JEE Main-2014 - Test-3 (Paper-I) - Code-A PDF

15/12/2013
Roll No.:
Test Date:
Centre Code:
Test Booklet Code
TEST No. 3
for
JEE (Main) 2014
ES
RI
ALL
S
H TE
A
K
A
A
ST
IA
SE
IN
PAPER - I
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,

the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each
question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response.
11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum
marks are 360.
12. One fourth () marks will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
any question in the answer sheet.
13. Pattern of the questions are as under:
Section I : Straight Objective Questions
Section II : Assertion Reason Type Questions
Test No. 3
Paper I
TOPICS OF THE TEST
Physics
Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of

Fluids, Oscillations
Chemistry
The Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface

Chemistry
Mathematics
Trigonometric Functions (Transformation Formulae, Trigonometric

Equations, Properties of Triangle), Inverse Trigonometric Functions
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014
Time : 3 Hrs.
MM : 360
TEST - 3 (Paper-1)
PART - A (PHYSICS)
3.
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type Questions
This section contains 25 multiple choice questions
numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) 4
Choose the correct answer :

1.
A particle of mass m is released from a distance 4R

from the centre of a planet of radius R and mass M.
The particle travels, through a tunnel leading to its
centre of the sphere. The ratio of its speed at B and
C is
(1)
3
5
(2)
2
7
(3)
2.
4R
C
2
3
A block of mass m is attached to one end of a light

inextensible string passing over a smooth light
pulley and two springs of spring constant k and 5k
as shown in the figure. The time period of
oscillations of the block is
A
4.
5
(4)
7
A water drop falls in air with constant velocity. The
difference in curvature of radii r2 r1 of the drop's
surface at upper and lower point separated by the
distance h is proportional to (assume that r2 r1 << h)
3m
2k
(2) 2
3m
k
(3) 2
5m
6k
(4) 4
6m
5k
m
5k
A truncated rod of length 3.0 m and radii 3 cm and

6 cm is stretched by two forces of 30 kN applied
parallel to length in opposite directions and normal
to end faces. If Y = 6 10 11 N/m 2 , then the
elongation of rod is
30 kN
3 cm
6 cm
30 kN
r1
3.0 m
h
r2
(1) h
(2) h2
(3) h3
(4) h3/2
(1)
5
10 4 m
6
(2)
2
104 m
3
(3)
3
104 m
2
(4)
6
104 m
5
Space for Rough Work
1/14

5.
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
An air bubble is at a depth h below the free surface

of water. If pressure inside the bubble is three time
that of atmospheric pressure (P0). The radius of the
bubble is given by
8.
A small hole is made at depth 3h on a side wall of

a cylindrical vessel, filled with an ideal liquid. The
hole is at a height h from the base of the vessel.
The speed by which it strikes the floor is
[ = density of water, T = surface tension]
3T
(1) P gh
0
2T
(2) P 2gh
0
3T
(3) 3P 2gh
0
2T
(4) 2P gh
0
3h
6.
A hemispherical water drop drips from a capillary.

When the drop breaks from the capillary its mass is
m. If the radius of capillary is R1 then surface tension
of water is
(1)
mg
R
(2)
mg
(3)
2R
7.
2 mg
R
9.
(1) 2 gh
(2) 2 2gh
(3) 4 gh
(4) 2 3gh
A tank is filled with a liquid moving with an

acceleration as shown in the figure. The free surface
makes an angle with the horizontal, the is
a=g
mg
(4)
2R
37
A uniform rod of length and density is rotated with

an angular velocity about one of its ends O as
shown in the figure. The stress at a distance
3
4
from O is
1
(1) tan
3
4
1
(2) tan
4
3
1
(3) tan
1
2
1
(4) tan
2
3

O
10. The speed v of a particle moving along x-axis is given

2 2
(1)
(3)
2 2
5
16
(2)
722
32
(4)
7
16
522
32
by v 16 x x 2 48 (cm/s) . The amplitude of

oscillation is
(1) 1 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm
2/14
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
11. A block of mass m is connected to three springs as

shown in the figure. The block is displaced down
slightly, from its mean position. The time period of
oscillation is
2k
2k
30 30
13. A body is projected from between two planets

A and B of masses M and 2M respectively as shown
in the figure, such that it escapes from their field. Its
escape velocity is
(1)
GM
d
(2)
3GM
d
(3)
5GM
d
(4)
7GM
d
m
k
(1) 2
m
k
(2)
m
(3) 2
2k
m
k
a=g
(3) 2

3g
(2) 2
(4) 4

3g

3g
4m
r
(1)
3GM
r
(2)
6GM
r
(3)
9GM
r
(4)
12GM
r
15. A solid sphere of radius R is floating at the interface

of two immiscible liquids of densities and 0
(0 > ) such that half of volume lying in each. If
atmospheric pressure is P 0 , then the force
experiented by the upper half of the sphere is
(1)

2g
2d
12. The point of suspension of a simple pendulum of

length is accelerated at an angle 60 with the
vertical with an acceleration a = g (m/s2) as shown
in the figure. The time period of oscillation of the
pendulum is given by
(1) 2
2M
14. Two bodies of mass m and 4m are placed at a

distance r apart. The gravitational potential at a point
where gravitational field is zero.
m
(4) 4
k
60
ve
7
R 3g
3
2
(2) P0 R
7
R 3 g
3
2
(3) P0 R
7
R 3 g
3
3R
2
(4) P0 R
3/14

16. A block of mass 1 kg is suspended from a spring of
spring constant 2. The spring is now cut into two
identical halves and same block is suspended from
one of the two pieces such that one of the piece
touch the other below in its equilibrium position. The
frequency of small oscillation of mass will be
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
19. At a distance 320 km above the surface of earth, the
value of acceleration due to gravity will be lower than
its value on the surface of earth by nearly
(Re = 6400 km)
(1) 2%
(2) 6%
(3) 10%
(4) 14%
20. A solid of density D is floating in a liquid of density

d(> D). If v1 be the volume of solid submerged in the
liquid and v2 be the volume of solid NOT submerged
v1
in the liquid, then v is equal to
2
1 kg
(1)
(2) 2 2
(3) 2 2 1
(4) 2( 2 1)
17. A ball of density = 3 is released from rest from

the centre of an accelerated sealed trough
completely filled with liquid of density . If the trough
moves horizontal with an acceleration a 0 , the
acceleration of the ball with respect to the trough is
given by
(3)
a02 g 2
a02 g 2
3
a02 g 2
(2)
D
D
(4)
d D
d D
21. Two masses m and 2m at an infinite distance from
each other initially at rest, start interacting
gravitationally. Their velocity of approach when they
are at a distance r apart
(1)
2Gm
r
(2)
(3)
6Gm
r
(4) 2
k
m
1
18. If the radius of earth's orbit be made , then the
4
duration of an year will become
(3)
1
times
8
(4)
1
times
4
(1) 2
(3)
4/14
3Gm
r
2A .
Consider the collision of block with wall to be
perfectly elastic. The time period of oscillation is
a02 4g 2
(2) 4 times
3Gm
r
undeformed. Now it is compressed by
th
(1) 8 times
d
D
22. In the figure shown, a spring fixed to wall is initially
(4)
(2)
(3)
(1) 2
(1)
D
d
m
k
3 m
2 k
(2) 4
(4)
m
k
5 m
2 k
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
23. Two spherical balls of radii 2r and r and of density

are tied up with a light string and released in a
viscous liquid of density > , with the string just
taut. The tension in the string, when spheres attain
terminal velocity is
2r
SECTION - II
Assertion Reason Type Questions
Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are AssertionReason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and
Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has
four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select the correct choice.
26. Statement-1 : The word weightlessness means zero
contact force but not zero weight of the object.
and
(1)
3 3
r ( )g
5
8 3
r ( )g
(3)
3
Statement-2 : Weight = Mass acceleration due to

gravity.
(2)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
10 3
r ( )g
3
5 3
r ( )g
(4)
3
24. A planet of mass m moves around the sun of mass

M along an elliptical orbit such that its minimum and
maximum distance from sun are r and 3r
respectively. Its period of revolution will be
(1) 4
(3)
2r 3
GM
2r 3
GM
(2) 2
(4)
r3
GM

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
27. Statement-1 : Pressure at different points at same
depth or height will not be equal for a horizontally
accelerating liquid.
and
Statement-2 : Pressure decreases with horizontal
distance measured in the direction of acceleration in
a fluid moving with horizontal acceleration.
r3
2 2 GM
25. A particle moves according to the law, x r cos
t
.
2

Statement-1
The distance covered by it in the time interval

between t = 0 to t = 2 s is

Statement-1
(1) r
(2) 2r
(3) 3r
(4) 4r

5/14

28. Statement-1 : The angular speed of a planet is
minimum when it is farthest from the sun.
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
and

Statement-1
Statement-2 : Angular momentum of a planet

revolving around the sun is conserved.

Statement-1
Statement-1
29. Statement-1 : Poisson's ratio cannot be greater than
0.5.
and
Statement-2 : Poisson's ratio is a characteristic
property of a body.
Statement-1

30. Statement-1 : In case of simple harmonic motion,
average total energy of oscillations per cycle is equal
to its maximum kinetic energy.
and
Statement-2 : Average kinetic energy per cycle is
equal to half of its maximum kinetic energy for a
particle executing S.H.M. Further, total energy of
oscillation is equally distributed among kinetic
energy and potential energy at instants.
Statement-1
Statement-1
PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - I
31. The overall rate law of the following complex reaction
is
K
1

2A
A 2 (fast equilibrium)
K
(1)
K1K 2K 3
[A]3[B]
K 1K 2
(2)
K1K 2K 3
[A][B]3
K 1K 2
(3)
K 1K 2K 3
[A][B]2
K1K 2
(4)
K1K 2K 3
[A][B]
K 1K 2
2

C (fast equilibrium)
A + B
K
2
K3
A 2 + C
P + 2A (slow)
32. Co-ordination no. of Fe+3 in Fe3O4 is

(1) 4 only
(2) 6 only
(3) 4, 6
(4) 8
6/14
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
33. In one kg solvent (NH3), addition of which decrease

melting point up to least extent
38. Correct sequence of molecular weight of

non-electrolytic solute in following graph
(1) 1 mole of AgCl
(2) 1 mole of CH3COOH
osmotic
Pressure
(3) 1 mole of HCl
B
A
(4) 1 mole of AgI

34. A chemical reaction is carried out at 600 K. If the
same reaction is carried out in the presence of a
catalyst at same rate, temperature required is 500 K.
Calculate activation energy if catalyst lowers it by
50 kJ/mol
(1) 100 kJ/mol
(2) 300 kJ/mol
Weight of solute
(1) MC > MB > MA
(2) MA = MB = MC
(3) MA > MB > MC
(4) MA =
M
MB
= C
2
4
39. Rate of evaporation of a liquid is always faster at a

higher temperature because
(3) 400 kJ/mol
(1) Enthalpy of vaporisation is zero
(4) 600 kJ/mol

35. On dilution conductance of strong electrolyte
increases because
(1) Solute - solute interaction decreases
(2) Enthalpy of vaporisation is always endothermic

(3) Enthalpy of vaporisation is always exothermic
(4) Internal pressure of the liquid is less than that of
gas
(2) Solute - solvent interaction decreases
40. Which one of the following is an example of a

maximum boiling azeotropic?
(3) Solvent - solvent interaction decreases

(4) Degree of dissociation increase
36. Which of the following have maximum flocculation
value of a As2S3 solution?
(1) H2O HCl
(2) H2O C2H5OH
(3) CHCl3 CH3OH
(4) CCl4 CH3OH
41. Out of following which is an example of ionic solid?
(1) AlCl3
(2) BaSO4
(1) PF5
(2) PCl5
(3) NaCl
(3) CO2
(4) H2SO4
(4) Na3PO4
37. Which of the following half cell have highest
reduction potential?
(1)
Ag+
Ag
42. Correct regarding process of adsorption of H2 on a

platinum surface is (overall process)
H
(1) +ve
+ve
ve
(2) AgCl + e
Ag + Cl
(2) ve
+ve
ve
Br
(3) ve
ve
ve
(4) +ve
ve
+ve
(3) AgBr +
(4) AgI +
Ag +
Ag +
7/14

43. Lattice parameter for monoclinic crystal system
(1) a b c
(2) a = b c
(3) a b c
(4) a = b = c
=
Electrode
Anode
Cathode
(1) aq. CuSO4
Inert
O2
Cu
(2) aq. CuSO4
Cu
O2
Cu
(3) Molten NaCl Inert
Cl2
Na
(4) aq. NaCl
Cl2
H2
Inert
48. The graph between t1/2 versus concentration for a 2nd

order chemical kinetics is
t1
t1
(1)
44. Identify incorrect match

Electrolyte
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
45. When FeCl3 solution is added to NaOH a negatively

charged solution is obtained it is due to the
(1) Pressure of basic group
(2) Preferential adsorption
(3) Electron capture by solution particles
(4) Self dissociation
46. Number of formula unit present in one unit cell of
CsCl is
(2)
concentration
t1
t1
(3)
(4)
concentration
(1) 2.23 g/cm3
(2) 4.51 g/cm3
(3) 6.23 g/cm3
(4) 8.46 g/cm3
50. Which of the following graph represent chemical

adsorption?
x
m
(2) 2
(3) 6
x
m
(1)
(4) 1
(2)
47. Ratio of osmotic pressure of two solutions of equal

weight of glucose and urea at 300 K and 600 K
respectively
x
m
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
T2
T1
(3)
T1
x
m
(4)
P (T2 > T1)
(4) 1 : 4
8/14
concentration
49. Silicon crystallizes in a structure similar to diamond.

Find the density of silicon if Si Si bond length is
1.88 .
(1) 4
(3) 1 : 6
concentration
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
51. Which of the following have highest osmotic

pressure if 1 mole of each is added in one litre
solution?
54. Choose the correct regarding catalyst

(1) It changes the G of the reaction
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(2) It catalyses spontaneous

non-spontaneous reaction
as
well
(2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(3) It changes activation energy of reaction
(3) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(4) All of these
as
55. Catalyst used in following reaction is x
(4) AlCl3
52. Choose correct regarding points A and B in following
graph
Solvent Solution
V.P.
Solid
A
X
CO(g) + 2H2 (g)
CH3 OH(g)
x is
(1) Ni
(2) Cu
(3) Pt
(4) Cu/ZnO Cr2O3
SECTION - II
T
(1) Vapour pressure at both points is same
(2) Equilibrium constant at both points is same
(3) Mole fraction of solvent is same
(4) At A equilibrium exist between H2O(ice) and
H2O(l) while at B exist H2O (ice) + solute and
H2O(l)
53. Following equation give relation between conductance
and concentration
1
m m AC 2
value of A depend on
56. Statement-1 : Activity of an enzyme depend on
temperature and pH of the medium.
and
Statement-2 : Activity of catatyst is highest at
pH = 0.
Statement-1
(2) Type of electrolyte only

Statement-1
(3) Solvent and type of electrolyte
(4) Charge on cation electrolyte only
(1) Solvent only
9/14

57. Statement-1 : Fe3O4 retain its ferrimagnetism in
solid state and in solution.
and
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
59. Statement-1 : On mixing of two component resulting
the formation of ideal solution H mixing = 0,
G mixing of the process is negative.
Statement-2 : In Fe3O4, magnetic moment of the

domains in the substance are aligned in parallel and
unparallel direction in unequal number.
and

Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1
58. Statement-1 : Frenkel defect have no effect on

density of the crystal.
60. Statement-1 : Rate of reaction increases with rise in

temperature.
Statement-2 : Driving force responsible for mixing is

increase in entropy of the system.
and
and
Statement-2 : Frenkel defect is stochiometric defect

and in stochiometric defect Z does not change.
Statement-2 : With rise in temperature threshold

energy decreases.

Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1

Statement-1
PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
61. The number of all possible triplet (a1, a2, a3) such
that a1 + a2sinx + a3cosx = 0 holds for all x is
SECTION - I
(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) Infinite
10/14
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
2
62. The value of cos
3
5
cos2
cos2
.....
16
16
16
15
cos2
is equal to
16
68. If cos 2 ( 2 1) cos

, then the most
2
general values of is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2 2 3
63. The least value of 36cosec2 + sec2 is given by

(1) 37
(2) 49
(3) 142
(4) 7
(1) 2n , 2n
4
3
(2) 2n , 2n
4
3
(3) 2n , 2n
4
3
(4) n , n
4
3
69. Least positive integral value of x satisfying
64. The number of ordered pairs (a, x) satisfying the

equation cosec2(a + 2)x + a2 1 = 0, < x <
and a is real, is
(ex 2) (sinx cosx) (x log2) cos x

0 is
2
(1) 2
(2) 4
(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) Infinite
(3) 4
(4) 2
65. The equation sin4x (k + 1)sin2x (k + 2) = 0

possesses a solution if
(1) k > 2
(2) k < 1
(3) 2 k 1
(4) kR
(1)
66. The most general values of for which sin cos

= min (1, a2 4a + 6) are given by
aR
n
(1) n ( 1)

, n Z
4 4
n
(2) n ( 1)

, n Z
4 4
(3) 2n
1
1
70. The value of cos cos 2cot ( 2 1)
(3)
2 1
is equal to
(2) 1 2
(4)
3
4
71. The value of sec2(tan14) + cosec2(cot15) is equal

to
, n Z
4
(1) 43
(2) 39
(3) 41
(4) 37
72. If [tan1x]2 4[tan1x] + 4 0, where [.] denotes greatest

integer x, then x belongs to
(4) 2n, n Z
(1) [tan2, tan3)
67. The number of solutions of the equation sin5x.cos3x =

sin9x.cos7x lying in the interval 0, is
2
(2) (tan2, )
(1) 6
(2) 7

(3) ,
4 2
(3) 8
(4) 9
(4) No values of x is possible

11/14

73. In a PQR, the length of sides opposite to the
vertices P, Q, R are p, q, r respectively. Then
q r
P
P
2
cos
q r sin2
is equal to
2
2
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
78. The value of tan610 9tan410 + 11tan210 is equal to
(1) 1
(1) p 2
(2) q 2
(3) r 2
(4) qr
(2)
2
3
(3)
74. Number of real roots of the equation sec + cosec =

15 lying between 0 and is
(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8
(4)
1
3
1
3
79. The number of real solutions of the equation
75. The number of solutions of the equation
tan1 x 2 3 x 2 cos1 4 x x 2 3 is
x
2
sin
x 2( 2014 ) x 2015
2
2014
(1) One
(1) Forms an empty set (2) Is only one
(3) Zero
(3) Is only two
(4) Infinite
(2) Two
(4) Is more than 2
76. If 32tan8 = 2cos2 3cos and 3cos2 = 1, then

the general value of is
(1) 2n
2
(3) 2n
3
(2) 2n
2
3
(4) 2n
77. The equation sin4x + cos 4x + 3sin2x + 4 = 0 is

solvable for
(1)
1
1
2
2
80. Sum of the infinite terms of the series
3
3
3
cot 1 12 cot 1 22 cot 1 32 ...

4
4
4
is
(1)
(2)
(3) tan12
(4) tan13
81. If 2s be the perimeter of the triangle ABC, then the
(2)
1
1
8
8
2B
2 A
value of a cos b cos is equal to
2
2
(3)
7
5
8
8
(1) s
(4) R
(3)
12/14
s
2
(2) 2s
(4)
3s
2
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
82. Two sides of a triangle are given by the roots of the
SECTION - II
equation x 2 3 x 2 0 . The angle between the
. The perimeter of the triangle is

3
sides is
(1) 6 3
(2) 2 3 6
(3) 2 3 10
(4)
86. Statement-1 : The equation sin2x 5sinx + 6 = 0

has no real solution.
3 6
83. In a triangle ABC, the sides a, b and c are the roots

of x 3 8x 2 + 17x 10 = 0. Then the value of
cos A cos B cos C
equals
a
b
c
3
4
(2)
3
2
(3) 1
(4)
9
16
(1)
Statement-2 : |sinx| 1 x R.
Statement-1
Statement-1
84. If in a triangle ABC, the line joining incentre and

circumcenter is parallel to the side AB, then the
value of cosA + cosB is equal to
(1) 0

87. Statement-1 : The
sin2014 + cos2014 is 1.
maximum
value
of
and
(2) 1
(3)
and
Statement-2 : sin2014 sin2 and cos2014 cos2.
(4) 1
85. If the area of a triangle ABC is c2 (a b)2, then
the value of tanC is equal to
4
(1)
3
8
(3)
15
1
(2)
4

Statement-1
Statement-1
(4) 4

13/14
Test - 3 (Paper-I)
Statement-1
88. Statement-1 : tan + 2tan2 + 4tan4 + 8tan8 +

..... + 32tan32 + 64cot64 = cot.
and

Statement-1
Statement-2 : cot tan = 2cot2.

Statement-1


Statement-1
90. Statement-1 : If in the triangle ABC, the incentre is

the middle point of the median AD, then cos A

1
.
4
and
89. Statement-1 : If x > 1, then
Statement-2 : If in a triangle ABC, the incentre is

the middle point of the median AD, then ABC is an
isosceles triangle.
1 3 x
x3
2x
tan1
5 tan1 x .
tan
2
1 3 x 2
1 x

Statement-1
and
Statement-2 : For x 1,
2x
1
tan1
2 tan x and
1 x2

Statement-1
3x x3
tan1
3 tan1 x .
1 3 x 2

14/14
Test Booklet Code
Test No. 2
for
ES
RI
ALL
KASH TE
A
A
ST
IA
SE
IN
Paper I
JEE (Main) 2014
Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints)
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014
TEST - 2 (Paper-I)
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
MATHEMATICS
1.
(3)
31.
(1)
61.
(4)
2.
(1)
32.
(4)
62.
(4)
3.
(2)
33.
(3)
63.
(2)
4.
(1)
34.
(1)
64.
(3)
5.
(3)
35.
(2)
65.
(2)
6.
(4)
36.
(1)
66.
(1)
7.
(3)
37.
(2)
67.
(4)
8.
(3)
38.
(2)
68.
(2)
9.
(3)
39.
(1)
69.
(4)
10.
(2)
40.
(1)
70.
(2)
11.
(3)
41.
(2)
71.
(3)
12.
(1)
42.
(2)
72.
(2)
13.
(3)
43.
(3)
73.
(2)
14.
(4)
44.
(4)
74.
(1)
15.
(1)
45.
(2)
75.
(2)
16.
(4)
46.
(4)
76.
(4)
17.
(3)
47.
(3)
77.
(4)
18.
(4)
48.
(1)
78.
(3)
19.
(1)
49.
(1)
79.
(2)
20.
(3)
50.
(2)
80.
(1)
21.
(4)
51.
(3)
81.
(2)
22.
(3)
52.
(1)
82.
(3)
23.
(4)
53.
(3)
83.
(3)
24.
(3)
54.
(4)
84.
(2)
25.
(2)
55.
(2)
85.
(2)
26.
(2)
56.
(1)
86.
(1)
27.
(2)
57.
(3)
87.
(4)
28.
(1)
58.
(4)
88.
(1)
29.
(3)
59.
(1)
89.
(1)
30.
(2)
60.
(4)
90.
(1)
1/8

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15/12/2013

Test Booklet Code

JEE (Main) 2014

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE

9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of

The Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface

Trigonometric Functions (Transformation Formulae, Trigonometric

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

Choose the correct answer :

A particle of mass m is released from a distance 4R

A block of mass m is attached to one end of a light

A truncated rod of length 3.0 m and radii 3 cm and

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

An air bubble is at a depth h below the free surface

A small hole is made at depth 3h on a side wall of

[ = density of water, T = surface tension]

A hemispherical water drop drips from a capillary.

A tank is filled with a liquid moving with an

A uniform rod of length and density is rotated with

10. The speed v of a particle moving along x-axis is given

by v 16 x x 2 48 (cm/s) . The amplitude of

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

11. A block of mass m is connected to three springs as

13. A body is projected from between two planets

15. A solid sphere of radius R is floating at the interface

12. The point of suspension of a simple pendulum of

14. Two bodies of mass m and 4m are placed at a

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

20. A solid of density D is floating in a liquid of density

17. A ball of density = 3 is released from rest from

duration of an year will become

undeformed. Now it is compressed by

22. In the figure shown, a spring fixed to wall is initially

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

23. Two spherical balls of radii 2r and r and of density

Statement-2 : Weight = Mass acceleration due to

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

24. A planet of mass m moves around the sun of mass

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

25. A particle moves according to the law, x r cos

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

The distance covered by it in the time interval

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 : Angular momentum of a planet

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

32. Co-ordination no. of Fe+3 in Fe3O4 is

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

33. In one kg solvent (NH3), addition of which decrease

38. Correct sequence of molecular weight of

(1) 1 mole of AgCl