone / FSH / luteinising hormone / LH / thyroid


stimulating hormone / TSH / growth hormone / prolactin } ;

Answer

Mark

Question
Number
2 (c)

1. effect is longer lasting / eq ;


2. effect is slower / eq ;
3. effect is (often) not reversible / eq ;
4. reference to involvement of transport in blood system ;
5. reference to {several target organs/diffuse effect / eq} ;
6. hormonal involves chemical control, nervous involves electrical (and
chemical) control ;

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max
3

Question
Number
3 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. reference to influx of calcium ions(into pre-synaptic knob) / eq ;


2. vesicles move to pre-synaptic membrane / eq ;
3. fuse with pre-synaptic membrane / eq ;
4. (acetylcholine released) by exocytosis ;

max
3

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

3 (b)(i)

value between 0.85 and 1.95 (ms) ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

3 (b)(ii)

3.0 0.05 (ms) ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

3 (b)(iii)

1. correct reading from graph of duration of one action potential ;


2. 1000 / reading from graph ;

Question
Number
3 (c)

Answer

Mark

1. idea that the inside of the (post-synaptic) membrane is becoming


{more negative / hyperpolarised} ;
2. therefore {more Na+ channels must open / more Na+ must enter} ;
3. to reach threshold level / eq ;

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max
2

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

4 (a)(i)

carbon dioxide / CO2 ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

4 (a)(ii)

1. to regenerate the {hydrogen carriers / NAD+ } / oxidise reduced NAD ;


2. NAD+ does not become limiting / eq ;
3. so that glycolysis can continue ;
4. to allow ATP to be formed (during glycolysis) ;

Question
Number
4 (b)(i)

Answer

max
2

Mark

1. rate is {constant / steady / eq} for the first 6 minutes ;


2. rate {slows / decreases} from {6 to 14 minutes / for next 8 minutes} ;
3. no respiration from 14 20 minutes / eq ;
4. manipulation of figures e.g. calculation of rate for first 6 minutes ;

max
3

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

4 (b)(ii)

rate is constant (throughout the 20 minutes) / rate is slower in sucrose than


in glucose (in first 6 to 8 minutes) / respiration does not stop ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

4 (b)(iii)

1. to prevent oxygen entering (solution) / keep conditions anaerobic ;


2. to prevent TTC being {oxidised / decolourised} / no TTC would be
reduced ;

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Question
Number
4 (b)(iv)

Answer

Mark

1. maintain constant temperature / eq ;


2. respiration produces heat (energy) ;
3. change of temperature will affect rate of enzyme activity ;
4. idea that the experiment can be performed in 20 minutes ;

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max
2

Question
Number
5 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. (ultrafiltration) occurs in {glomerulus / Bowmans capsule / renal


capsule} ;
2. reference to high pressure {of blood / in glomerulus} ;
3. because afferent arteriole is wider than efferent arteriole ;
4. {small molecules / eq} forced out (through capillary wall) / {large
molecules / proteins} remain in blood ;
5. reference to {fenestrations / pores} in capillary walls ;
6. reference to basement membrane (acting as a filter) ;
7. reference to podocytes in (Bowmans capsule) ;

Question
Number
5 (b)

Answer

max
4

Mark

1. all {glucose / amino acids} are reabsorbed ;


2. by (sodium) co-transport mechanism ;
3. {some / eq} urea is reabsorbed ;
4. by diffusion ;
5. sodium ions are {actively reabsorbed / co-transported} ;
6. {chloride ions / negatively charged ions} (follow) down
electrochemical gradient ;
7. reference to microvilli (on epithelial cells) to increase surface
area ;
8. reference to {many mitochondria for active transport /
mitochondria produce ATP (for active transport) ;

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max
5

Unit 4A (6104/01)
Question
Number
6

Answer

Mark

Feature

phage

TMV

HIV

Nucleic acid

DNA ;

RNA ;

RNA ;

Shape of
protein coat

complex ;

helical ;

polyhedral ;
6

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Question
Number
7 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. overall the number of cases caused by Salmonella increased whereas


those caused by Staphylococcus decreased / eq ;
2. between 1985 and (some of) 1988 more cases were caused by
Staphylococcus ;
3. after {1989 / second part of 1988} more cases were caused by
Salmonella ;
4. there was a (very marked) increase in the number of cases caused by
Salmonella from 1995 compared to {very little change / eq} in number
of cases caused by Staphylococcus ;
5. credit correct manipulation of figures to compare numbers of cases in
a stated time period ;

Question
Number

Answer

max
3

Mark

7 (b)
Endotoxin
Lipopolysaccharide
Released from dead
bacteria/damaged cell wall
Delay in release
Low toxicity / eq
Released from gram positive

Exotoxin
protein ;
released from living bacteria / eq ;
immediate release ;
high toxicity ;
released from Gram negative and
Gram positive ;

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max
2

Question
Number
8 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. Gram positive bacteria / S. aureus {more sensitive to /shows greater


effect / more susceptible to / shows less resistance} to
ampicillin /eq ;
2. S. aureus / Gram positive have thick {cell wall / peptioglycan layer /
eq} ;
3. ampicillin affects cell wall synthesis ;
4. inhibits formation of {peptidoglycan bonds (in cell wall) / eq} ;
5. weakening of cell walls ;
6. reference to osmotic shock / cell lysis / eq ;

Question
Number
8 (b)

Answer

max
4

Mark

1. correct reason for existence of resistant bacteria ;


2. any resistant bacteria will multiply ;
3. (and) pass on {resistance gene/ plasmid} ;

Question
Number

Answer

8 (c)

(48-36) ;

max
2

Mark

/36 x 100 = 33.33% ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

8 (d)

ampicillin doesnt fit active site / allosteric effect / eq ;

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39

Question
Number
9 (a)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. L. bulgaricus grew best at pH 5 ;


2. L. bulgaricus could grow at pHs 5, 6 and 7 (and 8) ;
3. E. coli grew best at pH 7 ;
4. E. coli could grow at pHs 6, 7 and 8 (and 5) ;
5. neither species could grow at pH 9 ;

Question
Number
9 (a)(ii)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. idea that pH affects enzyme activity ;


2. enzymes can only work in narrow pH range ;
3. enzymes needed to {replicate DNA/make protein} ;
4. L. bulgaricus adapted to grow in acidic conditions due to lactic acid
production ;
5. E. coli adapted to live in alkaline conditions ;

Question
Number
9 (b)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. use sterile conditions / eq ;


2. could have seen more colonies (on any one plate) as contaminants grew
too / could have seen colonies on plates where none were found before
as the contaminants could grow at these pHs / could have seen fewer
colonies due to inhibition/competition ;
3. shake culture before sampling ;
4. fewer colonies, as bacteria would have settled to bottom of container ;
5. spread samples over agar thoroughly ;
6. fewer colonies seen due to bacteria on top of each other / inaccurate
counting due to overcrowding in one place ;

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max
4

Unit 4B (6104/02)
Question
Number
6

Answer

Mark

Enzyme

Enzyme
substrate

Product(s)
of the
reaction

Industrial use

Glucose isomerase

Glucose

fructose ;

confectionery / soft
drinks ;

Amyloglucosidase

(liquid) starch ;

Glucose

brewing / bread
making / fruit
sorbets ;

Lactase

Lactose

glucose and
galactose ;

{lactose free / low


lactose} products /
whey syrup /ice
cream ;

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Question
Number
7 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. between 16 and 34 diabetes is more common in women than men/eq ;


2. more common in men over 35 / eq ;
3. increase in prevalence in women with age / eq ;
4. increase in number of men with diabetes as age increase up to 74 /
eq;
5. credit correct manipulation of data ;

Question
Number
7 (b)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. obesity ;
2. genetic ;
3. viral infection ;
4. high fat ;
5. high calorie ;
6. high sugar ;
7. reference to less insulin / inactivity of insulin ;

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max
2

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

8 (a)

supplies respiratory substrate / eq ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

8 (b)

fungus / mould/ Aspergillus / Saccharomyces / yeast ;

Question
Number
8 (c)

bacteria / Lactobacillus /Bacillus / Pediococcus ;

Answer

Mark

1. changes due to activity of mould / eq ;


2. enzymes or named enzyme produced / eq ;
3. (amylases convert) carbohydrates into simple sugars / eq ;
4. (proteases convert) protein into amino acids / eq ;
5. reference to named product of fermentation ;
max
3

6. pH falls / eq ;

Question
Number

Answer

8 (d)(i)

0.73-0.07 ;

Mark

/0.07 x 100 ;

Question
Number

Answer

Mark

8 (d)(ii)

ethanoic / formic / acetic / lactic / methanoic / carbonic ;

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Question
Number
9 (a)(i)

Answer

Mark

1. chilled vegetables have a higher vitamin C content throughout / eq ;


2. faster loss of vitamin C in vegetables at room temperature ;
3. both methods of storage result in a {greater / faster} loss of vitamin C
in the first 2 - 3 days ;
4. at 7 days there is no vitamin C left in the vegetables stored at room
temperature, but some vitamin C still remains in the chilled ones ;
5. there is still some vitamin C left in the chilled vegetables at the end of
20 days ;
6. comparative manipulation of figures to give quantitative comparisons ;

Question
Number
9 (a)(ii)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. vegetables should be chilled ;


2. because the vitamin C content stays higher ;
3. quantitative comparison of chilled with frozen ;
4. quantitative comparison of chilled with room temperature ;
5. freezing can result in damage to vegetables / or ref. to energy cost ;

Question
Number
9 (b)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. vitamin C is a reducing agent ;


2. DCPIP is a dye ;
3. blue in oxidised & pale yellow / brown / colourless in reduced state ;

Question
Number
9 (c)

Answer

2
Mark

1. reference to use as antioxidant / eq ;


2. prevents oxidation of {fats / oils} ;
3. no rancid flavours develop /eq ;
4. correct description of prevention of rancidity ;

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max
2

Unit 4C (6104/03)
Question
Number
6

Answer

Mark

White blood
cells

Type of immune
response

One role in the immune


response

B-lymphocytes

humoral / antibody

reference to antibody

mediated / specific ;

production by plasma cells /


reference to plasma cells /
reference to of memory cells ;

T-lymphocytes

cell-mediated /

act as memory cells / killer T

specific ;

cells {destroy infected cells /


destroy cancer cells / attract
macrophages / activate
phagocytosis } /
/ T helper cells activate {Bcells / antibody production} /
T suppressor cells suppress
{killer T cells /B-cells} ;

Macrophages

non-specific /

phagocytosis / engulf bacteria

phagocytosis ;

/ antigen presentation ;

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Question
Number
7 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. both have a {heavier /eq} left ventricle ;


2. both have a {thicker / eq} wall ;
3. both have a larger volume (left ventricle) ;
4. manipulation of figures to quantify one of the comparisons ;

Question
Number
7 (b)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. reference to {epicardium / pericardium}, myocardium and


endocardium ;
2. outer {epicardium / pericardium}, inner endocardium and myocardium
in between / eq ;
3. reference to cardiac muscle ;
4. reference to {epithelial cells / connective tissue} ;

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max
2

Question
Number
8 (a)

Answer

Mark

1. age;
2. gender;
3. level of fitness / eq ;
4. resting pulse rate ;
5. diet / weight ;
6. heart conditions / eq ;
7. high blood pressure ;
8. drugs ;
max
2

9. height / eq ;

Question
Number
8 (b)

Answer

Mark

1. 152 x 85, 142 x 96 ;


2. / 1000 ;
3. subtraction = 0.71 ;

Question
Number
8 (c)

Answer

Mark

1. description of systolic and diastolic ;


2. systolic increases ;
3. (after training programe) stroke volume increases / greater volume
of blood entering arteries / heart contracts with greater force ;
4. (due to) greater stretching of ventricles during filling / increased
filling / increased end diastolic volume ;
5. diastolic decreases ;
6. due to greater emptying ;
max
4

7. reference to Starlings law ;

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47

Question
Number

Answer

9 (a)

A alveolus

Mark

B blood vessel
C bronchiole ;;

Question
Number
9 (b)(i)

NB All correct for 2 marks, 2 correct for 1 mark

Answer

Mark

1. number of deaths greater in men than women (in all years) ;


2. between 1930 and 1960 increase in death rate in men but {stayed
constant in women / only increased slightly} ;
3. between 1960 and 1980/1990 death rate increased in men and women ;
4. linear increase in women but not linear in men ;
5. after 1990 number of deaths fell in men but still rose in women ;
6. manipulated comparative quantitative comment ;

Question
Number
9 (b)(ii)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. lung cancer caused by smoking ;


2. increase in lung cancer due to increase in smoking ;
3. men smoke more than women ;
4. women started to smoke about 1930 ;
5. reference to polluted work environment causing lung cancer ;
6. idea of women {smoking being more socially acceptable / having
money / going out to work} ;

Question
Number
9 (c)

Answer

max
3

Mark

1. removal of tumour / lung ;


2. radiotherapy ;
max
2

3. chemotherapy ;

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Further copies of this publication are available from


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