BH0 006

ISEB BH0-006
BH0-006 ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service

Management
Practice Test
Version 3.0
ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a RACI model used for?
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A. Defining roles and responsibilities

B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
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Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
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A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com

D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
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Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
Answer: B
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A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to
minimize the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
QUESTION NO: 7
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
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A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue

B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
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QUESTION NO: 10
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Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?

A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Exhibit: * Missing*
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
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A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
Answer: A
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A. The contract is being negotiated

B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
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A. Service Model
B. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
C. RACI Model
D. Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
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Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational
structure?
QUESTION NO: 17
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Answer: C
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The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is
called the:
A. Technical Management (TM)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18
Which of the questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?

1) How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2) What services to offer and to whom?
3) What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
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A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
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A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be
gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question "Did
we get there?"?

A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1) Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements

2) Designing the service so it can meet the targets
3) Ensuring all needed contracts and agreements are in place
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A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 are all true
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
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Which of the following combinations covers all the roles in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
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A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager;

Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator
B. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Service Asset Manager; Configuration Manager;
Configuration Analyst; Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator
C. Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst; CMS/tools Administrator; Librarian; Change
Manager
D. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Configuration Analyst;
Configuration control board; CMS/tools Administrator; Financial Asset Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 24
In many organizations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk.

It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:
A. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
B. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line
D. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
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A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

B. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 26
Answer: A
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A. Business Value
B. Functionality
C. IT Assets
D. Service Level Requirements
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The MAIN purpose of the Service Portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
QUESTION NO: 27
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development beoutsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Service Solution
B. Customer / Business Needs
C. Service Release
D. Service Requirements
Answer: B
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Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?
QUESTION NO: 29
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A. A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact

B. A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
C. A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
D. A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 30
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
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A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle

B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. Facilities Management
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C. Technical Management
D. IT Operations Control
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 32
Exhibit:
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Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?

Please refer to the exhibit.
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A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
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QUESTION NO: 33
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Answer: B
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"Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to

customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of
the following?
A. Markets and Customers
B. Functions and Processes
C. People, products and technology
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
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A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D. To source and deliver the components of standard servicesthat have been requested
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 35
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
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A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 36
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Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
Answer: B
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A. Availability Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Business Relationship Management
QUESTION NO: 37
What are the three Service Provider business models?
A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 38
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Knowledge
C. Wisdom
D. Information
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 39
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Answer: B
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A. Incident Management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Access management
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Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
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QUESTION NO: 40
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1) The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service
Operation
2) All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 41
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A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process?
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A. Overall business risk is optimized

B. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 43
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How does Problem Management work with Change Management?
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A. By installing changes to fix problems

B. By negotiating with Incident Management for changes in IT for Problem resolution
C. By issuing RFCs for permanent solutions
D. By working with users to change their IT configurations
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
D. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over the Business Lifecycle is part
of which process?
A. Service Portfolio Management
C. Component Capacity Management
D. Demand Management
Answer: D
Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
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QUESTION NO: 46
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A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.

B. Provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Mgmt.
C. Plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release.
D. Provide training and certification in project management.
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QUESTION NO: 47
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Answer: D
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

A. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
B. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
C. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
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The BEST description of the guidance provided by Service Design is?
A. The design and development of new services
B. The design and development of service improvements
C. The design and development of services and service management processes
D. The day-to-day operation and support of services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 49
Governance is concerned with:
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A. Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes

B. Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met
C. Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed
D. Reducing the total cost of providing services
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 50
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
Answer: B
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A. Access management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Incident Management
QUESTION NO: 51
To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and measure?
A. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
B. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 52
Before embarking on the 7-step Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process, which of the
following items need to be identified?
A. Business Objectives,IT Objectives, Process Metrics
B. Process Models, Goals and Objectives
C. Vision and Strategy, Tactical Goals and Operational Goals
D. Business andIT Strategy and Process Definitions
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 53
Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
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1) It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

2) It defines activities that are executed by a single function
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A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
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QUESTION NO: 54
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Answer: B
Asset?
A. Resources and Capabilities
B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Utility and Warranty
D. Applications and Infrastructure
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 55
Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk?
1. Logging details of Incidents and service requests
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2. Providing first line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Diagnosing the root cause of problems
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
What is the definition of an Alert?
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A. An error message to the user of an application

B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. A type of Incident
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
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Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
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A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
A. Service Transition contains guidance on transferring services from strategy into the design
phase of the Service Lifecycle
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B. Service Design provides guidance for the development of services and service management
processes
C. Continual Service Improvement contains guidance on supporting IT operations through models
such as shared services
D. Service Operation ensures that organizations are in a position to handle the costs and risks
associated with their service portfolios
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 59
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A. Data
B. Wisdom
C. Information
D. Knowledge
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
Answer: C
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A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. A method of structuring an organization
D. Responds to specific events
QUESTION NO: 61
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. IT Designer/Architect
B. Process Manager
C. Service Catalogue Manager
D. Supplier Manager
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 63
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
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Answer: A
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A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure
QUESTION NO: 64
The term 'Service Management' is best used to describe?
A. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form
of services
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 66
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QUESTION NO: 67
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Answer: B
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A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager

B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Desk Manager
D. The Service Manager
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Service Catalogue Management
D. Capacity Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68
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A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 69
Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal arrangements between two or
more organizations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or
support IT services"?
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A. Insourcing
B. Multisourcing
C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing
D. Application Service Provision
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 70
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A. Both of the above

C. 1 only
D. 2 only
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Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?

1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
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D. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice"
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 72
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component subprocesses?
A. Capacity Management
B. Incident Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Financial Management
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 73
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What are the three Service Provider business models?
QUESTION NO: 74
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Answer: A
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A. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party

A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 75
A Service Level Agreement is?
A. The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer
C. An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 76
One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of the service solutions. It includes?
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A. Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed

B. Only requirements needed and agreed
C. Only capabilities needed and agreed
D. Only resources and capabilities needed
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 77
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A. The Service Desk Manager

B. The Service Manager
C. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
D. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 78
Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?
A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT
requirements of the organization
B. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
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C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 79
Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance
drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service Level Management

B. Performance Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Event Management
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 80
Answer: D
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A. Extreme focus on cost

B. Extreme focus on responsiveness
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus
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Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know
what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
QUESTION NO: 81
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A. Where are we now?
B. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
C. Prepare for action
D. Define what you should measure
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 82
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
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QUESTION NO: 84
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Answer: B
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A. A New Service Package

B. A Service Design Package
C. A Service Level Package
D. A Service Transition Package
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The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is
called:
A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Manager
D. The Service Desk Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 85
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
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A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Catalogue Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
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A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held

B. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses
C. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored
and protected
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
stored and protected
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 87
Answer: D
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A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
C. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
QUESTION NO: 88
A. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management system
B. Overall business risk is optimized
C. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
D. All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 89
Which of these is NOT a responsibility of Application Management?
A. Ensuring that the correct skills are available to manage the infrastructure
B. Providing guidance to IT Operations about how best to manage the application
C. Deciding whether to buy or build an application
D. Assisting in the design of the application
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
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Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident?

1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record
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QUESTION NO: 91
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Answer: D
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A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neither of the above
Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
D. Where are we now?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 92
What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types
known as?
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A. The Service Support and Service Delivery books
B. Pocket Guides
C. The ITIL Complementary guidance
D. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 93
A risk is:
A. Something that won't happen

B. Something that has happened
C. Something that might happen
D. Something that will happen
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 94
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QUESTION NO: 95
Ac
Answer: C
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A. Evaluate; Diagnose; Justify; Intervene

B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Improve
C. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
D. Evaluate; Direct; Justify; Improve
In Service Operation, if too much emphasis is placed on 'Stability', what might the likely outcome
be in terms of responsiveness to customer needs?
A. Customersneeds will be met more easily because of the improved stability of the services with
fewer failures to disrupt timely delivery
B. From the information given, it is not possible to comment regarding the impact on
responsiveness of over-emphasis on stability
C. There is only likely to be a positive outcome from improved stability - the customers must be
made fully aware of this and their expectations regarding responsiveness must be managed
D. It is possible that responsiveness may suffer andcustomers needs may not be met within
business timescales
29

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 96
A. Knowledge
B. Data
C. Information
D. Wisdom
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 97
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Major Incidents require?
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A. Less documentation
B. Longer timescales
C. Less urgency
D. Separate procedures
QUESTION NO: 98
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Answer: D
Ac
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of new or changed services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 99
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?
A. Eliminating recurring Incidents
30

B. Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented
C. Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible andMinimizing adverse impact on the
business
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 100

Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)?
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A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held

B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored
and protected
C. A secure electronic library that contains all copies of software and licenses
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 101
Which of the following BEST describes a 'Major Incident'?
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A. An Incident that is so complex that the Service Desk takes longer than five times the normal
time to log it
B. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An Incident which has a high impact on the business
D. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before any workaround can
be found
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 102

A. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
B. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process
31

C. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 103

Contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?
A. Service Desk
B. IT Operations Control
D. Facilities Management
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 104
QUESTION NO: 105
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Answer: D
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A. Excessive focus on quality

B. Excessively reactive
C. Excessively proactive
D. Excessive focus on cost
sts
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to
suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?

A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To source and deliver the components of standard servicesthat have been requested
D. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 106
32

Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A. Processes and functions
B. Infrastructure availability
C. The end to end service
D. Maturity and cost
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107
"Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to

customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of
the following?
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A. Functions and Processes

B. Markets and Customers
C. Applications and Infrastructure
D. People, products and technology
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 108
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Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
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A. Business Relationship Management

B. Continual Service Improvement
D. Availability Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109

A. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
B. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
C. The definition of Process Control is "The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
33

D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110

How is the Service Catalogue used to add value to the service provider organization?
A. Providing a central source of information on the IT services delivered
B. Showing the business impact of a change
C. Displaying the relationships between configuration items
D. To predict the root cause of issues in the IT infrastructure
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
sts
Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment
Management?
Answer: A
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A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and
that will accomplish thestakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
assets and service components that are compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified
and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
QUESTION NO: 112

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known
B. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business
C. The cause of one or more Incidents
D. The cause of two or more Incidents
Answer: C
34
QUESTION NO: 113

Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they
contribute is?
A. Whether to buy an application or build it
B. Should application development beoutsourced
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Where the vendor of an application is located
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 114
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Which one of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is correct?
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A. All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk
activity
B. Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as problems because technical staff
manage infrastructure devices not services
C. Incident can only be reported by users, since they are only the only people who know when a
service has been disrupted
D. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruptions or potential disruption to normal
service. This includes technical staff
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Answer: D
Explanation:
From a logical standpoint, incidents are incidents and problems are problems--they are two
different things regardless of any other fact, including who reports them. Incidents are owned by
the Service Desk anyway, so it should make no difference whether or not technical staff do the
reporting.
QUESTION NO: 115

Removing or restricting rights to use an IT Service is the responsibility of which process?
A. Access Management
C. Request Fulfillment
35

D. Change Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 116

The Service Catalogue can be BEST described as:
A. A document used by Service Operations to identify activities that they must perform
B. A list of all business requirements that have not yet become services
C. The part of the Service Portfolio that is visible to customers
D. A list of all Service Level Agreements
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 117
QUESTION NO: 118
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Answer: C
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A. Applications and Infrastructure

B. Services and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
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Asset?
Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know
what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
A. Extreme internal focus
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Extreme focus on responsiveness
D. Vendor focused
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 119
36

What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
A. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day to day
basis
B. A document that describes business services to operational staff
C. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
D. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 120

Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Centre?
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A. IT Operations Management
B. Applications Management
C. Service Desk
D. Technical Management
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 121
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Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
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A. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts.

B. Development, negotiation and agreement of Organizational Level Agreements
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements.
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Portfolio
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 122

Which of the following areas would not be supported by a Service Design tool?
A. Software design
B. Process design
C. Environment design
D. Strategy design
Answer: D
37

Explanation:
One of the major tasks of Service Design is to design processes. Of what value would a Service
Design tool be, that does not support designing processes e.g. with use case modeling. According
to Service Design, 3.1 goals, one of the goals of service design is:
* Desig n secure and resilient IT infrastructures, environments , applications and data/information
resources and capability that meet the current and future needs of the business and customers
Another goals of service design is:
* Design efficient and effective processes for the design, transition, operation and improvement of
high-quality IT services, together with the supporting tools, systems and information, especially the
Service Portfolio, to manage services through their lifecycle
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QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
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A. Governance
D. Service Strategy
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 124
Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?

A. Applications Management
B. Service Desk
D. IT Operations Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 125

Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators for Change Management?
A. The Service Owner
38

B. The Continual Service Improvement Manager
C. The Change Advisory Board (CAB)
D. The Change Management Process Owner
Answer: D
Explanation:
ITIL 3 Service Design
6 Organizing for Service Design
6.4 ROLES AND RESPONSIBILITIES
6.4.1 Process owner
A process owner is responsible for ensuring that their process is being performed according to the
agreed and documented process and is meeting the aims of the process definition. This includes
such tasks as:
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* ....
* Defining the Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of
the process
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QUESTION NO: 126
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The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement
(OLA) is that:
Ac
A. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreement

B. An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver
the service
C. An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level Targets
D. An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 127

Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT services
C. To transform Service Management into a strategic asset
D. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy
39

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 128

Which of the following best describes a Service Request?
A. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface
B. A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change
C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a
CAB meeting
D. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Service Request (Service Operation) A request from a User for information or advice, or for a
Standard Change or for Access to an IT Service. For example to reset a password, or to provide
standard IT Services for a new User. Service Requests are usually handled by a Service Desk,
and do not require an RFC to be submitted. See also Request Fulfillment.
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QUESTION NO: 129
Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply
Answer: A,C
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A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

B. To automatically detect service affecting Events
C. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
D. None of the other alternatives apply.
QUESTION NO: 130

A. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
B. The impact of changes are better understood
C. Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
D. All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration
Management System (CMS)
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 131

When can a Known Error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After the permanent solution has been implemented
A. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. 1 only
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 132
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What is the Service V Model used for?
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A. The day to day management of services

B. Monitoring and measuring services as part of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
C. Identifying different levels of validation and testing that can be carried out
D. Managing the five aspects of Service Design
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QUESTION NO: 133
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Answer: C
Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?

1. Customer retention
2. Time to market
3. Service Architecture
4. Market share
A. All of the alternatives apply
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: B
41

QUESTION NO: 134
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?
A. Information Data Knowledge Wisdom
B. Wisdom Information Data Knowledge
C. Knowledge Wisdom Information Data
D. Data Information Knowledge Wisdom
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 135
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard
services?
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A. IT Finance
B. Service Portfolio Management
C. Service Desk
D. Request Fulfillment
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 136
Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?
Ac
A. Service Desk
B. IT Operations Control
C. Facilities Management
D. Technical Management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 137

Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not
B. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset
C. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
D. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not
42

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 138

A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base
B. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database
C. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
D. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 139
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Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to?
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A. Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation

B. Service Operation
C. Service Transition and Service Operation
D. Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service
Improvement
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QUESTION NO: 140
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Answer: D
The three subprocesses of Capacity Management are:

A. Business Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management and Component Capacity
Management
B. Business Capacity Management, Technology Capacity Management and Component Capacity
Management
C. Supplier Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management and Technology Capacity
Management
D. Supplier Capacity Management, Service Capacity Management and Component Capacity
Management
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 141
What is the BEST description of a 'Major Incident'?
A. An Incident logged by a senior manager
B. An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be
found
C. An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
D. An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 142
Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?
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A. A set ofspecialised organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole,
operating
together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 143
An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to
suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A. extreme focus on cost
B. extreme focus on quality
C. excessively reactive
D. excessively proactive
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 144

Which of the following statements is INCORRECTLY assigned to its book?
44

A. contains guidance on transferring the control of services between customers and service
providers: SERVICE TRANSITION
B. ensures thatorganization are in a position to handle the costs and risks associated with their
service portfolios: SERVICE STRATEGY
C. provides guidance for the development of services and service management processes:
SERVICE DESIGN
D. contains guidance on supporting operations through new models and architectures, such as
shares services: CONTINUAL SERVICE IMPROVEMENT
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 145
The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
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A. To carry out the service operations activities to support current IT services

B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. to create and populate a services catalogue
D. to ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 146
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Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
Ac
A. Utility and Warranty

B. Customer and User Satisfaction
C. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D. Value on Investment, Return on Investment
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 147

A. manage; monitor; diagnose; intervene
B. Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
C. report; manage; improve; extend
D. plan; predict; report; justify
45

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 148

How many numbered steps are in the continual service improvement (CSI) process?
A. 11
B. 4
C. 7
D. 6
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 149
Ac
QUESTION NO: 150
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Answer: B
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A. service level management

B. service catalogue management
C. demand management
D. service transition
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Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and
dependencies of all the services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live
environment?
Which of the following is NOT a function?

A. Technical Management
C. Service Desk
D. Application Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 151

What is the RACI model used for?
46

A. recording configuration items
B. defining roles and responsibilities
C. performance analysis
D. monitoring services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 152

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service design manager?
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A. Design and maintain all necessary service transition packages

B. take the overall service strategies and ensure they are reflected in the service design process
C. measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
D. produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 153
Ac
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Exhibit:
Order the following continual service improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the CORRECT
sequence in alignment with the plan, do check, act (PDCA) model.
A. 2-3-4-1
B. 1-3-2-4
C. 3-4-2-1
D. 3-1-2-4
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 154

47

Which processes review underpinning contracts on a regular basis?
A. supplier management, demand management and service level management
B. supplier management and demand management
C. supplier management and service level management
D. demand management and service level management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 155

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
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A. to restore service to a user

B. to manage problems throughout their lifecycle
C. to prevent problems and their resultant incidents
D. to minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 156
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a standard change?
Answer: A
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A. a pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure

B. a change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
C. a change to that correctly follows the requires change process
D. a change that is made as the result of an audit
QUESTION NO: 157

Even Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfillment are part
of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?
B. Service Operation
C. Service strategy
D. Continual Service Improvement
Answer: B
48
QUESTION NO: 158

Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
A. request fulfillment
B. incident management
C. demand management
D. release and deployment management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 159
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Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the service catalogue manager?
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A. ensuring that all the operational services are recorded in the service catalogue
B. ensuring that the information in the service catalogue is consistent with the information in the
service portfolio
C. ensuring that the information in the service catalogue is accurate
D. ensuring that the information within the service pipeline is accurate
QUESTION NO: 160
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Answer: D
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according
A. the release packaging and build manager
B. the service desk owner
C. the service owner
D. the request fulfillment process owner
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 161

Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
49

A. Controlled
B. Configuration
C. Consulted
D. Complex
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 162

What does a service always have to deliver to its customers?
A. infrastructure
B. applications
C. resources
D. value
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 163
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The two main parts of the service catalogue are:
QUESTION NO: 164
Ac
Answer: A
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A. the business service catalogue and the technical service catalogue

B. service levels and service costs
C. the service portfolio and retired services
D. service attributes and service capabilities
Which of these statements about assets, resources and capabilities is MOST accurate?
A. capabilities and resources are both ways of using assets
B. Resources are types of asset and capabilities are ways of using assets
C. resources and capabilities are both types of asset
D. capabilities are types of asset and resources are ways of using assets
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 165
RACI is an acronym for four roles. Which of the following is NOT one of the RACI roles?
A. consulted
B. Reliable
C. informed
D. accountable
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 166
Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management?
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A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of recent change
D. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 167
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IT operations management have been asked by a customer to carry out non-standard activity that
will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
Ac
A. they should escalate this decision to service strategy

B. accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes
C. make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
D. refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service levels
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 168

Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of release unit?
A. the portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
B. the team of people responsible for implementing a release
C. a measurement of cost
D. a function described within service transition
51

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 169

Which of the following is NOT an example of self-help capabilities?
A. requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. a direct interface into the back end process-handling software
C. web front-end
D. menu-driven range of self help and service requests
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 170
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Exhibit:
Ac
A. 2 and 3 only
B. all of the alternatives apply
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
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Which of the following are responsibilities of a service level manager?

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 171

Major Incidents require:
A. separate procedures
B. longer timescales
C. less urgency
D. less documentation
Answer: A
52
QUESTION NO: 172

Exhibit:
What would be the next step in the continual service improvement model (CSI) after (please refer
to the exhibit).
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A. what is the return on investment?

B. how much did it cost?
C. what is the value on investment?
D. how do we keep the momentum going?
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 173
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Which of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
Ac
A. Overall business risk is optimized

B. standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
C. all budgets and expenditures are accounted for
D. all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration
management system
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 174

A. plan; predict; report; justify
B. validate; direct; justify; intervene
C. report; manage; improve; extend
53

D. manage; monitor; diagnose; intervene
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 175

Which of the following BEST describes a service request?
A. anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
B. any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the change manager without a
CAB meeting
C. A request from a user for information or advice or for a standard change
D. any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 176
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The MAIN purpose of the service portfolio is to describe services in terms of?
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Ac
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 177
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A. business value
B. IT assets
C. service level requirements
D. functionality
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
A. process manager
B. supplier manager
C. IT designer / architect
D. service catalogue manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 178
54

Service management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services.
These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A. applications and infrastructure
B. service pipelines and service catalogue
C. functions and processes
D. markets and customers
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 179
What is the BEST description of the purpose of service operation?
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A. to decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service management lifecycle
B. to design and build processes that will meet business needs
C. to deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. to proactively prevent all outages to IT services
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 180
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The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
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A. service metrics measure maturity and cost; technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
B. service metrics measure the end to end service; technology metrics measure individual
components
C. service metrics measure processes and functions; technology metrics measure server and
network availability
D. service metrics measure each of the service management processes; technology metrics
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 181

Which functions are included in IT Operations management?
55

A. network management and application management
B. facilities management and technical management
C. IT operations control and facilities management
D. technical management and application management
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 182

The left-hand side of the service V model represents requirements and specifications. What does
the right-hand side of the service V model represent?
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A. Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure

B. The business value that can be expected from a given service
C. Validation and Testing
D. roles and responsibilities for an effective service management implementation
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 183
Ac
A. 2 and 4 only
B. all of the alternatives apply
C. 2 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
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lTe
Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?

1. capacity management
2. request management
3. demand management
4. incident management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 184

Which process is responsible for providing the right to use an IT service?
A. access management
B. incident management
C. request Fulfillment
56

D. change management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 185

Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A. Evaluation
B. Service Test Manager
C. Release Packaging and Build Manager
D. Early Life Support
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 186
sts
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
QUESTION NO: 187
Ac
Answer: B
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lTe
A. to provide quality knowledge of change, release and deployment management

B. to provide training and certification in project management
C. to ensure that a service can bemanaged, operated and supported
D. to plan and manage the capacity and resources requirements to manage a release
Availability management is responsible for availability of:

A. services and components
B. services and business processes
C. services, components and business processes
D. components and business processes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 188
57

Which of the following BEST describes 'partners' in the phrase "people, processes, products and
partners"?
A. internal departments
B. customers
C. the facilities manager
D. suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 189
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Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

1. to automatically detect service affecting events
2. to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. to minimize the adverse impacts on business operations
sts
A. all of the alternatives apply

B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
tua
QUESTION NO: 190
lTe
Answer: C
Ac
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment Process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard serviced (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 191

Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 step improvement process?
58

A. Prepare for action
B. define what you should measure
C. where are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA achievement)
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 192

One organization provides and manages an entire business or function for another organization.
This is known as:
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A. business process outsourcing

B. business function outsourcing
C. business process management
D. knowledge process outsourcing
sts
Answer: A
A service level agreement (SLA) is:
lTe
QUESTION NO: 193
Answer: D
Ac
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A. an agreement between a service provider and an external supplier

B. the part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party
C. an agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
D. an agreement between the service provider and their customer
QUESTION NO: 194

A single release unit, or a structured set of release units can be defined within:
A. a request model
B. the release package
C. the RACI model
D. the plan, do, check, act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B
59

QUESTION NO: 195
The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the service lifecycle. Which of the following
statements about ITIL complementary guidance is CORRECT?
A. it consists of five publications
B. it provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
C. it is also structured around the service lifecycle
D. It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 196
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One of the five major aspects of service design is the design of the service solutions. Which of the
following does this include?
sts
A. only capabilities needed and agreed

B. only requirements needed and agreed
C. only resources and capabilities needed
D. requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
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QUESTION NO: 197
lTe
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
Ac
A. a method of structuring an organization

B. delivers specific results
C. responds to specific events
D. it is measurable
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 198

The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST describes as?
A. service metrics measure each of the service management processes; technology metrics
B. service metrics measure maturity and cost; technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
60

C. service metrics measure the end to end service; technology metrics measure individual
components
D. Service metrics measure processes and functions; technology metrics measure server and
network availability
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 199

Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A. the service level manager

B. the service owner
C. the service continuity manager
D. the business relationship owner
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Answer: B
sts
QUESTION NO: 200
QUESTION NO: 201
tua
Answer: D
Ac
A. service operation
B. service transition
C. service design
D. service strategy
lTe
Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
Exhibit:
Which of the following areas would technology help support during the service operation phase of
the lifecycle?
61

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. All of the alternatives apply
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 202

Exhibit:
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Which of the following does the availability management process include.

sts
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3.
lTe
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 203
Ac
Exhibit:
Which of the following questions does guidance in service strategy help answer?
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 only
D. all of the alternatives apply
Answer: D
62

QUESTION NO: 204
Which of the following is a sub-process of capacity management?
A. component capacity management
B. process capacity management
C. technology capacity management
D. capability capacity management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 205
Which of the following BEST describes a service request?
sts
.co
A. anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for

B. a request from a user for information, advice of for a standard change
C. any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. any request for change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the change manager
without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting
lTe
Answer: B
tua
QUESTION NO: 206
The BEST process to automate are those that are?
Ac
A. carried out by service operations

B. simple and well understood
C. carried out by lots of people
D. critical to the success of the business mission
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 207

Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level
management?
A. Customer satisfaction score
B. number of services deployed within agreed terms
C. average number of daily incidents managed by each service agent
63

D. number of services in the service portfolio
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 208

Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
A. service portfolio management
B. service asset and configuration management
C. incident management
D. service level management
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 209
sts
Which of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
QUESTION NO: 210

Exhibit:
Ac
Answer: D
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lTe
A. minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented

B. eliminating recurring incidents
C. preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
D. restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on
business
Which of the following should be supported by technology?

A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
64

C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. all of the alternatives apply
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 211

Which of the following activities is carried out in the "where do we want to be" step of the continual
service improvement model?
A. aligning the business and IT strategies

B. defining measurable targets
C. implementing service and process improvements
D. creating a baseline
.co
Answer: B
sts
QUESTION NO: 212
lTe
The ITIL CORE publications are structures around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following
statements about ITIL complementary guidance is CORRECT?
QUESTION NO: 213
Ac
Answer: D
tua
A. It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000
B. It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
C. It consists of five publications
D. It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
The of the following statements BEST describes the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. a secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are protected
B. a secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
C. a database that contains definitions of all media configuration items (CIs)
D. a secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are
Answer: D
65

QUESTION NO: 214
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the:
A. emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. technical management
C. urgent change board (UCB)
D. urgent change authority (UCA)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 215
lTe
Answer: C
sts
A. people, products, technology, partners

B. people, process, products, technology
C. people, process, products, partners
D. people, process, partners, suppliers
.co
Implementation of ITIL services management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
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QUESTION NO: 216
A. service strategy
B. service transition
C. service design
D. service operation
Ac
In which core publications can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management,
information security management and supplier management?
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 217

A service is not very reliable, but when it works it is of great value to the customer. This
combination could be described as:
A. high utility and low warranty
66

B. low utility and high warranty
C. low utility and low warranty
D. high utility and high warranty
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 218

Service Design emphasizes the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list
of these Four Ps?
A. People, Products, Partners, Profit

B. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit
C. People, Potential, Products, Performance
D. People, Process, Products, Partners
.co
Answer: D
sts
QUESTION NO: 219
lTe
In the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners". Products refers to:
QUESTION NO: 220
Ac
Answer: A
tua
A. Services, technology and tools

B. IT Infrastructure and Applications
C. Goods provided by third parties to support the IT Services
D. All assets belonging to the Service Provider
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

A. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities
B. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costs
C. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur
D. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users
Answer: D
67

QUESTION NO: 221
Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?
A. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
B. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To detect security events and make sense of them
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 222
Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?
.co
1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives

2. A process should be documented
lTe
sts
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Neitherofthe above
D. Bothofthe above
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 223
Ac
Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The Service Provider
C. The Finance department
D. The Customer
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 224

Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and
relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?
68

B. Service Asset and Configuration Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 225

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Event?
A. The unknown cause of one or more Incidents

B. Any detectable or discernable occurrence that has significance for the management of the IT
infrastructure
C. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an Incident or Problem
D. An unplanned interruption to an IT service
.co
Answer: B
sts
QUESTION NO: 226
lTe
Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process
QUESTION NO: 227
Ac
Answer: C
tua
A. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident

B. A change to a contract with a supplier
C. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services
D. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes
Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners,
People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is the additional "P"?
A. Profit
B. Preparation
C. Potential
D. Products
Answer: D
69

QUESTION NO: 228
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?
A. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities
B. Strategic, tactical and operational
C. Technology, process and service
D. Return On Investment (ROI), ValueOn Investment (VOI), quality
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 229
sts
A. The Information Management System

B. The Known Error Database
C. The Asset Register
D. The Service Knowledge Management System
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lTe
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 230
.co
Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System

(CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?
What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?
Ac
A. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services

B. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service Provider
C. Reports should be produced weekly
D. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 231

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
B. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
C. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
70

D. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 232

IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:
1: Design of the service technology
2: Business continuity strategy
3: Business Impact Analysis
4: Risk assessment
.co
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
sts
Answer: A
lTe
QUESTION NO: 233
The BEST processes to automate are those that are:
Answer: C
Ac
tua
A. Critical to the success of the business mission

B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Simple and well understood
D. Carried out by Service Operations
QUESTION NO: 234

Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?
A. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity
B. They must contain legal wording because of their importance
C. There should always be aseparateSLA for each specific customer
D. Changes totheSLA can only be requested by the customer
Answer: A
71
QUESTION NO: 235

Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?
1. Known Error Data
2. Change Schedules
3. Service Knowledge Management System
4. The output from monitoring tools
A. 1,2 and4 only

B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 2,3 and 4 only
D. All of the other alternatives apply.
.co
Answer: D
sts
QUESTION NO: 236
QUESTION NO: 237
tua
Answer: B
Ac
A. Service Level Management

B. Capacity Management
C. Incident Management
D. Financial Management
lTe
Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?
What are Request Models used for?

A. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
C. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
D. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as
local or remote
Answer: C
72

QUESTION NO: 238
Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?
A. Access Management
B. Demand Management
C. Facilities Management
D. Event Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 239
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
sts
.co
A. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes

B. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
C. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
D. Review andanalyse Service Level Achievement results
lTe
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 240
Ac
A. The IT Director
B. The Service Owner
C. The Customer
D. The Process Owner
tua
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 241

What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?
A. Informational, Warning, Exception
B. Informational,Scheduled,Normal
C. Scheduled, Unscheduled, Emergency
D. Warning, Reactive, Proactive
73

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 242

In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?1 is
underpinned by which set of activities?
A. Setting measurement targets
B. Taking measurements and recording metrics
C. Baseline assessments
D. Service and process improvements
Answer: D
.co
QUESTION NO: 243
Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
lTe
sts
A. Service Design: Design the processes

B. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
C. Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
D. Service Operation:IT Operations Management
Ac
QUESTION NO: 244
tua
Answer: A
A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be
expected of them?
A. Perform an activity
B. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
C. Manage an activity
D. Tell others about the progress of an activity
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 245

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?
74

A. To restore service to a user
B. To eliminate recurring Incidents
C. To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents
D. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 246

Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?
.co
A. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
B. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incident
C. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM)
activities
D. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
sts
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 247
lTe
Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are
CORRECT?
A. Neitherofthe above
B. Bothofthe above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Ac
tua
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability
and the right level of control
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 248

Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A. Evaluation
75

B. Early Life Support
C. Release Packaging and Build Manager
D. Service Test Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 249

In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's
contribution?
A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated

B. Service value ismodelled
C. Service value is actually seen by customers
D. Measures for optimization are identified
.co
Answer: C
sts
QUESTION NO: 250
tua
A. 1, 3 and4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Ac
1. Local Service Desk

2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
lTe
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 251

A. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization
B. Service owners are as important to service management as process owners
C. Process owners are more important to service management than service owners
76

D. Service owners are more important to service management than process owners
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 252

Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment
Management?
.co
A. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related
assets and service components that are compatible with each other
B. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
C. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and
that will accomplish thestakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
D. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified
and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
sts
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 253
lTe
The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service
Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?
Answer: D
Ac
tua
A. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available.

B. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level Agreement
C. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level Agreements
D. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backedup.
QUESTION NO: 254

Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A. Process definitions
B. Measurement, methods and metrics
C. Service Portfolio Design
D. Service Design Package
77

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 255

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
A. A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business
B. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known
C. The cause of one or more Incidents
D. The cause of two or more Incidents
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 256
.co
A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
lTe
sts
A. Yes
B. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem
Ac
QUESTION NO: 257
tua
Answer: A
Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
B. Statement of Requirements (SOR)
C. Configuration Management System (CMS)
D. Definitive Media Library (DML)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 258

What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after: (please
refer to the exhibit)
78

Exhibit:
A. What is the ValueOn Investment (VOI)?

B. What is the ReturnOn Investment (ROI)?
C. How much did it cost?
D. How do we keep the momentum going?
.co
Answer: D
sts
QUESTION NO: 259

What is the objective of Access Management?
QUESTION NO: 260
Ac
Answer: C
tua
lTe
A. To manage access to the Service Desk

B. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. To manage the right to use a service or group of services
D. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings
Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?
A. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the
plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented;Improve the solution
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
C. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did
we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
D. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;
Continually Improve
Answer: C
79
QUESTION NO: 261

Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. All of the other alternatives apply.
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
.co
Answer: A
sts
QUESTION NO: 262
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?
QUESTION NO: 263
Ac
Answer: A
tua
lTe
A. To provide training and certification in project management

B. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
C. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A. Implement
B. Measure
C. Perform
D. Do
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 264

80

Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?
A. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk
locations are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 265

Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
.co
A. Demand Management
B. Availability Management
C. Financial Management
sts
Answer: A
lTe
QUESTION NO: 266
tua
Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neitherofthe above
D. Bothofthe above
Ac
1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage
services at agreed levels to the business
2. The successful release of services into the live environment
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 267

Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?
1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets
2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability
81

3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability
goals
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 268

Hierarchic escalation is best described as?
sts
.co
A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident

B. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill
C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer
satisfaction
D. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement
lTe
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 269
tua
Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?
Ac
A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change

B. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director
C. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB
D. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 270

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. A Request for Change (RFC)
B. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. A Service Description
D. The Service Portfolio
82

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 271

The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the
Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Transition
C. Service Design
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 272
Answer: B
Ac
tua
A. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

B. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act
C. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act
D. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act
lTe
1. Monitor, Measure and Review

2. Continual Improvement
3. Implement Initiatives
4. Plan for Improvement
sts
Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages
QUESTION NO: 273

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against
targets?
A. Capacity Plan
B. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
Answer: B
83
QUESTION NO: 274

Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?
A. Supplier Management
B. Service Desk
C. RequestFulfilment
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 275
.co
Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:
sts
A. A capacity database (CDB)

B. A configuration management database (CMDB)
C. A capacity management information system (CMIS)
D. A configuration management system (CMS)
tua
QUESTION NO: 276
lTe
Answer: C
1. Progress
2. Effectiveness
3. Efficiency
4. ?
Ac
There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of
processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?
A. Cost
B. Compliance
C. Conformance
D. Capacity
Answer: B
84

QUESTION NO: 277
Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?
1. Architectures
2. Technology
3. Service Management processes
4. Metrics
A. All of the other alternatives apply.
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 278
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Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
QUESTION NO: 279
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Answer: B
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A. 2 only
B. Both of the above
C. 1 only
D. Neither of the above
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1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary

2. Check that user is satisfied with the outcome
With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding
systems?
C. Service Asset and Configuration Management
D. IT Service Continuity
Answer: A
85

QUESTION NO: 280
Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration
Management?
A. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
B. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
C. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
D. Describes the topography of the hardware
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 281
QUESTION NO: 282
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sts
Ac
Answer: D
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A. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
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1. A new IT service
2. A major change to an IT service
3. An Emergency Change to an IT service
4. An IT service retirement
A Service Design Package should be produced for which of the following?
Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the
levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the responsibility of which role?
A. The Service Level Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Change Manager
D. The Information Security Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 283

86

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 284
You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines.
Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?
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A. Improved Service alignment with business goals

B. Reduced Total Cost of Ownership
C. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
D. Improved quality of service
Ac
QUESTION NO: 285
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Answer: C
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard
services?
A. Service Desk
B. RequestFulfilment
C. Service Portfolio Management
D. IT Finance
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 286

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and
represents a set of items that are related to each other?
87

A. Change Baseline
B. Configuration Baseline
C. Asset Baseline
D. Project Baseline
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 287

Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?
A. The Service Continuity Manager

B. The Service Owner
C. The Business Relationship Manager
D. The Service Level Manager
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 288
lTe
What is the Service Pipeline?
QUESTION NO: 289
Ac
Answer: A
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A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stage

B. All complex multi-user services
C. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. All servicesexcept those that have been retired
Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

A. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management,
RequestFulfilment
B. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration
Management
C. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and
Deployment Management
D. Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request
Management
88

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 290

A. They respond to specific events
B. We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner
C. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work
D. They deliver specific results
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 291
Ac
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 292
sts
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A. Definitive Media Library

B. Software Secure Library
C. Definitive Software Store
D. Service Knowledge Management System
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What is the name of the area where the definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration
Items(Cls) are stored and protected?
How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?
A. Two - the process owner and the process enactor
B. Only one - the process owner
C. As many as necessary to complete the activity
D. Only one - the process architect
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 293

A change process model should include:
1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing
89

defined, including handling issues and unexpected events
2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4 - Complaints procedures
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 294
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Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high
volumes of what?
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A. Incidents and Problems

B. Service level requests
C. Password resets
D. Changes and Releases
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QUESTION NO: 295
lTe
Answer: D
Ac
Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and
impact?
A. Urgency should be based on impact and priority
B. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other
C. Impact should be based on urgency and priority
D. Priority should be based on impact and urgency
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 296

Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?
A. To ensure that overall business risk of Change is optimized
90

B. To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the
Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 297

The Supplier Management process includes:
.co
1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service
requirements
2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements
3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs
of thebusiness
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 298
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A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
Ac
As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which
of the following service provider types?
1. An internal service provider embedded within a business unit
2. An internal service provider that provides shared IT services
3. An external service provider
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: A
91

QUESTION NO: 299
What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types
known as?
A. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
B. Pocket Guides
C. The Service Support and Service Delivery books
D. The Service Strategy and Service Transition books
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 300
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Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST
CORRECT?
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A. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has
information about services which are being considered for future development
B. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared
fordeployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being
considered for future development
C. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing
D. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has
information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment
Ac
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 301
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A. Change Management
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 302
92

Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular
basis?
A. The Service Catalogue Manager
B. The IT Service Continuity Manager
C. The Supplier Manager
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 303

Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?
.co
A. Capacity Management
C. IT Operations Management
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Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 304
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A process owner is responsible for which of the following?
Ac
1. Documenting the process

2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
3. Improving the process
4. Ensuring process staff undertake the required training
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 305

What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
93

A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B. A document that describes business services to operational staff
C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 306

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as
opposed to reactive?
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1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
sts
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 307
A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:
Ac
1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA
Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?
A. 1 only
C. 2 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 308
94

Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A. Noneofthe above
B. Bothofthe above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 309
Ac
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 310
sts
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A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
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1. Data mining and workflow tools

2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and deployment technology
4. Process Design
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Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase
of the lifecycle?
Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?

A. Processes and functions
B. Maturity and cost
C. The end to end service
D. Infrastructure availability
Answer: C
95

QUESTION NO: 311
Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?
1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts
2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database
3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts
4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. None of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 312
Answer: D
Ac
A. Teams
B. Job descriptions
C. Functions
D. Roles, people or groups
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What are these BEST described as?
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1. Change Authority
2. Change Manager
3. Change Advisory Board (CAB)
sts
Consider the following list:
QUESTION NO: 313

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
A. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
B. The value of a service
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
96

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 314

A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:
A. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
B. The RACI Model
C. A Release Package
D. A Request Model
Answer: C
What does a service always deliver to customers?
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A. Applications
B. Value
C. Infrastructure
D. Resources
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 316
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QUESTION NO: 315
Ac
Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?

A. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process
B. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed
C. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release
D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 317

Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as
'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the
principles defined in the vision?
97

A. Where are we now?
B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 318

Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
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1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems

2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
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tua
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 319
sts
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Ac
Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments
and organizational strategies?
A. Pocket Guides
B. The ITIL Complementary Guidance
C. The Service Strategy book
D. The Service Support book
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 320

The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is
called:
98

A. A Service Design Package
B. A Service Transition Package
C. A New Service Package
D. A Service Level Package
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 321

Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
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A. Review and Close

B. Remediation Planning
C. Prioritization
D. Categorization
sts
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 322
lTe
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The Service Owner:
Ac
A. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service theyown
B. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own
C. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization
D. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service
they own
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 323

What are the two major processes in Problem Management?
A. Resource and Proactive
B. Proactive and Reactive
C. Technical and Service
D. Reactive and Technical
99

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 324

Undertaking a gap analysis is a key activity within which part of the Deming Cycle for improving
services and service management processes?
A. Do
B. Plan
C. Check
D. Act
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 325
Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?
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A. A function described within Service Transition

B. The team of people responsible for implementing a release
C. A measurement of cost
D. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together
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Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 326
Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service Design
B. Service Transition
D. Service Strategy
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 327

Reliability is a measure of:
100

A. The availability of a service or component
B. How long a service or component can perform its function withoutfailing
C. The level of risk that could impact a service or process
D. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 328

Access Management is closely related to which other processes?
A. Availability Management only

B. Information Security Management and Availability Management
C. Information Security Management only
D. Information Security Management and 3rd line support
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 329
lTe
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
Answer: B
Ac
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A. TheSLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
B. TheSLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
C. AnSLA for a service with no customers
D. AnSLA that covers all customers for all services
QUESTION NO: 330

Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A. Demand Management and Service Level Management
B. Supplier Management and Demand Management
C. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management
D. Supplier Management and Service Level Management
Answer: D
101

QUESTION NO: 331
Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of
compliance with governance requirements during change are both ways of adding business value
through which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Risk Management
B. Availability Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 332
lTe
Answer: C
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A. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

B. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
C. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
D. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
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Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?
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QUESTION NO: 333
Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?
Ac
A. IT Operations Control and Facilities Management

B. Technical Management and Change Management
C. Network Management and Application Management
D. Facilities Management and Release Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 334

The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is
referred to as what?
A. Return on investment
B. The utility of a service
102

C. The warranty of a service
D. The economic value of a service
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 335

Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of
incidents that cannot be prevented?
B. Problem Management
D. Event Management
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Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 336
Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?
Answer: C
Ac
tua
lTe
A. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of
service to customers
B. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support Function
C. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teamsthat provide technical expertise and
overal management of the IT Infrastructure
D. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systems
QUESTION NO: 337

"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose
of which part of the Service Lifecycle?
B. Service Strategy
Answer: A
103
QUESTION NO: 338

Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset
B. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service Asset
C. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are not
D. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are not
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 339
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Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?
sts
A. The IT Executive
B. The Business
C. The ISO27001 Standard
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QUESTION NO: 340
lTe
Answer: B
Ac
Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part
of the service lifecycle?
A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Service Strategy
C. Service Transition
D. Service Operation
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 341

Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part
of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?
104

A. Service Strategy
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 342

Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be
easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?
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A. Closure
B. Logging
C. Categorization
D. Prioritization
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 343
lTe
Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
Answer: C
Ac
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A. Customer and User satisfaction

B. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
C. Utility and Warranty
D. Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
QUESTION NO: 344

Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary
knowledge?
A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is oftenundocumented
B. Public standards are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A
105
QUESTION NO: 345

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of
the Service Lifecycle?
A. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 346
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Contracts are used to define:
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sts
A. Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement

B. The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider
C. Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer
D. The provision of goods and services by Suppliers
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 347
Ac
Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:

A. Services and Components
B. Services, Components and Business Processes
C. Components and Business Processes
D. Services and Business Processes
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 348

Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident?
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record
106

A. Neitherofthe above
B. Bothofthe above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 349

Identify the input to the Problem Management process
A. Incident Records
B. New Known Errors
C. Request for Change
D. Problem Resolution
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 350
lTe
Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
QUESTION NO: 351
Ac
Answer: B
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A. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log

B. All incidents must be fully logged
C. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
D. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged
What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?
A. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements
B. Inclusion of items intheSLA that cannot be effectively measured
C. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service LevelAgreements(SLAs)
D. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the service
Answer: B
107

QUESTION NO: 352
When should tests for a new service be designed?
A. At the same time as the service is designed
B. As part of Service Transition
C. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service Transition
D. Before the service is designed
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 353
Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?
sts
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A. Corporate, Customer, Service

B. Corporate, Customer, Technology
C. Service, User, IT
D. Technology, Customer, User
lTe
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 354
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A risk is:
Answer: A
Ac
A. Something that might happen

B. Something that won't happen
C. Something that has happened
D. Something that will happen
QUESTION NO: 355

Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?
A. The Problem Record
B. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)
C. The Availability Management Information System
D. The IT Service Continuity Plan
108

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 356

Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A. People, Process, Products, Partners
B. People, Process, Products, Technology
C. People, Products, Technology, Partners
D. People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 357
Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?
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A. Problem Model
B. Configuration Model
C. Change Model
D. Incident Model
Ac
QUESTION NO: 358
tua
Answer: B
What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

A. Rapid, one-off improvement
B. Steady, ongoing improvement
C. Quick wins
D. Return on investment within 12 months
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 359

Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit: The Total Cost of Ownership
(TCO) of a service can be minimised if all aspects of the service, the processes and the
technology are considered during development?
109

A. Service Design
D. Service Strategy
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 360

Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?
A. Problem Management
C. Event Management
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Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 361
lTe
Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
Answer: A
Ac
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A. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
B. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported
C. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
D. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
QUESTION NO: 362

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement
(SLA)?
A. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-levelSLA structure
B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
D. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service
Answer: D
110
QUESTION NO: 363

A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system
B. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database
C. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System
D. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 364
QUESTION NO: 365
sts
Ac
Answer: C
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A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only
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1. Things that were done correctly

2. Those things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future
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Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?

A. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established
at the same time
B. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party
provider
C. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management
has been established
D. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations
should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
111

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 366

Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?
A. The Change Advisory Board
B. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change
C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of
change.
D. A person that provides formalauthorisation for a particular type of change.
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 367
Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management
Answer: B
Ac
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A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
lTe
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1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided

2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in
QUESTION NO: 368

Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognised in the Service Operation volume of
ITIL?
A. Centralised
B. Holistic
C. Local
D. Virtual
Answer: B
112
QUESTION NO: 369

In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?
A. An Incident is passed to second-level support
B. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it
C. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring
Incidents
D. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any
users
Answer: C
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QUESTION NO: 370
lTe
A. RequestFulfilment
B. Release and Deployment Management
Ac
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 371
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Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

C. Service Portfolio Management
D. Supplier Management
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 372

Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service
Operation to perform?
113

1. Communication between Data Centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 373
Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?
lTe
sts
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A. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected
from threats, damage or loss
B. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or
disaster
C. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation
D. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customers
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 374
Ac
Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and
metrics?:
1. The services
2. The architectures
3. The configuration items
4. The processes
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: D
114

QUESTION NO: 375
The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:
A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To create and populate a Service Catalogue
C. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
D. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 376
Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?
sts
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A. Total cost of ownership

B. Key performance indicators
C. Customer satisfaction
D. The value of a service
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 377
tua
Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and
customers?
Ac
B. Service Design
QUESTION NO: 378

.With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to interface on a
regular basis?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
115

D. Availability Management
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 379

.Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order:
A. Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the change
B. Investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, identify and record
C. Identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, review the change
D. Review a change, classify, identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise another RFC
Answer: A
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QUESTION NO: 380
Answer: C
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Ac
A. All of them
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
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1. Recording that the change has been made

2. Testing the change
3. Holding a CAB meeting
4. Establishing a back-out plan
sts
.Which of the following activities may, exceptionally, be omitted for an urgent change:
QUESTION NO: 381

.Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers?
A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT
B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age
C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library
D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems
Answer: A
116
QUESTION NO: 382

.Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management process?
A. The physical aspects of software control
B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Distributing software
Answer: B
.co
.A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA:
QUESTION NO: 383
sts
A. Covers all services for a particular customer

B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer
C. Covers all services
D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service
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QUESTION NO: 384
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Answer: D
.Possible problems with Change Management include:
Ac
A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change

B. Increased visibility and communication of changes
C. Lack of ownership of impacted services
D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 385

.Which of these is/are TRUE?
1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process
2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents
3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff
117

A. 1 and 3
B. All three of them
C. Only 1
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 386

.Who must always authorize a Request for Change before the change is built and tested?
A. The Configuration Manager

B. The Change Initiator
C. The Change Manager
D. Release Management
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Answer: C
sts
QUESTION NO: 387
lTe
.Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and those of Problem
Management?
Ac
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A. Because specialist supportstaff do not properly document the work-arounds they identify which
consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the next time the incident
occurs
B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have operations
responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving
C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and therefore
the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance
D. Because Problem Managementstaff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the 1st line
support staff to chase them
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 388

.Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of a Service Level Manager?
A. Analyzing and reviewing agreed service levels
B. Maintaining the service catalogue
118

C. Negotiating requests for service
D. Assessing the full impact of proposed changes to services
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 389

.Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. Urgent and non-urgent changes follow the same Change Management process
B. High risk, urgent changes should be considered by the CAB Emergency Committee
C. Urgent changes need not necessarily be reviewed, unless there is time to do so
D. The justification for urgent changes should always be based on sound business reasons
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 390
sts
.In Availability Management, Confidentiality and Integrity are elements of:
QUESTION NO: 391
tua
Ac
Answer: C
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A. Reliability
B. Serviceability
C. Security
D. Maintainability
.From a well-informed User's perspective, which of the following is a likely sequence in the
management of a service failure?
A. Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management, Change Management
B. Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, Release Management
C. Change Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Release Management
D. Incident Management, Change Management, Release Management, Problem Management
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 392
119

.At what point should capacity requirements of a proposed system be first considered?
A. Leave it until the system is implemented and see if the system works O.K.
B. As early as possible
C. When the Development Manager has completed testing and passes the system to Operations
for operational testing
D. Just before the system goes live
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 393

.Which of the following is NOT a valid attribute of a hardware CI?
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A. A supplier's part number

B. The cost of the item
C. A manufacturer's serial number
D. The number of items held
sts
Answer: D
lTe
QUESTION NO: 394
tua
.Which of the following activities are NOT part of IT Accounting?
Answer: B
Ac
A. Calculation of the costs of IT services

B. Budgeting
C. Identification of costs by customer, service or activity
D. Performing cost-benefit analyses to support decision making
QUESTION NO: 395

.The major difference between a CMDB and an asset register is that CMDB holds information on:
A. Documentation
B. Software
C. The IT environment
D. Relationships
Answer: D
120
QUESTION NO: 396

.Which of the following is least likely to be a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident
Management process
A. Improved user satisfaction
B. Incident volume reduction
C. Elimination of lost incidents
D. Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 397
.co
.Which of the following definitions best describes the IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL)?
lTe
sts
A. A documented framework of proven best practices in Service Management

B. A prescriptive process for managing Service Improvement Projects
C. A methodology for supporting and delivering IT services
D. A quality standard in managing customer relationships
QUESTION NO: 398
tua
Answer: A
Ac
.The stages in the Incident Management process are:

A. Logging, allocation, classification, initial support, communication, resolution
B. Logging, initial support, detection, recording, classification, investigation, recovery and closure
C. Detection, classification, investigation, recording, recovery, resolution and closure
D. Detection, recording, classification, initial support, investigation, diagnosis, resolution, recovery
and closure
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 399

.Which of the following terms or phrases are associated with resilience?
1. Redundancy
2. Fault tolerance
121

3. On-site spares
4. Duplexing
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. All of them
C. 1 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 400
.If the IT Service Continuity plan had to be invoked during a crisis, what would be the role of the
organization's senior managers?
sts
.co
A. Progress reporting
B. Leading the recovery teams
C. Co-ordinating and directing activities, arbitrating and allocating resources
D. Executing recovery instructions
lTe
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 401
Ac
tua
.Capacity Management is responsible for ensuring the capacity of the IT Infrastructure matches
the evolving demands of the business in the most cost effective and timely manner.
Which of the following is NOT part of this responsibility?
A. Monitoring performance and throughput of individual IT components
B. Tuning systems to make most effective use of IT resources
C. Purchasing resources for the IT Infrastructure
D. Influencing customerbehaviour to optimise the use of IT resources
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 402

.Which of the following are NOT operational costs?
A. Staff
B. Consultancy
122

C. A mainframe purchase
D. Accommodation rental
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 403

.Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. If the root cause and a temporary work-around have been identified for a problem it becomes a
known error
B. All known errors need to be resolved to user satisfaction
C. A known error can be kept open when a work-around is being used
D. Incidents are not the only source of known errors
.co
Answer: B
sts
QUESTION NO: 404
.The Requirements and Strategy phase of the Business Continuity Life-cycle comprises:
QUESTION NO: 405
Ac
Answer: D
tua
lTe
A. Initial testing, Education and Awareness and Assurance

B. Education and Awareness, Review and Audit
C. Organization and Implementation Planning and Risk Reduction Measures
D. Business Impact Analysis, Risk Assessment and Business Continuity Strategy
.Which of these statements reflect the activities of IT Financial Management?

1. IT Financial Management may calculate the prices to be charged for IT services
2. IT Financial Management ensures that the IT department charges those who benefit from IT
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Neither
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A
123

QUESTION NO: 406
.During the release planning stage you identify that the changes you are about to make to a
service will necessitate changes in related software systems. Once all the changes have been fully
tested, which type of release will be used to deliver them into the live environment?
A. Full Release
B. Package Release
C. Emergency
D. Delta Release
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 407
.co
.Typically the decision on what should be the lowest level of CI recorded is influenced mostly by:
sts
A. The reliability of the CIs

B. The level at which components will be independently changed
C. The suitability of the available software to hold the information
D. The availability of spares for CIs
lTe
Answer: B
tua
QUESTION NO: 408
Ac
.As part of your IT Continuity Planning you have been asked to undertake a comprehensive Risk
Analysis. Which of the following is most likely to be of use to you in drawing up your plan?
A. The Forward Schedule of Change, produced by Change Management
B. A Service Catalogue plus an understanding of the business criticality of each of the services
C. A list of Services and Operational Level Agreements
D. A report produced by Incident Management detailing the incidents affecting IT Services over
the last month
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 409

.An overhead would normally be regarded as which of the following?
A. A discounted charge
124

B. The market price
C. An indirect cost
D. A direct cost
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 410
.co
.Consider the following activities:

1. The analysis of raw data
2. The identification of trends
3. The definition of Service Management processes
4. The implementation of preventive measures
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software
tool?
sts
A. All of them
B. 2 and 3
C. None of them
D. 1, 2 and 4
lTe
Answer: D
tua
QUESTION NO: 411

.The CMDB:
Ac
A. Must be available for update 7 x 24 if any of the services supported by the IT supplier are
available 7 x 24
B. Is updated by Configuration Management staff at the end of each working day
C. Holds information that will be useful to the majority of IT Service Management processes
D. Must be verified for accuracy monthly with trend reports on errors distributed to management
quarterly
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 412

.Which of the following is NOT a valid method of tuning?
A. Balancing disc traffic
125

B. Making more efficient use of processing capacity
C. Installing a new server
D. Balancing workloads
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 413

.For an organization implementing the ITIL IT Service Management processes which of the
following statements is most accurate?
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A. The full benefits will only be realized if all IT staffare fully qualified in IT Service Management.
B. The full benefits will only be realized if Incident & Problem Management processes are
implemented first.
C. The full benefits will only be realized if the business requirements are first ascertained and then
the processes are implemented in an integrated way.
D. The full benefits will only be realized if regular reviews are undertaken with customers.
sts
Answer: C
lTe
QUESTION NO: 414
tua
.Which of the following would NOT be a performance measurement for the Service Level
Management function?
Answer: D
Ac
A. What percentage of servicesare covered by SLAs?

B. Are service review meetings held on time and correctly minute?
C. Are customer perceptions of service improving?
D. How many services are included within the CMDB?
QUESTION NO: 415

.Which of the following is NOT an element of Availability Management?
A. Verification
B. Security
C. Reliability
D. Maintainability
126

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 416

.Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Physical copies of all CIs are stored in the DSL
B. Release Management is responsible for managing the organization's rights and obligations
regarding software
C. The DSL contains source code only
D. A change may only be developed from non-definitive versions of software in the case of an
urgent release
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 417
sts
.Which of the following metrics would you most associate with the Service Desk?
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QUESTION NO: 418
Ac
Answer: A
lTe
A. The number of high priority incidents occurring

B. The support team which resolves the greatest number of problems
C. The number of problems solved in a day
D. The mean time betweenfailure
.Potential benefits from managing IT Service Continuity are:

1. Lower insurance premiums
2. Fulfillment of mandatory or regulatory requirements
3. Reduced business disruption in the event of a disaster
4. Better management of risk and the consequent reduction of the impact of failure
A. 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. All of them
D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer: C
127

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ISEB BH0-006

BH0-006 ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

What is a RACI model used for?

A. Defining roles and responsibilities

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

A. The contract is being negotiated

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for

A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

1) Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements

A. Configuration Administrator/Librarian; Configuration Manager; Service Desk Manager;

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

A. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?

A. A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact

Service Acceptance criteria are used to?

A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?

"Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

A. Overall business risk is optimized

How does Problem Management work with Change Management?

A. By installing changes to fix problems

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

Which is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A. Ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported.

Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

A. Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes

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ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

1) It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

What is the definition of an Alert?

A. An error message to the user of an application

ISEB BH0-006: Practice Exam

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?