Vincit Test Series Mock Test One Djs

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B-1 Basement, Progressive Chambers, D Block Central Market Prashant

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9999242347
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JUDICIAL SERVICES TEST SERIES
MOCK TEST (JUDICIAL PRELIMS I)
TIME ALLOWED: TWO HOURS
TEST BOOKLET SERIES:
Name
Batch.....
Enrolment
number.
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the test you should check
that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing
pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by complete test booklet.
2. Encode your test booklet series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the
appropriate place in the answersheet.
3. The test booklet contains 55 questions. Each item comprises of four
responses. In case you feel there are more than one correct, mark the
most appropriate. CHOOSE ONLY ONE response for each item.
4. You have to mark only on the separate answer sheet provided.
5. All items carry equal marks.
6. Do not write ant thing on the question booklet or answer sheet.
7. Penalty for wrong answers
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a. There are four alternatives for each question. One third of the
marks shall be deducted as a penalty for wrong answer.
b. If candidate marks more than one answer, it will be treated as
wrong answer even if one of the answer happen to be correct
and there will be same penalty as above of that question.
c. If answer is left blank i.e. no answer is marked by the
candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO
SO
1. Which is the correct meaning of word embargo?

(A) landing place
(B) prohibition
(C) disease of eye
(D) cargo
2. An agreement enforceable by law at the instance of one or more of the
parties and not of other or others under Section 2(i) of the Indian
Contract Act is called(A) a valid contract
(B) an illegal contract
(C) a void contract
(D) a voidable contract
3. Claim for necessaries of life supplied to a minor under Section 68 of the
Indian Contract Act(A) cannot be enforced at all
(B) can be enforced against the minor personally on attaining majority
(C) can be enforced against the minors property or estate
(D) can be enforced against the guardian, if any, of the minor
4. An act, to be called on act of firm, within the meaning of section 2(a) of
the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is(A) every act of the partners
(B) only such acts which give rise to a enforceable by or against the firm
(C) such acts which do not give rise to a right enforceable by or against
the firm
(D) either (A) or (B) or (C)
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5. Which of the following is a valid partnership?
(A) partnership between two partnership firm
(B) partnership between one partnership firm and an individual
(C) partnership between individual members of one firm and the
individual members of another firm
(D) neither (A) nor (B) nor (C))
6. Easement is a right(A) in rem
(B) in personam
(C) neither (A) nor (B)
(D) in rem in general but in personam in exceptional cases
7. Damages awarded for tortuous liabilities are(A) liquidated
(B) unliquidated
(C) penal
(D) none of the above
8. Defamation by spoken words or gestures is known as(A) Innuendo
(B) Slander
(C) Libel
(D) None of the above
9. The principle facts speak for themselves is expressed by the maxim(A) Ubi jus ibi remedium
(B) Res ipsa Loquitur
(C) Novus Actus Interveniens
(D) Causa Causams
10.The liability of a master for acts of his servant in Law of Torts is called(A) Absolute liability
(B) Tortious liability
(C) Vicarious liability
11.For summoning an accused under Section 319 Cr.P.C.(A) statement under 161 Cr.P.C. is relevant
(B) statement on oath in the trial is relevant
(C) both the above statements are relevant
12.Ordinarily place of trial is(A) where the offence has been committed
(B) where the victim resides
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(C) where the accused resides
(D) where the FIR is lodged
13.Statement under Section 161 of Cr.P.C. can be used to(A) corroborate the statement in court
(B) corroborate and contradict statement in court
(C) contradict the statement in court
(D) can not be utilized for any purpose
14.Before being summoned, the accused has got a right to(A) participate in the proceeding
(B) no right to participate in the proceeding
(C) has no right at all
(D) can watch the proceedings but can not participate
15.Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate with a view to(A) find out a prima-facie case
(B) convict the accused
(C) authorize remand of the accused
(D) release the accused under Section 436
16.Warrant case means a case(A) in which a police officer can not arrest without warrant
(B) in which the court, in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of
arrest against the accused
(C) relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not
exceeding two years
(D) relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life
or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
17.When can a trial court release an accused on bail under Section 389(3)
of Cr.P.C. after conviction?
(A) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
(B) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years
(C) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 7 years
(D) Where offence is exclusively bailable whether accused is on bail or
not
18.Time prescribed for filing which of the followings cannot be extended or
condoned by applying provisions of Section 5 of the Limitation Act?
(A) Revision under Section 115 C.P.C.
(B) Application for execution under Order XXI C.P.C.
(C) Appeal under Section 96, 100 and 104 C.P.C.
(D) Application for substitution under Order XXII C.P.C.
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19.Time for instituting a suit can be enlarged by invoking which of the
following provisions?
(A) Section 151 C.P.C.
(B) Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963
(C) Section 148 C.P.C.
20.An application for execution of a decree is filed with some delay i.e.
beyond prescribed period of limitation(A) delay can be condoned by invoking Section 5 of the Limitation Act
(B) delay can be condoned under Section 148 C.P.C.
(C) delay can be condoned under the inherent powers of the court
under Section 151 C.P.C.
21.
22. Ipso facto means?
(A) in place of
(B) by reason of that fact
(C) by the same source
(D) by the way
23.Requisition means
(A) permanent transfer of the title of the property
(B) supervision of property
(C) taking control of property temporarily
(D) taking possession permanently
24.Corroborative evidence means?
(A) main evidence in a case
(B) evidence which supports other evidence
(C) evidence that proves the guilt of an accused person
(D) evidence of a person who supports the accused
25.Ex-parte decision means a decision given
(A) after hearing both the parties
(B) without proper procedure
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(C) after observing proper procedure
(D) without hearing the opponent
26.Which of the following Constitutions is a Unitary Constitution?
(A) U.S.
(B) British
(C) Indian
(D) Australian
27.Which of the following is not a fundamental right in India?
(A) right to form association
(B) freedom of religion
(C) right to property
(D) right to move throughout the territory of India
28.Which of the following Constitutions when framed did not provide for
judicial review?
(A)Indian
(B) Pakistani
(C)U.S.
(D) Australian
29.Ratio decidendi means?
(A) a judicial decision
(B) part of the judgment which possesses authority
(C) any observation made by the court which goes beyond the
requirement of the case
(D) an observation made by a judge
30.Dyarchy under the government of India Act 1919 meant?
(A) division of powers between the central and provincial government
(B) separation of judiciary from executive
(C) division of executive departments under elected ministers and the
members of the governors executive council
(D) separation between legislature and executive
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31.Fringe benefit tax is a tax?
(A) paid by an employer in respect of the fringe benefits provided or
deemed to have been provided by an employer to his employee
(B) paid by an employer for the benefits which he enjoys
(C) paid by a person for the benefits which he gets from his employer
(D) paid by a member of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes for
benefits they receive from the government
32. Which of the following is not true about a criminal proceeding?
(A) the court may ask to pay a fine
(B) the court may order the transfer of the ownership of the property
(C) there is prosecution
(D) the court may discharge an accused
33. In Ram v Shyam, Ram cannot be a?
(A) plaintiff
(B) appellants
(C) defendant
(D) prosecutor
34.Cr.P.C. stands for?
(A) Criminal Proceedings Code
(B) Criminal Proceedings Court
(C) Crime Prevention Code
(D) Criminal Procedure Code
35. Medical Science used for investigating crimes is known as?
(A) Criminal Medicine
(B) Epistemological Science
(C) Forensic Science
(D) Ontological Science
36.A puisne judge of a High Court is?
(A) a judge other than a Chief Justice
(B) the Chief Justice
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(C) a temporary judge
(D) a retired judge
37. Intra vires means?
(A) within the powers
(B) outside the powers
(C) within the scope of fundamental rights
(D) regular
38. X, the servant of Y, takes a hundred rupee note from Ys pocket and
hides it under the carpet in the house of Y. X tells Z another servant of
Y, about the currency note and both agree to share the money, when
the currency note is taken by X from he hiding place. Before X could
recover the note, it was found by Y. Decide if an offence was committed
and if so who committed the offence?
(A) No offence was committed
(B) Only X committed the offence
(C) Both X and Z committed the offence
(D) Only Z committed the offence
39.Moots, in, law schools, are
(A) exercise of law teaching
(B) legal problems in the form of imaginary cases, argued by two
opposing students before a bench pretending to be a real court
(C) imaginary class room where a student acts as a teacher
(D) a debate on a legal problem
40. Scheduled Tribe status is?
(A) restricted to Hindus
(B) religiously neutral
(C) restricted to Hindus and Christians
(D) restricted to Hindus and Muslims
41.Which of the following has not been a woman judge of the Supreme
Court of India, till 2009?
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(A) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
(B) Justice Sujata Manohar
(C) Justice Ruma Pal
(D) Justice Fathima Beevi
42. What is the meaning of chattel?
(A) any property
(B) immovable property
(C) movable property
(D) cattle
43.In a civil suit, the person who files suit and the person against whom
the suit is filed are called?
(A) accused, prosecutor
(B) accuser, defendant
(C) appellant, respondent
(D) plaintiff, defendant
44. In a criminal case, an accused person, who in consideration of his
non-prosecution offers to give evidence against other accused, is
called?
(A) accomplice
(B) hostile witness
(C) approver
(D) hostile accomplice
45.The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
(A) all the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the
members of all the Legislative Assemblies
(B) all the elective members of both the Houses of Parliament and all
the members of all the Legislative Assemblies
(C) all the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the
elected members of all the Legislative Assemblies
(D) all the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and all
the elected members of all the Legislative Assemblies
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46. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(A) freedom of speech
(B) right to life
(C) right to equality
(D) right to work
47. International Labour Organization has its headquarters at?
(A) The Hague
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) London
48.The child Marriage Restraint Act 2006 is applicable to?
(A) only Hindus
(B) all Indians except Muslims as the minimum age of marriage among
Muslim girls is puberty (beginning of menstruation) in Muslim personal
law
(C) all irrespective of religion
(D) all except Muslim, Christians and Jews
49.X, a shopkeeper, leaves a sealed 5 kilogram bag of a branded wheat
flour at the door of Y with a note you will like this quality wheat flour
and pay Rupees 100 for this bag without being asked to do so.
Y on coming back, collects the bag from his door, opens the seal of the
bag, and uses a quarter of kilogram for making chapattis (unleavened
bread). But next day returns the bag. Is he bound to pay for the bag ?
He is?
(A) not bound to pay as he did not ask the shopkeeper to deliver the
bag
(B) bound to pay as he has opened the bag
(C) bound to pay only for the quantity used
(D) neither bound to pay nor return the bag
50.Within the jurisdiction of which High Court does Lakshdweep
fall?
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(A) Bombay (now is Mumbai) High Court
(B) Kerala High Court
(C) Madras (now is Chennai) High Court
(D) Delhi High Court
51.Which of the following is not the function of the International Court of
Justice ? It
(A) gives advisory opinion at the request of general Assembly
(B) gives advisory opinion at the request of Security Council
(C) interprets treaties when considering legal disputes brought before it
by nations
(D) decides international crimes
52.Bank nationalization case relates to the nationalization of
(A) some banks by the government of India after economic liberalisation
in 1991
(B) some banks under a law during the Prime Ministership of Mrs.
Indira Gandhi
(C) all the private Indian Banks during the Prime Ministership of
Narasimha Rao
(D) all the private Indian Banks during the Prime Ministership of Mrs.
Indira Gandhi
53.Which of the following is not included within the meaning of
intellectual property?
(A) Patents
(B) Copyrights
(C) Trademark
(D) Property of an intellectual
54.The main aim of the competition Act 2002 is to protect the interests of?
(A) the multinational corporalion
(B) the Indian companies
(C) the consumers
(D) the market
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55.Which of the following judges had never been the Chairman of the Law
Commission of India?
(A) Justice R.C. Lahoti
(B) Justice A.R. Lakshamanan
(C) Justice Jeevan Reddy
(D) Justice Jagannadha Rao
56.Who among the following was the first chief Information Commissioner
of India?
(A) Wajahat Habibullah
(B) Irfan Habib
(C) Tahir Mahmood
(D) Najma Heptullah
57.R.T.I. stands for?
(A) Revenue Transactions India
(B) Research and Technology Institute
(C) Rural and Transparency Infrastructure
(D) Right To Information
58.Fiduciary relationship is relationship based on?
(A) contract
(B) trust
(C) blood relationship
(D) money
59. Human rights day is observed on?
(A) February 14
(B) November 26
(C) October 2
(D) December 10
60.No-fault liability means?
(A) liability for damage caused through negligence
(B) liability for damage caused through fault
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(C) absolute liability even with out any negligence or fault
(D) freedom from liability
61.An encumbrance in legal parlance is a
(A) liability on property
(B) grant of property
(C) gift of property
(D) restriction on property
62.Release of prisoner before completion of his sentence is called?
(A) release
(B) parole
(C) acquittal
(D) lease
63.Result of successful prosecution is
(A) acquittal
(B) discharge
(C) conviction
(D) charge sheeting
64.The Directive Principles of State Policy as embodied in Chapter IV of
the Constitution were derived by us from:a. The Constitution of Ireland
b. The Constitution of U.S.S.R.
c. The Constitution of Switzerland
d. The Gandhian Constitution for Free India
65.State which of the following statements is correct:
a. Preamble is not part of the Constitution
b. Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic
structure.
c. Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to
the Constitution.
d. Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution
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66.State which of the following statements is correct:a. The American doctrine of waiver of fundamental rights is part of the
Indian Constitution. .
b. No person can waive his fundamental rights under the Indian
Constitution as they are sacrosanct and no individual can tinker with
them.
c. A non-citizen can waive his fundamental rights.
d. A citizen can waive his fundamental rights which are for his
individual benefit.
67.The right to equality means that no person is above law. To this rule,
certain exceptions are recognized. State which of the following come
under the exception:
a. President of India
b. Ambassador of USA.
c. Judges of the High Courts.
d. All the above
68.Which one of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial
or quasi-judicial authorities?
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Certiorari
d. Quo Warranto
69.State which of the following statements is incorrect:
a. A writ can be issued against the High Court.
b. Government of India and State Governments.
c. Any authority under the power and control of the Government of
India.
d. Parliament or a State Legislature.
70.The Directive Principles are:a. justiciable the same way as the fundamental rights.
b. justiciable though not the same way as the fundamental rights.
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c. decorative portions of the Indian Constitution.
d. not justiciable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country
71.Which coin out of the following has been withdrawn by RBI in 2011:
a. 20Paisa
b. 10 paisa
c. 25Paisa
d. 5 paisa
72.The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister in the
Council of Minister should not exceed:a. 20%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
b. 15%of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
c. 20%of the total number of members of Rajya Sabha.
d. 15%of the total number of members of both the Houses.
73.Who has been conferred with Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in the
year 2011.
a. Abhinav Bindra
b. Gagan Narang
c. Kapil Dev
d. Sachin Tendulkar
74.Vast powers and functions vested in the Indian President make him:
a. Almost a dictator
b.A benevolent ruler
c. Real head of the Government
d.A nominal Constitution Head
75.Only that person can be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court who
is a citizen of Indiaand:
a. judge of the High Court for at least five years.
b. advocate of the Supreme Court for at least 10 years standing.
c. judge of the High Court for at least ten years.
d. advocate of the High Court for at least fifteen years.
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76.While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the State
Government:a. Cannot legislate.
b. Can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List.
c. Can legislate on the subject in the State List.
d. Is suspended.
77.What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly. This
statement epitomizes the doctrine of:a. Pith and substance.
b. Implied powers.
c. Ancillary powers
d. Colourable legislation.
78.Residuary powers are vested in:
a. executive
b. judiciary
c. parliament
d. state legislatures
79.Who said that the Supreme Court in India has the highest powers
which no other court in the world possess?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jawahar Lal Nehru
c. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
d. Alladi Krishna Swamy Iyyer
80.The Constitution of India is:a. Highly federal
c. Neither federal nor unitary
b. Highly unitary
d. Partly federal and partly unitary
81.Who amongst the following is not a public officer within the meaning
of Section 2 (17) of CPC.
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a. a Judge
b. a person in service under the pay of Government
c. sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat
d. all of the above
82.Give response to the statement Equality before law under Article 14 of
the Constitution is with reference to
a. laws enacted by legislature
b. orders passed by the executive
c. notifications issued by the Government only
d. laws enacted by legislature, executive order etc.
83.A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as
a. repudiation
b. rescission
c. alteration
d. none of the above
84.Indira Swahney V. Union of India is a case popularly known as:
a. Ayodhya judgment
b. Mandai judgment
c. Suicide judgment
d. Election Commission judgment
85.The Advisory opinion tendered by the Supreme Court:
a. is binding on the President
b. is not binding on the President
c. is binding on the President only if it is unanimously made
d. is not made public at all
86.Among the following States, which one sends the highest number of
members to Lok Sabha?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Bihar
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c. Kamataka
d. Madhya Pradesh
87.A contract, which is formed without the free consent of the parties, is
a. void ab initio
b. void
c. illegal
d. void ableat the instance of the party whose consent was not free.
88.Which of the following legal pleas need not be pleaded
a. estoppel
b. limitation
c. res-judicata
89.At present the Vice President of India is:a. Meera Kumari
b. Bhairon SinghShekhawat
c. Dr.KaranSingh
d. A.H.Ansari
90.The smallest military outfit is called a
a. Division
b. Brigade
c. Section
d. Platoon
91.Indias largest and most sophisticated indigenously built warship which
was commissioned in 1994-95 is:
a. INS Delhi
b. INS Mysore
c. INS Satpura
d. INS Kulish
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92.The Battle of Longewala took place in the year:
a. 1965
b. 1967
c. 1969
d. 1971
93.The National Anthem was first sung at this session of the Indian
National Congress in 1911:a. Pune
b. Calcutta
c. Lucknow
d. Ahmedabad
94.Goodwill of a partnership business is the property of the partnership
a. under Section14
b.under Section13
c. under Section12
d. underSection11
95.The State with the highest population density in India is:
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. West Bengal
c. Gujarat
d. Maharashtra
96.The Indian State with the highest female sex ratio is:
a. Punjab
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Maharashtra
d. Kerata
97.The first recipient of the Bharat Ratna after it was revived in 1980was:
a. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
b. Mother Teresa
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c. M.G.Ramachandran
d. V.V.Giri
98.Compulsory dissolution of a firm has been provided under
a. Section 39 of the Act
b. Section 41 of the Act
c. Section 40 of the Act
d. Section 44 of the Act
99.An act done by a partner on behalf of the firm beyond the implied
authority
a. can be ratified expressly
b. can be ratified impliedly by conduct
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
100.
After dismissal of a complaint under Section 203, a fresh similar
complaint on the same facts

a. is banned
b. is not banned but will be entertained only in exceptional
circumstances
c. is not banned and will be entertained in all circumstances
d. either (a) or (c)
101.
A new person can be introduced into a firm as a partner under
Section 31 of the Act by

a. unanimous consent of all the partners
b. majority consent amongst the partners
c. with the consent of the managing partner
102.
Complaint may relate to:
a. a cognizable offence
b. a non cognizable offence
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
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d. must be for a non-cognizable offence as the police has no power to
investigate such an offence.
103.
If the, person who is competent to compound offence is dead, the
compounding
a. cannot be done
b. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased without the
permission of the court
c. can be done by the legal representative of the deceased only with the
permission of the court.
d. both (b) & (c)
104.
In a bailable offence:
a. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer

b. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the court
c. no condition can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer
or by the court
d. only mild conditions can be imposed by the court only
105.
In case where an inquiry, trial or other proceedings have been
conducted in a wrong place:

a. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings shall be void ab initio
b. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings cannot be set aside as void
unless it has occasioned in failure of justice
c. the inquiry, trial or other proceedings, cannot be set aside even if it
has occasioned in failure of justice
106.
In computing the period of limitation the time during which
a. the accused avoided arrest by absconding has to be excluded

b. the accused remained absent from India has to be excluded
c. both (a) & (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
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107.
Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been stated in
a. Section 460 of Cr.P.C

b. Section 461 of Cr.P.C
c. Section 462 of Cr.P.C
d. Section 466 of Cr.P.C
108.
Objection as to the lack of territorial jurisdiction of the criminal
court:
a. can be taken before or at the time of commencement of trial
b. can be taken at any time after the commencement of trial
c. can be taken in appeal for the first time
d. all the above.
109.
Power to recall any witness(es) under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. can be
exercised:
a. even after the evidence of both the sides is closed
b. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed, but before the
evidence of defence is closed
c. before the evidence of the prosecution is closed, if the witness is to
be called on the motion of the prosecution
d. after the evidence of the prosecution is closed if the witness is called
on the motion of the defence
110.
Words competent jurisdiction under Section 39 of CPC refers to
a. pecuniary jurisdiction of transferee court

b. territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
c. pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction of the transferee court
111.
Section 428 Cr.P.C provides for concession to the effect that period
of detention undergone by accused be set off

a. against the substantive periodof imprisonment awarded;
b. against the periodof imprisonment in default of payment offine.
c. (a) & (b) above. .
d. none of the above.
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112.
Under Section 167 of Cr.P.C, the Magistrate can authorise detention
for a total period of 90 days during investigation, in cases of offences

punishable
a. with death
b. with imprisonment for life
c. with imprisonment for a term not less than 10 years
d. all the above
113.
Under Section 216 of Cr.P.C, the Court has the power to:
a. add to the charge(s) already framed

b. alter the charge(s) already framed
c. neither to alter nor to add to the charge already framed
d. add to and alter the charge both
114.
Under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC, an application for amendment of
pleadings can be allowed .

a. before the commencement of trial
b. after the commencement of trial
c. either before or after the commencement of trial
115.
Under .Section 315 of Cr.PC
a. an accused cannot be a witness

b. an accused can be compelled to give his own evidence generally
c. an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in
writing
d. either (a) or (b)
116.
Under Section 439 of Cr.PC, the jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests
with:
a. The Court of Sessions
b. The High Court
c. The Court of Magistrate
d. Only(a) &(b)
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117.
With reference to Crime response the following:
a. it is a state wrong
b. it is a civil wrong
c. it is a private wrong
118.
55. Actus reus includes:
a. positive (intentional doing) as well as negative (intentional non-doing.

ie. omission) acts.
b. only positive acts.
c. external (bodily) as well as internal (mind) acts
d. both (a) and (c)
119.
Section 34 of IPC
a. creates a substantive offence

b. is a rule of evidence
c. both (a) and (b)
120.
Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime.
Preparation is not punishable generally but attempt is. One basic

reason as to why preparation is not punishable is that there:
a. is no nexus between preparation and attempt.
b. can be chances of change of mind before commission of offence
c. is absence of intention.
d. is absence of attempt.
121.
Illegal signifies:
a. everything which is an offence

b. everything which is prohibited by law
c. everything which furnishes ground for civil action
d. all the above
122.
How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the
Indian Penal Code:
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a. three
b. six
c. five
d. four
123.
Second appeal under Section 100 of CPC lies
a. on question off acts

b. on substantial questions of law
c. on mixed question of law & fact
d. none ofthe above
124.
The maxim ignorantia juris non excusat means:
a. ignorance of law is no excuse

b. ignorance of fact is no excuse
c. ignorance of law is an excuse
d. ignorance of fact is an excuse
125.
Section 76 &Section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of
a. mistake of law
b. mistake of fact
c. both mistake of law and fact
d. either mistake of law or of fact
126.
A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the
court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of

a. Section 76 of IPC
b. Section 78 of IPC
c. Section 77 of IPC
d. Section 80 of IPC
127.
A, with the intention to kill, shoots aiming at B, instead c gets
killed. The principle for holding A liable is known as

a. The doctrine of intention
b. The doctrine of transferred malice
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c. The doctrine that no one can escape
d. None of these
128.
The right to private defence is based on the natural instinct of
a. self-preservation
b. self-respect
c. self-sufficiency
d. self-reliance
129.
Section 511 does not apply in the case of
a. attempt of riot
b. attempt of murder
c. attempt of theft
d. attempt of affray
130.
The essence of sedition is
a. intention
b. benefits or gains of the accused
c. result
d. both intention and result.
131.
A mental pain is
a. also covered under the offence of simple hurt.

b. not covered under the offence of simple hurt.
c. sometimes covered under the offence of simple hurt.
132.
Under Indian Penal Code, there can be abetment to
a. a person of unsound mind

b. an infant
c. both (a) & (b)
133.
In which of the following cases, the punishment must be simple
a. Refusing to take oath.
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b. Disobedience to an order duly promulgated by a public servant.
c. Wrongful restraint.
d. All of the above.
134.
Fight under Section 159 of IPC signifies
a. two opposite parties actively involved

b. two parties one of which is passive
c. two parties both of which are passive
135.
Misconduct in public by a drunken person is
a. public mischief.
b. annoyance
c. intentional insult
d. all of the above
136.
Which of the following is defamation:
a. X says, Y is an honest man, he never stole Zs watch, intending to

cause it to be believed that Y did steal Zs watch.
b. X is asked, who stole Zs watch? X points to Y.
c. X draws a picture of Y running away with Zs watch.
d. All of the above.
137.
Assault can be caused by
a. gestures
b. preparations
c. both (a) & (b)
138.
Trespass being made in a surreptitious manner (concealment) is
called
a. house-trespass
b. house-breaking
c. lurking house-trespass
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139.
The word takes in Section 361of IPC signifies
a. taking by force
b. taking by fraud
c. physical taking
d. all the above
140.
The expression harm is used in Section 81 of the Indian Penal
Code in the sense of

a. hurt
b. injury or damage
c. physical injury
d. moral wrong or evil
141.
Which one of the following is not a Public Servant:-
a. liquidator
b. a Civil Judge
c. member of a panchayat assisting a Court of Justice
d. secretary of a Co-operative Society
142.
The causing of death of child in the mothers womb is not homicide
under
a. indian law only
b.english law only
c. Both English and Indian law
d. neither in Indian law nor in English law
143.
The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of Indian Penal
Code is
a. that whereas in Section 34 there must at least be five persons,
Section 149 requires only two persons
b. that Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34
creates a specific offence and providesfor its punishment
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c. that Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas
Section 149 requires mere passive membership of the unlawful
assembly .
d. that Section 34 need not be joined with the principle
offence,whereas Section 149 must be combinedwith the principle
offence.
144.
A confession made by a person while in police custody is
inadmissible under:
a. Section 29 of Evidence Act
b. Section26 of Evidence Act
c. Section 25 of Evidence Act
d. Section 27 of Evidence Act
145.
A co-defendant in a case
a. cannot be cross-examined by another co-defendant under any

circumstance
b. can be cross-examined by another co-defendant if their interests are
identical
c. can be cross-examined by another co-defendant when their interests
adverse to each other
d. can be cross-examined by another co-defendant as a matter of right.
146.
A dying declaration
a. can form the sole basis of conviction withoutany corroboration by

independent evidence
b. can form the basis of conviction only on corroboration by
independent witness
c. can not form the sole basis of conviction unless corroborated by
independent witness
d. is not a substantive piece of evidence
147.
A husband or wife are permitted to disclose any communication
between them during marriage:

a. in civil proceedings between the parties
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b. in criminal proceedings between the parties
c. in matrimonial proceedings between the parties
d. all the above
148.
Admissions
a. are conclusive proof of the matters admitted

b. are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as
estoppel
c. are conclusive proof of the matter and also operate as estoppel
149.
Alibi is governed by
a. Section9 of Evidence Act

b. Section 12 of Evidence Act
c. Section 10 of Evidence Act
d. Section 11 of Evidence Act
150.
Burden of introducing evidence under Section 102 of Evidence Act
a. never shifts
b. occasionally shifts
c. constantly shifts
d. only(a) and not (b) or (c)
151.
Burden of proof is lightened by
a. presumption
b. admissions
c. estoppels
d. all of the above
152.
Contents of a document under Section 59 of Evidence Act
a. can be proved by oral evidence

b. cannot be proved by oral evidence
c. mayor may not be proved by oral evidence
d. can only be proved by oral evidence under the order of the court
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153.
Estoppel
a. is a cause of action in itself

b. creates a cause of action
c. both (a) & (b) are correct
d. neither (a) nor (b) is correct
154.
In criminal trials, the accused justification of an offence
a. beyond reasonable doubt

b. prima facie
c. substantially has to establish his plea mitigation or
d. partially
155.
Necessity rule as to the admissibility of evidence is applicable, when
the maker of a statement

a. is dead or has become incapable of giving evidence
b. is a person who can be found but his attendance cannot be procured
without unreasonable delay or expenses
c. is a person who cannot be found
d. all of the above
156.
Re-examination of a witness
a. can be for the purposes of filling what is left-over in examination-inchief

b. can be for the purposes of explaining the matters referred to in cross
examination.
c. can be for the purposes of explaining the matters referred to in the
examination-in-chief.
d. all the above
157.
Section 105 of Evidence Act applies to
a. criminal trials
b. civil trials
c. both (a) & (b)
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158.
Testimony of an accomplice before it is accepted &acted upon
a. must be corroborated from the testimony of another accomplice.

b. must be corroborated from an independent source
c. need not be corroborated at all
159.
The term character as explained in Section 55 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872, means

a. good and bad character
b. reputation and disposition of general nature
c. reputation formed on the basis of particular disposition
d. character in a criminal act
160.
Under the law of evidence, as a general rule
a. opinion on a matter of fact is relevant but not on a matter of law

b. opinion on a matter of law is relevant but not on a matter of fact
c. opinion on a matter of fact and law both are relevant
d. opinion whether on a matter of fact or law, is irrelevant
161.
A decision on issue of law
a. shall always operate as res-judicata

b. shall never operate as res-judicata
c. may or may not operate as res-judicata
162.
A defendant under Order V,Rule 1(1) of CPC is required to appear,
answer the claim and to file the written statement

a. within 90 days from the date of service of summons
b. within 60 days from the date of service of summons
c. within 30 days from the date of service of summons
d. within 15 days from the date of service of summons
163.
A party filing affidavit in reply to interrogatories
a. can be cross-examined upon it

b. the other party can adduce evidence to contradict it
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c. can neither cross-examine nor adduce any evidence to contradict it,
as it is a conclusive proof
164.
A person arrested & detained in civil imprisonment in execution of
a decree can be released

a. on payment of the outstanding amount
b. on the ground of illness of self
c. on the ground of illness of a member of his family
d. both (a) and (b)
165.
A plaint can be rejected
a. under Order8, Rule 10 of CPC

b. under Order8, Rule 10A of CPC
c. under Order7, Rule 11 of CPC
166.
A suit filed on behalf of a minor can be
a. withdrawn at any time as a matter of right

b. cannot be withdrawn
c. withdrawn only with the leave of the court
167.
A witness who has already been examined can be recalled under
Order 18, Rule 17 of CPC

a. by the party calling the witness
b. by the opposite party
c. by the court
168.
After dismissal of suit under Order 9, Rule 8 of CPC, a fresh suit on
the same cause of action, under Order 9 Rule 9 of CPC

a. is barred
b. is not barred under any circumstances
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c. is not barred subject to law of limitation
d. .none of the above
169.
An executing court can go behind the decree where
a. the decree has been passed without jurisdiction-pecuniary,

territorial. or subject-matter.
b. the decree is a nullity having been passed against a dead person
Without bringing his legal representatives on the record.
c. where the decree is ambiguous.
170.
Compromise under Order XXIII, Rule 3 of CPC
a. must be in writing and signed by the parties .

b. must be in writing but need not be signed by the parties
c. must be in writing but need not be lawful
d. None of the above
171.
For the application of the principle res-subjudice, which of the
following is essential
a. suits between the same parties or litigating under the same title
b. the two suits must be pending disposal in a court
c. the matters in issue in the two suits must be directly and
substantially the same
172.
If a document, which ought to be produced in the court along with
the pleadings, is not produced, under Order VII, Rule 14(3) of CPC at
the hearing of the suit
a. the same shall not be received in evidence on behalf of the plaintiff
b. the same shall not be received in evidence on behalf of the
defendant.
c. the same shall not be received in evidence on behalf of third party
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173.
Inherent powers under Section 151 of CPC are
a. discretionary in nature
b. in addition to the power conferred under the other provision of the
Code
c. both (a) & (b)
174.
Legal representative under Section 2(11) of CPC means a person
who is a
a. Relative of parties to the suit
b. co-sharer of the benefits assuming to the parties to the suit
c. who in law represents the estate of the deceased
175.
Lodging of caveat under Section 148-A of CPC
a. entitles the caveator to receive notice of the application

b. makes the caveator a party to the suit
c. both (a) & (b)
176.
On default in filing of written statement under Order 8, Rule 10 of
CPC, pronouncement of judgment

a. is mandatory
b. discretionary
c. directory
177.
Parties by their consent/ agreement
a. can confer jurisdiction on a court, where there is none in law

b. can oust the jurisdiction of the court where there is one in law
c. can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are two
courts simultaneously having jurisdiction in law.
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178.
Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are
a. directory
b. mandatory
c. discretionary
179.
Provisions of Section 80 of CPC are binding on
a. the court of a Civil Judge

b. the court of District Judge
c. the High Court
d. all of the above
180.
Review is maintainable
a. when an appeal is provided, but no appeal preferred

b. when no appeal is provided
c. both (a) & (b)
181.
To invoke international commercial arbitration it is necessary that
at least one of the parties is

a. A body corporate which is incorporated in any country other
than india
b. Government of the foreign country
c. An individual who is a national of, or habitually resident of any
country other than india
d. All of the above
182.
an arbitral award mus
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Answers:
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. B
10.C
11.B
12.A
13.C
14.A
15.A
16.D
17.A
18.B
19.D
20.D
21.C
22.C
25.B
26.C
27.C
28.B
29.A
30.A
31.B
32.D
33.D
34.C
35.A
36.A
37.B
38.B
39.B
40.A
41.C
42.D
43.C
44.D
45.D
46.B
49.B
50.D
51.B
52.D
53.A
54.A
55.A
56.D
57.B
58.D
59.C
60.A
61.B
62.C
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23.D
24.D
47.C
48.A
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An institute of Law

B-1 Basement, Progressive Chambers, D Block Central Market Prashant

TEST BOOKLET SERIES:

1. Which is the correct meaning of word embargo?

After dismissal of a complaint under Section 203, a fresh similar

complaint on the same facts

A new person can be introduced into a firm as a partner under

Section 31 of the Act by

Complaint may relate to:

If the, person who is competent to compound offence is dead, the

a. conditions can be imposed while granting bail by the police officer

In case where an inquiry, trial or other proceedings have been

conducted in a wrong place:

In computing the period of limitation the time during which

a. the accused avoided arrest by absconding has to be excluded

Irregularities which do not vitiate trial have been stated in

a. Section 460 of Cr.P.C

Objection as to the lack of territorial jurisdiction of the criminal

Power to recall any witness(es) under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. can be

Words competent jurisdiction under Section 39 of CPC refers to

a. pecuniary jurisdiction of transferee court

of detention undergone by accused be set off

Under Section 167 of Cr.P.C, the Magistrate can authorise detention

for a total period of 90 days during investigation, in cases of offences

a. add to the charge(s) already framed

Under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC, an application for amendment of

pleadings can be allowed .

Under .Section 315 of Cr.PC

a. an accused cannot be a witness

With reference to Crime response the following:

55. Actus reus includes:

a. positive (intentional doing) as well as negative (intentional non-doing.

a. creates a substantive offence

Preparation and attempt are two stages of commission of crime.

Preparation is not punishable generally but attempt is. One basic

a. everything which is an offence

How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the

Indian Penal Code:

Second appeal under Section 100 of CPC lies

a. on question off acts

The maxim ignorantia juris non excusat means:

a. ignorance of law is no excuse

Section 76 &Section 79 of IPC provide the general exception of

A hangman who hangs the prisoners pursuant to the order of the

court is exempt from criminal liability by virtue of

A, with the intention to kill, shoots aiming at B, instead c gets

killed. The principle for holding A liable is known as

The right to private defence is based on the natural instinct of

Section 511 does not apply in the case of

The essence of sedition is

a. also covered under the offence of simple hurt.

Under Indian Penal Code, there can be abetment to

a. a person of unsound mind

In which of the following cases, the punishment must be simple

a. Refusing to take oath.

Fight under Section 159 of IPC signifies

a. two opposite parties actively involved

Misconduct in public by a drunken person is

Which of the following is defamation:

a. X says, Y is an honest man, he never stole Zs watch, intending to

Assault can be caused by

Trespass being made in a surreptitious manner (concealment) is

The word takes in Section 361of IPC signifies

The expression harm is used in Section 81 of the Indian Penal