PHARMACOLOGY

Basic & Clinical Pharmacology by Katzung 8th Edition)

1.

This measure relates the dose of the drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an
undesired effect. (p. 8)
A. therapeutic index*** B. Idiosyncratic effect C. Tolerance
D. Potency

2.

This is the fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following administration by any
route:(p. 41)
A. Absorption
B. First Pass Effect C. Bioavailability***
D. Bioequivalence

3.

In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is studied in patients with the target disease to determine
its efficacy. (p. 72)
A. Phase 1
B. phase 2***
C. phase 3
D. phase 4

4.

In this clinical phase of drug development, the drug is studied in patients with the target disease to determine
its efficacy. (p. 72)
A. Phase 1
B. phase 2***
C. phase 3
D. phase 4

5.

This is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA aminotransferase and is useful in the treatment of partial seizures and
WEST syndrome: (p. 404)
A. vigabatrin ****
C. lamotrigine
B. tiagabine
D. gabapentin

6.

Action of Insulin in the liver: (p. 717)

A, increase storage of glucose as glycogen**
B. increase glycogenolysis
C.Increase ketogenesis
D.increase gluconeogenesis

7.

Most common adverse effect of insulin: (p. 721)

A. hypoglycemia
C. lipodystrophy
B. allergy
D. bleeding

8.

Effect of digitalis in the AV node during arrythmias: (p. 207)

A. prolonged PR interval
B. AV blockade C. bradycardia D. prolonged QT interval

9.

Immediate metabolic precursor of dopamine that penetrates the blood-brain barrier: (p.464)
A. carbidopa
B. levodopa
C. selegiline
D. ropinorole

10. The following are true of phenoxybenzamine: (p. 141)

A. causes reversible blockade of alpha receptors
B. blocks catecholamine-induced vasoconstriction
C. significantly reduces blood pressure in supine individuals
D. stimulates histamine (H1) acetylcholine and serotonin receptors
11. Antiarrhythmic drugs that prolong effective refractory period by prolonging action potential duration: (p. 239)
A. Bepridil
B. Bretylium
C. Esmolol
D. Lidocaine
12. Antiarrhytmic of choice for suppression of recurrences of ventricular tachycardia & fibrillation after
termination of the arrhythmia by cardioversion: (p. 240)
A. Adenosine
B. Esmolol
C. Lidocaine
D. Procainamide
13. The most serious toxic reaction to local anesthetics is: (p. 441)
A. circumoral numbness
C. nystagmus
B. metabolic acidosis
D. tonic-clonic convulsions
14. Lithiums most common side effect/s (p. 491)
A.polyuria and subclinical hypothyrodism*** C.polyuria and polydipsia
B.polydipsia and subclinical hypothyroidism D. Polyuria and polyphagia
15. Most important unwanted effect of anti-psychotics secondary to relative choline deficiency.(p. 488)
A. Akathisia
C. Tardive dyskinesia****
B. Parkinsonian syndrome
D. Perioral rabbit syndrome
16. Blocks norepinephrine & serotonin reuptake pumps-the the off switches of amine transmission (p. 503)
A. MAO inhibitors B. tricyclics*** C. SSRI D. heterocyclics

17. Drug interaction of older MAO inhibitor with tyramine ingested in food:(p. 505)
A. depression
B. Hypertensive reactions***
C. hypotension D. mania
18. The following are sites of the major classes of anti-hypertensive drugs, except:(p.158 )
A. Sympathetic nerve terminals
B. -receptors of juxtaglomerular cells that release rennin
C. Hypothalamus
D. Vasomotor center
19. The following statements regarding selection of anti-hypertensive drugs are correct, except: (p. 179)
A. ACE inhibitors are particularly useful in diabetic patients with evidence of renal disease.
B. White race responds better to diuretics and calcium channel blockers than to -blockers and ACE
inhibitors.
C. Beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers are useful in patients who have angina.
D. Diuretics or ACE inhibitors are useful who also have CHF
20. The following are the determinants of vascular tone, except:(p. 182)
a.Increasing cGMP
b.Increasing cAMP in the vascular cells
c.Decreasing intracellular calcium
d.Stabilizing or preventing depolarization of the vascular smooth muscle cell membrane
21. The following are the pharmacodynamics of nitroglycerine, except: (p. 184-185)
A. Smooth muscle relaxation
B. Decreased ventricular preload
C. Responsible for a decrease in platelet aggregation
D. Increased cardiac output
22. The following are the pharmacodynamics of NSAIDs, except: (p. 598-599)
A. Mediated chiefly through inhibition of biosynthesis of prostaglandins
B. All NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation
C. All NSAIDs are anagesic, anti-inflammatory and antipyretic
D. They are all gastric irritants as well
23. The following are disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs, except: (p. 608)
a. Methotrexate
b. Cyclosporins
c. Corticosteroids
d. Azathioprine

24. This agent inhibits cell wall synthesis by binding firmly to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus of nascent
peptidoglycan pentapeptide. It inhibits the transglycosylase, preventing further elongation of
peptidoglycan and cross-linking. ( p. 768 )
A. Cycloserine
B. Vancomycin C. Teicoplanin
D. Bacitracin
25. This agent is a potent inhibitor of microbial protein synthesis. It binds reversibly to the 50 S subunit of the
bacterial ribosome and inhibits peptidyl transferase step of protein synthesis. This agent is active against
rickettsiae but not chlamydiae: ( p. 774)
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Chlortetracycline
C. Amikacin
D. Penicillins
26. These agents readily bound to calcium deposited in newly formed bone or teeth in young children. When
drug is given during pregnancy, it can be deposited in the fetal teeth, leading to fluorescence,
discoloration, and enamel dysplasia: ( p. 778 )
A. Azithromycin
B. Linezolid
C. Tetracyclines
D. Aminoglycosides
27. This drug is split by intestinal microflora to yiels sulfapyridine and 5 aminosalicylate and is widely used in
ulcerative colitis, enteritis and other inflammatory bowel diseases. (p. 794-795)
A. Sulfadoxine B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Sulfadiazine
28. Blocks the conversion of cholesterol to pregnanolone and causes reduction in the synthesis of all
hormonally active steroids; used in pts. with breast Ca (page 674)
A. metyrapone B. trilostane C. aminoglutethimide D. spirinolactone

29. A glucocoorticoid antagonist that is an antifungal imidazole derivative, that is potent and rather
nonselective inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis: (page 674)
A. aminogluthetimide B. ketoconazole C. trilostane D. mitotane
30. The most widely used mineralocorticoid, with both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid activity: (page
672)
A. aldosterone
B. deoxycortisone
C. fludrocortisone
D. cortisone
31. Act as a partial agonist at estrogen receptors in the pituitary, to treat infertility in women by stimulating
ovulation: (page 699)
A. tamoxifen
B. clomiphene C. danazol D. mifepristone
32. An antiandrogen that prevents synthesis of dihydrotestosterone by inhibiting the activity of 5-
reductase: (page 705)
A. spirinolactone B. cyproterone C. finasteride D. flutamide
33. Effects of progesterone: (page 690)
A. increase basal insulin levels
C. promotes breast development
B. promotes blood coaguability
D. affects protein metabolism
34. Mazzoti reaction, as an adverse effect is seen with the use of this agent, characterized as eosinophilia,
rashes due to the release of foreign particles from the dying microfilariae: : (page 908)
A. niclosamide B. diethylcarbamazine C. piperazine D. chloroquine
35. A depolarizing muscular blocking agent used as an alternative to mebendazole in the treatment of
ascariasis and enterobiasis: (page 917)
A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C. praziquantel D. primaquine
36. Kills dormant liver forms in malaria: (page 889)
A. piperazine citrate B. pyrantel pamoate C. praziquantel D. primaquine
37. The drug that could accelerate antithrombin activity resulting to blockade of the coagulation cascade at
the at the thrombin level, thus preventing the formation of a clot is: (p. 567)
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin ans
C. Coumarin
D. Plasmin
38. This is an antiplatelet drug whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of thromboxane synthesis, thus
consequently, prevention of platelet aggregation & thrombus formation: (p. 574)
A. Clopidogel
B. Ticlopidine
C. Aspirin ans
D. Dipyridamole
39. Among the thioamide antithyroid drug, which one is preferred for pregnant women because it crosses the
placental barrier less readily thus will not affect the fetus?( p. 651)
A. Methimazole
B. Carbimazole
C. Propylthiouracil ans
D. Ipodate
40. Which beta blocker is most widely used to control the symptom of hyperthyroidism? (p. 653)
A. Propranolol ans
B. Metoprolol
C. Labetalol
D. Guanithidine
41. Drugs that competitively inhibit CYP enzymes cause
a. Decrease in concentration of the object drug
b. Increase in concentration of object drug
c. Decrease efficacy of object drug
d. Irreversible inactivation of the enzyme
42. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepines is explained by:
a. Substitution for GABA
b. Direct activation of GABA receptors
c. Increase duration of GABA gated chloride channel opening
d. Increase frequency of GABA gated chloride channel opening

43. The use of benzodiazepines in the chronic treatment of seizures is limited because of their
a. high toxicity effects
c. tolerance
b. slow absorption
d. low therapeutic index
44. Which should be observed to minimize adverse effects of sedative hypnotics?
a. Always give a very low dose.
b. Doses should be given at daytime.
c. Combine two drugs with different toxicities
d. Efficacy of therapy is based on patients subjective response
45. A 50 y/o male coca cola executive was using fluoxetine for depression but decided to stop taking the drug
for it affects his sexual performance and even said he is getting older. He is also a tobacco user. What
is the next best drug to use?
a. Bupropion
c. citalopram
b. Sertraline
d venlafaxine

46. A fly catching movement of the tongue commonly observed as a drawback of all typical antipsychotics is
called
a. lead pipe rigidity
c. tardive dyskinesia
b. rabbit syndrome
d. akathisia
47. The most hepatotoxic general inhalational anesthetic
a. Nitrous oxide
c. isoflurane
b. Sevoflurane
d. halothane
48. A 55 year old female has post-menopausal osteoporosis. Which is not a recommended drug?
a. Estrogen
c. Biphosphonate
b. Calcium
d. Calcitonin
49. Corticosteroid with most potent anti-inflammatory activity:
a. Prednisone
c. Betamethasone
b. Dexamethasone
d. Cortisone
50. Drug of choice (DOC) for endometriosis in young women
a. danazol
c. mifepristone
b. leuprolide
d. misoprostol
51. The effect of diethylstilbestrol intake taken during pregnancy on female infants:
a. vaginal adenocarcinoma
c. cervical polyp
b. endometrial carcinoma
d. breast fibroadenoma
52. The most common adverse effect of clomiphene is
a. hot flushes
c. constipation
b. hair loss
d. headache
53. A 65 year old married man was found to have greatly enlarged prostate. Which one of the following
drug is MOST likely to suppress prostatic growth without affecting libido?
a. Spironolactone
c. Ketoconazole
b. Finasteride
d. Flutamide
54. Testosterone therapy may be indicated for the treatment of erectile dysfunction in which of the following
situation?
a. Aged patient
c. Alcoholism
b. Hypogonadism
d. Depression
55. Major mechanism of action of aspirin as NSAID is
a. Reversible COX inhibitor
c. Irreversible PG biosynthesis inhibition
b. Chemotaxis inhibition
d. Down regulation of IL-1
56. Which of the following is the drug of choice for inducing labor
a. Oxytocin
c. Methyl ergonovine
b. Misoprostol
d. Dinoprostone
57. The primary consideration in all clinical trials is to
a. Determine the safety of the drug
b. Determine the efficacy of the drug
c. Ensure that there is no risk to the subject

d. Provide for the welfare of the subject

58. According to the Philippine National Drug Formulary (PNDF), complementary drugs are:
A. those drugs italicized in the guide
B. drugs that satisfy the health care needs of majority of population
C. drugs with special pharmacological properties
D. not to be used as an alternative to core drugs
Ans. C.
Philippine National Drug Formulary, 2000 edition, p. 109.
Essential Drugs Concept
59. Which of the following is considered a regulated drug?
A. pseudoephedrine
C. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
B. meperidine
D. cocaine
Ans. A.
Dangerous Drug Board Info Republic Act 6425
Dangerous Drugs
60. Differences in the rate of acetylation of isoniazid among groups of individuals exemplifies.
A. pharmacodynamics
C. pharmacogenetics
B. posology
D. biochemorphology
Ans. C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 2 and 5.
Pharmacogenetics
61. Absorption of most orally administered drugs occurs in the small intestine. This may be enhanced by:
A. taking agents that accelerate gastric emptying time
B. the presence of food
C. stimulation of hepatic microsomal CYP3A4 enzymes
D. increasing intestinal motility
Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 41, 42, 53, and 56.
Pharmacokinetics
62. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptors are categorized as to which type?
A. G protein coupled
C. kinase-linked
B. ion channel-linked
D. nuclear
Ans. B
Katzung, 9th edition pp. 18-23
Pharmacodynamics
63. If a drug has a high distribution volume, it indicates:
A. it is highly bound to plasma proteins
B. the drug is highly retained in the vascular compartment
C. the plasma drug concentration will increase
D. there is extensive tissue uptake
Ans. D.
Katzung, pp. 35 and 47.
Pharmacokinetics
64. The index of safety of a drug decreases as the median toxic dose :
A. decreases and the median effective dose increases
B. increases and the median effective dose decreases
C. and the median effective dose decrease
D. and the median effective dose increase
Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 30.
Pharmacodynamics
65. What is the major second messenger of beta receptor activation that participates in signal transduction?
A. inositol triphosphates
C. calcium
B. cAMP
D. adenylyl cyclase

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 25-27.
Pharmacodynamics
66. In what condition are the drugs phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine useful?
A. pheochromocytoma
C. essential hypertension
B. migraine attacks
D. benign prostatic hyperplasia
Ans. A.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 144-146.
Adrenergic Receptor Blockers
67. Acetylcholine acts by:
A. increasing adenylyl cyclase activity
B. decreasing cGMP concentrations
C. activating the IP3, diacylglycerol pathway
D. all of the above
Ans. C
Katzung, 9th edition, p.97
Cholinergic Agonists
68. Which of the following antihypertensive agents has the best documented evidence for prophylaxis against
migraine attacks?
A. pindolol
C. clonidine
B. propranolol
D. prazosin
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 148 and 156
Adrenoceptor Antagonists
69. Which is a direct effect of nitrates when given in the usual doses for the management of angina?
A. increased preload
C. increased cardiac contractility
B. increased afterload
D. smooth muscle relaxation
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 190.
Vasodilators / CVS Drugs

70. A college friend consults you regarding the suitability of the therapy his doctor has prescribed for severe
hypertension. He complains of postural and exercise hypotension ("dizziness"), some diarrhea, and
problems with ejaculation during sex. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that
your friend has described?
A. propranolol
C. hydralazine
B. guanethidine
D. captopril
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 166.
Antihypertensive / CVS Drugs
71. The most important pharmacologic action of digitalis in the treatment of heart failure is its ability to:
A. reduce venous pressure
C. produce diuresis in edematous patients
B. increase heart rate
D. increase myocardial contractile force
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 205.
Cardiac Glycosides / CVS Drugs
72. Side effects of oxytocin use in a woman in labor includes the following, EXCEPT:
A. increase in BP
C. fetal death
B. uterine rupture
D. diuresis
Ans. D.
Katzung 9th edition, p. 621
Hormones and Pituitary glands / Drugs used for Endocrine Disorders
73. An antithyroid drug which may be given to reduce the vascularity of the thyroid gland prior to
thyroidectomy:

A. RAI
B. PTU

C. methimazole
D. Lugol's iodine

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 633
Thyroid & Antithyroid Drugs / Drugs used for Endocrine Disorders
74. Drugs that decrease bone resorption include the following, EXCEPT:
A. calcitonin
C. alendronate
B. estrogen
D. fluoride
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 719
Agents that affects bone mineral homeostasis
75. Which drug is used as an antiretroviral agent?
A. oseltamivir
C. indinavir
B. famciclovir
D. ribavirin
Ans. C.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 820
Anti-viral Agents
76. Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by the binding of a beta lactam antimicrobial with penicillinbinding proteins (PBPs)?
A. beta-lactamase
C. peptidyl tranferase
B. transpeptidase
D. acetylase
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 734-735 and 764.
Beta-lactams / Antimicrobials
77. A poor farm helper from Palawan was diagnosed to have falciparum malaria by blood smear. The safe,
cost-effective, and readily available agent to prescribe if this farmer has an allergy to sulfonamides is:
A. Fansidar
C. chloroquine
B. quinine
D. mefloquine
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 869
Anti-malarial Drugs / Antiprotozoals
78. Radical cure for malaria is achieved by giving:
A. chloroquine
C. mefloquine
B. quinine
D. primaquine
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p.871
Anti-malarial Drug
79. There is a sudden increase of atypical pneumonia secondary to Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, and Rickettsia in
the Pneumonia Ward of a tertiary hospital. Majority of patients were treated with doxycycline. All of the
following ADRs are to be watched out for in these patients EXCEPT:
A. photosensitivity
C. superinfection
B. fetal bone defects
D. renal failure
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 758
Tetracyclines / Antimicrobials
80. Which of the following agents may predispose to the development of
A. erythromycin
C. vancomycin
B. metronidazole
D. clidamycin

pseudomembranous colitis?

Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 761
Antimicrobials
81. A patient with persistent chronic cough and fever had no response to adequate doses of oral penicillin.
The PE showed normal chest findings. Further PE showed bullous myringitis. A chest Xray showed
infiltrates in the right lower lobe. Which of the following antimicrobials would be effective?

A. parenteral penicillin G
B. chlarithromycin

C. vancomycin
D. gentamicin

Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 760
Macrolides / Antimicrobials
82. A 4 year old boy that has diarrhea and malnutrition was noted to have a mixed parasitic infection of
Ascaris, Capillaria philippinensis, and Trichiuris trichiura. The single agent that could be effective for this
patient is:
A. pyrantel pamoate
C. diethylcarbamazine
B. mebendazole
D. niclosamide
Ans. B.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 889-895. Harrison, 15th edtition, p. 1249.
Anti-helmintic Drugs
83. Activated charcoal may be used to treat poisoning due to the following EXCEPT:
A. primaquine
C. propoxyphene
B. aspirin
D. iron overdose
Ans. D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 989
Management of Poisoned Patient
84. This herbal plant endorsed by the DOH is useful for the relief of muscle pain:
A. Yerba Buena
C. Tsaang gubat
B. Akapulko
D. Sambong
Ans. A.
DOH Manuals.
Herbal Medicines
85. On regular follow-up for tuberculosis, you noticed that the visual acuity of Vilma worsened from 20/20 to
20/50 in both eyes after only three weeks of HRPE. Your approach in management would be to
discontinue:
A. all of the 4 drugs and reintroduce one drug at a time
B. ethambutol and refer to an ophthalmologist
C. pyrazinamide and refer to an ophthalmologist
D. ethambutol, reintroduce it after 1 week, and refer to an ophthalmologist
Ans. .
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 786.
Anti-tuberculosis Drugs
86. Phenytoin is administered intravenously for acute management of seizure, but when given at a rapid
rated can cause
A. generalized seizure
C. cardiac arrhythmia
B. gingival hyperplasia
D. gastrointestinal disturbances
Answer C.
Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition, p. 530.
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs
87. Which anticonvulsant is safe in pregnancy?
A. hydantoin
C. valproic acid
B. trimethadione
D. none of the above
Answer D.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 398.
Anti-epileptic drugs / CNS Drugs
88. Which of the following is a common mechanism of action shared by all NSAIDs?
A. inhibition of arachidonate release from the plasma membrane by ihibiting
phospholipase
B. Inhibition of histamine release by inhibiting mast cell degranulation
C. Inhibition of the production of prostaglandin and thromboxane from arachidonic acid through
inhibition of prostaglandin H synthesis
D. Inhibition of the the formation of leukotrienes by inhibiting lipoxygenase

Answer: C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 263, 306, 577, and 581
Agents which controls prostaglandin effect / CNS Drugs
89. The primary reason why aspirin has been displaced by NSAIDs as first choice drug of pediatric
rheumatologists is because:
A. poor inflammatory effect and gastric irritation
B. poor inflammatory effect and Reyes syndrome
C. lack of liquid preparation and high toxicity effect
D. need for frequent administration and association with Reyes syndrome
Answer D.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 579-581. Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition, p. 698.
Agents which control prostaglandin effect / CNS Drugs
90. The intravenous anesthetic producing the so-called "dissociative anesthesia" is:
A. fentanyl
C. ketamine
B. thiopental
D. propofol
Answer: C.
Katzung, 9th edition, pp. 413-414. Goodman and Gilman, 10th edition,
pp. 346-347.
General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs
91. Your patient requests you to give her a sedative-hypnotic that not will not only calm her down or put her
to sleep but will make her forget the whole operating room experience as well. To facilitate this request
your drug regimen should include:
A. midazolam
C. phenobarbital
B. succinylcholine
D. etomidate
Answer: A.
Katzung, 9th edition, p. 413-415.
General Anesthetic / CNS Drugs
B

92.

The process by which the amount of drug in the body is reduced after
administration but before entering the systemic circulation is called
A. Excretion
B. First-pass Effect
C. Metabolism
D. First-order elimination
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C
93. Which of the following terms best describes an antagonist that interacts directly
the antagonist and not at all, or only incidentally, with the receptor?
A. Pharmacologic antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Chemical antagonist
D. Physiologic antagonist
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with

B 94.
A child has swallowed the contents of 2 bottles of a nasal decongestant whose
primary ingredient is a potent, selective adrenoceptor agonist drug. The signs
of alpha activation that may occur in this patient include
A. Bronchodilation
B. Cardioacceleration (tachycardia)
C. Vasodilation
D. Pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
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A 95.
Ms. Green has severe hypertension and is to receive minoxidil. Minoxidil is a
powerful arteriolar vasodilator that does not act on autonomic receptors. When
used in severe hypertension, its effects would probably include
A. Tachycardia and increased cardiac contractility
B. Tachycardia and decreased cardiac output
C. Decreased mean arterial pressure and decreased cardiac contractility

D. Decreased mean arterial pressure and increased salt and water

excretion by the kidney
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B 96.
Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to
be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxin. The effects of botulinum
toxin are likely to include
A. Bronchospasm
B. Cycloplegia
C. Diarrhea
D. Skeletal muscle spasms
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D 97.

Parathion has which one of the following characteristics?

A. It is less toxic to humans than malathion
B. It is more persistent in the environment than DDT
C. It is poorly absorbed through skin and lungs
D. Its toxicity, if treated early, may be partly reversed by pralidoxime
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B 98.
Ms. Brown has had myasthenia gravis for several years. She reports to the
emergency department complaining of rapid onset of weakness of her hands,
diplopia, and difficulty swallowing. She may be suffering from a change in
response to her myasthenia therapy, ie, a cholinergic or a myasthenic crisis.
The best drug for distinguishing between myasthenic crisis (insufficient therapy)
and cholinergic crisis (excessive therapy) is
A. Atropine
B. Edrophonium
C. Physostigmine
D. Pralidoxime
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D 99.
A 30-year-old man has been treated with several autonomic drugs for 4
weeks.
He is now admitted to the emergency department showing signs of drug toxicity.
Which of the following signs would distinguish between an overdose of a ganglion blocker versus
a muscarinic blocker?
A. Blurred vision
B. Dry mouth, constipation
C. Physostigmine
D. Postural hypotension
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B 100.
Dilation of vessels in muscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive
inotropic and chronotropic effects on the heart are all actions of
A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine
C. Isoproterenol
D. Metaproterenol
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A 101.
Adverse effects that limit the use of adrenoceptor blockers include
Heart failure exacerbation from -blockers
A. Impaired blood sugar response with -blockers
B. Increased intraocular pressure with -blockers
C. Sleep disturbances from -blocking drugs
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102. Which of the following binds covalently to the site specified?

A. Atenolol - receptor
B. Carvedilol cardiac receptors
C. Phenoxybenzamine- receptor
D. Pindolol - receptors

10

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B 103
Which one of the following is characteristics of enalapril treatment in patients
with essential hypertension?
A. Competitively blocks angiotensin II at its receptor
B. Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood
C. Decreases renin concentration in the blood
D. Increases sodium and decreases potassium in the blood
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A 104
A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough.
He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different
antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is
A. Captopril
B. Losartan
C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
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B 105.

Verapamil is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Increased PR interval
D. Pretibial edema
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A 106.
The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the
following?
A. Block of exercise-induced tachycardia
B. Decreased end-diastolic ventricular volume
C. Dilation of constricted coronary vessels
D. Increased cardiac force
MPL: 0.5
Page 195

B
107. A patient is admitted to the emergency department following a drug overdose. He is noted to
have a severe tachycardia. He has been receiving therapy for hypertension and angina. A drug that often
causes tachycardia is
A. Diltiazem
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Propranolol
D. Verapamil
MPL: 0.33
Page 185
B 108.
Drugs that have been found to be useful in one or more types of heart failure
include all of the following, EXCEPT
A. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibitors
B. Alpha-adrenoceptors agonist
C. Beta-adrenoceptors antagonists
D. ACE inhibitors
MPL: 1.0
Page 127
D 109.

The mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with

A. A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. An increase in ATP synthesis
C. A modification of the acting molecule
D. An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels
MPL: 0.33
Page 205

B 110.
A patient with long-standing diabetic renal disease and hyperkalemia and
recent-onset heart failure requires a diuretic. Which of the following agents

11

would be LEAST harmful in a patient with severe hyperkalemia? (pp.256)

A. Amiloride
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Spironolactone
D. Triamterene
MPL: 1.0
Page 256
B

111. Inflammation is a complex tissue reaction that includes the release of cytokines, leukotrienes,
prostaglandins, and peptides. Prostaglandins involved in inflammatory processes are produced from
arachidonic acid by
A. Cyclooxygenase -1
B. Cyclooxygenase-2
C. Lipoxygenase
D. Phospholipase A2
MPL: 0.5
Page 312

B 112.

Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity?

A. Administration of captopril
B. Adminstration of quinidine
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hyperkalemia
MPL: 0.33
Page 230

A 113.
Successful therapy of heart failure with digoxin will result in which one of
the following?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased afterload
C. Increased aldosterone
D. Increased renin secretion
MPL: 1.0
Page 206
D 114.

When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, lidocaine typically

A. increases action potential duration
B. Increases contractility
C. Increases PR interval
D. Reduces abnormal automaticity
MPL: 0.25
Page 235

D 115.

Which of the following is a recognized effect of nitric oxide (NO)?

A. Arrhythmia
B. Bronchoconstriction
C. Constipation
D. Pulmonary vasodilation
MPL: 1.0
Page 329

C 116.
One effect that theophylline, nitroglycerin, isoproterenol, and histamine have
in common is
A. Increased gastric acid secretion
B. Direct stimulation of cardiac contractile force
C. Tachycardia
D. Postural hypotension
MPL: 0.25
Page 1023
B 117.

Nedocromil has as its major action

A. Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes
B. Block of mediator release from mast cells
C. Block of phosphodiesterase in mast cells and basophils
D. Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi
MPL: 0.5
Page 337

12

C 118
You are on your way to take an examination and you suddenly get an attack of
diarrhea. If you stop at a nearby drugstore for an over-the-counter opioid with
antidiarrheal action, you will be asking for
A. Codeine
B. Dextromethorphan
C. Loperamide
D. Diphenoxylate
MPL: 1.0
Page 527
C

119.

D
120.
accurate?

Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin is brought about by

A. Aminocaproic acid
B. Heparin
C. Reteplase
D. Warfarin
MPL: 0.2
Page 572
Which of the following pairs of a drug effect and mechanism of action is
A. Allopurinol action in gout: inhibits reuptake of uric acid from renal tubular fluid
B. Etanercept antirheumatic action: inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, the
enzyme in lymphocytes that is required for pyrimidine synthesis
C. Hydroxychloroquine antirheumatic action: a cytotoxic drug that kills rapidly
dividing lymphocytes
D. Indomethacin closure of patent ductus arteriosus: blocks prostaglandin E
production in the ductus arteriosis of the newborn
MPL: 0.4
Page 605

B 121.
A 52-year-old woman presented with intense pain, warmth, and redness in the
first toe on her left foot. Examination of fluid withdrawn from the
inflamed joint
revealed crystals of uric acid. In the treatment of this womans acute attack of
gout, the advantage of using indomethacin instead of colchicines is that indomethacin is
A. Less likely to cause acute renal failure
B. Less likely to cause severe diarrhea
C. Less likely to precipitate sudden gastrointestinal bleeding
D. More likely to prevent another acute attack
MPL: 0.6
Page 605
A 122.
A 27-year-old woman with amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea was
treated with a drug that successfully restored ovulation and menstruation.
Before being given the drug, the woman was carefully questioned about
previous mental health problems, which she did not have. She was advised
to take the drug orally. The drug used to treat this patient was probably
A. Bromocriptine
B. Desmopressin
C. Leuprolide
D. Human gonadotropin hormone
MPL: 0.5
Page 468
D 123.

Methimazole reduces serum concentration of T3 primarily by

A. Accelerating the peripheral metabolism of T3
B. Inhibiting the proteolysis of thyroid-binding globulin
C. Inhibiting the secretion of TSH
D. Preventing the addition of iodine to tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin
MPL: 0.6
Page 651

C 124.

Pharmacologic effects of exogenous glucocorticoids include

A. Increased muscle mass
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis
D. Improved wound healing
MPL: 0.33
Page 665

13

D 125.

Toxic effects of long-term administration of a glucocorticoid include

A. A lupus-like syndrome
B. Adrenal gland neoplasm
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Osteoporosis
MPL: 0.33
Page 670

D 126.
For patients who have been on long-term therapy with a glucocorticoid and
who now wish to discontinue the drug, gradual tapering of the glucocorticoid
is needed to allow recovery of
A. Depressed release of insulin from pancreatic B cells
B. Hematopoiesis in the bone marrow
C. Normal osteoblast function
D. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal system
MPL: 0.6
Page 671
B 127.

The estrogen that is used in most combined hormonal contraceptives is

A. Clomiphene
B. Ethinyl estradiol
C. DES
D. Norgestrel
MPL: 1.0
Page 682

B 128.

The most likely complication of insulin therapy in this patient is

A. Dilutional hyponatremia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Pancreatitis
D. Severe hypertension
MPL: 1.0
Page 721

C 129.
A 54-year-old obese patient with type 2 diabetes and a history of alcoholism
probably should not receive metformin because it can increase the risk of
A. A disulfiram-like reaction
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Hypoglycemia
MPL: 0.5
Page 728
B 130.
Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to cause hypoglycemia when used
as monotherapy in the treatment of type 2 diabetes?
A. Acarbose
B. Glyburide
C. Miglitol
D. Rosiglitazone
MPL: 0.4
Page 726
D 131.
A patient needs antibiotic treatement for native valve, culture-positive infective
entericoccal endocarditis. His medical history includes a severe anaphylactic
reaction to penicillin G during the past year. The best approach would be
treatment with
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B. Aztreonam
C. Meropenem
D. Vancomycin
MPL: 0.4
Page 768
C 132.

The mechanism of antibacterial action of tetracyclines involves

A. Binding to a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit
B. Inhibition of translocase activity
C. Blockade of binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to bacterial ribosomes
D. Selective inhibition of ribosomal peptidyl transferases
MPL: 0.33

14

Page 776
D 133.
In patient with culture-positive enterococcal endocarditis who has failed to
respond to vancomycin because of resistance, the treatment most likely to
be effective is
A. Clarithromycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Minocycline
D. Linezolid
MPL: 1.0
Page 782
D 134.

Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur with sulfonamides?
A. Neurologic effects, including headache, dizziness, and lethargy
B. Hematuria
C. Fanconis aminoaciduria syndrome
D. Skin reactions
MPL: 0.2
Page 793

135.
On her release from hospital, the patient is advised not to rely solely on oral
contraceptives to avoid pregnancy because they may be less effective while
she is being maintained on antimycobacterial drugs. The agent most likely to
interfere with the action of oral contraceptives is
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampin
D. Pyrazinamide
MPL: 1.0
Page 806

C 136.
Chemical interactions between this drug and cell membrane components
can result in the formation of pores lined by hydrophilic groups present in the
drug molecule
A. Caspofungin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Fluconazole
MPL: 0.25
Page 1049
D 137.

Which of the following statements about fluconazole is most accurate?

A. it is highly effective in treatment of aspergillosis
B. It does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier
C. Its oral bioavailability is less than that of ketoconazole
D. It inhibits demethylation of lanosterol
MP[L: 0.25
Page 819

D 138.
Which of the following drugs binds to a viral envelope protein preventing
conformational changes required for the fusion of viral and cellular membranes?
A. Abacavir
B. Adenavir
C. Oseltamivir
D. Enfuvirtide
MPL: 0.33
Page 820
No
Question
Ans
139.
Which of the following is NOT an expected effect of muscarinic
C
agonists instilled into the conjunctival sac?
a. Contraction of the smooth muscle of the iris sphincter
b. Contraction of the ciliary muscle
c. Mydriasis
d. Improves aqueous humor outflow in the canal of Schlemm.
140.
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urinary urgency, salivation, sweating,
D
cutaneous vasodilation and bronchial constriction are caused by an
overdose of:
a. Ipratropium
b. Pirenzepine

the

Ref page4
97

105

15

141.

142.

143.

144.

145.

146.

147.

147.

148.

c. Benztropine
d. Pilocarpine
In normal individuals and more so in patients with airway disease, the
administration of this agent causes cause some bronchodilation and
reduction in secretion.
a. Atropine
b. Metacholine
c. Carbachol
d. Bethanechol

113

This agent relieves motion sickness and is as effective as any more

recently introduced agent but causes significant sedation and dry
mouth.
a. Oxybutinin
b. Scopolamine
c. Tolterodine
d. Darifenacin
AL, 25y.o. male patient is brought to the emergency room suffering
from bronchospasm, mucous membrane congestion, angioedema, and
severe hypotension. The appropriate drug is:
a. Phenylephrine
b. Ephedrine
c. Amphetamine
d. Epinephrine
BM, 50 yo female is asthmatic and hypertensive. The following class of
drugs should be avoided as maintenance treatment for her
hypertension.
a. ACE inhibitors
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Beta-blockers
d. Diuretics
Which of the following CNS neurotransmitters has only an inhibitory
mechanism of action?
a. GABA
b. Acetylcholine
c. Glutamate
d. 5-Hydroxttryptamine
Which among the following sedative-hypnotic drugs has the longest
elimination half-life and is ingested as a prodrug that is hydrolyzed to
its active form in the stomach?
a. Alprazolam
b. Lorazepam
c. Oxazepam
d. Clorazepate
This drug is a novel hypnotic drug prescribed for patients who have
difficulty in falling asleep. In polysomnography studies of patients with
chronic insomnia, this drug reportedly reduced the latency to
persistent sleep with no rebound insomnia or withdrawal symptoms.
a. Remelteon
b. Buspirone
c. Diazempam
d. Triazolam
EJ, 35 yo executive often awakens early in the sleep cycle and could
hardly go to sleep again. He may probably benefit from which of the
following drugs?
a. Flurazepam
b. Clorazepate
c. Zolpidem
d. None of the above

114

137

156

341

352

350

358

GM, 30 yo female experiences visual scotomas followed after around

30 minutes by a severe throbbing right-sided headache that would last
4 8 hours if untreated. Which group of drugs isalmost exclusively
used for this condition?
a. Triptans
b. Propranolol
c. Topiramate
d. Valproate

268

16

149.

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

155.

156.

157.

158.

This drug is effective in reducing pain of mild to moderate intensity

through its effects on inflammation and because it probably inhibits
pain stimuli at a subcortical site.
a. Paracetamol
b. Tramadol
c. Aspirin
d. All of the above
IT, 60 yo male suffers from excruciatingly painful inflammation of the
big toe after binge eating. The following agents may be helpful except?
a. Indomethacin
b. Colchicine
c. Tolmetin
d. None of the above
YH, 62 yo female is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician
strongly believes that this condition causes significant systemic effects
which shorten life in addition to the joint disease that reduces mobility
and quality of life. He decides to give her metothrexate, the diseasemodifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) of choice for her condition.
The most common adverse effects of this drug is:
a. hepatotoxicity
b. hypersensitivity lung reaction
c. nausea and mucosal ulcers
d. pseudolymphomatous reactions
This antihypertensive drug is approximately equipotent to propranolol
in inhibition stimulation of 1-adrenoceptors but 50- to 100-fold less
potent than propranolol in blocking 2-adrenoceptors.
a. Nadolol,
b. Carteolol
c. Pindolol
d. Metoprolol
This antihypertensive agent illustrates how one persons toxicity may
be another persons therapy in that it causes hirsutism, which is
bothersome in women but a topical formulation is used to stimulate
hair growth, which is beneficial for many men.
a. Diltiazem
b. Hydralazine
c. Minoxidil
d. Methyldopa

577

583

583 584

169

173

This antihypertensive drug may cause severe hypotension in

hypovolemic patients, acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia, dry cough
sometime accompanied by wheezing, and angioedema.
a. Captopril
b. Methyldopa
c. Reserpine
d. Sodium nitroprusside
MF, 45 yo female with evidence of chronic kidney disease was also
diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following drugs may be
helpful for both of her conditions>
a. Metoprolol
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Captopril
d. Nifedipine
GG, 68 yo female teacher has chronic heart failure with left ventricular
dysfunction but no edema. The first drug to be used for her are
a. - blockers
b. Diuretics
c. Calcium blockers
d. ACE inhibitors
Chloroquine is effective in the treatment of nonfalciparum and
sensitive falciparum malaria but it causes which of the following
common side effects?
a. pruritus
b. hemolysis
c. alopecia
d. hypotension
The common adverse effects of Quinine in treating falciparum malaria
include the following, except
a. tinnitus

177

178

206

849

851

17

159.

160.

161.

162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

b. hemoglobinuria
c. flushing
d. visual disturbances
TT, 7yo male public elementary school student develops mixed soiltransmitted helminthic infections. Which of the following drugs is
appropriate?
a. Pyrantel pamoate
b. Praziquantel
c. Mebendazole
d. Metronidazole
This group of antimicrobials kills bacterial cells interfering with the
transpeptidation reaction of bacterial cell wall synthesis
a. Tetracyclines
b. -lactam antibiotics
c. Macrolides
d. All of the above

868

726

The following penicillins are resistant to Staphylococcal beta

lactamases, except
a. Methicicillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Nafcillin
d. Cloxacillin
Which of the following drugs is more stable to bacterial -lactamases?
a. Penicillin G
b. Amoxicillin
c. Cephalexin
d. None of the above

732

733 734

The class of cephalosporins with expanded gram-negative coverage

with some agents being able to cross the blood-brain barrier, but with
2 agents effective vs. P aeruginosa.
a. First generation
b. Second generation
c. Third generation
d. Fourth generation
ME, 33 yo male develops pneumonia and was given penicillin but
develops allergy. He was given an alternative drug which had to be
discontinued because of gastrointestinal intolerance due to direct
stimulation of gut motility. This drug is most probably.
a. Cefalexin
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
c. Minocycline
d. Erythromycin
This agent participates in conversion of diatary folate to
tetrahydrofolate and isomerization of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl
CoA and is effective in the treatment of megaloblastic anemia.
a. Vitamin B12
b. Iron
c. Erythropoietin
d. None of these
BV, 45 year old female suffers from chronic kidney disease due to
diabetic nephropathy leading to recurring anemia. Which of the
following agents is most useful for this patient?
a. Iron
b. Folate
c. Erythropoietin
d. Interleukin

737

749

532

537

TU, 3 yo male has manifest slowing down of bodily functions leading to

striking retaration of growth and development leading to very slow
growth and some degree of mental retardation. The most satisfactory
preparation for replacement therapy in this case is.
a. Liothyronine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Methimazole
d. Propylthiouracil

628

18

168.

169.

170.

GF, 25 yo female manifests with warm moist skin, sweating, heat

intolerance, periorbital edema, retraction of upper lid with wide stare,
exopthalmos an diplopia. The management of this condition involves
the following, except:
a. Methimazole
b. Thyroidectomy
c. 131 Iodine
d. None of the above
This agent is a prohormone that serves as a precursor to a number of
biologically active metabolites, including calcitriol.
a. Calcimimetics
b. Vitamin D
c. Calcitonin
d. None of these
Which of the following is an inscription and translation of a violative
prescription based on the Generics Act of 1988?
a. Paracetamol 500mg tabs ----------------#20
b. Amoxil 500 mg caps ---------------------#21
c. Ponstan (Mefenamic Acid) 500 mg ---#12
d. B an C are violative prescriptions

630

710

Generics Act
of 1988

Basic and Clinical Pharmacology by: Bertram G. Katzung, 10th edition, 2007
_____

171. All of the following factors can affect the rate and extent of drug absorption EXCEPT
A. lipophilicity
C. protein binding
B. intestinal motility
D. presence of P glycoprotein transporter
ANS C p.41

_____

172. Which of the following factors is TRUE regarding drug distribution?

A. All drugs distribute to the same degree in all tissues.
B. The binding of drugs to tissues has no relationship to the distribution of drug in the body.
C. In general, a drug with a higher degree of plasma protein binding will have a lower Vd.
D. In general, lipophilic drugs distribute to a lesser extent than hydrophilic drugs
ANS C p. 34

_____

173. The amount of a drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation in the unchanged form is:
A. Bioavailability
C. Cmax
B. Clearance
D. half-life
ANS A p. 40

_____

174. A laboratory experiment is being conducted in which an animal is injected with a non-competitive
antagonist to the histamine receptor. Which of the following best describes this drug?
A. The drug binds to the histamine receptor and partially activates it.
B. The drug binds to the histamine receptor but does not activate it.
C. The drug binds to the receptor, but not where histamine binds and prevents the receptor from being
activated.
D. The drug irreversibly binds to the histamine receptor and renders it ineffective.
ANS C p. 16

_____

175. The rate and extent of absorption of a drug is decreased by:

A. inhibition of P-glycoprotein transporter
B. addition of carbon-nitrogen bond ( quaternary amine )
C. inhibition of gut wall metabolism
D. low ionization constant
ANS B p. 41

_____

176. At low doses, dobutamine receptor selectivity and activity will primarily result to:
A. bronchodilation
C. uterine contraction
B. dilatation of renal bladder vessels
D. increase in cardiac
contractility
ANS D p.133

_____

177. Antiarrythmic with the most marked K-blocking effect

19

A. lidocaine
B. amiodarone

C. quinidine
D. verapamil

ANS B pp 228
_____

178. Blocks the final common pathway of platelet aggregation:

A. ticlopidine
C. abciximab
B. clopidogrel
D. ASA

_____

179. Drug interaction seen with concomitant spironolactone and ACE inhibitor use
A. ACE inhibitors may decrease renal perfusion decreasing the action of spironolactone in the collecting
tubules
B. Additive afterloader effect
C. Enhanced hyperkalemia*
D. Enhanced vasodilating effect of ACE inhibitors because of inhibition of metabolism by spironolactone
ANS C p. 177

_____

180. The following anti-hypertensive drug should be used with caution in patients on potassium-sparing
diuretics
A. losartan*
C. hydrochlorthiazide
B. verapamil
D. methyldopa
ANS A p. 177

_____

181. Accumulation of bradykinin due to ACE inhibition is responsible for these adverse effects EXCEPT
one:
A. cough
C. angioedema
B. hypotension
D. hyperkalemia
ANS D p. 177

_____

182. The absence of reflex tachycardia with the use of ACE inhibitors is due to
A. downward resetting of the baroreceptor
B. mild decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
C. enhanced sympathetic activity
D. inhibition of RAA system
ANS A p. 176

_____

183. This adverse effect of nitrates can be prevented by providing nitrate-free interval between
administration
A. dependence
C. tolerance
B. hypotension
D. tachycardia
ANS D p. 186

_____

184. Which of the following drug combinations will give the best hemodynamic effects of decreasing
filling pressure and increasing cardiac output in CHF patients?
A. furosemide and dopamine
C. captopril and digoxin
B. digoxin and verapamil
D. furosemide and digoxin
ANS A p. 208

_____

185. The drug of choice for converting paroxysmal atrial tachycardia to normal sinus rhythm
A. propranolol
C. quinidine
B. adenosine
D. flecainide
ANS B p. 231

_____

186. This class I antiarrhythmic drug has marked negative inotropic action and therefore should not be
used in patient with heart failure
A. quinidine
C. disopyramide
B. procainamide
D. lidocaine
ANS D p.225

_____

187. The risk of Torsades des pointes is highest with the use of

20

A. sotalol
B. flecainide

C. bretylium
D. amiodarone

ANS D p. 223
_____

_____

188. Drug-induced lupus is an adverse effect of

A. procainamide
B. amiodarone

C. disopyramide
D. amiloride

189. A 60 year old male has dilated cardiomyopathy and is on digoxin. He complains of nausea and
vomiting and you think he has digitalis toxicity. Which of the following drugs he is taking most likely
enhanced this?
A. Furosemide*
C. spironolactone
B. Carvedilol
D. captopril
ANS A p. 204

_____

190. The positive inotropic action of cardiac glycosides is associated with

A. an increase in ATP synthesis
B. a modification in actin molecule
C. decreased outward flow of calcium*
D. a decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
ANS C p. 199-202

_____

191. A patient in CHF has developed oliguria because of low cardiac output. To improve renal perfusion,
dopamine must be given at this dose in ug/kg/min
A. 2*
C. 15
B. 10
D. 20
ANS A p. 133

_____

192. A.M. a 55 year old known hypertensive was found to have heart block on ECG. Which of the drugs
below should not be given?
A. Spironolactone
C. captopril
B. Verapamil*
D. prazosin
ANS A p. 175; 230

_____

193. Rapid intravenous administration of this drug may cause respiratory depression:
A. phenytoin
C. phenobarbital
B. lamotrigine
D. carbamazepine
ANS C p.359

_____

194. This drug increases free phenytoin levels due to protein binding displacement.
A. Cimetidine
C. chloramphenicol
B. salicylates
D. isoniazid
ANS B p.377

_____

195. Which of the following antidepressants will produce a life-threatening syndrome of hyperthermia,
muscle rigidity and myoclonus when administered with MAO?
A. Fluoxetine
C. imipramine
B. trazodone
D. clomipramine
ANS A p. 486

_____

196. Ideally, baseline liver function tests are done prior to giving this anticonvulsant
A. topiramate
C. valproic acid
B. levetiracetam
D. gabapentin
ANS C p. 387

_____

197. Elimination of this anticonvulsant is enhanced significantly by alkalinization of the urine

A. Phenobarbital
C. valproic acid
B. Carbamazepine
D. phenytoin

21

ANS A p.380
_____

198. Orthostatic hypotension is most common with which of the following antipsychotic agents:
A. Perphenazine
C. chlorpromazine
B. Haloperidol
D. olanzapine
ANS C p.461

_____

199. Carbamazepine exerts its antiepileptic effect through

A. inhibition of low threshold transient Ca++ current
B. inhibition of neurotransmission by NMDA and non-NMDA receptors
C. reduction of Na+ current
D. enhancement of post-synaptic GABA receptor current
ANS C p. 378

_____

200. Based on the mechanism of action, the following antimicrobial is NOT selectively toxic:
A. piperacillin
C. amphotericin B
B. cotrimoxazole
D. gentamicin
ANS B p. 763

_____

201. Which of the following antibiotics is effective against both aerobes and anaerobes?
A. metronidazole
C. aztreonam
B. gentamicin
D. chloramphenicol
ANS D p. 752

_____

202. This antibiotic is frequently associated with 8 th nerve damage in the offspring if given to pregnant
women, thus classified under pregnancy risk category D
A. Clarithromycin
C. ciprofloxacin
B. Tetracycline
D. streptomycin
ANS D p. 759

_____

203. Maculopapular rash with this antibiotic is non-immunologic in nature and does not preclude the use
of chemically related antibiotics in the future
A. Erythromycin
C. amoxicillin
B. Cefalexin
D. cotrimoxazole
ANS C p. 733

_____

204. A 15 year old college student came in because of headache, fever, chills and photophobia. Thick and
thin smears showed P. vivax. The oral drug of choice to rid the blood of plasmodia is
A. Quinine
C. mefloquine
B. Primaquine
D. chloroquine
ANS D p.846

_____

205. Mebendazole is effective against the following parasites EXCEPT

A. capillaria philippinensis
C. necator americanus
B. ascaris lumbricoides
D. trichuris trichiuria
ANS A p. 872

_____

206. The following antiviral agents DOES NOT require activation by phosphorylation and it directly inhibits
DNA and RNA polymerases as well as HIV reverse transcriptase
A. penciclovir
C. cidofovir
B. acyclovir
D. foscarnet
ANS D p. 797

_____

207. The following adverse reaction to isoniazid is age-related

A. SLE like syndrome
C. neuropathy
B. Hemolysis
D. hepatitis
ANS D p. 773

_____

208. A 50 year old male receiving anti-TB treatment develops mono-articular arthritis. Which of the
following could have caused it?
A. pyrazinamide and ethambutol
C. ethambutol + streptomycin
B. rifampicin + pyrazinamide
D. ethambutol + INH

22

ANS A pp. 774-775

_____

209. Of the following, the mechanism of actions of this antifungal does not involve inhibition of cell
membrane synthesis
A. Terbinafine
C. flucytosine
B. Fluconazole
D. griseofulvin
ANS C p. 784

_____

210. Aromatase inhibitor used in the treatment of breast cancer

A. Tamoxifen
C. anastrazole
B. Danazol
D. leuprolide
ANS C p. 673

_____

211. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the direct genomic pharmacodynamic action of
glucocorticoids (GC)?
A. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and into nucleus where it binds to glucocorticoid response element
(GRE) and act as transcription factor, upregulating gene transcription
B. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm and bind to steroid receptors leading to release of heat shock proteins
and dimerization of steroid receptor complexes which translocate into nucleus and bind to GRE,
inducing or inhibiting gene transcription
C. GCs diffuse into cell cytoplasm, binding to steroid receptors, the steroid-receptor complexes then
bind to transcription factor inhibiting synthesis of pro-inflammatory cytokines
D. GCs activate cell membrane enzymes leading to formation 2nd messenger
ANS B p. 639

_____

212. The main mechanism of action is to lower post meal glycemic excursion:
A. metformin
C. acarbose
B. glipizide
D. nateglinide
ANS C p. 700

_____

213. This drug is an estrogen agonist in the bone but an estrogen antagonist in breast tissue:
A. raloxifene
C. tamoxifen
B. alendronate
D. calcitonin
ANS A p. 672

_____

214. This is essential for the antithyroid activity of thioamides:

A. phenyl group
C. thiocarbamide group
B. methyl group at 3
D. iodide substituent at 3
ANS C p.625

_____

215. The main mechanism for its effectiveness in diabetics is the release of endogenous insulin
A. sulfonylurea
C. biguanide
B. thiazolidinedione
D. alpha glucosidase inhibitor
ANS A p. 694

_____

216. The main action as anti-diabetic agent is to stimulate the nuclear receptors that regulate the
transcription of genes encoding proteins involved in protein and carbohydrate metabolism
A. insulin
C. sulfonylurea
B. thiazolidinedione
D. biguanide
ANS A p. 686

_____

217. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the least mineralocorticoid effect and is best for
decreasing cerebral edema associated with increased intracranial pressure?
A. Prednisone
C. dexamethasone
B. Hydrocortisone
D. prednisolone
ANS C p. 641-644

_____

218. Organophosphate toxicity results from its ability to

A. interrupt heme synthesis
B. inhibit acetycholinesterase
C. compete with brain pyridoxal phosphate
D. react with sulfhydryl groups binding to protein and other enzymes
ANS B p 968

23

219. A class of proteins that functions as drug receptors that mediate the actions of endogenous chemical
signals such as neurotransmitters and hormones:
A. enzymes
B. regulatory proteins
C. structural proteins
D. transport proteins
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 11
220. Receptor/s coupled to G protein that modulate the production of intracellular second messengers
include/s
A. muscarinic receptor
B. alpha adrenergic receptor
C. leukotriene receptor
D. all of the above
Application
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 22
221. The neuromuscular blocker succinylcholine acts by:
A. Depolarizing muscle endplate receptors
B. Repolarizing muscle endplate receptors
C. Inhibiting the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending
D. Blocking the access of acetylcholine at the myoneural junction
Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 437
222. Therapeutic benefit/s of 2 receptor agonists include:
A. antihypertensive
B. antiglaucoma
C. antidiarrheal
D. all of the above
Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, pp. 130 - 131

223. Non-benzodiazepine that has affinity for the Benzodiazepine receptors:

A. Zolpidem
B. Midazolam
C. Alprazolam
D. All of the above
Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 360
224. Sedative-Hypnotic with low solubility and penetrate the brain slowly includes:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Flumazenil
C. Trimethadione
D. Valproic acid
Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 354

225. The following drugs/substance of abuse are CNS stimulants, EXCEPT:

A. Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB)
B. Cocaine

24

C. Amphetamine
D. Methylenedioxy-Methamphetamine (MDMA, Ecstasy)
Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 520
226. Characteristic physiologic sign of Cannabis intoxication includes:
A. increased pulse rate
B. pale conjunctivae
C. miotic pupil
D. high blood pressure
Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 526
227. Which among these intravenous general anesthetics produces a dissociative type of anesthesia?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Midazolam
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 415
228. Painless digital vasospasm is a dose-related complication of long term
treatment with:
A. Levodopa
B. Bromocriptine
C. Selegiline
D. Tolcapone
Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 453
229. The peripheral metabolism to Levodopa can be prevented if it is given
concomitantly with:
A. Carbidopa
B. Amantadine
C. Biperiden
D. Bromocriptine
Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition,
p. 449, p. 454
230. An overdose of this opioid causes mydriasis instead of the characteristic miosis of opioid toxicity:
A. Hydromorphone
B. Meperidine
C. Methadone
D. Morphine
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 511

231. Which of these group of tissues would be the first to take up appreciable amounts of inhalational
anesthetics?
A. Fat
B. Muscle
C. Vessel-rich
D. Vessel-poor
Recall

25

Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 405
232. A narcotic-addicted patient is given this drug as a substitute to be able to control the withdrawal
symptoms:
A. Hydromorphone
B. Meperidine
C. Methadone
D. Disulfiram
Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p.510, p. 520
233. The duration of action of the intravenous barbiturate anesthetic thiopental is largely determined by:
A. Spontaneous degradation
B. Hepatic extraction
C. Renal clearance
D. Redistribution
Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 412
234. This drug inhibits binding of leukotriene D4 to its receptor on target tissues
A. Montelukast
B. Zilenton
C. Ipratropium bromide
D. Omalizumab
Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 330
235. The mechanism of action of corticosteroids in the treatment of bronchial asthma includes
A. directly relax airway smooth muscle
B. enhance bronchial reactivity
C. inhibit airway mucosal inflammation
D. prevent release of chemotactic agents
Application
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 328
236. A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that irreversibly acetylates and blocks platelet
cycloocygenase is
A. Naproxen
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen
Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 577
237. Corticosteroids must be used with great caution in patients with
A. osteoporosis
B. varicella
C. peptic ulcer
D. all of the above
Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 652
238. The most common adverse effect of Aspirin is
A. gastric upset and ulcers
B. renal toxicity
C. asthma

26

D. hepatotoxicity
Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 581
239. A uricosuric drug that decreases body pool of urate in patients with
tophaceous gout is
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Meloxicam
Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 598
240. Sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodal tissue are affected markedly by
A. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil
C. Nifedipine
D. Amlodipine
Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 196
241. The beneficial effect of Captopril in patients with heart failure is attributed to:
A. reduction in afterload
B. increased preload
C. increased myocardial contractility
D. all of the above
Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 209
242. Beta blockers with membrane-stabilizing action, useful as anti-arrhythmics include:
A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Acebutolol
D. All of the above
Recall
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 151
243. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs act by blocking sodium channel?
A. Lidocaine
B. Verapamil
C. Sotalol
D. Adenosine
Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 226
244. Antibiotic/s shown to be effective when applied topically in the treatment of acne vulgaris include/s:
A. Clindamycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Metronidazole
D. All of the above
Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 1017
245. This organophosphate compound is thought to have a cholinesterase inhibitory action which
temporarily paralyzes the adult Schistosoma haematobium worms.
A. Metrifonate

27

B.
C.
D.

Niclosamide
Mebendazole
Pyrantel pamoate

Recall
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 891
246. Which of these drugs selectively inhibits microtubule synthesis and glucose uptake in nematodes?
A. Piperazine
B. Mebendazole
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. Diethylcarbamazine citrate
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 891
247. For onchocerciasis and strongyloidiasis, this drug is the first choice because it causes fewer systemic
and ocular reactions:
A. Diethylcarbamazine citrate
B. Metrifonate
C. Ivermectin
D. Bithionol
Application
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 890
248. Most of the serious adverse effects of Penicllins are due to:
A. Blood dyscrasias
B. Hypersensitivity reactions
C. CNS reactions
D. Hepatic impariment
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 741
249. The following anti-TB drugs are potentially hepatotoxic, EXCEPT:
A. RIfampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin
Recall
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 784-786
250. This Anti-TB is relatively contraindicated in young children whose visual acuity and red-green color
assessment can not be adequately assessed:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Ethmabutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 785
251. This antibacterial is available as a nasal ointment useful in the elimination of nasal carriage of
Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Neomycin
B. Muprocin
C. Polymycin B sulfate
D. Bacitracin
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 1016

28

252. A drug that is used almost solely as an alternative treatment for gonorrhea in patients whose
gonococci are resistant to other drugs is:
A. Ofloxacin
B. Tetracycline
C. Doxycycline
D. Spectinomycin
Recall
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 771
253. Excessive anticoagulant effect results in bleeding from Warfarin can be reversed by:
A. discontinuance of the drug
B. administration of Vitamin K
C. administration of fresh frozen plasma
D. all of the above
Application
Answer: D
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 552
254. The amount of elemental iron per 325 mg tablet of hydrated ferrous sulfate is ___ mg:
A. 36
B. 65
C. 80
D. 106
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 531
255. The preparation of choice for thyroid replacement and suppression therapy is:
A. Liothyronine
B. Levothyroxine
C. Dessicated thyroid
D. Thyrogloculin
Recall
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 630
256. The combination of estrogens and progestins exert their contraceptive effect largely through
A. inhibition of pituitary function
B. production of a mucoid cervical secretion
C. alteration in the motility of the uterine tubes
D. enhancement of the rupture of the ovarian follicle
Application
Answer: A
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 673
257. The most dangerous complication of Thioamides is:
A. lupus-like reaction
B. hepatitis
C. agranulocytosis
D. exfoliative dermatitis
Recall
Answer: C
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 633
258. The major use of this drug is in the treatment of endometriosis
A. Nifepristone
B. Danazol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphine
Recall
Answer: B

29

Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 680

259. The best treatment option for an obese patient with NIDDM with associated insulin resistance
syndrome is:
A. Glibenclamide
B. Metformin
C. Repaglimide
D. Acarbose
Application
Answer: B
Reference: KATZUNG, Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, ninth edition, p. 708
260. Treatment Regimen III as indicated in the National Tuberculosis Control Program consists of:
A. 2 HRZES
B. 2HRZ / 4HR
C. 2HRZE / 4HR
D. 2HRZES / 1 HREZ / 5HRE
Application
Answer: B
Reference: National TB Control Program, Treatment Regimens
261.The study of the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drug is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Phamacotherapeutics
D. Pharmacology
Ans. B p. 5
262. First pass effect is more likely to occur with this route of administration :
A.Oral
B.Buccal
C.Sublingual
D.Rectal
Ans. A p. 43
263. Inert binding sites bind a drug without initiating events leading to a drug effect. They are located in:
A.True receptors
B.Spare receptors
C.Plasma proteins
D.Ttissue proteins
Ans. C p. 5
264. Drug A at a dose of 100 mg. produces the same effect as drug B at a dose of 1000 mg. One of the
following statements is correct regarding the two drugs:
A. Drug A has a greater efficacy than Drug B
B. Drug B has a greater efficacy than Drug A
C. Drug A is more potent than Drug B
D. Drug B is more potent than Drug A
Ans. C p.28
265. Drugs with very high volume of distribution:
A. are completely retained within the vascular compartment
B. have higher concentrations in extravascular tissue
C. are homogeneously distributed in blood
D. have minimum possible volume of distribution
Ans.B p.34
266. Bioavailability of a drug is 100% following this route of administration:
A. subcutaneous
B. intramuscular
C. transdermal
D. intravenous
267. Drug biotransformation may result in formation of:
A. inactive metabolites
B. reactive intermediates that are toxic to various organs
C. an active substance from a prodrug
D. all of the above

Ans. D p.41

Ans. D p. 55-56

268. Selective COX-2 inhibitors differ from nonselective COX inhibitors in that selective COX-2 inhibitors
have no:
A. analgesic-antipyretic and anti-inflammatory effects
B. gastrointestinal side effects
C. effects on platelet aggregation

30

D. renal toxicities
269. Pharmacologic effects of alcohol include stimulation of the:
A. central nervous system
B. heart
C. smooth muscles of the blood vessels
D. secretion of gastric acid

Ans. B p. 582

Ans. D p. 368

270. One of the following general anesthetics with their respective blood:gas partition coefficients is most
soluble in blood:
A.Nitrous oxide 0.47
B. Enflurane 1.40
C. Halothane 2.30
D. Methoxyflurane 12.0
Ans. D p. 403
271. Reserpine blocks this step in adrenergic transmission:
A. synthesis of the transmitter
B. incorporation of norepinephrine into the vesicle
C. release of the neurotransmitter
D. reuptake into presynaptic neuron

Ans. B p. 169

272. A 24 year old male was brought to the emergency room after having allegedly drank poison. He had
constricted pupils, was noted to have salivation and sweating, wheezing, vomiting and diarrhea: The
poison must have been:
A. atropine
B. organophosphate
C. opiate
D. ephedrine
Ans. B p. 101
273. Therapeutic applications of atropine include/s:
A. peptic ulcer
B. bradycardia caused by myocardial infarction
C. urinary retention
D. constipation

Ans. B p. 115

274. Mechanism of action of pralidoxime:

A. competitive antagonism
B. noncompetitive antagonism
C. physiologic antagonism
D. regeneration of the enzyme

Ans. D p. 117

275. Compared to norepinephrine, epinephrine has more effects on:

A. alpha 1 receptors
B. alpha 2 receptors
C. beta 1 receptors
D. beta 2 receptors

Ans. D p. 133

276. Drugs like quinidine, procainamide and disopyramide are useful in the treatment of:
A. congestive heart failure
C. status asthmaticus
B. thyrotoxicosis
D. arrhythmia
Ans. D. pp. 227-229
277. A 65-year old male was admitted at the intensive care unit disoriented with a blood pressure of
220/120. Which of the following drugs will be most appropriate:
A. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Methyldopa
B. Clonidine
D. Aldactone
Ans. A p. 175
278. Propranolol and other beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist have the following effect/s on the heart
that makes them useful as antiarryhthmic agents:
A. Depress automaticity
C. Reduce heart rate
B. Prolong A-V conduction
D. All of the above
Ans. D. p. 232
279. All of the following are true of sodium nitroprusside EXCEPT:
A. The gold standard for use in hypertensive crisis
B. Mechanism of vasodilating effects similar to nitrates
C. Sensitive to light
D. Metabolite is pharmacologically inert
Ans. D. p.175
280. In patients with congestive heart failure, the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors will
increase

31

A. peripheral resistance
B. preload

C. salt and water excretion

D. sympathetic activity
Ans. C p. 209

281. One of the following antianginal agents is contraindicated in patients with vasospastic angina:
A. Propranolol
C. Diltiazem
B. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide dinitrate
Ans. A. p. 198
282. Methyldopa as antihyperatensive agent exerts its effect by conversion to alphamethylnorepinephrine which stimulates centrally this receptor:
A. alpha-1
C. alpha-2
B. Beta-1
D. Beta-2
Ans. C. p. 166
283. Aminopenicillins, Carboxypenicillins and Ureidopenicillins compared to Penicillin G:
A. Are not effective for oral adminsitration
B. Have lesser tendency to cause hypersensitivity reaction
C. Have greater activity against gram-negative bacteria
D. Are resistant to B-lactamse
Ans. C. p. 741
284. Clavulanic acid is added to Ampicillin in order to:
A. Prevent occurrence of diarrhea
B. Protect the beta-lactam ring from destruction
C. Increase the bioavailability by increasing absorption
D. Increase the pH of gastrointestinal tract
Ans. B. p. 741
285. The most common side effect of erythromycin is:
A. Gastroinetstinal upset
B. red neck syndrome
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. Nephrotoxicity
Ans. A p. 759
286. Bacterial synergism is produced by the following drug combination:
A. Tetracycline and penicillin G
B. Cephalexin and gentamycin
C. Tetracycline and chloramphenicol
D. Tetracycline and streptomycin Ans. B p. 846
287. This antimicrobial drug may provoke acute gouty arthritis:
A. Pyrazinamide
B. Ethambutol
C. INH
D. PAS

Ans. A p. 786

288. This agent is proven effects for influenza A:

A. Riboxinin
B. Acyclovir
C. Zidoxcedine
D. Amantadine

Ans. D p. 824

289. This agent apparently acts as a GABA agonist at the neuromuscular junction and causes flaccid
paralysis of the nematode:
A. Mebendazole
B. Piperazine
C. Bephenrium
D. Pyrantel
Ans. B p. 861
290. This antimicrobial agent is also effective for amebic abscesses that fail initial therapy with
metronoidazole:
A. Chloroquine
B. Amodiaquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Primaquine
Ans. A p. 867
291. Adverse effects of aminoglycosides include all, EXCEPT:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Neuromuscular blockade
D. Ototoxicity

Ans. B p. 767

32

292. The most common use of estrogen in therpeutics is:

A. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
B. Chemotherapy in prostatic malignancy
C. Replacement therapy in menopause
D. Component of contraceptice pills

Ans. D

293. This is a partial agonist inhibitor of estradiol at the estrogen receptor and used in the palliative
treatment of advanced breast cancer:
A. Donazol
B. Diathylstilbesterol
C. Tamoxifen
D. Mefepristone
Ans. C p. 679
294. Clomiphone enhanced pregnancy by:
A. Preparing the uterus for implantation
B. Inhibiting estradiols negative feedback
C. Increasing sperm motility
D. Inhibiting ovulation
295. The most common side effect of insulin is:
A. Lipid deposition
B. Renal dystrophy
C. Insulin allergy
D. Hypoglycemia

Ans. B p. 681

Ans. D p. 703

296. Actions of Vit. D include:

A. Antagonism oof parathyroid hormone
B. Promote absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestine
C. Hasten calcium excretion in the kidney
D. Promotes water excretion
Ans. B p. 718

33