2015 Examiners Report

Qualifications
REPORT FROM
THE EXAMINERS
2015
The Master Brewer, Diploma, General Certificate and Fundamental

Examination Reports in one handy volume.
Table of Contents
Board of Examiners and Examination Centres
Page 3
Statistics
Page 6
Award Winners
Page 7
Master Brewer Report
Page 10
Diploma in Brewing
Page 19
Diploma in Distilling
Page 29
Diploma in Beverage Packaging
Page 37
Fundamental and General Certificate Examinations
Page 51
List of Successful Candidates
Page 52
Institute of Brewing and Distilling
BOARD OF EXAMINERS AND EXAMINATIONS CENTRES 2015

THE EXAMINERS
Chair of the IBD Board of Examiners David Quain
Diploma in
Brewing
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Diploma in
Distilling
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Diploma in
Packaging
Module1
Module 2
Module 3
David Cook
Robert McCaig
Ian Smith
Marc Schmitt
Alastair Pringle
Tobin Eppard
George Ritchie
Yahia Chabane
Phil Worsley
Gary Freeman
Andrew Barker
Jean Michel Gualano
Andre Dillman
Master Brewer
Module1
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4
Module 5
General
Certificates
Douglas Murray
Michelle Pizzi
Jeremy Stephens
George Bathgate
Iain Campbell
Alan Wolstenholme
GCB
GCP
GCD
Robert Illingworth
Ian Smith
Jeremy Stead
Derek Orford
Shiona Kamermans
Michael Partridge
Bob Pursley
Robin Cooper
Ian Bearpark
Richard Westwood
Jens Voigt
Colin McCrorie
Robin Cooper
Jeremy Stead
Dick Murton
Robert Illingworth
Alan Wolstenholme
Ruth Bromley
Roland Folz
Gavin Duffy
Angus Steven
Gavin Duffy
Robin Cooper
Zane Barnes
Angus Steven
Dick Charlton
Thomas Shellhammer
THE EXAM CENTRES

Algeria
Alger - SARL Tango Heineken
Cameroun
Douala - Guinness Cameroun SA
Australia
Abbotsford - Carlton United Breweries

Adelaide - University of Adelaide
Adelaide - Lion
Albany - Great Southern Inst. of Technology
Brisbane - Lion
Bundaberg - Bundaberg Distilling Company
Cairns - James Cook University
Launceston - University of Tasmania
Lidcombe - Tooheys Pty.
Melbourne - University of Melbourne
Perth - Murdoch University
Regency Park - TAFESA
Sydney - Diageo Australia
Lindisfarne, Tasmania
Townsville - Australian Defence Force
Warnervale - Carlton United Breweries
Yatala - Lion
Canada
Calgary AB - University of Calgary

Charlottetown PEI - Holland College
Creston BC - College of the Rockies
Guelph ON - Sleeman Brewing
Halifax - Dalhousie University
London ON - Fanshawe College
Montreal QC - MolsonCoors
Niagara-on-the-Lake - Niagara College
Toronto ON - MolsonCoors Canada
Vancouver BC- BCIT
Vancouver BC - Simon Fraser University
Winnipeg MB - Canadian Malting Barley Technical
Centre
China
Shanghai - AB InBev
Shanghai - British Council
Congo
Kinshasa - Bralima (Heineken)

Lubumbashi - Bralima (Heineken)
Pointe Noire - BrasCo.(Heineken0
Barbados
St Michael - Ministry of Education
Belgium
Brussels - Boston University

Leuven - AB InBev
Czech Republic
Plzen - Plzensky Prazdroj (SABMiller)
Botswana
Gaborone - SABMiller
Denmark
Copenhagen - Scandinavian School of Brewing
Burundi
Bujumbura - Brarudi (Heineken)
Dominica
Roseau - University of West Indies
Examiners Report 2015
Egypt
Alexandria - British Council
England
Banbury - Hook Norton Brewery

Bath - Bath Ales
Blackburn - Daniel Thwaites
Burton on Trent - Molson Coors Brewers Ltd
Burtonwood - Thomas Hardy Brewery
Bury St Edmunds - Greene King
Hartlepool - Camerons Brewery
Hereford - Heineken
Ledbury - Universal Beverages
London - Institute of Brewing & Distilling
London - University College
Manchester - Heineken
Northampton - Carlsberg
Ringwood - Ringwood Brewery
Sheffield - Abbeydale Brewery
Southwold - Adnams
St Austell - St Austell Brewery
Tadcaster - Heineken
Stroud - Stroud Brewery
Tongham - Hogs Back Brewery Ltd
Wadebridge - Sharps Brewery
Witney - Wychwood Brewery
Wolverhampton - Marston's PLC
New Zealand
Auckland - Lion
Christchurch - Christchurch Polytechnic
Dunedin - Lion
Nelson - Nelson Marlborough Inst. of Technology
Nigeria
Ibadan - Nigerian Breweries

Kaduna - Nigerian Breweries
Lagos - Guinness
Osun State - SAB International Breweries
Papua New Guinea
Ports Moresby - Vitis Industries Li.
Reunion
Saint-Denis - Brasseries de Bourbon (Heineken)
Romania
Brasov - Ursus Breweries
Russia
Moscow - AB InBev
Ulyanovsk - SABMiller RUS
Scotland
Aberfeldy - John Dewar & Sons

Aberlour - Speyside Community Centre
Edinburgh - Heriot Watt University
Inverness - Inverness College UHI
Islay - Ardbeg Distillery
Jura - Jura Distillery
Seychelles
Mahe - Ministry of Education
South Africa
Cape Town SABMiller

Durban - Diageo Global Supply
Durban - NCP Alcohols
Durban - SABMiller
Johannesburg - SAB World of Learning
Port Elizabeth - SABMiller
Fiji
Lautoka - Paradise Beverages Ltd

Suva - Paradise Beverages Ltd
France
Paris - American University of Paris

Sigogne - Sarl Distillerie de la Pouade
Germany
Berlin - VLB
Ghana
Accra - Accra Brewery Ltd (SABMiller)
Sri Lanka
Colombo - British Council
Greece
Thessaloniki - British Council
St Lucia
Vieux Fort - Heineken
Guernsey
St Peter Port - RW Randall Ltd
St Vincent
Kingstown - St Vincent Brewery
Hungary
Budapest - Dreher Breweries
Sudan
Juba - Southern Sudan Beverages Ltd (SABMiller)
Iceland
Akureyri - University of Akureyri
Swaziland
Matsapha-Swaziland Beverages (SABMiller)
India
Aurangabad - SABMiller (Central India Centre)

Bangalore - SABMiller (South India Centre)
Sonepat - SABMiller HBL (North India Centre)
Sweden
Lillkyrka - Grythyttan Whisky

Lulea - Lulea University of Technology
Malmo - Purity Vodka AB
Indonesia
Tangerang - PT Multi Bintang
Switzerland
Dittingen - Novozymes Switzerland AG
Ireland
Clonmel - William Grant & Sons

Cork - Middleton Distillery
Dublin - Diageo
Dublin - Dublin Central
Dundalk - Diageo
Kilkenny - St Francis Abbey Brewery
Waterford - Diageo
Waterford - Metalman Brewing
Tanzania
Dar Es Salaam - University of Dar Es Salaam
Thailand
Bangkok - Thai Asia Pacific Brewery Co. Ltd
Trinidad
Champs Fleurs - Caribbean Development Co.

Laventille - Angostura
UAE
Dubai - African & Eastern BVI Ltd
Uganda
Jinja - Nile Breweries Ltd (SABMiller)

Kampala- EABL Uganda Breweries
USA
Albany GA - MillerCoors
Arcata CA - Humboldt State University
Boston MA - University of Massachusetts Boston
Brevard NC - Blue Ridge Community College
Bridgewater Corners VT - Long Trail Brewing Co.
Cincinnati OH - Samuel Adams Brewing Co.
Cottleville MO - St Charles Community College
Davis CA - University of California (Davis)
Edwardsville IL - Southern Illinois University
Elkton VA - MillerCoors
Florida FL - Florida International University
Fort Worth TX - MillerCoors
Golden CO.- MillerCoors
Greensboro NC - UNC Greensboro
Holland MI - New Holland Brewing Co.
Italy
Milan - British Council
Japan
Tokyo - Temple University Japan Campus

Yokohama - Kirin Brewery Co.
Kenya
Nairobi -British Council
Lesotho
Maseru - Lesotho Brewing Company
Malaysia
Kuala Lumpur - British Council

Selangor - Guinness Anchor Berhad
Singapore - British Council
Singapore - Diageo Asia Pacific
Mozambique
Maputo - Cervejas de Mozambique SA
N.Ireland
Bushmills - Old Bushmills Distillery
Netherlands
Zoeterwoude - Heineken
USA (cont)
Irwindale CA - MillerCoors
Kingshill VI - University of Virgin Islands
Madison WI - University of Wisconsin-MBAA
Mankato MN - Mankato Test Center
Maryland MD - Frederick Community College
Milwaukee WI - Miller Coors
New York NY - Cambridge Business Institute
Oregon OR - Oregon State University
Portsmouth NH - Craft Brew Alliance, Inc.
Roanoke VA - Roanoke Higher Education Center
San Diego CA - White Labs Inc.
St Croix VI - Diageo
St Louis MO - AB InBev
Trenton OH - MillerCoors
Provo UT - Brigham Young University
Woodinville WA-Craft Brewers Alliance
Vietnam
Binh Duong - SABMiller

Ho Chi Min City - British Council
Wales
Magor AB Inbev
Zambia
Lusaka - Zambian Breweries (SABMiller)

Ndola - Zambian Breweries (SABMiller)
Zimbabwe
Bulawayo-Delta Beverages (SABMiller)

Harare-Delta Beverages (SABMiller)
THE STATISTICS
Number of candidates who sat each module
Exam
Module
2015
2014
2013
Exam
Diploma in
Module 1
336
358
410
Master Brewer
Brewing
Module 2
269
338
287
Module 3
239
205
186
47
94
95
60
33
38
Pass in all modules

Diploma in
Distilling
Module 1
Module 2
29
35
31
Module 3
23
20
16
12
13
Diploma in
Pass in all modules

Module 1
62
65
32
Packaging
Module 2
41
23
33
Module 3
23
28
13
22
Pass in all modules
Module
2015
2014
2013
Module1
43
33
34
Module 2
25
16
40
Module 3
22
23
27
Module 4
15
22
18
Module 5
15
16
Pass in all modules
Percentage of candidates passing each module (average mark %)

Exam
Module
2015
2014
2013
Exam
Module
2015
2014
2013
Master Brewer
Module1
51% (52%)
46% (52%)
56% (51%)
Diploma in
Module 1
65% (51%)
57% (46%)
71% (50%)
Brewing
Module 2
56% (45%)
44% (41%)
53% (43%)
Module 2
56% (57%)
56% (53%)
55% (53%)
Module 3
23% (35%)
53% (46%)
64% (52%)
Module 3
46% (46%)
48% (51%)
48% (51%)
Diploma in
Module 1
75% (52%)
83% (54%)
89% (58%)
Module 4
73% (60%)
73% (58%)
61% (52%)
Distilling
Module 2
45% (38%)
60% (48%)
58% (46%)
Module 5
87%
86%
100%
Module 3
61% (49%)
75% (58%)
81% (56%)
Diploma in
Module 1
59% (46%)
66% (55%)
69% (58%)
Packaging
Module 2
67% (49%)
65% (57%)
82% (56%)
Module 3
61% (46%)
92% (62%)
100% (-)
Number of exams/modules entered for each qualification

3500
2975
2815
3000
2770
2500
FD/FBPB
2269
GCB/P/D/S
1890
2000
DB
1661
DD
1500
Dipl Pack
Mbrew
1000
BD
Total Applicants
500
0
2010
2011
2012
2013
2014
2015
AWARD WINNERS 2015

Award Winners for Examination Year 2015 were as follows:
MASTER BREWER:
IBD Section
James S Hough Award Best Overall Candidate

Lisa Marlow
Diageo Global Supply (Ireland)
Irish
DIPLOMA IN BREWING:
John S Ford Award Best Overall Candidate
Marc-Andrew Nadeau Molson Coors (Canada)
Kyle Moskovitz
SAB Miller (South Africa)
International
Africa
Crisp Malting Award - Diploma in Brewing Module 1

Anne Rainey
Moa Brewing Co. (New Zealand)
Carly Kinloch
Carlsberg (United Kingdom)
Asia Pacific
UK-Midlands
Brewery Engineers Association Award - Diploma in Brewing Module 3

Brett Sinclair
Lion (Australia)
Asia Pacific
DIPLOMA IN DISTILLING :
Worshipful Company of Distillers Scholarship Award - Best Overall Candidate
Alan Wardlaw
Diageo Global Supply (United Kingdom)
UK-Scottish
Simpsons Malt Award - Diploma in Distilling Module 1

Isabella Wemyss
The Wemyss Development (United Kingdom)
UK-Scottish
Worshipful Company of Distillers Award - Diploma in Distilling Module 2

Aisling Burke
Irish Distillers Pernod Ricard (Ireland)
Irish
Briggs of Burton Award - Diploma in Distilling Module 3

Nickolas Franchino
The Cotswold Distilling Company (United Kingdom)
UK-Southern
DIPLOMA IN PACKAGING:
Encric Award Diploma in Packaging Module 1
Samuel Gubunje
Delta Beverages Pvt. Ltd. (Zimbabwe)
Africa
Micro Matic Award - Diploma in Packaging Module 2

Jodie Murdoch
Carlton & United Breweries (Australia)
Asia Pacific
Brewery Engineers Award - Diploma in Packaging Module 3

Patrick Ongom
Nile Breweries Ltd. (Uganda)
Africa
GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN BREWING:

Worshipful Company of Brewers Award - Livery
Daniel Miller
T & R Theakston (United Kingdom)
UK-Great Northern
Worshipful Company of Brewers Award

Christopher Brady
Holgate Brewhouse (Australia)
Asia Pacific
Heineken (Ethiopia)
(Non-Member)
William Grant (United Kingdom)
(Non-Member)
GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN PACKAGING:

Worshipful Company of Brewers Award
Girma Fatula
GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN DISTILLING:
Scotch Whisky Association Award
Kelsey Mckechnie
FUNDAMENTALS OF DISTILLING:
Worshipful Company of Distillers Fundamentals Award
Emma Head
Diageo Global Supply (United Kingdom)
(Non-Member)
REPORT FROM THE CHAIR OF THE BOARD OF EXAMINERS

The examination year
The take up of the IBD examinations remains in rude health. There were in all 2975 applicants for complete IBD portfolio from Fundamentals through to
Master Brewer. Candidates sitting the Master Brewer and Diplomas in Distilling and Packaging increased by (respectively) 19%, 9% and an impressive 40%.
Numerically the Diploma in Brewing was down 6% (844 plays 901) but with a healthy cohort of French candidates (78). Pleasingly, within the Master Brewer
and Diploma portfolio there were eight new Master Brewers, with forty seven gaining the Diploma in Brewing, thirteen the Diploma in Packaging and twelve
for the Diploma in Distilling.
As ever, the global reach of the IBD is reflected in the awards to the best candidates passing various examinations that range across the portfolio from
Fundamentals of Distilling through to the James Hough award for the best overall candidate in the Master Brewer. There were some standout performances
with 16 awards awarded to candidates from United Kingdom (7), Australia (3), Ireland (2), South Africa, New Zealand, Canada, Uganda, Zimbabwe, Zambia
and Ethiopia. The collective Board of Examiners (BOE) sends its hearty congratulations to all award winners and of course all candidates who were
successful in the 2015 diet of examinations.
Performance
The average passmark for individual examinations fluctuates within typically a narrow band - annually. Although such changes are noted,
marked changes or trends within the Diploma of Brewing
examinations are (because of large number of Candidates) worthy of
comment and analysis.
As is clear from the chart, this year and unusually, the pass rate for the
Diploma in Brewing Module 3 fell precipitously to 23%.
Understanding of such a change is of course fraught with difficulty and
nothing more than directional. All Diploma and Master examination
papers go through process of draft, debate and rework at the Board of
Examiners meeting in February. However, after these results the
paper was reviewed (once more) by the Moderator and independently
by a Module 3 trainer and was found to fair and at an appropriate
level. Importantly, some Candidates excelled and one Candidate
achieved a Grade A and five with Grade B. This (I believe) is an
important litmus test for the marking of an examination. Interestingly, the number of candidates (239) was the highest ever, reflecting the previously high
numbers taking Module 1 and then Module 2. Of these 239, an unheralded 65 candidates (27%) answered less than the required six questions and, not
surprisingly, only one passed the Module. Further, 50 Candidates received the lowest Grade (G) possible. Indeed and not surprisingly, the distribution of
marks was very much skewed toward towards the fail grades of E, F and G. So, in conclusion, a definitive explanation cannot be offered but for many
Candidates it could be argued that they either took the examination too early or were simply unprepared. Other insights would be welcome contact
details below.
Examiner feedback
The Report from the Examiners is an important resource for Candidates, Trainers and Mentors. The intent is to reflect on the years examinations in terms
of performance and also to provide insight into the questions asked and the consequent expectations of the answers. In addition with monotonous
regularity, the Examiners share their feedback in terms of what to do and what not to do. The annual reappearance of mostly all these comments suggests
that for many this advice is unheeded.
This year rather than reinforcing these comments via a wordy commentary, I have gone for brevity, below. I hope these points and those in the full report
help you to succeed in IBD examinations.
10 top tips preparation and during the examination
Check out http://www.ibd.org.uk/qualifications/examinations/
Welcome pack
- read preparing for success and the Candidates
Read around dont limit yourself to the provided notes. Read the Brewer & Distiller International. Use the Learning
Zone via http://www.ibdlearningzone.org.uk/
Remember by failing to prepare, you are preparing to fail. Treat it as a project over months (not weeks).
Do not try and question spot the syllabus is being examined
Read the question
Answer the question you are asked (and on a new page)
Avoid being vague or wooly
Record questions answered in order on the font of the booklet
Manage your time v marks on offer
Diagrams practice, suitably sized, use colour and annotate
Write as legibly as possible and in ink
Looking forward Master Distiller, Diploma in Malting and Diploma Review

Over the next two years, IBD examinations will undergo significant change. Firstly and anticipated to launch in 2016, is the Master Distiller examination
which is very much based on the structure of the Master Brewer but as applied to Distilling. Second up and again to kick off in 2016 is the first module of the
Diploma in Malting. Although the IBD is working with the Maltsters Association of Great Britain this will have a global feel in terms of the Examiners and will
not be exclusively focused on barley and malt.
A year ago the proposals from the Diploma examination review were in development and were subsequently shared with the Board of Examiners, Council
and the Membership. After much discussion, debate and reflection, the Diploma review is now entering its implementation phase. Communication here is
key and hopefully already familiar through the website, newsletter and BDI.
The new Diploma examinations will go live in 2017 and the last opportunity to take them in the old format will be 2016. They will, of course be
interchangeable so for Candidates in the process of taking a Diploma exam they may well complete with a mix of new and old formats. What the new
format will bring is a reboot of Diplomas examinations, the impact of which will reflect the age of the current offering. So for the newest Diploma exam Packaging - the differences will be more structural as the content and approach is more contemporary. Conversely with Brewing and to a lesser extent
Distilling, the degree of change will be more noticeable. The new Diploma in Malting will play by the new approach, of which the headlines are outlined
below (and have been communicated widely).
Everything stems from the syllabus. Accordingly each Diploma syllabi will be reviewed and reshaped to ensure it is contemporary, appropriately
weighted and without unnecessary complexity. New syllabi will be subject to cycles of draft and review before anonymous review from
appropriate industry experts.
Modules will be reshaped to remove duplication, repetition and, where appropriate, content will be reallocated across the modules.
Whilst all the Diploma examinations will retain the three Module format, examinations across the portfolio will be a mix of long and short
questions with a minimum pass rate for each.
The structure of Module 3 will adopt a common format, although the content will be flexed as appropriate by discipline.
The revision notes will be retired and replaced by headlines and knowledge resources. The headlines will provide the big picture and
immutable facts. The knowledge resources will provide the contemporary information via articles, book chapters etc. These will be linked to
the syllabus and sourced on-line.
Examiners
Im doubtless biased but all the Examiners and Moderators do a magnificent job! They deliver reasoned examination questions, marking schemes and then
in mid-summer spend an inordinate amount of time marking. Whilst obviously remunerated, this (from my experience) is undeniably hard work especially
with tight deadlines and time out shipping scripts around the world. Application of the above top tips would make the Examiners experience so much
better and, in passing, guarantee you a better result!
The BOE continues to develop in terms of mix, experience and gender. The examiner without portfolio approach enables potential examiners to be gently
introduced into the hurly-burly of the BOE without the immediate responsibility of setting and marking scripts. As noted above, much change is afoot which
will be reflected in some musical chairs and addition of new Examiners.
Thanks
The process that delivers IBD examinations is increasingly complex and demanding. Huge thanks are due to the Curlew Street team who manage the
interaction with candidates and pull together the logistics, locations, scripts and generally make things happen in a timely and efficient way. Thanks are also
due to the good people at examination centers who coordinate, arrange and, most importantly, securely invigilate the process. My thanks to all my
colleagues in the Board of Examiners for their steadfast commitment, good humour, constructive challenge, professionalism and end-to-end delivery of IBD
examinations. It is also important to acknowledge the support of the IBD Council and immediate past, present and future Presidents, Alan Barclay, Charlie
Bamforth and Katherine Smart. Finally as ever, a big thank you to Steve Curtis, Simon Jackson and Shane McNamara at the IBD for their fellowship,
unceasing hard work and shared vision of what good looks like for IBD examinations. As this is the last Report under Simons leadership, a personal thank
you for his vision, support and wise council. I look forward to working with the new CEO, Jerry Avis.
As ever, I would welcome any feedback good or bad, big or small on IBD examinations. This is especially welcome from members who would like to know
more without commitment of potentially becoming an Examiner.
David Quain
(please contact via david.quain@nottingham.ac.uk)
The Institute of Brewing and Distilling

Examinations 2015
Question Papers and Examiners Reports
MASTER BREWER EXAMINATION 2015
Examination team Robert Illingworth, Ian Smith, Jeremy Stead, Shiona Kamermans, Derek Orford, Michael
Partridge, Bob Pursley, Robin Cooper, Ian Bearpark, Richard Westwood and Jens Voigt
Module 1 Materials and Wort Production

Forty-three candidates sat the papers, twenty-two candidates passed,
which is a pass rate of 51.2%. This pass rate is better than last years
results (see page 6) but the five-year rolling average pass rate continues to
decline, now standing at 54.7% (last year 56.1%).
The question about a lauter tun runoff profile was not particularly well
answered, the key point that many candidates didnt identify was the
failure of the rakes to descend properly on the second and third rakes
leading to high differential pressure and poor runoff rates.
Many candidates were woefully unprepared for taking this exam, which
reflects the low pass rate. One candidate, when presented with Paper 2
Long Answer Questions, reportedly said, I didnt expect this and didnt sit
the paper. Some of those who failed showed a notable degree of
enthusiasm and passion for brewing and described their practical
experiences and how they had solved difficulties, but without being able to
elucidate the scientific principles underlying their actions. It is to be hoped
that in future years that passion and conviction can be harnessed to the
science that world class brewing is based on.
Brewhouse management
There was no improvement this year in the number of candidates
calculating correctly the numbers of brews that could be carried out in a
week, only 5% got it right. A further 30% were out by one brew and 28%
were out by two brews. Many of the rest were a long way off. The key to
this computation is to work out which stage in the process is the longest
and thus is the rate-limiting stage. The time this step takes to carry out is
then the cycle time of successive brews. Finally, it is necessary to take into
account the extra time required at the start of the week for the cycle to
get established and that required at the end of the week to run out the
last brew. It is possible that a similar question might be asked in next
years exam: I urge all prospective candidates to revise this aspect
carefully.
Paper 1: Short Questions and Multiple Choice

The marks for Paper 1 ranged from 28/100 to 89/100, a wider span than
last year (35/100 to 85/100).
Barley, the malting process and adjuncts
In general, this section was answered well though the lack of knowledge
about barley agronomy is still very evident. Less than a third of candidates
correctly identified the process for making Vienna malt, a surprising result
when so many speciality beers are being brewed with more of the
traditional malt types.
Hops and hop products
Only 1 in 4 candidates correctly identified the climatic conditions necessary
for the satisfactory cultivation of hop plants, many candidates picked
weather conditions rather than climatic ones. I recommend future
candidates to ensure they know the difference between weather and
climate.
Supply and treatment of water supply
The question about the techniques for reducing the alkalinity of water was
well answered. Other questions about groundwater sources, sterilising
water supplies and the significance of E coli in water were answered
correctly in only 50% of scripts. Pairing up ions in water with their
perceived effects on brewing and beer quality was done accurately in 70%
of scripts.
Brewhouse operations
Only one-quarter of candidates correctly calculated the costs of two
brewhouse grists, some did not even attempt the question and many were
out by a wide margin. The calculation of the two hop grists fared much
better this year with 68% getting the correct answer. The SCADA systems
diagram seemed to perplex many candidates perhaps because familiarity
breeds contempt or this aspect of brewhouse control is left to the
engineers. However with the commercial availability of cloud computing,
SCADA systems have increasingly adopted Internet of Things technology;
brewers must keep abreast of these developments.
10
Paper 2: Essay Questions

The marks for Paper 2 ranged from 30/100 to 68/100 (compare with last
years 27/100 to 70/100) though one candidate didnt sit Paper 2 at all.
This year all candidates answered the requisite four questions though
some had evidently run out of time for their final answer, at least judging
by its length and quality.
Question 1
Draw up a design brief for barley intake, barley storage, steeping and
germination stages of a maltings capable of producing 50,000 tonnes per
year of a single specification malt. Describe the basic operation of all the
items of plant to be used as well as their capacities. State all
assumptions.
This question was attempted by 29 candidates (67%) and of those 9 (31%)
passed. This was a straightforward question about design and operation
of a malting plant; it should have produced a workmanlike answer, that it
didnt is reflected in the pass rate, the lowest of the exam. Time and again
the design brief was too sketchy, often accompanied by an inadequate
diagram and incomplete or non-existent capacity information. Barley is
harvested once a year but for many of the designs it appeared to be a
bountiful supply from an unspecified source. If the malt plant does not
have fourteen or so months of stored barley on site, then the assumptions
do need to state how and where it is being stored. Another assumption
often ignored was the malting loss, which at typically 12% can impact
capacity calculations. Extra marks could have been gleaned by briefly
touching on water supply and effluent disposal.
Question 2
Question 5
Sketch out a design for the most economical water delivery system in a
brewery which produces one million hectolitres of beer, all packaged into
500ml cans. Mains water is available in unlimited volume at $2.00 per
cubic metre; borehole water is limited to a daily abstraction of 1,000
cubic metres and costs $0.01 per cubic metre to abstract. Usage rate is
five litres of water used for every one litre of beer packaged. Overall beer
losses through the production process are 7.0%. The specifications for
the three types of water are shown in the table.
Outline the development of a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point

(HACCP) Protocol for a brewhouse from malt reception through to hot
wort to the paraflow (heat exchanger). Describe the importance of
prerequisite programmes in this exercise. You may illuminate your
answer with examples, but limit these to three in number.
Water
source
Chlorine
Calcium
Carbonate
Nitrate
Borehole
30 mg/l
24 mg/l
48 mg/l
nil
Mains
10 mg/l
8 mg/l
10 mg/l
<1.0 mg/l
Brewing
water
specification
10 mg/l
8 mg/l
<20 mg/l
nil
(free or combined)
This question was answered by 24 candidates (56%) with 12 achieving a

pass mark (50%). The question was designed to guide candidates towards
a comprehensive description of developing a HACCP protocol. Too many
candidates cherry picked different aspects of HACCP, some concentrated
on the seven principles, others on risk and hazard analysis. Several failed
to mention the importance of prerequisite programmes, despite the
prompt in the question! The exhortation to limit examples to three in
number was occasionally ignored; the point of this entreaty was to get
answers that concentrated on the process rather than the possible
outcomes.
Question 6
There is a reverse osmosis plant available which is 85% efficient (85% of

the water entering the system is treated, the remaining 15% is
discharged as waste water). Taking everything into account, in this unit
each cubic metre of treated water costs $0.50.What is the annual cost of
water? State all assumptions and show all calculations.
pass mark (38%). There were no really good answers to this least popular
question and the overall pass rate was low. Brewing may be an art, but
one that is underpinned by science. A mastery of mathematics is essential
for calculating volume and cost equations, a skill which was lacking in
many answers. The central point of the question was economic, using the
available water supplies to minimise cost. This meant using as much of the
cheapest supply (borehole) and curtailing the most expensive (mains).
Few candidates realised that for many applications not all borehole water
had to be treated by reverse osmosis, as blending treated with untreated
would bring all the ion contents into specification. Correctly reading the
question cannot be emphasised too much; whilst beer volumes are
generally given in hectolitres, water volumes are usually quoted in cubic
metres. It is critical not to mix up the two units, as many did, leading to
apparently high annual cost for water.
Describe how best brewing practices, can influence wort quality and
financial performance.
pass mark (68%). This question elicited an equal-first pass rate, with
question four, though there were fewer high-scoring scripts. Practical
aspects of best practices were well described in many answers as were the
influences on wort quality. Financial performance was less well
elaborated. Few scripts defined the term best practice or introduced
other concepts such as world class manufacturing which would have set
the context of the answer better, as would mention of some of the
methodologies using to achieve it, such as Six Sigma or Total Quality
Management.
Bob Illingworth
Question 3
Explore the general trends in the worldwide hop market that have been
evident over the last two or three years. Describe the factors that have
lead to a decline in the overall amount of -acid being produced globally.
pass mark (66%). The improvement in candidates knowledge of the hop
market over the last few years has been remarkable, no doubt driven
partially by this question appearing as a regular fixture in this exam paper
as well as the resurgence of interest in hops, especially aroma varieties,
inspired by the renaissance of craft brewing. The contraction in the
demand and production of -acid is influenced largely by global brands,
which in a broadly static beer market have been able to use hops and hop
products more efficiently to achieve adequate bittering. This aspect of the
question received scant attention in the answers and, as a result, useful
marks were lost.
Question 4
Mashing is best seen as an extension of malting. Discuss this statement
and describe the different ways in which the maltster and the brewer
control their parts of this process. Highlight the key control parameters
that each has available.
This question was answered by 34 candidates (79%) and of those 23 (68%)
passed. This was the most popular question with a high pass rate and
there were several scripts that gained high marks. Inadequate answers
were full of motherhood and apple pie, with abundant use of superlatives
and generalities. For example, using only the best quality malt or
ensure the temperature is correct without specifying the what and the
how implicit in those statements.
11
Question 1
Module 2 Fermentation and Beer Processing
With the aid of clearly labelled diagrams, describe in detail the design of
a cylindro-conical fermentation vessel suitable for fermenting 2000 hl of
wort. Include in the answer details of how the operation of the vessel
can be automated to minimise manual input during the complete cycle of
use.

There were a few very good papers, some good papers, some poor papers
and the rest were clustered around the required minimum standard.
This paper covers the whole syllabus. The better candidates were able to
answer questions across the whole paper with a wider spread of practical
knowledge and experience. Some of the candidates found the multiple
choice questions difficult. There were some questions that a few
candidates did not read carefully enough and gave answers that were not
relevant. The yeast and fermentation questions were, in general, answered
better than the filtration questions, particularly the multiple choice
filtration questions. More attention should be paid to design, general
quality including cleaning in the fermentation and beer processing area.
The financial questions were poorly answered. Candidates should share
more their practical experience and application in answering the questions
at this level.
Candidates should note that where a question asks for a specific number
of responses, and more are offered, they will be marked in the order
supplied up to the required number and extra answers will be ignored.
Candidates should therefore read the questions carefully.
Paper 2: Long Answer Questions
There were 5 good papers and 9 passes, with the remainder below
standard. Potential candidates may wish to carefully note that the next
three paragraphs are repeated word-for-word from the examiners
comments of 2014.
There were some areas of examination technique that let candidates
down. Time management was a problem for a few candidates with 3 fairly
complete answers presented, and then the fourth was barely started.
There were some questions that candidates had either not read properly
or had misunderstood the direction required, resulting in irrelevant
information being presented and in some cases whole sections missed.
Several questions were ideally answered by including a well presented,
labelled diagram, flow chart or graph, or a table of information and
comments. This is a simple way of presenting large amounts of information
without taking too much time. Diagrams ranged from very good to very
poor. The best used at least half a side of paper, were drawn with a ruler
and were neatly annotated with appropriate labels. The worst were very
small, untidy and without adequate labelling. It is worth noting for future
candidates that they are recommended to practice drawing diagrams of all
of the main plant items (vessels, filters etc.) as part of their preparation.
Candidates should also note that information supplied in one answer can
be referred to in another answer without repeating the information in full.
There were a few common sources of frustration to the examiner. Many of
the questions ask for details of how a problem may be overcome or how a
new plant or process may be introduced. This is not an invitation to say all
you know about a topic. Whilst that may generate a few marks as
background to the situation, it only goes part of the way to answering the
question. When answering troubleshooting questions, a number of
candidates just propose to check a certain aspect and then do no more.
The process of checking does not solve a problem; it is merely a way of
finding out what is normal and what is not. It is the root cause analysis and
corrective action that solves the problem and gains the marks.
Furthermore, when a candidate states that optimising a process solves a
problem, it does not demonstrate to the examiner any knowledge about
the process and so cannot gain many marks unless the actual changes that
may be made are elucidated.
A useful process for answering many questions is to note down a quick
brainstorm, mind map or fish-bone analysis to prompt thoughts on all the
relevant issues. Candidates should also note that the scope of the paper is
fermentation and beer processing, so any lengthy discussion about
brewhouse issues will not gain any marks.
12
All 25 candidates attempted this question, with 21 achieving the pass

standard. The better answers utilised a full page for a clearly annotated
diagram, indicating all the main fittings and instruments to ensure an
effective and well-controlled fermentation.
Some easy marks were lost where candidates were unsure about materials
of construction or forgot that both insulation and cladding are usually
required. The examiner has to wonder if some candidates have ever been
to the top of a fermenter, as some basic requirements, such as CO2
outlets, access/observation hatches and anti-vacuum valves were omitted.
To gain maximum marks in the automation part of the answer, it was
necessary to move logically through all the stages of the life-cycle of a
fermenter, including filling, pitching, fermentation, CO2 generation, warm
maturation, cooling, cropping, emptying and cleaning, explaining how
manual input could be minimised at each stage.
Question 2
A brewery produces a significant volume of a global lager brand.
Recently, reports from headquarters have indicated a flavour shift from
the ideal profile. In respect of the processes from wort collection
through to bright beer tank, describe the possible causes of flavour
changes and the nature of the change due to each cause. State the
corrective action required to overcome these changes.
14 out of 21 candidates achieved the pass mark, with 5 good and 1
excellent answer. Unfortunately, many candidates did not appear to read
the question completely. The requirement was to describe 1) the causes of
flavour change, 2) the nature of the change due to each cause and 3) the
corrective action needed to overcome each change.
The better answers presented a table with three columns covering these
three aspects. A few candidates wasted time and energy by describing how
they would set up a problem-solving team and the techniques they would
use. Of course in a practical situation these issues are very important but
they were not the subject of the question.
Drinkers demand consistency in global brands (as do beer company
directors!) and it might be a good exercise for potential candidates to look
at their own brands and consider all the flavour variations that may occur
in a brewery (there are at least a dozen main causes of the most common
problems).
Question 3
Describe the processes and procedures that can be implemented in
fermentation and beer processing to ensure colloidal haze stability in
bottled or canned beer with a declared shelf life of twelve months. What
tests are available to determine the level of stability achieved?
21 candidates attempted this question with 3 achieving the minimum
standard, 6 good and 1 excellent answer. Candidates who described
everything they knew about colloidal haze impressed the examiner, but
unfortunately were not answering the question.
The better candidates worked their way through the main processes of
fermentation, conditioning/cold storage and filtration, and described the
procedures in sufficient detail to demonstrate a genuine practical
knowledge of how to control haze stability in their own breweries.
In general, the available tests were quite well known. A Master Brewer
should certainly be aware which test is relevant for whichever aspect of
stability is under consideration.
Question 4
Question 6
Describe the design and operation of a CIP (cleaning in place) plant

suitable for use in a conditioning tank farm of 10 x 500 hl tanks and 20 x
2000 hl tanks where up to 3 simultaneous tank and mains cleans are
required. What equipment, systems and procedures should be in place to
ensure all plant is cleaned effectively?
Discuss the range of procedures available for measuring and accounting

for the beer losses between wort collection in fermenter and filtered
beer in bright beer tank. What technical procedures can be adopted to
minimise these losses?
Only 8 out of 25 candidates attempted this question, and only 2 achieved a

satisfactory mark, leading the examiner to question the level of knowledge
of this crucial part of a tank farm operation
There was 1 good, and 1 satisfactory answer, out of 11 attempts. A good

start would have been to show a simple process flow chart. This would
have helped the candidates who forgot to include additions between FV
and CT, or CT and BBT, or the whole area of beer recovery.
The best answer used a full page, well annotated diagram, and recognised
the implications of the requirement for three simultaneous cleans (three
delivery and three scavenge systems, with different fluid pressures and
flow rates for different cleaning tasks).
In accounting for beer losses, the examiner was seeking demonstration of

how this might be done in practice, for example: with what frequency (per
brew, per day, per week, per month) and on what aspect of the process
(fermentation, cold storage, filtration).
In the past, many brewers (including the examiner) have attempted to

clean tanks full of beer, and it seems this unfortunate trend will be
continued, as only one candidate referred to scavenging first and checking
for flow at the start of a vessel CIP.
The better answers got the brewers and operators out of the control room
and onto the plant, with due consideration of the importance of both
planned and reactive maintenance.
Jeremy Stead
The second part of the question was answered a little better, but with
insufficient detail; at this level it is important that micro checks be
understood thoroughly in terms of where they should be carried out and
for what reason.
Question 5
Describe in detail, with the aid of suitable diagrams, the complete cycle
of operation of a nominated kieselguhr filtration plant and associated
equipment. What instrumentation and procedures may be installed in
this operation to assure reliable physical/chemical quality and maximise
the right first time achievement in bright beer tank?
14 candidates attempted this question, with only 3 satisfactory, and 2
good answers. The better answers presented a simple, but accurate layout
of the nominated plant AND the associated equipment. This provided a
good basis for the written description.
Few candidates were able to demonstrate a thorough knowledge of the
complete cycle of operation at the level of detail required and expected.
A good knowledge of filter aids, how they are used, and at what rate was
shown in the better answers. However, in others, with regard to plant,
critical items of associated equipment, such as buffer tanks, chillers and
trap filters, were omitted.
Setting up a problem-solving team is NOT a procedure to ensure quality; it
is one of the means by which quality issues can be explored, and it is
necessary to know what quality parameters need to be controlled and the
procedures that can be employed to do so.

Module 3 Packaging of Beer
General comments and overview
In all there were 22 submitted scripts compared with 23 candidates in
2014 and 27 candidates in 2013. The pass rate was 45.5% compared to
47.8% in 2014 and 48.1% in 2013.The average mark for all candidates was
46.3% compared with 51% for 2014 and 50.5% in 2013. Overall
performance was centred around the D (pass) and E (fail) grade boundary
which accounted for 82% of the candidates with 45.5% (D) and 36.4% (E).
Analysis of questions that were answered and the corresponding pass rate
was illuminating. Question 1 was answered by 91% of the candidates with
55% passing. Conversely Q4 was answered by 81 % with a pass rate of
only 28%.

The marks for the MCQ ranged from 28/100 to 68/100 with a range of 40
marks which is very wide. The average was 54.2 marks. Some candidates
did not answer all of the questions which immediately reduced the
opportunity to score marks.
The structure of the paper was to evaluate the candidates across the range
of packaging processes that they should be able to demonstrate
knowledge of. Overall the candidates appear to have reasonable
knowledge of one method of packaging but limitations were evident in
their answers across the range of other packaging processes.
Calculation questions were not answered particularly well, with a wide
range of approaches to get to an answer. Often the method used was
difficult to follow with little structure to their workings. Bottling and
Kegging questions were answered best with questions testing bottle
pasteurisation and can seaming not being answered well.
13
Overall for some candidates there appeared to be a lack of hands on

operational experience across the various disciplines which was reflected
in some of the answers.
Question 1
A new plant is to be established for keg filling with an annual capacity of
1,200,000HL split between 30L and 50L kegs 40% of which will be in 30 L
keg size. Production includes standard ales and lagers with the addition
of one dealcoholised lager and a highly flavoured wheat beer product.
With the aid of a diagram describe and detail the individual plant
required including throughput, capacity, equipment layout and manning
in your calculation. Regarding the latter two products consider and
justify what extra requirements are needed to ensure conformance to
plan and product quality across the full product range. State any
assumptions made.
This question was answered by 91% of the candidates (with a overall pass
rate of 55%).
Good answers focussed on calculating data and relating this to the base
design using sensible assumptions to justify the decisions taken. Sensible
consideration of efficiency, shift patterns, holiday allowance, thus
reflecting practical knowledge is key to this answer. Time appreciation
regards the impact of 30 v 50 L keg sizing, its impact on filling speeds, the
need for specific sterilisation patterns due to the product complexity and
an understanding of product cycle time for planning stock rotations are all
key factors when deciding on plant capacity and running times. Poor
answers concentrated on a calculation alone which is insufficient. The
better papers gave the explanation needed to support the assumptions
regards the final design. When a diagram is requested as in this answer it
should be produced, it can be a simple and useful tool to demonstrate a
good underlying practical knowledge of temperatures, flow rates, CCPs
and manning skillsets.
The second section regards specific risks associated with low alcohol and
wheat production was poorly answered with generalities referring to
microbial risks and flavour taint. The poorer papers omitted this area and
the better papers detailed specific risks in more detail and detailed
preventative actions and procedures to minimise such risks.
Question 2
Describe the management information and the frequency at which it
should be collected for bottle and can small pack lines in order to allow
effective control and conformance to planned production performance
and quality targets? Describe suitable reports and illustrate how these
reports effectively present the data in a form which is of use to the line
manager.
This question was answered by 54% of the candidates (with a overall pass
rate of 58%)
The key to answering this question was to explain what specific data
would be required to understand whether or not departmental
performance was improving or not. A small pack packaging line is
dependent on several elements of performance these can be broadly
specified as equipment, manning or teams and consumables.
Most answers explained in broad terms the equipment performance
measures such as line efficiency and OEE. The better answers included a
good knowledge based consideration of this by product and pack size.
Manning considerations were poorly explained other than wage bills with
little thought to absence and team training skill set targets. Consumables
tended to cover water, electricity and process gases, for the purposes of
this question product, dry goods and losses should be considered.
Few answers produced sensible targets or values or demonstrated the
importance of being able to drill down into figures such as analysis of
quality, losses or efficiency performance by packaging line, item of
equipment, product type, complexity of package, operator performance,
shift performance or team performance. Also little understanding was
evident in respect to the fixed and revenue expenditure
14
Question 3
Describe in detail the design of a complete cellar dispense system
suitable for multi brand draught lager beers to a variety of bars in one
establishment. List and justify your choice of materials and overall design
for all components and give details of operating procedures to ensure
the system continues to operate optimally.
This question was answered by 59% of the candidates (with a
disappointing overall pass rate of 46%) This key to this question is a good
diagram illustrating the fundamentals of a dispense system and
demonstrating the challenges of a multisite multilevel operation against a
single point installation. A diagram can really emphasis the differences
between dispense at its most simple level versus a complex solution
suitable for multiple dispense points. The poorer answers basically
included a keg line cool and font in a simplistic diagram, whereas the
better answers increased complexity in stages and illustrated the
challenges through added solutions such as pumped systems, non-return
set ups extra coolers along with quoting sensible dispense pressures, gas
solutions, delivery speeds and showed a good grasp of values in respect of
cleaning temperatures and materials The second part of the question was
poorly answered with little reference to food safety, material transmission
characteristics and risks, understanding of modern bar font technology and
only the very best answers reference sensible procedural requirements. In
respect to hygiene temperatures, times, flow rates and cleaning material
examples are required; a simple statement that all pipework must be clean
and hygienic is insufficient.
Question 4
List the utilities required to operate either a keg racking line or a cask
racking line. For each utility, describe how variation in the supply could
impact on product quality, overall efficiency and environmental
performance.
disappointing overall pass rate of 28%) There is a basic relationship
between utilities relating to line efficiency, product quality, environmental
performance and overall running costs. The better answers demonstrated
an understanding of this and illustrated this through examples such as the
effects of low steam consumption versus high steam consumption and its
impact on the other areas. As with most relationships an optimum is
required and that can be defined through a set of values. The fact that
more steam gives a better sterility at greater cost is insufficient; the detail
required was the optimum use of saturated steam to optimise
performance. The better answers demonstrated this through giving
example temperature, time and pressure targets and a thorough
explanation justifying the optimum value. A similar level of detail was
needed for the other main utilities. In general the environmental relation
was poorly demonstrated with little demonstrated understanding of noise,
heat, refrigerants, and power control, which were covered by very few
answers.
Question 5
Following a step change improvement in changeover times, haze and
taste complaints have increased substantially in canned beer products.
List the likely root causes and describe an investigation process which
would identify the cause of this increase. Then detail what corrective and
preventative actions could be taken throughout the supply chain to
remedy the problem.
This question was answered by 41% of the candidates (with an overall pass
rate of 55%) The best answers approached this problem systematically,
considering a range of reasons that would contribute to specific types of
taste and haze complaints. Examples of potential root causes were
suggested and justified. For each example consideration was then given to
the likely relationship between improved changeover times and the
identified root causes. There was no right or wrong answer, the good
answers considered a range of options in the relationship, justified them
and then offered a solution to prevent reoccurrence. Poor answers
majored on problem solving techniques in general such as setting up a
team based approach but could not focus on specific examples, values or
techniques related to a canning production unit.
Question 6
For a non-returnable bottling line operation, describe the policies
procedures and processes that would be subject to inspection during a
third party customer food safety audit. Describe how product risks to the
consumer, customers and plant personnel are assessed and controlled.
disappointing overall pass rate of 45%) The best answers covered the
following detail and demonstrated involvement in customer specific audits
regards procedural and process third party audit requirements to ensure
food safety. They clearly demonstrated an understanding of the purpose
and the importance of certain prerequisite programs e.g. HACCP, Risk
analysis, product recall traceability and the requirements and duty of care.
Operational hygiene requirements were understood by most however
control of Food contact materials, Supplier Approval process and specific
customer requirement were less well understood. The second part of the
question was best answered by illustrating with sensible knowledge based
practical examples relating risks to the customer and consumer. Poorer
answers focus mainly on the general principles of HACCP but failed to
demonstrate this in practice in relation to bottling operations.
Michael Partridge

Module 4 Resource Management and Regulatory
Compliance
A total of fifteen candidates attempted the two examinations.
Q19 (records to ensure traceability from a bottles date code) was

generally well answered with many required items listed including malt
records, beer vessel movements/any blending, calibrations, packaging
records, bottle pallet batch numbers, warehouse temperature and damage
reports, CIP, analytical and micro results.
15 candidates sat the exam, achieving an average score of 68, with the
scores ranging from 50 to 80.
Q20 (what depreciation should reflect) found half the candidates

understanding the relationship with the life of the asset but sadly the
other half did not.
Once again the pattern of recent years was repeated with questions on the
environment, health and safety, quality assurance and resource planning
being answered more strongly than finance and supply chain. However, as
can be seen from the average score, the overall standard was good.
Q22 (the advantage of building up production costs using a standard

costing model) produced few correct answers. The examiner was seeking
something along the lines smooths out short term variances and gives a
target to compare against.
For Q1 (fugitive emissions) the examiner was seeking a reference to

polluting gases and liquids entering the environment (to air, water or
ground) due to loss of containment. Examples might include: a leak of
ammonia gas from a compressor into the air, a loss of beer from an unbunded fermentation vessel entering a storm water drain and thereafter a
river or diesel fuel leaking from a cracked underground storage tank into
the ground.
There was a great deal of confusion (as in previous years) over categories
of cost. For Q24 (fixed and variable overheads), salaries can only be
considered a fixed overhead if they are not a direct labour cost. So finance
team, human resources, IT services would be allowed. Similarly materials
can only be considered a variable cost if they are not a direct material cost.
So laboratory chemicals, general cleaning materials would be allowed.
Candidates are encouraged to remember that Manufacturing Cost =
Direct materials + Direct Labour + Manufacturing Overhead where
Manufacturing Overhead has Fixed and Variable components.
Q3 (impacts of the brewing industry on the environment), Q4 (water cycle)

and Q11 (risks to health from working in breweries) were all awarded [4]
marks. This did not mean [4x1] and the examiner was seeking more than 4
elements to the answers. For Q3 and Q11, up to 8 elements were expected
(and often submitted) whilst for Q4, 6 elements were sought and
reproduced in the better answers.
Q13 (explanation of so far as is practicable) was, in general, not well
answered. Too many candidates explained the more common so far as is
reasonably practicable. So far as is practicable implies a higher
standard. Better answers were along the lines whatever is technically
possible in the light of current knowledge which the person concerned had
or ought to have had at the time. The cost, time and trouble involved are
not to be taken into account".
For Q27 (events which can reduce the available running time of a bottling
line) CIP, changeovers etc only count if they exceed the planned time.
With Q32 (constraints on maximising a brewerys output) many candidates
failed to appreciate that the capacity, and therefore theoretical maximum
output, was fixed. Thereafter, the variation and failure to maximise the
output will be from, for example, breakdowns, utility failures / variations,
bottlenecks, seasonality, raw material supplies, product mix, slow
fermentations etc.
Question 1
Candidates are regularly reminded to read each question carefully before

answering. For Q15 (types of contaminant in beer), several candidates
completely missed out the likely causes from their answers and proposals
to minimise the risk of one of them.
List in descending order the principal uses of thermal energy in a brewery

having, in addition to brewing, kegging and traditional canning
operations. Develop a firm plan to achieve an ongoing annual reduction
of 5% in the fossil fuel specific energy consumption for this brewery.
Q17 (stages of a HAZOP study) saw a contrast in answers with some

extremely good ones and some very poor ones, with few in between. A
number of the poorer answers failed to include Critical Control Points
(CCPs) at all!
10 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between

a weak 11 and a good 17, with an average score of 14.
15
The examiner asked for a list in the first part of the question, strongly
implying that the majority of marks would be allocated to the second part.
The key to the second part of this question was the word ongoing. This
should have made it clear that a one-off exercise was wholly insufficient.
The examiner was seeking detailed explanations of procedures and records

built up in a structured manner. Examples of areas which should have been
included (not an exhaustive list): raw material certification; batch
identification; in-process and finished stock management; HAZOP analysis
and review; standard operating practices; training records; analytical
testing/records at each stage of movement and prior to packaging;
packaging run checks; quality system reviews; supplier reviews;
maintenance of accreditations and compliance; audits; maintenance and
cleaning records etc.
A structure to the plan was sought initially with the roles and
responsibilities of key players (perhaps including a champion),
communication, motivation, measurement (including benchmarking),
target setting, reporting and review meetings. The better answers stressed
the importance of commitment of senior management.
The best answer included all of the above points and more. Importantly,
he/she also explained the purpose of retaining sample packaged goods
from each CT/BBT for the duration of product shelf life as a reference
during the life cycle of the batch. Some answers were more technically
detailed and lacked the emphasis on management procedures.
The list of uses of thermal energy was fairly well covered with the better
answers having 8 to 10 uses. Several candidates had not read the question
accurately and included uses of thermal energy in bottling!
In terms of an ongoing plan the examiner was looking for 3 strands:

1.
Addressing the so called low hanging fruit or quick wins e.g.

steam leaks, missing insulation, steam trap maintenance, timing
of demands for steam (avoiding large coincidental demands for
steam, timely start-up of tunnel pasteurisers) etc.
2.
Short/mid-term actions e.g. consistency of wort boiling,

pasteuriser control, CIP regimes, hot water management etc.
3.
Longer term actions which should include the identification of

capital projects with cost-saving paybacks e.g. wort boiling
systems, real-time energy management with more
sophisticated metering and empowered workforce, alternative
sources of thermal power etc.
Better answers then emphasised that an ongoing plan is achieved by

getting into the usual circle of continuous improvement. Capital projects
should produce step-wise changes providing fresh platforms for
incremental improvements.
Question 2
What are the objectives of having a Health and Safety policy? How can
these objectives be achieved in practice?
This very popular question was attempted by fourteen candidates with
marks ranging from 8 to a good 17 with a disappointing average of 12.
Safety questions are generally answered very well reflecting the everyday
importance of the issue in breweries. However, this question was not
answered as well as anticipated.
Many candidates did not make the objectives of having a Health and Safety
Policy clear often being confused with the policy itself. The examiner was
seeking objectives along the lines: to set a clear direction for the
organization to follow; to contribute to all aspects of business
performance as part of a demonstrable commitment to continuous
improvement; to ensure responsibilities to people are met in ways which
fulfill the spirit and letter of the law; to ensure stakeholders' expectations
in the activity (whether they are shareholders, employees, or their
representatives, customers or society at large) are satisfied; to ensure
there are cost-effective approaches to preserving and developing physical
and human resources, which reduce financial losses and liabilities.
Better answers provided explanations of how these objectives can be
achieved by developing the four key areas of organising, planning,
measuring performance and auditing and reviewing performance.
Question 3
What procedures should be put in place and records kept to ensure beer
is produced to the correct specification and due diligence shown if
customer complaints are received?
Another very popular question with fourteen candidates choosing to
answer this question with marks ranging from a very poor 5 to a very good
22 with an average of 12.
16
Question 4
Describe the content and purpose of the three major financial
statements in a companys accounts. Explain depreciation, its purpose
and impact in the companys accounts. Although depreciation is not
normally considered as part of the decision to approve capital
expenditure, when could it become a significant factor? Suggest suitable
rates of depreciation for a can line, lauter tun, brewhouse building,
desktop computer, delivery vehicle.
Sadly the finance question was attempted by just 4 candidates. Marks
ranged from 7 to a creditable 21 with an average of 12. Depreciation was
generally well understood as a concept and most candidates suggested
sensible depreciation rates for the items requested.
In order to manage a business effectively from the financial perspective, it
is important to measure: (a) how many assets there are; (b) how much
profit is being generated; (c) when the cash is coming in and (d) how it is
being spent. Assets are measured by the (1) Balance Sheet, whilst profit
and cash are measured by the (2) Income Statement / Profit and Loss
Account and the (3) Cash Flow Statement respectively. These are the three
major financial statements in a companys accounts.
The balance sheet shows the position that the business is in at the end of
the relevant time period. It shows the assets the business has, its liabilities,
and the amount of equity belonging to the shareholders.
The liabilities and equity section shows where the business gets its funds
and the assets section shows how those funds have been used. Examples
of long term or fixed assets include: property, plant and machinery,
financial investments that are to be held for the long term, patents and
licenses. Short term assets include: inventories or stock, account
receivables / debtors, cash and financial investments that are to be held
for the short term only (i.e. less than 1 year). Short term liabilities include:
accounts payable / creditors, income taxes payable and short term
borrowings (where the repayment date is within 1 year). Long term
liabilities include borrowings where the repayment date is longer than 1
year from the balance sheet date.
Shareholders equity is made up of 2 key parts. The capital part represents
the shares bought by the investors when the business was set up i.e. the
cash that was physically given to the business by the investors, i.e.
shareholders. The second part is retained earnings / profit and loss
reserve. This is the cumulative profit earned that has not been paid to the
owners in dividends but has been re-invested in the future growth of the
business instead. The income statement / profit and loss account
measures the sales made and the costs incurred over a particular time
period. For external reporting this is usually for a year but internally most
businesses will prepare their income statement / profit and loss account
on a monthly basis.
The income statement / profit and loss account captures a sale when the
product or service is delivered to the customer. Costs are recorded in the
income statement / profit and loss account to reflect the costs of making
the sales during that time period. The costs are always deducted from
sales in order of how closely they relate to the sale itself. After costs are
deducted from sales, the figure that remains is the bottom line profit (also
known as the net income or profit after tax) which belongs to the
shareholders, and consequently is reflected as part of shareholders equity
on the balance sheet. The cash flow statement shows how cash has been
generated and used over the relevant time period. Most cash flow
statement styles will present the flows of cash using 3 main categories:
operating cash flows; investing cash flows; financing cash flows.
Operating cash flows will include the flows from the core operations of the
business and are driven by trading. Investing cash flows deal with any
investments in the future of the business. Any new plant and equipment
would be included in this section. The financing section deals with any
investments made by shareholders and any dividends paid to them. Any
new borrowings or any repayments of existing loans would also be shown
in this section.
The second part of the question concerned depreciation which can be
described as the gradual conversion of the cost of a tangible capital asset
or fixed asset into an operational expense which then normally appears in
the fixed cost budget. The objectives of depreciation are to: (a) reflect
reduction in the book value of the asset due to obsolescence or wear and
tear; (b) spread a large expenditure (purchase price of the asset)
proportionately over a fixed period to match revenue received from it; (c)
reduce the taxable income by charging the amount of depreciation against
the company's total income. In effect, charging of depreciation means the
recovery of invested capital, by gradual sale of the asset over the years
during which output or services are received from it. Depreciation is
computed at the end of an accounting period (usually a year), using a
method best suited to the particular asset.
Depreciation can be a significant factor where, in some countries, capital
allowances are available. The difference between depreciation and capital
allowance is subtle. Depreciation takes account of the cost of an asset in
any given year in the company accounts. Capital allowances takes account
of the costs of the same assets in any given year for the purposes of
corporation tax.
The design of capital allowances seeks to encourage investment. It does
this by increasing the cost declared in the early years of an asset. Higher
cost in the early years reduces corporate tax in the early years. Hence, by
reducing corporation tax in the early years, it ought to help cash flow the
purchase of the asset.
Suitable rates of depreciation for the specified items would typically be:
can line 10years, lauter tun 20 years, brewhouse building 50 years,
desktop computer 3 years and delivery vehicle 7 years. In marking the
question the examiner made appropriate allowances on these rates as
they can vary within different codes of accounting rules. As ever, the
finance question was straightforward and it remains disappointing that
more candidates do not attempt this section as it represents a very
important aspect of brewery management and with some knowledge is
not difficult to answer.
For the first part of the question, the associated costs the examiner was
seeking should have included as a minimum: transport, warehousing,
possible additional raw material (and delivery) costs, extra kegs to allow
adequate supply for the desired stock levels, additional time in the supply
chain and mistakes in process / deliveries.
For the second part of the question, the factors which would need to be
considered to ensure the arrangement works well for both parties should
have included: extensive technical evaluation or audit of the plant and
processes, a clear contract identifying roles and responsibilities including
lead times and possibilities for emergency changes, excellent
communication and co-operation to place orders and understand stocks
held between the two locations, realistic sales forecasts for converting into
demand on the supplier brewery which may not be able to react to
changes quickly. The poorer answers did not cover the importance of
defining the roles and responsibilities or the communication systems
required to ensure the arrangement continued to work.
Factors that would influence flavour matching might include: the water
supply and the potential need to dose additions to achieve matching, age
of plant, extract performance for malt / hops in particular, style of vessels
(all of which should be understood at technical evaluation stage). Many
candidates failed to mention water quality and composition which is
always the first thing to concern consumers.
Question 6
List the range of managerial competences exhibited by a world class
production team leader. For three of these competences, describe
behaviours which demonstrate their use in everyday brewery operations.
For the same three competences, explain what training might be given to
aspiring team leaders and managers to assist them in gaining these
competences.
Eight candidates submitted answers to this question with marks ranging
from 10 to a very satisfactory 18 with an average of 14. The examiner was
seeking managerial competences such as:
Managing tasks (analysis, creativity, planning, decision making)
Managing people (leadership, persuading / influencing,

sensitivity, coaching)
Self management (communication, drive, energy)
Environment (business awareness, customer and supplier

orientation)
Technical (health and safety, business systems, finance, human resources,
manufacturing, logistics)
Two of the poorer answers only offered technical competences whilst the
best answer provided almost the full range.
Behaviours which demonstrate their use in everyday brewery operations
are too many in total to describe here but to take three examples to
illustrate the level the examiner expected:
1.
Question 5
2.
To increase profitability, the brewery has decided to consider
outsourcing some brewing and packaging to a competitor brewery at a
favourable cost. One beer brewed and bottled and a second beer
brewed, bottled and kegged are to be considered. If the direct
comparison of production costs offers a potential saving of 25%, what
other associated costs will reduce that value? Identify the factors which
would need to be considered to ensure the arrangement works well for
both parties. Describe three factors that would influence flavour
matching.
Ten candidates attempted this question with marks ranging from 9 to an
excellent 23 with an average of 15. The top mark represented a near
model answer. Some answers adequately covered technicalities but
lacked a clear idea of the implication for the various cost factors.
3.
Planning: plans in logical sequence, sets and defines objectives,

reviews plans regularly, meets deadlines, organises time well,
keeps control, thorough and systematic, considers the broader
picture, assesses priorities, criticises constructively, reviews
progress and modifies plans, allocates resources, involves
others, thinks tactically.
Leadership: balanced coaching style, provides honest and
constructive feedback, sets personal high standards, allocates
and controls resources efficiently, confidence in dealing with
potential conflict, uses humour appropriately, sets and agrees
goals and objectives, leads by example, confident with people,
delegates responsibility, analyses others behaviour, enthuses
others, tolerant of risk taking.
Communication: speaks in clear articulate manner, is socially
confident, keeps people informed, presents to people in the
appropriate style, competent in the use of visual aids, checks
understanding, expressive in oral / written communication,
demonstrates listening, acts as reliable source of information,
consults before deciding / acting, able to brief effectively to all
levels.
17
In seeking an explanation of what training might be given to aspiring team

leaders and managers to assist them in gaining these competences the
examiner anticipated essentially work-based activities. A couple of
examples for leadership might be:
Invite the aspiring team leader to volunteer for a project either

as the leader or (to have another perspective) a team member.
Provide support and objective feedback.
Arrange for the aspiring team leader to observe or shadow a

respected, well rounded working team leader or manager.
For some competences (or aspects of competences), self study or distance
learning may be appropriate using books, videos etc.
Robin Cooper and Ian Bearpark
18
DIPLOMA IN BREWING EXAMINATION 2015
Examination team Robert McCaig, Ian Smith, David Cook, Marc Schmitt, Alastair Pringle, Tobin Eppard,
George Ritchie, Yahia Chabane, Jean Michel Gualano, Gary Freeman, Phil Worsley and Andrew Barker
Module 1 Materials and Wort

The examination was sat by 336 candidates (18 in French), compared with
358 candidates in 2014 and 410 in candidates in 2013. The pass rate for
the examination this year was 66.9%. This compares with a pass rate in
2014 of 57% and 2013 of 71%.
The average mark for all candidates was 51.6%. This compares with an
average mark of 45.9% in 2014 and 49.7% in 2013.
Once again the examiners request that you number each question that you
have answered clearly in the examination booklet (in order!) as well as
marking on the front of the examination booklet what questions were
attempted, for example, Q1, Q2 etc, in this way sections or parts of
answers will not get mixed up. Additionally mark clearly on each page
what question it is you are answering.
It is of utmost importance for the candidate to indicate clearly on the first
page of the examination booklet the questions, in order, that they have
answered. It is also better if the candidate starts each question on a fresh
page, and only on the pages indicated to write on.
There were a high number of candidates exhibiting poor exam technique
with regard to not laying out or even labelling their answers according to
the question (part i), ii) etc.). Q1 in particular, some candidates felt they
could answer the 10 parts in almost any order (probably that of their
confidence in answering each part).
Others used the unruled pages in the answer book for answers they clearly
intended to be marked, even though the instructions for the exam
expressly tell them that such work will be disregarded.
This year the quality of candidates presenting themselves for this
examination were better prepared over last year. There were a number of
very good candidates and that is reflected in the marks at the top end of
the scale.
There was also a dramatic difference in the quality of the answers to the
various questions. Some which were similar to questions asked in the past
were generally well answered, but the questions which were asking the
candidates to demonstrate their knowledge with slightly different
questions, were in many cases poorly answered. It is clear that many
candidates practise question spotting and then try and shoe horn a
prepared answer into the question, regardless how relevant it is.
There were also some candidates who were clearly unprepared for an
examination at this level. If they had looked at the examiners reports for
the previous examinations this would have been very obvious to them the
standard of knowledge required.
Question 1
Define and briefly discuss the relevance to malting of the following:
a) Aleurone
b) Endosperm
c)
Scutellum
d) Husk
e) Embryo
f)
Germination energy
g) Germination capacity
h) Water Sensitivity
i)
Chitting
j) Acrospire
(2 marks each) (20)
This question was attempted by 307 candidates (97%) with 83% achieving
the pass mark. The candidates should have realized how much was
required for each answer in that 2 marks were allocated per item. Several
candidates wrote pages for 2 marks, which would have impacted their
time management for other questions. Again reading the question is
important in that several candidates gave the relevance of the item to
brewing while the question quite clearly indicated malting.
Full marks were given to those candidates that indicated that the aleurone
was a living tissue that lies under the testa and above the endosperm and
is important in water transportation and enzyme production in the
growing barley.
The Endosperm was identified as the food storehouse for the growing
barley and consisted of a matrix of starch embedded in a protein matrix.
The best answers talked about the difference between stealy and mealy.
The required answers could be quite short to achieve full marks.
The scutellum is the other living tissue in the barley kernel that separates
the embryo from the endosperm and is involved in generation of plant
regulatory hormones.
The husk is the hard outer layer of the kernel, made up of lignin silica nad
cellulosic material. Its purpose is to protect the barley kernel as well as
inhibit dehydration.
The embryo is the living part of the kernel, consisting of the coleoptile and
the coleorhiza. It produces plant growth regulators such as gibberilic acid.
Germination energy is the ability of barley top germinate and hence malt.
Full marks were given to those candidates that detailed the 4 ml test and
explained how it was measured.
Germination capacity is the measurement of the potential of barley to
germinate and is conducted using hydrogen peroxide. It is a useful test to
determine dormancy versus dead kernels.
Water sensitivity is a method to determine the capacity of barley to
germinate in the presence of excess water. It is related to growing
conditions.
Chitting is the appearance of white nubs at the distal end of barley which
will eventually become the rootlets. The presence of chitting is an
indication that hydration has occurred and that the barley is ready to move
into germination.
The acrospires is the development from the embryo of the coleoptile
which becomes the green part of the barley plant. The length of it is an
indication of modification in germination.
19
Question 2
Outline the operational stages involved in processing barley into malt
from receipt to malt dispatch. Explain the main aims of each stage and
how these aims are achieved. (20)
This question was attempted by 302 candidates (95%), with 68% achieving
the pass mark. This was well answered, but for full marks candidates had
to remember that there are five stages, storage, grading, steeping,
germination and kilning and dispatch. In storage the main points included
control of temperature and moisture as well as bin hygiene and aeration.
In grading and cleaning items of importance to note were the use of
magnets, air jet and vibrating screens, grading cylinders and size
classifications for uniformity in processing. In steeping the best answers
included details on the purpose of steeping, to clean and hydrate the grain
from storage moisture to 40 to 45%. Points to include were a number of
wet and dry steeps, aeration was applied during wet steeps, CO2 removal
during dry steeps as well as temperature control.. Also noted was that the
signal for steeping to end and germination to begin was chitting. In
germination the purpose is to allow the grain to modify, along with a very
brief description of what modification is. Key parts of the process include
supply of fully humidified fresh air, temperature control and turning to
prevent rootlet tangling and hot spots in the bed. In kilning the purpose is
to fix the grain, to stop the biological process and make it ready for storage
as well as to develop the characteristic colour and aroma. The best
answers included a description of the three phases of kilning as well as the
process of deculming and storage.
Question 3
List the most important inorganic components of brewing water and
discuss their relevance to the brewing process and final beer quality. (20)
This question, attempted by 241 candidates (76%) with 69% achieving the
pass mark, was generally answered well. Many candidates however did
provide wonderful answers on organic components of water, again a
failure to read the question. Others missed providing the relevance of the
inorganic components to either the brewing process of final beer quality.
The key inorganic components include calcium, magnesium, sodium,
potassium, iron, copper, zinc, chloride, sulphates and manganese. Most
important is calcium which reduces pH in mashing, boiling and
fermentation which increases wort fermentability, extract recovery, and
FAN, improves protein precipitation enhancing final beer clarity, improves
yeast flocculation and beer stability and protects alpha amylase from
thermal denaturing. Magnesium is similar to calcium and is a co-factor in
many yeast reactions and can cause flatulence in final beer. Sodium
imparts a sour salty flavour, potassium can have a laxative effect, copper is
toxic to yeast above 10 ppm, suphate imparts a dry more bitter flavour to
beer, manganese is a co-factor for yeast but a higher levels in inhibitory.
Iron prevents saccharification, promotes beer oxidation and permanent
hazes and imparts a flavour of metallic or blood to beer.
Question 4
With the aid of a flow-diagram detail the equipment which should be
installed between the malt silos and the mill. (8) Explain the design and
operation of the milling equipment normally used with a lauter tun and a
mash filter. Include a typical grist specification for each application. (12)
a pass mark. The first part of the question had not been asked before
recently and the quality of the answers was very variable with many
candidates ignoring it entirely or simply showing a conveyor or auger. Even
if a candidate works in a micro brewery they must be able to describe the
type of equipment to be found in larger breweries. There were however a
few excellent answers demonstrating a working knowledge of this part of
the brewery. A good answer to part one would have included a clear
flowsheet typically showing the following equipment: Malt screen,
destoner, magnets, weighing system, aspiration system with dust
collection, explosion flaps with safe discharge including sensors, conveyors
and elevators.
20
The second part of the answers was much better answered with many
candidates showing a good knowledge of the way the grist fractions flow
through the screens on a six roller mill. The knowledge of the hammer mill
was much sketchier and a common mistake was missing out the sieves on
the hammer mill.
For the grist specification what was required were the percentage
fractions of the grist such as husks, coarse grits, fine grits and flour. It was
notable that relatively poor candidates tended to write answers to the
question they wished had been asked, with all sorts of detail about mash
separation processes. This simply wastes valuable time and does not earn
any marks. They should stick to answering the question (!) which is about
the design and operation of milling equipment.
Question 5
Demonstrate with the aid of diagrams two types of modern (new
generation) wort boiling systems, including the advantages and
disadvantages for each system. (8) List the various hop products available
to the brewer, describe their advantages and disadvantages and how
they are used in the brewery. (The manufacturing processes for the hop
products are not required.) (12)
a pass mark. The first part of the question was answered either very well
or very badly depending upon whether the candidate had up to date
knowledge of modern boiling systems. A similar question had been asked a
few years ago and in the question it is clear that modern (new generation)
systems were what the examiners was looking for. Despite this there was
still an issue with candidates reproducing simple and old-fashioned wort
kettle designs (steam jacketed or internal calandria) for which they got
no credit. The type of systems the examiner was looking for include:
Symphony, Jetstar, Stromboli, Triton, Merlin, Ziemann vacuum and PDX.
The second part on Hop Products was generally well answered and
showed that this was a question the spotters had prepared for. This
question lends itself to a tabular answer and a rambling essay with
information on products scattered around in the text, wastes time for both
the candidate and the examiner. The list of products is long and includes:
whole/leaf hops, type 90 and type 45 pellets, type 100 pellets, stabilised
pellets, isomerised pellets, extracts both ethanol and hexane, CO2
extracts, IKE, PIKE, IHE, reduced hops of RHO, TETRA and HEXA, PHA
flavours, Hop Aid antifoam, essential oils and hop emulsion. Fresh hops
were also mentioned in several answers and this was given credit.
Question 6
What is the purpose of wort clarification prior to cooling? (4) Explain the
mechanism of trub formation and the role of trub precipitation aids.
Describe the different ways that trub can be separated from boiled wort.
(6) For each system include a diagram and explain the mechanisms
employed. (10)
This question was answered by 245 (77%) of candidates with 62%
achieving a pass mark. This question discriminated well between good and
poor candidates with many candidates demonstrating a worrying lack of
knowledge of this key area of the process. This may well be that this is an
area not examined in this depth in recent times and it was also obvious
that some of the candidates were answering as a question of last resort.
The first part of the question was particularly patchy with many candidates
simply talking about removing the trub rather than addressing the reasons
why. These include : the metabolism of the proteinaceous material by
yeast and infecting organisms can cause H2S formation, flavour defects
due to the premature development of aged flavours by the metabolism of
fatty acids, blinding of the cell wall inhibiting the yeast metabolism leading
to slow fermentations and high PG, encouraging infection by adding
nutrients such as amino acids, blinding downstream filters and affecting
fining performance, increasing downstream process losses, reducing shelf
life and increasing stabilising costs.
In the second part there was for many a limited understanding of the
mechanism of trub formation and rather than the physico-chemical
answer we were looking for candidates started to write about flocs
forming in the boil and how these were separated using a whirlpool, which
then pre-empted their answer to part iii). A few candidates overemphasized the protein-polyphenol nature of trub and started writing
about aspects strictly more related to chill-haze than trub (the Siebert
model etc.).
A lot of candidates were very vague about the role of trub precipitation
aids and mixed up carrageenan with collagen and isinglass. Many thought
carrageenan was a protein rather than a sulphated polysaccharide and also
mixed up the charges involved or sidestepped them.
The answers to the third part of the question were also variable with many
candidates simply describing a whirlpool rather than covering the many
other methods employed around the world. The question specifically
asked for a diagram but many candidates neglected to include one with a
consequent loss of marks.
In part ii the best papers detailed the explanation of each of repeatability

and reproducibility, as well as stated the range and the results. For part iii
the two organizations are the American Society of Brewing Chemists with
their Methods of Analysis and the European Brewing Congress and their
EBC Analytica. In part iv, many candidates forgot to define HACCP and its
use.
The main steps in a HACCP program are:
1. Prepare a flow diagram of the process and identify the hazards
at each stage.
2. Specify the control or preventative measure at each stage
3. Identify the critical control point (CCP) for the hazards
4. Establish critical limits for each CCP
5. Establish corrective actions
6. Establish record keeping for documentation and verification
7. Establish audit procedures
8. Review the process on a regular basis for changes
Robert McCaig and Ian Smith
Question 7
The composition of effluent is normally characterised using which
parameters and how are they measured? (7) List the sources of effluent
from a brewhouse including typical values for the parameters set about
above. (7) Explain a typical method of calculating brewhouse effluent
costs. (6)
This was by far the least popular question and was only attempted by 55
(17%) of candidates but with 71% achieving a pass mark. Of those electing
to answer it, part i) was generally well attempted with several copybook
answers which achieved full marks. Answers to parts ii) and iii) (effluent
streams from the brewhouse and formulae for calculating effluent costs,
respectively,) were of much more variable quality. It was clear that several
candidates had prepared an answer to a similar question asked a few years
previously but other candidates were using this as a question of last resort
and presented vague rambling answers.
In part two many candidates included effluent streams from the entire
brewery despite the question clearly stating the brewhouse. A lot of
candidates did not include values to the parameters or simply said high or
low. The last part of the question was deliberately kept open and although
the Mogden formula or something similar is used in much of the world any
valid and justified method was given full credit. For example methods used
in New Zealand and parts of North America were described and given good
marks.
Question 8
With the aid of a diagram describe the difference between accuracy and
precision in laboratory analysis. (4) Define the difference between
repeatability and reproducibility in analysis. (4) List the two main
brewing organizations and their reference publications for defining
worldwide beer analytical methods. (2) Define HACCP and the steps
involved in setting up a successful HACCP program in a brewery. Briefly
describe a typical CCP in a brewery. (10)
This question was answered by 186 candidates (59%) with 58% achieving a
passing mark. This question has appeared a number of times in past
papers and yet is still not attempted by large numbers of candidates, or
are passing marks high. In part I, a simple diagram was the best way to
explain, although many candidates did provide very good descriptions for
full marks. An example of the diagram is below:
Precise and Accurate
Imprecise and Inaccurate
21
Question 1
Module 2 Yeast and Beer
Define yeast viability and outline the principle and procedure for three
different methods that can be used in a brewery to determine the
viability of pitching yeast. (14) Outline three different methods for
determining the cell concentration of pitching yeast. (6)

In all there were a total of 269 submitted scripts with a pass rate of 55.8%.
The pass rate this year is higher than last year (45%), but similar to 54%
pass rate in 2013. We believe that the higher pass rate is a reflection of
the candidates being better prepared to answer a broad range of
questions in this area. This year the exam was also taken in French: 19
candidates took the exam and achieved a pass rate of 57.9%.
As in past years the papers were split between the two examiners and all
the scripts that were close to the pass mark underwent an additional
review by the moderator. Development of a standard answer key early in
question development and the moderation step make this a fair and
robust process.
Overall
Our objective as the examiners of module 2 is to test a candidates
knowledge and understanding of the principles underpinning all the topics
on the syllabus.
After the completion of marking this years papers we believe a number of
factors contributed to a candidates success:
Read the question and answer it specifically. They organised the

information in small blocks of text with headings or where
appropriate used tables. They added diagrams when asked, but did
not include information that was not relevant. They sparingly
highlight sections to avoid making it difficult to read.
Give the right number of examples. When asked for two examples
they provided two mainstream examples. They did not try to include
three, as the examiners only give marks for the first two.
Give precise and to the point answers. They gave clear descriptions
of processes and operations that provided direction and magnitude
for the effect of variables.
They avoided non-quantitative
descriptions such as massive issues, huge problems, poor quality
flocculation, or poor attenuation. They also resisted dumping
information from the same section of the revision notes into their
answer, when it was not relevant to the question.
Practiced writing answers to previous questions. Fine-tuning a

candidates ability to formulate answers and write them clearly in a
given time helps successful candidates. Less successful candidates
try to memorise practice answers and insert answers and diagrams
for previous questions. We caution against trying to over-analyse the
previous questions and the distribution of points as this can only
have a limited benefit. It is very unlikely that the same question will
be asked again.
Understand the breadth of this module. The best candidates had

obviously spent time in both production and a brewing laboratory so
they could answer questions that focused on either area.
Understand the depth of this module. Successful candidates not only

knew of a technique or procedure, but knew how it was performed.
Sometimes this involved reading beyond the revision notes and or
observing plant operation in a brewery.
Allotted the right amount of time to studying. Some successful

candidates have told us they studied every night for 6 months. They
also recognised that review classes could improve their chances of
passing, but were not a substitute for the hard work of self study.
Aware of brewing practices globally. This is an exam where students

are required to knowledge of practices in large and small breweries
around the world. Answers that only focus on the candidates
brewery or their segment of brewing industry will not provide broad
enough information to gain full marks.
Clear and accurate diagrams. Successful candidates took care to

make their drawings accurately represented the process, equipment,
pathway, or microbe.
22
Part one of this question required a definition of viability, which is the

percent of live cells in a culture. Next candidates were required to
describe three methods for determining viability, which included viable
stains, capacitance, and slide culture. The marks were distributed almost
equally among the three methods. Few or no marks were awarded for
methods that are not in general use, such as bioluminescence. No marks
were awarded for plate counts are impractical to obtain results in a timely
manner.
In the second part of this question students were required to outline three
methods for cell counts, such as wet solids, dry solids, turbidity and cell
counts. Marks were evenly distributed between the three methods and
only the first three described were awarded marks. Methods for vitality
were not awarded marks neither were discussions of a methods pros and
cons.
Question 2
Define flocculation. (2)
Describe the following:
a) The Lectin theory of yeast flocculation, including Flo types (5); and
b) Coflocculation. (3)
Outline the effects of too little or too much yeast flocculation on beer
quality. (10)
This question was a combination of theory of flocculation and how it
practically affects the brewing process. A simple definition of flocculation
was required followed by a description of the formation of the lectin
surface protein, its action in binding mannose residues and the role of
calcium. The description should have included a brief description of Flo1
and New flo types. Some candidates include a diagram: however those
who only included a diagram gained few point without a description.
Coflocculation as a phenomenon between two non-flocculant strains
should have been described briefly.
In the second part of this question candidates were awarded points for
identifying the impact of flocculation on flavour compounds, attenuation,
and beer clarity. Some candidates effectively conveyed this information in
table-form. No points were awarded for a description of Stokes Law.
Question 3
Name one beer spoilage bacterium from each of the process stages listed
below (total of four different bacteria). Describe the shape, Gram stain,
catalase, and adverse effect(s) on beer flavour and aroma for each
bacterium:
a) Wort (5)
b) Early fermentation (5)
c)
Maturation (5)
d) Small package (5)
This was a straightforward question as long as the candidate understood
which bacteria were typically found in each part of the brewing process.
The 5 points were allotted to a bacterium from each area and generally a
point awarded for each of the characteristics. Candidates who knew the
material were able to collect a large number of marks. Some candidates
efficiently organized their answer organised into a table: this meant they
were less likely to miss an item and made it easy for the examiners to
award marks. Some candidates incorrectly identified mold or wild yeast as
spoilage bacteria. No marks were awarded for turbidity or non-specific
mentions of off flavours as adverse effects.
Question 4
Outline the steps required to develop a quality assurance plan for a beer
brand. (8) Outline the ten steps required to develop a HACCP program in
a brewery. (12)
This question probed two different aspects of quality. It was only
attempted by about 35% of the candidates and was the least attempted
question by far. In part one, marks were awarded for the steps that
includes definitions of requirements and responsibilities in developing a
brand, definition of beer properties, definition of materials, analysis of
sources of faults, definition of actions etc. Discussion of GMP or HACCP in
this part did not gain the candidate addition marks.
Part 2 required the standard ten steps in developing a plan be outlined.
These included defining the process, identifying hazards, assessing risks,
identifying CCPs, reviewing the HACCP system, in addition to establishing
critical limits, monitoring procedures, corrective actions, record keeping
and audit procedure. One mark was awarded for each step with the extra
ones being given for detail on some of the steps. Variations in the 10 steps
were recognized and points awarded. Candidates who were familiar with
HACCP were able to easily capture a large majority of the points. No marks
were awarded for long explanations of the philosophy or history of HACCP.
Question 5
Outline the formation of foam when beer is poured into a glass. (2)
Describe how foam destabilises and breaks (collapses). Describe how
foam positive and negative compounds interact within the foam matrix,
and how they can be controlled in the brewing process. (18)
The first part of this question was answered well by most candidates. Good
answers focused upon the need to provide disruption or turbulence
usually provided by the pouring action itself. Importantly and surprisingly
some candidates failed to mention the requirement of a dissolved gas to
enhance this process, in combination with adequate nucleation and the
resulting interaction with foam positive materials demonstrating
understanding.
The second part of this question required the candidates to provide the
detail of foaming mechanisms relative to formation, and thus eventual
breakage. A single mark was given for a complete description of the what
and how for each relevant description. Good answers outlined the
physical interactions within the foam destabilising processes such as
disproportionation and coalescence in combination with the influence of
provided by drainage of foam active compounds. Many candidates
provided a thorough list of foam active materials normally found in
many beers, and as well listed some foam enhancers which may be
employed such as PGA. The important point was to demonstrate not only
the what, but to describe the how for each, including processing steps
which provide optimal enhancement of these compounds. For example,
including wheat malt in the grist bill of materials, and thus the resulting
increase in glycoprotein normally associated with this material, which in
turn would increase the substrate level of high molecular weight protein
(glycoprotein) which interacts with divalent cations, and iso-alpha acid in
order that a stable foam is then created. Good answers described the
specific role which the material or process (positive or negative) would
influence foam stability.
Question 6
Briefly describe two analytical techniques used for measuring each of the
following: (12)
a) Bitterness
b) Beer and wort colour
c) Foam stability
Write brief notes on the following:
a) Sampling error (2)
b) Accuracy and precision (2)
c) Repeatability and reproducibility (4)
This question focuses upon the understanding of commonly required

laboratory analyses and their methodologies and builds upon as well, the
analysis of laboratory data. Marks were evenly split for each method
presented. Good answers for example in the case of IBU would have
stated: 10 ml sample would be acidified, and mixed/shaken with 20 ml of
2,2,4 trimethylpentane (Iso-octane) then being analysed using a
spectrophotometer @ 275nm, where the result would be determined by
the following formula A275*50 = 1 BU = 1ppm iso-alpha acid. The key
was to provide an abbreviated, step by step description of the method. In
addition to the manual BU method, some of the candidates were able to
describe the IAA by HPLC method to obtain full marks for this specific
analyte. The three methods for colour determination were the Lovibond
comparator, spectrophotometric method and tristimulus. Both the Nibem
and Rudin methods were required when demonstrating the evaluation of
foam stability.
The second part of the question evaluated the common methodologies
which are utilised to validate data which would be typically generated
within a brewery quality laboratory. Marks were evenly split between the
responses. Sampling error is associated with in-homogeneity or nonrepresentative methods. Many candidates were successful in their
description of a simple, good example to drive the point. Good answers
for the description of a accuracy and precision would provide more than
just a simple diagram which outlined a rendition of an archers target.
There was a tendency to simplify this to only the diagram, with little
supporting information. Good answers would completely describe the
visual representation. The last requirement for the discussion of r95 and
R95 which are internal and external laboratory checks was well
understood by most candidates. Better answers understood that
measures encompass a stated precision rate of 19 out of 20 replications.
Question 7
Describe the process of yeast cropping from a vertical cylindroconical
fermentation vessel for re-pitching, and conditions of yeast storage
vessel required to maintain yeast viability. (14) If these optimal
conditions are not met in a yeast storage vessel, whatsubsequent
fermentation problems might occur? (6)
This question was the most popular question this year, answered by 94%
of all candidates writing the examination.
This is encouraging as
management of yeast is of prime importance to the success of a brewery.
For the first part of the question, marks were split between yeast cropping
processes, and conditions of yeast storage. Each relevant point accurately
depicted earned one mark. The key here was cropping completed from a
vessel which contains a collection cone. Many candidates chose to include
drawings of the fermentation device, and showed depictions of cone-tocone pitching, which was not required. Good answers provided
description of necessary cooling to encourage flocculation and
temperature ranges typically sought as well as cone angles typically
utilized in modern construction, and why. Answers should have included a
description of the removal process typically using a positive displacement
pump, while vented including a generalised rate of flow while being
collected to the yeast brink. Additional marks up to the maximum were
awarded for good descriptions of stratification which would be
experienced in large VCFs, and the requirement to discard earlier, and
even perhaps later layers, favouring the middle portion, which improves
yeast homogeneity. Conditions of storage within typically a brink, was also
required to gain the second half of the marks. Good answers focused
upon noting the enclosed nature of the vessel where good clean-in-place
systems can be utilized to remove soils and effectively sanitize the vessel
between uses and as well noting perhaps a cone for easy yeast removal,
and cooling jackets/agitators to effectively remove CO2, and to provide
adequate convection thereby reducing yeast temperature to a defined
range. Strategies to eliminate oxygen, and reasoning was also expected.
Some excellent answers included exclusion of oxygen via displacement
with inert gasses, and dilution with cold deaerated brewing liquor to
eliminate/reduce ethanol toxicity.
23
The second part of this question focused upon the result of poor yeast
brink management. Good answers noted poor viability at less than 90%,
extended attenuation processes in subsequent pitches and as well eluded
to yeast vitality in terms of poor replication which will be followed by high
SO2 production, sulphur excretion as H2S, poor biological performance
and off-flavours in the final beer product. Our suggestion is that future
candidates study and understand the mechanism of stress, as related to
poor yeast growth and the resulting production of SO2, which is a
regulated metabolite in most beer markets. It is essential to understand
how to control this excreted compound through effective yeast
management and product design.
Question 8
Construct a labelled diagram outlining the significant cellular features of
a brewing yeast cell. (10) Briefly describe the function of each of these
structures during the logarithmic growth phase of fermentation. (10)
This question was the second most answered question where 86% of all
candidates elected to write responses. The key statement was to draw a
completed, labelled diagram and secondly, provide the function for each
associated structural component. Up to ten full marks were awarded for
accurate depictions a single mark for each. Better answers, and was
expected, that candidates would select a species of yeast, and thereby
label appropriately the genus and species strikingly this was not done
with nearly all responses. Many candidates chose to provide in addition, a
bud which was not required. Good answers combining both the
diagram, and secondly a description of function included: 1) effective
representations of the cell wall where macromolecular sieving occurs,
and structure and protection is provided to the yeast cell, 2) the periplasm
where extracellular enzymes are concentrated notably invertase, and 3)
the plasmalemma including a description of the structure of the
phosphlipid bilayer, including some expanded views of imbedded proteins
for the purpose of cellular transport, and 4) the nucleus being identified,
which showed an accurate depiction of the nuclear pores, and bi-layer
nature, including a notation on the location of the cellular DNA and
importance/relation to replication and cellular control and, 5) an accurate
representation for the mitochondrion which would show the elongated
cylindrical morphology, complete with the internal membrane which
shows invaginated structure known as cristae - it is important to note in
depicting mitochondria in yeast, that their size is somewhat small, due to
the lack of full function during the fermentation process the function
being principally provide surface and substrate for oxidative
phosphorylation, which is again subdued in actively fermenting yeast and,
6) ribosomes for the purpose of creating functional proteins from amino
acids and the 7) associated system of membranes known as the
endoplasmic reticulum providing transport and surface area for enzymic
reactions, and 8) liposomes for the storage and transport of lipid, 9) the
golgi apparatus (or body) which is involved in protein transport and, 10)
the large internal vacuole would be included which is generally a storage
or excretion organelle and 11) a representation of the bud, and birth scar
should also be shown noting their origin during replication. Extra points at
a half mark each, were awarded up to the maximum where accurate
dimensions were provided.
Alastair Pringle and Tobin Eppard
24
Accuracy of diagrams led to some students missing marks.

Students also needed to ensure that they highlighted the
controlling of DO levels, both by the design of the machine
(multiple evacuation points) and by the function of the machine
(fast speeds, consistent fill heights).
Module 3 Packaging and Process Technology

General Comments
In all there were a total of 239 submitted scripts (including English and
French) with a pass rate of 23.0%. The pass rate this year is substantially
lower than last year (53%), with an average mark of 35% (2014 was 46%).
This year there were 65 (27%) candidates who chose to answer less than
six questions; only one candidate was able to pass from this group.
With some exceptions, a significant number of scripts demonstrated poor
exam technique, diagrams and illustrations were poorly drawn and
annotated, hand writing (some scripts virtually illegible) and grammar
made marking very difficult.
Apart from the perennial reminder to read and only answer the
question candidates should be advised to ensure:a.
Effective exam technique.
b. Importance of reasonably legible hand writing and
grammar.
c.
Start a new question on a new page.
d. Not to leave bank pages between questions.
e. Answers written in Ink only. Pencil is NOT acceptable.
f.
Mark front page of answer script booklet with question
number in the order answered.
g.
Adequately equipped with appropriate writing and the
recommended drawing aids.
Question 1
i)
Describe in detail and with use of diagrams the method by
which bottle filling is achieved for a rotary filler equipped
with each of the following :a) Short tube.
b) Long tube.
Briefly list by comparison, the advantages and disadvantages
of each method.
(10)
ii) For either (a) or (b) describe, with the assistance of diagrams,
each stage of the filling cycle from filler star wheel entry to
precrowner. Identify the features that control fill levels and
minimise dissolved oxygen pick-up. (10)
i)
ii)
The majority of candidates focused on describing the short

tube methodology and failed to give a balance answer
between it and the long tube methodology. A short
explanation of the overall difference between short and long
tube methods at the beginning accompanied by a detailed
diagram and descriptions attached for both short and long
fillers was applied by more successful candidates. To support
my comments in the General comments and overview
(above) the quality and knowledge reflected in the diagrams
was disappointing as being sketchy and poorly annotated.
The level of detail provided by candidates was variable and
many failed to give a concise answer by tabulating the
comparative advantages and disadvantages of each method.
The comparison list for short and long tube should have been
more focused. Such as, short tube advantages: ease of
maintenance, potential for higher speed fill rates. Long tube
ease of purging. Short tube disadvantages: high C02
consumption for purging.
Surprisingly, many of those candidates having answered
section (i) chose not attempt this section, or if so, only in part, a
reflection of poor exam technique with respect to allocating
time.
Question 2
For a multi-lane walking/reciprocating beam stainless steel keg filler
describe:i)
With the aid of annotated process flow and equipment
diagram(s) the typical cleaning and sterilising stages and
operating parameters from in-feed to before the filling
position, including detergents, steam condition, temperatures
and process times. (10)
ii) Process flow and equipment diagrams with typical operating
conditions for the CIP delivery station and describe best
practice with respect to energy optimisation, water and
effluent minimisation. (10)
i)
This was the least well answered question in section A of the

paper. This question invites the candidate to communicate
their process knowledge by means of step by step illustration
and notated diagrams of a keg washer/filler (infeed, washer,
steam, filling and discharge). In this regard, and as again in Q1,
the quality of illustration and particularly the level of
knowledge in annotation was relatively poor and hence
marking suffered as a consequence. Some candidates were
able to support their answer by providing the parameter details
required and generally these where the candidates that
provided competent diagrams and illustrations.
ii)
Generally well answered by those who attempted this section

and with extra marks available for mention of the significance
of non-caustic detergent to avoid CO2 depletion and the
appropriate steps to minimise effluent loading. Again as a
symptom of poor exam technique a few candidates lost sight
that the question was specifically with respect to stainless steel
kegs and not cask racking.
Question 3
i)
How is oxygen pickup minimised when preparing filtered beer
for packaging? Start your answer at maturation tank and
include the steps required following CIP and beer change over.
(8)
ii) Draw a typical equipment flow-diagram for the above,
identifying the individual plant components. (3)
iii) Identify the typical operating parameters (oxygen content,
pressure, temperature and flow rate) through this process and
describe their significance in relation to achieving the correct
product specification in the pre-filler tank. (9)
i)
The process steps and activities to minimising oxygen pick were

answered adequately by most candidates who attempted this
question. Vessel/line purging, leaks, pressures, CIP residuals
checks all gained easy marks.
ii)
As with other questions in the Section A - Packaging Technology

the absence of a given process-flow diagram yielded answers
of highly varied content and knowledge. Some diagrams were a
mere rough sketch with < 3 elements of process plant
identified, whilst those receiving the higher proportion of marks
were drawn with a comprehensive plant elements including
control loops.
iii)
This section was straight forward and best completed in a

tabular format. DO: 0-0.1ppm, minimisation of DO is essential
to maintain beer stability. Temperature: -2 to 1, prevention of
haze, oxidation, aging, foam, C02 loss. An expression of each
parameter and an understanding of why it is important is what
was required.
25
Question 4
i)
For a beer flash pasteuriser,
a) Draw a diagram of the product and services flow and
describe features in the design of the equipment
(including instrumentation) and its operation that
assures a microbiologically stable product. (6)
b) Identify and describe the process, both during normal
operation and between different beer brands that
ensures product quality.
(4)
c)
Define the term pasteurisation and lethal kill. For a
typical flash pasteuriser, calculate the PUs applied to the
product in a holding tube by subjecting it to 20 seconds
at 73 C. (5)
ii) Explain why the operating conditions in a tunnel pasteuriser
differ from those in a flash pasteuriser in order to achieve
pasteurisation of the product. (5)
A popular question amongst candidates reflecting that pasteurisation is a
key element of plant and familiar topic in the brewing industry, and the
most well answered question in this section.
i)
The answers varied from comprehensive to weak and it was
unfortunate to see some candidates choose to respond with
answer(s) with respect to a tunnel rather than flash pasteuriser
(please double check the question you are answering).
a)
b)
c)
ii)
Many poor illustrations of the process routing limited marks for

students. Numerous answers omitted the services and
instrumentation features requested.
The process to preserve quality between differing brands was
generally answered well, especially so by those who were able
to describe how to optimise changes between brand quality
and avoiding the need to re sterilise between changes.
For the first part most were able to make the distinction
between pasteurisation and lethal kill and then also to recall
the equation 1Pu = t x 1.303( 60). It was rewarding to see
that some candidates were able to indicate the correctness of
their calculation by reflecting on the order of magnitude
expected for the situation given in the question.
A table would be the best way to approach this: packaged vs
beer, hygienic process, energy / utility consumption, simple
heat transfer, heat vs time, package integrity. Simple graph
comparing time/heat/PU would have been useful.
Question 5
i)
Define the following terms and their role in packaging
operations.
a) Quality Assurance (QA)
b) Quality Control (QC)
c)
Total Quality Management (TQM).
Discuss in detail the roles and responsibilities of line
operatives in implementing each of the above procedures.
(12)
ii) Identify two QA activities and one QC activity for each of the
following canning line equipment items.
a) Filler
b) Can seamer
c)
Pasteuriser
d) Can ink jet coding
Briefly describe process control actions for managing nonconformance events and the required corrective steps for
each. (8)
i)
Candidates generally provided a consistent and comprehensive

answer for a definition of TQM. However, widely differing and
disorderly answers were revealed for QA & QC and this is
reflected in the marks given. Those candidates reporting
modern lean style structures and ownership of issues at
operator level as opposed to traditional autocratic style and
awareness of process control procedures were awarded extra
marks accordingly.
ii)
There was clear evidence that where a candidate was uncertain

in defining departmental QC & QA roles it would follow
26
naturally that any uncertainty would compromise their answer

in this section. In managing non-conformances only a few were
able to acknowledge the process control steps extend to the
suppliers also. A number of candidates did not answer two QA
and one QC question.
Question 6
A wort boiling system in a brewery is heated by an external wort boiler
using saturated steam. Write brief notes on the effects of the steam
pressure on:
a) The area of heat exchange that will be required. (1)
b) Wort temperature in the heat exchange zone (1)
c)
The requirements for cleaning of the system (2)
d) Wort quality. (3)
The brewery requires the wort to undergo 5% by mass evaporation in
one hour. The wort is boiled at atmospheric pressure. Using the data
below calculate the flow of steam required. State any assumptions made.
(5)
Saturated steam pressure
= 3 bar gauge.
Condensate pressure in wort boiler = 3 bar gauge.
Enthalpy of steam at 3 bar gauge = 2739 kJ kg-1
Enthalpy of water at 3 bar gauge = 605 kJ kg-1
Initial wort volume at 100C = 500 hl
Enthalpy of vaporisation of water at 100C and atmospheric pressure =
2257 kJ kg-1
Density of water at 100C = 958 kg m-3
It has been suggested that the efficiency of the above system could be
improved. Write brief notes with supporting diagrams as appropriate on
the following energy saving opportunities:
e) Recovery from flash steam (2)
f)
Available technologies for energy recovery from the wort
vapours. (4)
g) A wort recirculation pump that is operated at certain points of
the cycle. (2)
This question was the most popular but also the least well answered.
Questions (a) to (d) were answered very poorly by a majority of the
candidates. Many seemed to ignore the wording of the question that the
answers pertained to steam pressure. Simple marks were to be gained
with a basic understanding that higher pressure steam caused higher
temperatures, reducing the requirement for heat exchange area but
increasing the need for cleaning (due to burn on) and potentially
impairing wort quality.
The calculation for flow of steam was answered better with a good many
candidates acquiring all the marks or most of them. The answer was 0.704
kg/s. Assumptions included negligible heat losses and the reduction in
wort volume being exclusively due to water.
Parts (e) to (g) were answered patchily. The majority of candidates did not
understand flash steam. It is steam produced by pressure reduction of
condensate. Energy may be recovered from the wort vapours to several
points in the process, the most obvious being the hot liquor tank or
preheating the wort inflow to the copper. Most candidates understood
that a wort recirculation pump was useful during the raise-to-boil phase
when the thermosiphon does not work effectively.
Question 7
Part A.
A filter is supplied with beer from a buffer tank. The tank has an applied
pressure of carbon dioxide at 1 bar gauge pressure. The beer level in the
buffer tank is controlled to a depth of 3 metres. The maximum back
pressure from the filter is 6 bar gauge. The inlet to the filter is at the
same height as the outlet from the base of the buffer tank. Transfer of
beer to the filter is by centrifugal pump.
i)
Draw a simple flow diagram to illustrate the system (2) The
pipework between the buffer tank and the filter is 100 millimetres
diameter and the flow rate of beer from the buffer tank to the filter
is 400 hl h-1. The density of the beer is 1010 kg m-3 and the viscosity
of the beer is 0.0025 Pa s
ii) Calculate the Reynolds Number for the flow through the pipework
(3)
iii) Using the supplied friction factor chart determine the value of the
friction factor for the flow through the pipe assuming that the pipe
has a smooth internal surface. (1) The pipe contains three 90 degree
bends of standard radius. The 90 degree bends each have an
equivalent length of 35 diameters.
iv) Calculate the total pressure loss through the pipework given that:
4 . . . . 2
=
Where: P = Pressure loss in pipe due to friction (Pa)

f = Friction factor
L = Effective pipe length including fittings (metres)
= Beer density (kg m-3)
v = mean beer velocity in pipe (m s-1)
d = Inside diameter of pipe (metres)
(2)
iv) Set out the Bernoulli equation that describes the whole
system (3)
v) Calculate the pump power required at maximum back
pressure from the filter if the efficiency of the centrifugal
pump is 60%. Note that the gravitational acceleration is 9.81
m s-1. (4)
Part B.
i)
With the aid of simple diagrams describe the key design
features of a typical centrifugal pump. (3)
ii) Give two distinct brewery process examples of when a
centrifugal pump would not be suitable for a particular duty.
In each case suggest a suitable alternative pump technology.
(2)
This question was relatively popular with the candidates but achieved a
poor pass rate of 33%. Some candidates scored well on the calculations
based on the pressure-enthalpy diagram. Future candidates should
certainly familiarise themselves with the diagram since its use enables
elegant calculations of refrigeration cycles. The mass flow of refrigerant is
calculated from the heat adsorbed divided by the refrigerant enthalpy
change at the evaporator. The answer was approximately 0.115 kg/s.
Compressor power is calculated similarly with the change in enthalpy at
compression multiplied by the flow rate with an allowance for efficiency.
The answer was 43.3 kW. The COP is the removed heat at the evaporator
divided by the compressor power, and in this case it is revealed to be low
(ideally it should exceed 4).
Reducing the condenser pressure or increasing evaporator pressure
demonstrably increases COP by reference to the pressure-enthalpy
diagram. Refrigeration effect is increased and compressor power reduced.
Diagrams of the water-cooled shell-and-tube condenser were very variable
in quality. However many candidates scored well because marks were
readily available for the design features requested in the question. Marks
were available in the final part of the question for any valid comment on
health and safety (particularly legionnaires disease), the relative high
capital cost of air-cooled systems and the higher efficiency of watercooled.
Question 9
i)
This question was the most popular and achieved the second highest pass
rate. Most candidates were able to describe the system diagrammatically,
which is an essential part of the logical process to answering these
questions. Most candidates scored well on Reynolds Number, but the
majority failed to correctly read the friction factor chart. Examinees are
reminded to remain cautious when reading values from charts with
logarithmic scales.
The calculations for parts (iv) to (vi) were very poorly answered in general.
It was particularly disappointing to note that most candidates laid out the
Bernoulli equation with only kinetic, pressure and liquid head terms;
ignoring the pump power and frictional terms. This same comment had
arisen the previous year. Only a few candidates scored well and achieved
the answer of approximately 8.9 kW. The drawings for the centrifugal
pump were in general very poor. The examiner was hoping to see a
credible design, approximately, of the impeller and volute. Marks were
gained by the majority of candidates for the pump types employed when
centrifugal is unsuitable.
ii)
In the context of automatic control loops and by reference to

suitable diagrams, concisely explain the terms:
a) Set point (1)
b) Gain (2)
c)
Response time (1)
d) Rise time (2)
e) Over-shoot (1)
The following figure is a simplified system diagram of the
liquid level and flow control to a packaging plant sterile beer
vessel. The aim is to maintain the beer level by control of flow
from the vessel:
Question 8
A brewery operates a closed circuit vapour compression refrigeration
system using ammonia as the refrigerant. The process heat to be
removed at the evaporator is 120 kW. The vapour enters the compressor
at 300 kPa with 5C of superheat. It is compressed isentropically to a
pressure of 1100 kPa, condensed at constant pressure and sub-cooled by
3C. Finally, it is expanded at constant enthalpy to 300 kPa at which
pressure evaporation occurs. Using the pressure-enthalpy diagram
attached, calculate:
The required mass flow rate of refrigerant. (3)
The electrical power required by the compressor set assuming

that it is 80% efficient. (3)
The coefficient of performance (COP) for the refrigeration

system. (3)
Comment on the value of COP obtained. (1)
Describe, with reference to the pressure-enthalpy diagram,

how the COP can be manipulated by changing the pressures in
the evaporator and the condenser. (3)
Draw a diagram of a water-cooled shell and tube condenser

that is integrated with a water cooling tower. Include basic
structural details, flows and control points that maintain the
operation of the condenser. (5)
Briefly describe one advantage and one disadvantage of a

water-cooled condenser such as that above over an air-cooled
condenser. (2)
During operation the flow into the vessel increases by 20% in a step
change. Explain with the aid of graphical illustrations the system
response characteristics for the following control. Include example(s) for
which incorrect gain setting can cause control problems:
a) Proportional control (P)
b) Proportional and Integral Control (PI)
c)
Proportional, Integral and Derivative Control (PID) (9)
iii) The output from the level sensor is required to be displayed
on a SCADA (supervisory control and data acquisition) screen.
Explain briefly how this might be provided to the humanmachine interface computer if the output from the level
sensor is:
Digital (1)
Analogue (1)
iv) For a differential level sensor describe how it may be
calibrated, stating factors that affect the calibration. (2)
27
This was the least popular question that was also the second most poorly
answered with a pass rate of just 35%. Most candidates scored reasonable
marks on the definitions in parts (a) to (e). There was some confusion
between response time (interval between readings by the controller) and
rise time (time to return process variable to set point).
The graphical illustrations requested in part (ii) were again supplied with
very variable quality. If the examinee heeded the request to show
graphically the effect of incorrect gain settings leading to slow or no return
to the set point for the process variable, then high marks were readily
achievable.
A rudimentary understanding of transmission of control signals was
required for part (iii) but this was not achieved by most candidates. Digital
protocols employ remote terminal units (RTU) and analogue signals
typically require a PLC. Candidates should note that such control and data
acquisition systems are an increasingly important part of a brewers life
and facilities.
Part (iv) again required an answer that coherently described a basic
method to calibrate the sensor, and how the calibration would be affected
by beer density and depth.
Question 10
A lager beer is matured for several weeks in a cylindrical, horizontal
lagering vessel at 5C. The vessel has a diameter of 5 metres. During
maturation a top pressure of 0.1 bar gauge carbon dioxide is maintained.
The fill level in the vessel may be taken as 100%.
i)
Calculate the equilibrium value after maturation for the
average carbonation level in the beer in grams per litre stating
any assumptions made. (8)
Data:
Atmospheric pressure = 101.3 kPa
Henrys constant for carbon dioxide in beer at 5C = 15.75 atm
litre mol-1
Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2
Beer density at 5C = 1010 kg m-3
Molecular mass of carbon dioxide = 44 g mol-1
ii)
After processing it is necessary to increase the carbonation

level in the beer by in-line addition of gaseous carbon dioxide.
The following equation may be used to calculate the rate of
dissolution of the gas after the point of addition:
=
( )
Where:
C = concentration of carbon dioxide in solution
t = time after gas addition
kL = liquid film mass transfer coefficient between gas and beer
at time t
A = total interfacial area between gas bubbles and the beer at
time t
V = total volume of gas bubbles at time t
Ce = equilibrium carbon dioxide concentration in the liquid
phase at the prevailing temperature and pressure conditions
Ct = concentration of carbon dioxide in the beer at time t
By direct reference to the terms in the equation describe how the
process and product conditions affect the speed and completeness of gas
dissolution to the required specification. (6) Describe options for how the
brewer achieves these conditions in practice with reference to practical
technologies and diagrams. (6)
28
This question was attempted by just over half the candidates with a pass
rate of 56%. The calculation for the carbon dioxide concentration was
quite well answered with most candidates achieving pass grades. Top
marks could be achieved by the realisation that the average carbon
dioxide concentration would occur 2.5 metres up the vessel, and also that
equilibrium had to be assumed. The calculation was complicated
somewhat by the need to convert kPa to atmospheres to apply Henrys
Law as given, but very few marks were deducted for arithmetical errors.
Few candidates scored well in the second part. The terms in the equation
imply the benefits of dissolution time (for example holding tubes), beer
turbulence to increase mass transfer, small bubbles to increase mass
transfer area and reduced beer temperature to increase driving forces.
Candidates would have done better in the final part of the question with
improved diagrams for the described technologies. Despite this a
significant number of candidates exhibited good overall knowledge of
technology options, for example carbonation stones, Venturis and static
mixers.
DIPLOMA IN DISTILLING EXAMINATION 2015
Examination team George Bathgate, Graeme Walker Douglas Murray, Jeremy Stephens, Michelle Pizzi, Iain
Campbell and Alan Wolstenholme
Module 1 Materials and Fermentable Wort Cereal

In all there were 51 submitted scripts with 41 candidates achieving a pass
grade to give a pass rate of 80.4%. Although there were more candidates
this year (51 vs 34 last year), the pass rate is similar to last years (79%). It
is encouraging that there were a higher number of candidates that were
well prepared vs last year as well, with 11 B grade passes and even two A
grade passes this year.
There was a wider discrepancy this year between the average of those that
passed (60%) and the average of the fails (32%). It was obvious from these
latter papers that they had not prepared themselves adequately for this
level of qualification. On a more positive note, there were two grade A
passes and 11 grade B passes (65-74%). Seven of these people passed all
of their chosen questions as well as both sets of multiple choice sections.
Overall pass/fail rates and grades
Passed
Grade
A
B
C
D
Failed
Grade
E
F
G
Performance by question
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Answered by
40
48
32
42
39
39
13
Passed by
25
31
27
33
24
25
8
Passed %
63
65
84
79
62
64
62
The general comments above are discussed more specifically in the

following report on each question in Section B (the elective long-answer
questions).
Question 1
No
2
11
15
13
4
22
29
25
4
5
1
8
10
2
The purpose of the multiple choice questionnaire used in section A of the

examination is to test the candidates overall/wider knowledge of the
other categories of substrates (outside of their chosen elective). Most
candidates passed (78% pass rate). A marked improvement has been
noticed this year vs last year in this section with more candidates being
prepared for these questions. More candidates passed this section (78%
pass rate vs 75% pass rate last year), with 10 candidates obtaining an A
pass and one candidate even achieving an 85% pass for the multiple choice
section.
The questions in section B were answered well in a few cases with the
highest pass marks for some of the questions being up at 98%. A greater
number of candidates managed to do well in all 5 questions they had
chosen this year (17 this year vs only 5 candidates last year). Thus
indicating that candidates are choosing to prepare themselves in all areas
more, and/or not leaving their studying till the last minute. A few
candidates that added practical elements/experience to their answers and
that showed they had done more work than just revise the notes provided
by the IBD, really stood out from the crowd. On the other end of the scale
it was disappointing to find there were candidates that sat this level of
exam when still confusing barley and malt, that were not able to provide
more than just an adequate temperature or at a proper temperature
when discussing parameters or that felt a five line answer would be
adequate for most of their essay questions. This is a technical exam.
Candidates, dont under-estimate the need to be specific and give
examples in your answers and to also consider both malt and grain
distilling when one has not been specified. I would also advise candidates
not to rewrite the exam question before answering, as they are spending
precious time on this that could be used on answering the question
instead (with the potential to score more points). A number of candidates
ran out of time for their last question.
With the aid of diagrams, describe the different types of germination

systems that can be used in malting technology and give the advantages
and disadvantages for each of these options. (20)
This question was answered by 78% of candidates with 63% of these
passing. Although this was a question where a lot of the answer could have
been taken straight from the notes, most commonly, only 2-3 types of
germination systems were covered (in notes there are a minimum of 5).
Excellent candidates considered more options (that had not been in the
notes), and had understood the differences between these systems and
methodically thought through advantages and disadvantages for each.
Indeed the highest grade for this question was of 93%.
It was unfortunate that some candidates did not know the difference
between steeping and germination and only gave drawings for two
different types of steeps instead. Others had maybe forgotten details
around germination or misread the question as they gave several pages on
steeping, including various examples of possible steeping schedules.
For some of the advantages/disadvantages part of this question,
candidates would have had to have either studied further or to have
thought through logically, which the excellent candidates did.
A few unfortunately didnt give advantages/disadvantages for each option
but chose to describe different parameters for controlling germination in
general instead. On the other side of the scale, one person went so far as
to say there were only two types of technology possible and that the type
of technology used was completely irrelevant and made no difference at
any level.
Question 2
Describe in detail, with diagrams, the modification of barley during the
malting process. (20)
This question was answered by most candidates (94%), with 65% of these
passing. The average score was of 51% and the highest mark was of 95%.
A number of people underestimated this question and the level of detail
that could be required, as it became clear a number of candidates hadnt
put in the effort to really understand what happens during modification.
We had examples of people thinking that modification take place in the
mashtun and that water alone degrades starch, or that enzymes all come
from the embryo .and some couldnt name any enzymes at all.
29
This question was taken straight from the notes, and those that had
revised got a very good mark. Candidates with good scores covered as a
base the main elements of water uptake, GA synthesis, enzymes & their
release, synthesis, action and order of involvement in endosperm
breakdown in a logical and structured way, how the modification process
is halted etc and provided a number of drawings to illustrate the sequence
of events and progress of modification within a barley grain.
Question 5
Something that could help candidates is to think logically through the

physical sequence of events that take place during modification (eg in very
basic terms, starch cannot be reached by enzymes until the cell walls and
protein matrix have started to be degraded first. If you use this as a base,
the rest of the pieces of the puzzle will fall into place or could be worked
out from there).
We were looking for candidates, as a minimum, to provide which enzymes

were involved during mashing, what factors during mashing could affect
their activity (eg temperature, pH, thickness, etc), how the wort needed to
be cooled, and of course, to then go on to discuss secondary conversion.
Question 3
Outline the characteristics of barley varieties which impact on distillery
performance. (10) Describe how new barley varieties are developed. (10)
This question was chosen by 63% of candidates with 84% passing. The
majority of candidates were able to pass or do well in the second half of
this question as it is in the notes (eg a typical breeding programme, gene
mapping techniques for parental selection, etc). Where some struggled
was in the first part of the question, which would have required additional
reading or thought to answer well.
Excellent candidates also provided examples of approved varieties for both
malt and grain and differentiated characteristics between the two.
Unfortunately a few candidates provided different elements of a malt spec
rather than characteristics of a barley variety. We also had one candidate
write pages on different types of dormancy alone. Please take time to read
and understand the question upfront.
Question 4
Compare typical malted barley specifications, including target values, for
both malt and grain distilling. (14) Discuss why the differences between
these specifications are important. (6)
The majority of candidates answered this question (82%) with 79% passing
and the average pass mark being 61%. This question spanned across both
malt and grain distilling and those that were able to provide all the
necessary answers and understood the reasoning and differences between
the two really stood out.
The first part of this question was taken straight from the notes. Those
candidates that were able to remember the table that had been provided,
and were then also able to explain the main differences and why they
were important and related them back to both grain and malt distilling
processes, got close to full marks. Indeed the highest score for this
question was 98%.
Remember to read the question. Some stated the differences but then did
not go on to explain why these were important. On the other side of the
spectrum, we unfortunately had examples of candidates that were
determined to write what they had studied in detail, whether it had
anything to do with the question or not (eg several pages on milling
including drawings of different mills and examples of various grist ratios).
Another got confused and went into to great detail for moisture levels at
each step of the maltings process (the question was about a malted barley,
ie grain that has finished going through the malting process).
Discuss the importance of maintaining enzyme activity in wort

production and explain how this affects spirit yield and spirit quality. (20)
This question was answered by 76% of candidates with 62% passing. The
highest grade was 90%, with the average pass mark being 52%.
Good candidates not only covered the importance of mashing parameters

being maintained, but also what the effect would be if these were not
maintained, and how, as a result, these would impact on overall spirit yield
and quality, with some great examples for both.
Question 6
Discuss the various methods by which unmalted cereal is made ready for
enzymatic conversion in a mashing process. (14) Describe methods used
for cooling wort from
a) An all grains in process
(3)
b) A filtered wort process
(3)
This question was answered by 76% of candidates with 64% passing. The
average score was of 54% and the highest was 88%.
For the first part of the question, it was clear that there were a number of
candidates that had either chosen not to study the grain distilling part of
the syllabus or had totally mis-read the question. We unfortunately had a
few candidates describe a mashing process for a malt distillery (with
malted barley) only, another covered only milling, one did an essay on
enzymes alone. Another candidate mis-read the question and wrote an
essay on how abrasion and exogenous gibberellic acid would improve the
maltings process.
Good candidates covered all that was in the notes, and more. They even
remembered to include the fact that exogenous enzymes could be used,
examples of what these were, etc. For the second half of the question not
only did they give several options for a) and b), but also gave advantages
and disadvantages for each.
Question 7
Describe in detail the analytical methods currently used for analysing
diastatic power (DP) and dextrinising units (DU). (12) Define and
compare, in relation to laboratory analysis, the terms repeatability (r)
and reproducibility (R). (8)
This was the question the fewest candidates answered. It was only
answered by 25% of candidates with 62% passing. The average score was
of 52%, and the highest grade was of 80%.
We were looking for plain descriptions of the lab methods used for for DP
and DU. Candidates that have already carried out this type of analysis
stood out, and could describe and name reagents used, volumes used and
times involved as well.
For repeatability we were looking for candidates to define as a basic that
it was analysis carried out on the same sample, by the same technician, on
the same equipment, in the same lab. And to then differentiate and
compare how Reproducibility differs from this.
At this level it also isnt sufficient to only provide 3 parameters and to just
say one is greater than the other, or even to provide no values for these at
all.
Michelle Pizzi
30
Module 1 Materials and Fermentable Wort Molasses

This year nine candidates sat this paper. This is a higher number than last
year and hopefully is the start of more as molasses processing is a large
industry and the number of candidates should reflect this. The level of
knowledge of several candidates fell far short of that required to achieve a
pass at diploma level. This is reflected in only 4 candidates achieving a pass
(44.4%). It was also noted that several candidates were not able to
attempt the required number of long questions. In summary 1 grade B, 3
grade C, 1 grade E and 4 grade G.
Question 3
In relation to the interpretation of analytical data in a distillery, define
the terms and give an application of each:
Normal distribution (4)
Standard deviation (4)
Variance
(4)
Discuss the basic concept of repeatability (r) and reproducibility (R). (8)
5 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 0 to 18.5.
Multiple Choice Section

This section had a wide range of marks. The highest mark was 13 and the
lowest 5. The questions are set at standard grade and candidates need to
show this level of knowledge of Cereal and Grape. Candidates who did well
answered both grape and cereal equally in the marks achieved.
Question 1
Compare and contrast the different environmental and agronomic
factors which need to be considered when cultivating sugar beet and
sugar cane. (10) Indicate, for one of the crops the key factors affecting
when to harvest, the techniques used and how this will impact on the
processing of the crop into ethanol. (10)
8 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 2 to 16. The
first part asked the candidate to compare the two main sugar based crops.
Good marks were gained by ensuring both environmental and agronomic
were included in the answer. Full marks required a discussion and a simple
list of factors for both crops was not sufficient to answer the question.
Several candidates wasted examination time by giving detail that was not
asked for. This included information on downstream processing.
The second part was answered well by most candidates attempting this
question. All opted for answering sugar cane harvesting. Full marks
required information on the impact of harvesting on subsequent molasses
processing. Detail of how molasses was made was again given but not
required.
Question 2
Describe the different types and sources of yeast used in rum production.
(8) Discuss the influence that these yeasts have in the production of light
and heavy rum. Include the method of propagation and method of
addition to the process. (12)
This question was attempted by 4 candidates and marks ranged from 6 to
14.5
This type of question has been asked periodically over the last 5 years and
the syllabus structure gives a high level of certainty that a question on
laboratory / statistical analysis will appear. It is therefore surprising that
some candidates were not even able to give a definition of these terms.
There were some good answers that gained high marks and these not only
defined the terms but gave practical examples of why they are useful
techniques for a distiller to use.
The second part was again answered well by some candidates but I was
disappointed that several candidates did not know what the question was
asking and were unable to define the difference.
Question 4
With the aid of a flow diagram show the key steps in the production of
Blackstrap and High test sugar cane molasses. (8) For each step describe
the need and purpose along with a comment on any impact the step may
have on the quality of the molasses produced. (12)
7 candidates attempted this question. Marks ranged from 6 to 16. This
question was similar to that asked in 2014 and it was disappointing that
candidates had not taken on board the comments given in the examiners
feedback.
The question asked for a flow diagram and the best answered used
annotation of this diagram rather than lengthy textual descriptions. Marks
were lost by not clearly showing the different points that both Blackstrap
and High test are produced. The question did not mention only the sugar
refining process so candidates needed to mention any steps prior to arrival
at the refinery to gain full marks.
The need and purpose of each step required to be stated along with the
key impacts on quality. Most marks were lost by not mentioning the
impact on quality for all of the steps. The division of marks showed a high
level of detail was required.
Question 5
The question required the candidate to describe all yeast types used in
Rum production not just one or two. The question also required
candidates to provide information on the different sources. Good answers
included purchased and self-propagated pure strains as well as the locally
produced yeasts. Some candidates showed high level of knowledge by
giving the names of typical pure yeast strains used in making Rum.
The second part was a question that diploma level candidates need to
know as its critical to the quality of the Rum being produced and it was
disappointing that this part of the question was poorly answered. Again
the main cause of loss of marks was not providing depth of knowledge by
only discussing one or two yeasts. The question also asked for the method
of addition and most candidates failed to gain these marks by omitting to
include this in their answer.
List the analysis specifications in a typical sugar cane molasses

purchasing contract. (8) For each state:
a) why the analysis is included, the typical range; and (6)
b) corrective measures to reduce the impact if out of specification. (6)
This question was attempted by 7 candidates and marks ranged from 3.5
to 19. A good answer gave most of the 15 potential analysis. 6 Marks were
awarded for the key analysis with 0.5 additional for others up to 2 marks.
Part a) this required some information on the need for the analysis along
with a typical range. Full marks required the unit of measurement to be
stated. Ranges were well recorded but the need required candidates to
show the importance of the analysis result to the process.
Part b) The answers to this section were of varying quality. Good answers
gave and impact and corrective action for all the analysis stated.
31
Question 6
Question 7
Discuss the types of microbial spoilage of sugar cane molasses. For each
indicate the cause, impact on the process and measures to reduce the
contamination. (20)
For sugar cane molasses describe a method of analysis to measure the

total sugar as invert (TSAI) and total sugar as sucrose (TSAS). Explain why
both would be performed and how to interpreted the result.
(20)
This question was attempted by 4 candidates. Marks ranged from 4 to 11.

A similar question has been asked in previous papers and the knowledge
to answer this question well is easily available in the literature. It is
therefore disappointing to see so few candidates attempting this question.
The answers concentrated on a few and not the full range of microbial
spoilage organisms. When mentioned the requirements of the question
were achieved.
This question was not attempted by any candidates.
Perhaps some grade E failures were due to poor study preparation, but all
lost marks at some point by writing about some irrelevant topic, or not
answering part of a question. Many successful candidates also lost marks in
these ways, and they might have reached a higher grade by writing about,
and earning marks for, what was actually required. Without other answers
of grade A or B standard to compensate, even one such mistake could bring
the final mark below 45%. So, before re-sitting the examination, please
practice with previous papers, particularly in writing answers without zeromarked irrelevance. I suggest you do not read the examiner's comments
until you have finished, to make sure you can decide what is required
without the guidance of the report.
Module 2 Fermentation, Distillation and Maturation

Grade
Number of candidates
% of total
(Pass) A
31
(Fail) E
14
21
21
Since this is my last year as examiner I would have preferred to leave at a

happier time than the lowest-ever pass rate, only 13 (45%) of the 29
candidates. Having most of the passes in grade D, and none in grade A, are
also disappointing results. There were 10 grade Ds in 2014, but they were
less than half of the 21 passes, the others being 1 each at A and B and 9 at
C (total pass rate 60% of 35 candidates). Perhaps the worst aspect of the
2015 results was the very low marks of most of the failed candidates: only
4 were in the just-failed grade E, but F and G had 6 each. In contrast,
most (9) of the 2014 failures were grade E, with 4 in F and only 1 in G,
Until now, even one G result per year has been unusual, but this year 21%
of the final marks were in that grade. With so many very low marks, it is
not surprising that the average of all final marks was only 38%, at the
bottom end of grade E, yet another lowest-ever record. The 2014 average
mark was not particularly good, 47.5%, but at least it was in grade D.
Grade F or G, and particularly the latter, suggests that the candidate was
not yet ready for the examination, and several of the G group could
attempt only 4 or 5 questions. There were many very short answers with
little of the required information, and marks of 0, 1 or 2/20 were common.
Before returning for a re-sit examination, more thorough preparation is
required. That must include training in answering Diploma questions,
most of which require essay answers, and these need practice for good
marks. As a general rule, at least two pages are required per essay. To fill
these pages usefully, (a) select from your memory the facts which are
relevant to the question and (b) arrange them in a logical argument, which
will certainly score better than the same information in a random list.
There is also point (c), that the basic revision notes must be
supplemented by other reading or work experience for a good mark.
32
Douglas Murray
Actual and expected answers are discussed below, after a tabular

comparison of the success rate for each question, and its popularity or
otherwise. Note that only questions 4, 6 and 8 reached an average mark that
was actually pass grade
Question Answers Passes
Pass rate
%
Average mark
(pass = 9.0/20)
28
12
43
6.7
22
11
50
7.5
28
14
50
9.1
24
11
46
7.8
24
16
67
9.7
29
21
6.1
13
54
9.1
Question 1
Question 4
Explain the importance of one inorganic anion and one inorganic cation
for yeast activity during fermentation. Only one candidate attempted
this question. (20)
Why are the heads/foreshots of a spirit distillation normally unsuitable

for incorporation into the spirit fraction? (8) In order to produce two
different spirits in-house it is proposed that one will retain the existing
spirit to feints/tails cut point at 65% alcohol by volume; for the other the
cut point will be 50% abv. Discuss the expected flavour differences and
other implications of this plan. (12)
Did nobody else realise that it just meant to choose any two ions, one ve
and one +ve, and write about their biological importance? It would be
unfair to discuss the actual answer so the following comments summarise
the expected information. The requirement for a reasonable amount of
information would probably limit the choice of anion to phosphate or
sulphate. For the former, adenosine phosphates and energy management,
and organic phosphate compounds (e.g. triglycerides) were certainly an
important part of the answer. Or, S-amino acids and other S compounds
(especially sulphydryl) have important biological roles; in a fermentation
context all are normally derived from SO42- in the wort. For cation, my own
choice would be Mg2+ as a cofactor in various biochemical reactions, to
make use of information from recent research papers. Ca2+ and Zn2+ were
other possible cofactors, but perhaps with less source material specifically
related to distilling fermenattions. Fe-containing compounds (particularly
cytochromes), or the role of K+ or Na+ in trans-membrane transport were
other possibilities. Even NH4+, as a supplementary nutrient in brandy or
rum fermentations, could be the basis of a good answer.
Question 2
Name the fermentable sugars of the worts for malt whisky and rum
production, and explain how these sugars are incorporated into the
metabolic activity of the yeast. (20)
All but one candidate answered this question, but with widely variable
results.. Some did not notice that both cereal and molasses sugars, i.e. no
fewer than fructose, glucose, maltose, sucrose, raffinose, malto-triose and
-tetraose, had to be named. These sugars collectively involved three
transport mechanisms into the cell. So a substantial part of a good answer
had to explain (a) fructose and glucose (enzyme-facilitated diffusion), (b)
sucrose and raffinose (enzymic hydrolysis within the cell wall, with
subsequent enzyme-mediated transport of the monosaccharides) and (c)
maltose saccharides (active transport across the cytoplasmic membrane).
Also the sequence of utilisation of the maltose di-, tri- and tetrasaccharidess was appreciated. Many answers gave little of this
information, or none at all, hence the poor pass rate of only 43%. . For
incorporated into the metabolic activity of the yeast I was particularly
interested in how the different sugars enter the first steps of the metabolic
pathway. Since fermentative metabolism was implied by the question,
Embden-Meyerhof would have been sufficient, and was all that was
offered if this part was actually answered. So isomerisation and
phosphorylation of galactose (from raffinose) and glucose to fructose-6phosphate had to be explained, but additional information in the better
scripts on subsequent stages of that pathway was welcome.
Question 3
Give a chemical explanation of the detergent and antimicrobial activities
of sodium hydroxide. (6) Discuss, with respect to both manual and
automated cleaning and sanitisation, the advantages and disadvantages
of NaOH for distillery fermentation equipment. (14)
Answers to part (a) were disappointing. Few gave an adequate chemical
explanation of dispersion of inorganic deposits, solubilisation of fatty acids
and proteins of inert organic soil, and lethal damage to fatty acids,
phospholipids, etc of microbial cell membranes. Even fewer gave the
expected chemical equations. For (b), the question specified discussion, so
a simple table of advantages and disadvantages was insufficient for a high
mark by itself. However, a tabular overview from which to develop
discussion was very effective in some of the better answers.
Disadvantages which I particularly wanted to see discussed were the
corrosive properties of NaOH (particularly important with manual
operation), incompatibility with CO2, and the requirement for
supplementary chemicals for optimal detergent effect. The second part,
with most of the marks, was more competently answered, but even so,
only 11 of the 22 answers came into the pass range, Despite the 50% pass
rate, the average mark 7.5/20 was only just in grade E.
It was not enough to state that high-volatile congeners of the current

distillation and dissolved low-volatiles of the previous run appear in the
first runnings of the still. Part (a) required an explanation why these
compounds are unacceptable, the most important reasons being
objectionable aromas, potential haze, and in the case of grape or fruit
brandies, the possibility of toxic methanol from pectin. However,
normally in the question could encourage speculation that a limited
amount of the first two effects might be tolerated for a desirable flavour
impact. I suspect that few candidates had practical experience of a part (b)
situation, but the question tested understanding of distillation theory,
shown well in the best answers. The increased amount of congeners of
lower volatility than ethanol should make a heavier spirit from the 50%
cut point. Many answers claimed that the spirit would be too weak for
maturation, but a correctly drawn graph of %abv over a distillation run
(many were not: more marks lost) shows that abv falls rapidly between 65
and 50%. Only a relatively small additional volume is involved, and the
final sprit will still be comfortably above maturation strength. Similarly,
the slightly lower %abv of the feints/ tails is unimportant, also they are
combined with foreshots/heads, and distillate from the beer/wash still,
neither of which are affected by the change. Many of the 28 candidates
answering this question were unable to convert their practical knowledge
into part (b) predictions and only 14 passed. However, this was one of the
three questions in which the average mark was actually pass grade, but
only marginally so, at 9.1/20.
Question 5
Draw graphs of the concentrations of ethanol and the principal flavour
congeners in the rectitifier column of a continuous still and explain their
distribution. (8) What would be the effect on the other congeners of
reducing the rate of removal of iso-amyl alcohol? (6) Discuss the
implications for continuous still operation and the quality of the distilled
spirit of the energy-saving plan to increase the alcohol concentration in
the beer/wash from 8.0 to 10.0 % abv. (6)
Graphs were an important part of answer (a). They had to be accurate and
neat for a good mark, and accompanied by an explanation, which I
expected to include each higher alcohol concentrating where its volatility
and that of ethanol were equal. Also, the rate of removal of higher
alcohols would have to balance the amount coming into the rectifier, in
order to maintain a steady state. So an important point to make for part
(b) was that iso-amyl alcohol could be increased for only a short time. It
could then be adjusted to a new steady state with a greater IAA bulge,
and longer tail to increase its concentration at the spirit plate. Other
higher alcohols further up the column would also increase in the spirit,
pushed up by the IAA. Most answers to part (c) mentioned reduced
reflux with less water. This applies to both the analyser/stripper and
rectifier columns, and at least as important in the latter is the stronger
incoming spirit vapour affecting the level (amount and. plate number) of
the fusel alcohols. Several candidates noted that adjustment of still
operation to maintain the established characteristics of the spirit would be
difficult, certainly for a rum or whisky distillery. With only 6 marks on
offer, brief comment on these points sufficed. This question produced
some very good answers, but other marginal passes and the 13 fails meant
a low average mark.
33
Question 6
Starting from the fermented beer (wash), give an account of the
production of spirit of the quality specification for vodka. (10) What is
the preferred stage in that sequence for obtaining spirit for production of
gin? Continuing from that point, describe one method for production of
a London-style distilled gin. (10)
With only 15 min to score 10 marks for each part, careful time
management was essential. Part (a) includes all of the continuous
distillations. A simple drawing of the series of columns, stating the
purpose of each and showing the routes of process fluids, followed by an
explanation of carbon filtration or some equivalent final stage.was all that
could be expected in the time available. So, with a neat drawing and
correct information, that scored 10 marks. For part (b) I expected the
general principles (not company secrets) of batch distillation of diluted
spirit and botanicals, including typical cut points of heads, gin spirit and
feints/ tails. Only one method was requested, therefore the descriptions of
other ways of adding the botanicals were (literally) pointless. Brief
mention of the fate of the non-spirit fractions was also expected, since
they can not be recycled to the next distillation. A high-quality feedstock is
required for distilled London gin, but the final (de-methylation) distillation
of vodka purification is normally unnecessary since any traces of methanol
are removed in the heads fraction of the gin distillation itself. Marks
ranged over virtually the whole 0 20 scale. With six grade A answers to
counterbalance those showing little knowledge of gin and vodka
production, this proved to be the most successful question of
the module with respect to both pass rate and average mark.
Question 7
Discuss how the choice of wood and the preparation of a new cask can
influence the maturation of distilled spirit. (20)
By chance, an article on maturation was published in the May 2015 issue
of Brewer & Distiller International with all the information for a perfect
answer. With that fresh in candidates' minds, I expected excellent
answers. Most showed a good recollection of facts about maturation, but
the pass rate and average mark were by far the worst of the module since
so many were unable to select the required information. The question
tested ability to use knowledge of maturation, not to repeat revision
notes. Although it specified a new cask, some answers even discussed the
re-use of Bourbon and sherry casks, and rejuvenation! How does the way
you construct a cask influence maturation? may be best answered by
explaining, with emphasis on their influence on maturation, the stages
from selecting a particular tree to the finished cask ready for its first fill. In
that context (but not as part of general discussion of maturation
chemistry), two important topics were the choice of type of oak, and heat
treatments of the wood during and after building the cask. But in order to
earn marks, the information had to relate to the question, and explain
what was the maturation effect from each point mentioned. Other
aspects of wood preparation or cooperage also scored valuable marks.
Three examples from the best answers were natural seasoning of the
wood (better development of flavour congeners than artificial drying),
direction of sawing (to prevent leakage along the grain) and construction
of the cask without glue or nails (to avoid solvent or metal taints).
Everyone attempted question 7, but many answers scored only a few
marks where I could find information which they identified as related to
cask construction, hence the disappointing grade F average mark.
Question 8
Briefly explain the principles of Gas-Liquid Chromatography (GLC) and
High-Pressure (or High-Performance) Liquid Chromatography (HPLC). (10)
For each, describe one analysis in the production or quality assurance of
potable spirits which is carried out by these instruments: why is it
necessary, and how is it performed? (10)
Again it seemed that some candidates did not fully understand what was
required, but the situation was not as bad as with the preceding question.
Essentially it was to explain (a) how the instruments work and (b) why the
chosen analyses are necessary, and how to carry them out.
34
I was surprised how few answers specifically mentioned the important

difference between GLC and HPLC, that the former only measures volatile
compounds (or compounds which can be quantitatively converted to
volatile derivatives), so only the latter can detect non-volatile compounds,
e.g. associated with maturation. The 13 answers ranged from excellent
essays to extremely poor accounts showing little knowledge of the
instruments or their operation. Which was strange, because when
analyses were described for part (b) the examples were almost all correct
for the instruments, although several answers lost marks by ignoring the
purpose of the analyses. To end a rather depressing examination report
on a positive note, this question had the second-highest pass rate, 54%,
and a second-equal grade D average mark.
Iain Campbell
Question 1
Module 3 Process Technology
Discuss, with the aid of drawings and diagrams as necessary, how the
design, construction and operation of a pot spirit still distillation system
influences reflux and hence varies spirit quality.
(15)
Assuming an average still temperature of 90oC how much radiant heat
will a copper still of 15 m2 surface area emit over a 5 hour run? (5)
Assume
an
ambient
stillhouse
temperature
of
20oC.
-8
Assume emissivity is 0.5 Stefan-Boltzmann constant: 5.67 x 10 W. m-2K-4

grade to give a pass rate of 60.9%. This is lower than last year (75%) and
considerably lower than the 81.3% who passed in 2013. However it is
encouraging that there were 2 A and 4 B grade passes. The D (pass) and E
(fail) grade boundary accounted for 39.13% of the candidates with 17.39%
(D) and 21.74% (E).
Grade
Number of candidates
% of total
As previously mentioned, a popular question, chosen by all except one

candidate. It was generally well answered and resulted in the highest
average mark of 13.82 . Most found the calculation straightforward,
remembering the importance of both degrees Kelvin and the time
element.
In the narrative most candidates included adequate responses related to
the shapes and surface areas of stills, lyne arm orientation, fill level,
ambient temperatures and rate of running. Better answers included the
impact of alternative heating options, cooling systems, purifiers, still
emissivity, sulphur compound removal etc. The best answers also touched
on nucleate boiling, degradation of long chain fatty acids, ethyl carbamate
removal, ester formation and reflux ratios.
(Pass) A
8.7
17.39
17.39
17.39
(Fail) E
21.74
Question 2
8.7
8.7
Draw, and briefly explain the function of, the principal features of the
equipment for pressure-cooking unmalted cereal for grain whisky
production, and for energy recovery from the cooked cereal. (8)
From the data below, calculate:
a) the initial temperature of the water/grain slurry; (3)
b) the weight of steam required to heat a batch of 15 tonnes of
wheat to 140oC, assuming a perfectly insulated cooker vessel; (4)
c)
After the specified holding time at 140oC, the slurry is cooled to
100oC by flashing off steam. Calculate the weight of steam
flashed off. (5)
Data:
Water charge to cooker = 37 tonnes
Temperature of water = 80oC
Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1K-1
Initial temperature of wheat = 12oC
Specific heat of wheat = 1.5 kJ kg-1K-1
Latent heat of condensation/evaporation of steam at average
temperature of slurry over the heating and cooling programme = 2256 kJ
kg-1
Analysis of questions which were answered and the corresponding pass

rate was interesting. Question 1 was answered by all but one of the
candidates with 86.4% passing. Conversely Q2 was answered by just 8
candidates with a pass rate of only 37.5% and an average mark of 7.6.
Further analysis is presented below.
These first two questions well represented the extremes of attempts and
marks with full correlation. The most attempted question was rewarded
with the highest average score (13.82) and the least attempted question
got the least average result (7.63) and the second poorest pass rate.
This might not be noteworthy in itself but the fact that Q1 related to batch
distillation and Q2 to continuous distillation, raises an old concern of mine
that many candidates are not seriously covering the entire syllabus. The
question was so poorly answered by the few who attempted it that I can
hardly bear to think about the state of knowledge of those who did not!
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
Answered by
22
8
21
19
13
12
17
19
Passed by
19
3
11
15
3
7
6
9
Passed %
86.4
37.5
52.4
78.9
23.0
58.3
35.3
47.4
As mentioned already not a popular question and not well done. The
responses suggest a general lack of engagement with processing which
doesnt solely focus on malted barley. The first part yielded mainly very
poor cooker diagrams, whether batch or continuous, and there was little
evidence of knowledge about atmospheric exhausting of cooked slurry, let
alone vacuum exhausting equipment. Two candidates avoided the first
part altogether and only attempted the calculations!
For the calculations, most candidates remembered about the importance
of using degrees Kelvin.
a) This part could be tackled in two possible ways. i) Postulating
the temperature as an unknown where Q would be the same
for water and grain or ii) Calculating an average specific heat for
the slurry.
b) This part involved calculating the heat input required to raise
the temperature once the slurry is mixed in the cooker which is
straightforward.
c)
This required a calculation of the vapour generation once
depressurisation occurs. As I had not specified that the steam
had been directly injected (though that is the norm) I allowed
either assumption (injection or heat exchange) when marking.
35
Question 3
Question 5
Explain the basic principles of a plate heat exchanger and describe the
heat-transfer implications of operation with co-current and countercurrent flow. (10) Hot condensate is collected from four points in a
distillery and combined for use in a heat exchanger. Calculate the
temperature and flow rate of the combined stream if the flow rates of
the individual water streams are as follows:
(a) 0.5 kg s-1 at 72oC
(b) 1.2 kg s-1 at 82oC
(c)1.4 kg s-1 at 90oC
(d) 0.8 kg s-1 at 68oC
The combined hot stream feeds a counter-current heat exchanger to heat
fresh water from 8oC to 70oC. What is the flow rate of cold water if the
heat exchanger is operated to cool the hot stream to 20oC? (6)
What is the total plate area of the heat exchanger? (4)
Specific heat of water = 4.2 kJ kg-1K-1
Overall heat transfer coefficient of the heat exchanger = 850 W m-2K-1
Describe, with the aid of diagrams, how a still is protected from damage
in the event of exceptional pressure conditions for both
a) a wash pot still and its shell and tube condenser and
b) a continuous still system processing high solids wash.
For each, give a brief description of these safety devices and their
operations and discuss the likely causes of such pressure variations. (10
marks each)
A very straightforward question, not generally well answered and not
popular. The average mark was the second worst at 7.69 This is rather
concerning not least when one considers the recent fatality due to a still
explosion in the USA. Wash Pot Still. I expected a drawing showing either
separate or combined auto PRV/VRV anti collapse fitments. Also a seal pot
and a condenser siphon device and indeed the manual valve on the still
body shoulder and the still access door itself. Steam coils and supply
system could also be mentioned. A detailed diagram of a PRV etc. and a
discussion on its operation would gain marks. Also a discussion of potential
issues, such as chokages, filling an unvented still, adding cold cleaning fluid
to a hot stilll, etc. Continuous still. Various of the above apply equally to
the continuous situation and this could be so stated. I was, however,
looking additionally for discussions on bubble caps, perforated plates,
weirs and downcomers, clapper valves and sealpots. I hoped for insights
about operational malfunctions due to progressive choking of
perforations, wash build up on plates, back pressure due to pump failure
and liquid build ups at the base of a column. I received very little on the
above and lack of familiarity with continuous systems is, I suspect, why
many avoided this question.
This question was attempted by all but two candidates but with a very
wide range of outcomes and an average mark of 10.71.
To gain good marks in the first part, diagrams of a plate heat exchanger
(with plate detail) and graphs relating to co and counter current
situations were necessary to illustrate written text.
Discussion on surface area, material of construction, turbulence, cleaning,
heat transfer efficiency etc. should all have been included. In the first
calculation, two options were possible. The elegant one is to calculate the
heat content of each flow, add them all together and divide the total by
the combined weight in kg.
Most, however, opted to use a simple weighted average of the flows.
This gives the correct answer for the combined temperature. With this it is
straightforward to calculate the cooling water flow required.
The second calculation requires the LMTD to be calculated and used in the
equation q=uAT. Even amongst the acceptable answers marks were lost
due to carelessness in the calculations including, but not limited to,
missing a decimal point (value* 10); using 800W instead of the given
850W; giving the answer as plates instead of plate area, using unweighted
averages; etc.
Question 4
On the assumption that three of the factors for regulatory charging for
effluent treatment are within the control of the distillery, describe briefly
one possible way to reduce the contribution of each factor to the total
cost. (4 marks each) (12) Give a brief account of two methods for
removal of copper from still effluent. (8)
A popular question and generally high scoring with the second highest
average mark at 12.0. It should be straightforward for candidates to earn
marks by sharing knowledge of effluent charging schemes. Most started
off by showing and explaining the Mogden formula which was most
acceptable, though not insisted upon as it is not universally used
internationally. What was expected was the listing of volume, COD/BOD
and suspended solids as chargeable components. Whilst pH and
temperature commonly form part of a consent, they do not usually count
towards a normal charging scheme. In extremis, fines may be levied but
these are not ongoing charges.
A very wide selection of processes were acceptable, including some which
reduced more than one element of charging. Cooling towers, CIP, AD,
biotowers, sludge tanks were all offered as appropriate technologies. Pot
Ale evaporation reduces COD/BOD discharges but there is still the issue of
condensate volume to be addressed. On copper treatment, the main
offerings were reed/willow beds, electrolysis and membrane filtration. To
achieve full marks a reasonable description and perhaps an illustration was
expected, demonstrating understanding. Some candidates erred on the
side of brevity, losing easy marks.
36
Question 6
Describe, with diagrams, two of the following processes. (10 marks each)
(20)
Recovery and processing of fermentation CO2 for sale as a coproduct.
Removal from a continuous still and processing, of fusel oil

(higher alcohols) for sale as a co-product.
Production of PET containers for spirit packaging including any

product quality considerations.
Three disparate options giving the opportunity for candidates to show
specific knowledge of particulars areas of the syllabus. The average mark
was 10.17. No-one chose the PET alternative so I have no comments to
make on it. The CO2 option was relatively better tackled than the Fusel Oil
option though most answers on both, with few exceptions, tended to be
poorly done. Many answers did not offer proper (or any) diagrams. Several
seemed to choose this question as a last option and were clearly running
out of time. CO2 recovery should include collection, scrubbing,
compression, purification, liquefaction, distillation and storage etc. The
Fusel Oil option should explain the offtake of high alcohol components
from the rectifying column, decanting and/or distillation in a column, and
identify the various streams.
Question 7
Describe, with reference to appropriate diagrams, graphs and design
features, the process of fractionation to produce neutral spirit (vodka) of
specific parameters by continuous distillation. Indicate ancillary
equipment, and the other streams which leave the system. (20)
Once again, a question on the theory of distillation, and continuous
distillation, which was not particularly well answered by many with an
average score of 8.29. I was expecting some reasonable diagrams,
theoretical discussions including McCabe Thiele diagrams etc, explanations
of partial pressure, theoretical plates, higher alcohol extraction etc. Also
design features of columns; how that aids fractionation and also discussion
of ancilliary equipment such as reboilers, fusel oil columns, coolers,
condensers etc. Also some mention of streams other than spirit such as
fusel oil, heads, spent wash and lutter water. Some candidates offered a
description of a Coffey grain whisky apparatus which is totally inadequate
response. A wide variety of standards of answer but many were
disappointing.
Question 8
Explain Reynolds Number in terms of properties of a fluid, and its
relevance in calculating fluid flow regimes. (4) Draw diagrams of typical
flow regimes in a pipe of circular cross section showing their velocity
profiles, stating the relationship between the centre line velocity to
average velocity in each case. Give an example of where each flow
regime may typically be encountered in a distillery. (8) A fermenter
(washback) of 3 m diameter contains fermented beer/wash to a height of
5 m at atmospheric pressure. A discharge valve of 75 mm in its base is
fully opened and the contents of the fermenter are allowed to discharge
under gravity to an adequately sized still which has its hatch open.
Estimate the time which will be taken to empty the fermenter assuming
a linear relationship between volume flow and the height of the wash in
it. (8)
Data:
Density of the wash = 997 kg m-3
Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m s-2
Generally there was a reasonable understanding of Reynolds numbers

(part 1) and explanations of the flow diagrams (part 2) were of variable
standard but adequate. One or two candidates were a bit confused and
got their laminar and turbulent flow diagrams the wrong way round. The
third part of the question (fermenter discharge) was found by most to be
more challenging, though there were a couple of fully correct answers.
Many who tackled it went astray during the calculation but were given full
credit for a reasonable approach and shown workings.
Various alternative approaches were used in arriving at the result but
basically they require the application of Bernoullis equation.
Q=a C2gh.
In this simple situation C, the discharge coefficient, can be assumed to be
unity and the average height can be used to arrive at the answer, although
some chose to use integration. I was very concerned at the number of
candidates who attempted to use the formula for circumference ( D )
where they required to use the area of a circle formula = 2 /4
This question resulted in an average score of 9.53.
Alan Wolstenholme
DIPLOMA IN PACKAGING EXAMINATION 2015
Examiners - Ruth Bromley, Tracy Adie, Gavin Duffy, Robin Cooper, Zane Barnes,
Angus Steven, Dick Charlton, Derek Mckernan and Thomas Shellhammer
Module 1:
grade to give a pass rate of 50.8%. This is significantly lower than last year
(59.7%) and is the lowest pass rate to date in this exam. Similar to last year
8% of candidates withdrew during the year (after submitting at least the
first assignment) and the decline in marks especially in the long answer
questions does raise the question as to whether candidates who have
previous sat the General Certificate exams are stepping up to the Diploma
level without the full understanding and training required for this level. It
was disappointing to see that only 7% of candidates achieved either an A
or B grade pass compared to 12% last year. 1 candidate script is currently
under review with the Examinations board and so is excluded from the
scoring table below.
Passed
Grade
A
B
C
D
No
0
4
14
13
0
7
23
21
Failed
24
39
Withdrawn
Unit 1 Packaging Theory and Materials

Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood how
the technical and functional materials selected for packaging help with the
overall consumer experience of the brand.
Selecting a small pack finished product of your choice from your
production site or business, provide photographs of the pack and its
components, accompanied by a list of all of the packaging materials used
in the pack split into their technical functional groups, i.e. primary
materials, secondary materials and tertiary materials.
Assignment Performance
Grade
No
A
3
B
4
C
12
D
18
E
17
F
4
G
4
%
4.8
6.5
19.4
29.0
27.4
6.5
6.5
The first section of this assignment was generally well answered with
candidates being able to use their local production facility to match the
theoretical description of primary, secondary and tertiary materials with
the actual small pack production and its components. Complete answers
included well structured photographs showing all of the component
materials alongside their technical functional group, as well as an overall
pack photograph.
For the second section the Examiners were looking for the candidate to
explain how the specifications of the material helped it meet the
functional requirements. Good answers explained this in terms of the
different requirements of each grouping, e.g. for a bottle or a can this
would be identified as a primary packaging material which provides a
variety of requirements such as product containment, measuring,
protection & reservation to name just a few.
This structure could then be used to follow the same profile for both
secondary and tertiary materials. In general here as long as candidates
correctly identified the materials correctly (primary, secondary and
tertiary) then they generally were able to link to the correct functional
requirements however a number of candidates then failed to make the
link back to the specifications of the material that helped it to provide that
property.
The final section worth 8 marks was generally where a lot of candidates
lost significant marks. Many named only a couple of the marketing
functions and most candidates failed completely to link this to the impact
of the brand in the market place. This was disappointing, as it showed a
disconnection between the production operation and the impact that this
can have in the actual sales of the business.
37
Short Answer Section

The scores within this section ranged from 2 to 32, with only 37% of
candidates scoring greater than 50%. Overall this section was very poorly
answered with a number of candidates appearing to struggle with the
breadth of the syllabus knowledge that this section required. Questions
that were well answered tended to be based around the production
operations for cans and bottles, with the weaker topics relating to the
manufacture of secondary materials (such as cardboard) and the material
specifications provided to suppliers. Candidates knowledge about some of
the ancillary topics covered in this unit, such as material life cycle, were
also not well known.
Long Answer Section
Question
Answered by
1
49
2
7
Passed by
17
3
Passed %
35%
43%
Question 1
List the raw materials used in the manufacture of a glass bottle, along
with the normal proportion of each ingredient used in the final mix. (10)
Explain which materials are added to produce bottles of different
colours, and which materials are added to remove colour. (5) Sketch a
diagram of a bottle furnace and clearly label it with all four process
stages, giving a brief explanation of what is happening at each stage. (10)
Using a table, compare and contrast the three main methods of glass
bottle manufacture and include examples of reasons for using each type
of manufacturing process. (10)
This question was designed to test the candidates knowledge an
understanding of the glass bottle production methodology and it was a
clear question of choice within this years candidates.
The first two parts of the question were designed to look at the ingredients
used within the manufacturing process. The majority of candidates
managed to identify the main raw materials, but there was a wide
variation in the proportions of each of these that were suggested by
candidates and only the better answers looked to explain the variation in
volume of the addition of cullet as part of the process. The knowledge of
the colouring ingredients was surprisingly poorly answered, often with
only the amber ingredient correctly identified.
The sketches of the bottle furnace were generally poor the better ones
allowed clear identification of each of the sections and were accompanied
by clear labelling of the four stages, leading on to clear and accurate
descriptions of what was happening at each stage from the kiln charging,
on to the melting and refining stages before reaching the cooling and
conditioning stages in order to produce a homogeneous mix, ready to be
fed into the feeder prior to gob formation.
In the last section many candidates failed to use the table format which
was requested. This would have simplified the comparison between the
different bottle production methods. This meant that answers were very
repetitive and often far too wordy leading to candidate confusion about
which method they were actually writing about.
Question 2
Define the key properties which make PET bottles a suitable alternative
for glass bottles. (5) List five advantages and five disadvantages of using
PET bottles for beer when compared with glass bottles. (10) Explain why
multi-layer PET bottles are used, and the different types of materials
used. Sketch a diagram showing how the multi-layer PET bottle preforms
are manufactured, labelling each of the key points on the system. (10)
Using a flow diagram describe each of the key points of the stretch blow
moulding process used to convert the preform into an empty PET bottle
ready for filling. (10)
38
This question was distinctly unpopular with candidates, and only 2

candidates submitted acceptable answers. The first two sections were
where candidates collected the most marks with the comparisons with
glass bottle beer production varying from very comprehensive answers
describing a variety of reasons to use PET to those which tried to turn an
advantage into a disadvantage by simply negating the statement they had
just made
If asked for both advantages and disadvantages these should be clearly
different e.g. advantages are light-weight, can be blown on the production
side and it is easier to modify the shape, whereas the disadvantages relate
to the barrier properties of the PET materials meaning a higher risk to the
production quality.
The final two sections were very poorly answered with only limited marks
awarded to any candidate on these sections, despite the question being
covered in detail within the learning materials. This tended to suggest that
candidates had focused on the main primary packaging materials and were
not yet recognising the value that PET production can have in certain
markets.
Unit 2 Beer Preparation
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that you understand the principles
and importance of chilling and carbonating beer and how this is carried out
within your site.
Explain the differences in counter-current and co-current heat exchange.
Using clearly labelled diagrams or photographs, provide an example of
one of these methods of chilling in use at your own site and detail the
operating principle behind the design. With the aid of clearly labelled
diagrams or photographs describe the operation of a carbonation system
in use at your own site. Explain what factors need to be considered when
choosing the location for the carbon dioxide injection point using an
example from your own site.
Grade
No
%
A
16
26
B
13
21.5
C
14
23
D
4
6.5
E
4
6.5
F
3
5
G
7
11.5
77% of the candidates who submitted an assignment passed. In part one

of the questions, the differences in counter and co-current heat exchange
were generally described well. The better answers highlighted the
difference with a temperature profile graph, and also a sketch of both heat
exchangers which illustrated the differences in beer and coolant flows in
each.
The diagrams or photographs supplied for the next section of part one
were generally acceptable as long as the images were clear (some
photographs were blurry) and all parts were clearly labelled. There should
have also been some additional information given regarding what the
purpose of this heat exchanger is at your brewery. The best answers for
the final section of part one not only described its design in detail, and
how it operates, but also highlighted important issues such as cleaning, run
rates, planned maintenance and any possible food safety issues.
Part two of the question focussed on carbonation. In general, the diagrams
supplied in this part were of a lesser standard than those submitted for
part one. A good diagram would have clearly shown what kind of
carbonator it is, i.e. venture, sintered or nozzle an would have illustrated
whether it is manually or process controlled and therefore given detail on
direction of flow of product and gas, any inline sensors, sight glasses, nonreturn valves, etc.
The final ask of candidates was to explain what factors need to be

considered when choosing a location for CO2 injection point at your site. It
was clear from some submissions that only the revision notes were
referenced as there was no example given from their own site.
The scores within this section ranged from 8.5 to 36 out of 40 marks, with
43% of candidates scoring greater than 50% in this section. In general,
more attention should have been paid to the section of the syllabus
pertaining to sterile filters. The short answer question asked which related
to this topic accounted for six marks and there were no full marks given for
this question. In fact, most candidates struggled to pick up any part marks
at all. Other than the issue described above, there appeared to be a good
spread of knowledge from the course material by most candidates.
Long Answer Section
Question
Answered by
1
38
2
15
Passed by
8
6
Passed %
21
40
Question 1
What is the purpose of beer filtration? (5) Name three types of filtration
and describe the principles of each. (15) Give an example of a type of
powder filter which is commonly used and explain how it is designed and
operated. (15)
As you can see from the table above, question 1 was answered by the
majority of the candidates, however it was very poorly answered.
Part one of the question was answered fairly well and in most cases almost
full marks were achieved. Part two of the question is the main reason most
candidates did not score well on question one. Many candidates confused
types of filtration with principles of filtration, i.e. the correct answer
addressed rough, sheet, membrane or cross-flow filtration NOT surface,
depth, absorption etc. The latter could have been used an explanations of
the principles behind each of the named filter types. However, more detail
was also required in describing briefly how the filters work as detailed in
the revision notes.
The third part of the question was more adequately answered, and the
best scoring candidates included a labelled diagram and fully covered both
design and operation principles. Unfortunately a handful of candidates
miss-read powder filter as filter powder and therefore incorrectly
answered the question, i.e. the answer should have described either a
plate and frame, leaf or candle filter, NOT kieselguhr.
Question 2
When transferring beer post fermentation through to bright beer tank,
describe in detail which quality parameters need to be controlled, and
how. (25) Explain which factors need to be considered when designing a
bright beer tank. (10)
Only 28% of the candidates answered question two. There was a higher
pass rate on this question, but in general most answers lacked enough
detail.
In part one, not all candidates were able to correctly name which quality
parameters need controlling during beer transfer post fermentation to
bright beer tank. These are clearly called out in the revision notes as
dissolved oxygen, microbial contamination, carbonation and fobbing. A lot
of marks were not accounted for when it came to describing HOW these
quality parameters can be controlled. A good answer would have listed the
correct quality parameters, explained why these are important to have
controlled during transfer at this stage of the process (i.e. impact on final
product and consumer), and it would have given examples of how they can
be controlled (i.e. operational practices, quality control checks and any
necessary corrections)
Part two of the question was more strongly answered and the better
candidates included a labelled diagram of a bright beer tank, which
detailed good design features. The best answers went into detail about the
importance of good drainage and ease of clean, pressure and vacuum
relief systems and construction materials.
Module 1:
Unit 3 Planning and Line Design
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understands
how the key principles of line design are integrated and applied when
undertaking a major change/modification to an existing packaging line.
Due to an increase in market demand and competitor activity you have
been tasked with developing a project brief to procure, install and
commission a multipack machine on your 50000 BPH NR bottling line.
(The current line only runs one pack format). You are required to outline
and dimension the key requirements for the machine under the
following headings :a) Size of machine, number of pack formats - how positioned in the
line with profile requirements, and, rationale for these.
b) Key operational requirements projected efficiencies, capacity,
and down time requirements for cleaning and maintenance, pack
format changes and frequencies, and summarised weekly
capacity projections versus projected increase in sales/demand.
c)
Materials supply and removal logistics requirements to and from
the machine; and key waste/usage targets by pack
material/format.
d) Manning requirements for the machine including level of
skills/competence requirements to operate and maintain the
machine.
e) Summary of key performance requirements, overall weekly line
capacity implications and supporting commentary/reasons for
the changes as a result of the machine introduction.
Grade
No
A
4
B
5
C
8
D
5
E
11
F
12
G
8
%
8
9.5
15
9.5
21
22
15
53 candidates submitted this assignment, achieving an average score of 12

out of 25 (48%), with the range of scores from 5 to 21.5. Candidates in the
higher scoring A and B categories covered the assignment content
comprehensively, with well substantiated content and support material.
They demonstrated a good understanding of how the key principles of line
design are integrated and applied when undertaking a major
change/modification to an existing pack line, with good examples of key
performance requirements, capacity implications and projected KPI
changes post change/modification.
Students in the C, D and E categories generally scored lower, with less
quantification and substantiation of aspects tabled ,and, in some cases did
not adequately address all the key requirements of the assignment.
Of concern were the scores in the F and G categories where 20
submissions scored below 40% (E). These candidates clearly did not
demonstrate an understanding of how the key principles of line design are
integrated and applied when undertaking a major change/modification to
an existing pack line. Many of these candidates were unable to quantify
and substantiate key operational and performance requirements,
projected efficiencies and capacities as a consequence of introducing new
pack formats and a new multi-pack machine. The respective responses
tabled and covered generic theory without adequate quantification or
elaboration.
39
Short Answer Questions

54 candidates sat the exam, and achieved an average score of 22.5 (56%),
with the scores ranging from 5 to 34 out of 40 marks.
This section of the examination paper focused on determining the
candidates breadth of knowledge of the unit subject matter. The lower
scoring responses were spread over all areas covered in the questions, and
of particular concern is the lack of understanding of the key elements of
capacity planning, scheduling and operations planning as applied in
packaging. Questions on these topics were either not answered or
answered incorrectly.
Long Answer Questions
Question
Answered by
1
39
2
15
Passed by
21
7
Passed %
53
47
Question 1
Draw a flow diagram of a can or NR bottle line and indicate the manned
positions on the line. (10) Using a tabular format summarize the duties
carried out at each position with brief supporting explanation of reasons
for these. (15) Briefly explain how the operational effectiveness of these
positions could be measured. (10)
2 and 29, with an average score of 17.5 out of 35 marks (50%). This
question focused on determining the candidates understanding of
manning requirements and practices used and applied on a modern
packaging line.
In the weaker submissions the schematic line layouts provided had little to
no indicative manning requirements, and the description of the duties of
the manned positions tabled were generic descriptions of the process
functions of the respective machines filler fills and crowns the
container, and, the operator starts, operates and shuts down the machine
with no elaboration on specific duties. Operational effectiveness
measures and indicators were hardly covered, and if they were, these
were very generic, with no specific elaboration on key KPIs by key
position/process area.
In the higher scoring submissions the respective sub questions were
comprehensively covered with well labelled schematic line layouts,
manned positions identified, key duties and reasons for these, with
comprehensive coverage of how operational effectiveness of the
nominated positions/process areas could be, or are measured.
Question 2
List the six major loss categories found on a packaging line. (6) Using a
tabular format, outline and discuss two key contributor examples by loss
factor including possible reasons/causes for/of these. (15) Identify and
list a possible set of preventative actions by respective
contributor/reasoning in above. (12) Define the formula to calculate
O.E.E. (2)
10 and 28, with an average score of 18.7 out of 35 (53%). This question
focused on determining the candidates understanding of the six major
loss categories found on a pack line, what these are, how they are
categorized, and what are the contributing factors and possible
causes/reasons for these.
In the higher scoring responses the candidates clearly demonstrated how
they would analyze and dimension the key contributors by loss factor, and
provided plausible causes and reasons for these, with supporting potential
corrective action proposals.
The weaker responses tabled the loss factors with generic one liner
comments, and very little substantiation or elaboration on key contributor
examples, and, possible causes/reasons for these. Of concern here is the
regurgitation of the learning material theory with little clear
demonstration of understanding of how applied on a pack line.
40
Module 1:
Unit 4 Small Pack Operations
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood the
working principles of a bottle crowner or can seamer and how the
functionality of the equipment ensured product and package integrity.
For a bottle or can line of your choice describe in detail the working
principles of the crowner or seamer. Identify the key parameter settings
and the impact on package Integrity if there is deviation from these
settings. For the period of the assignment include actual results for each
piece of equipment and from these show the level of control achieved.
Explain how the crowner or seamer is managed, maintained and
calibrated and the procedure for changeover between different package
types.
Grade
No
A
7
B
6
C
9
D
6
E
13
F
6
G
1
%
14
12
18
12
27
12
2

with a range of scores from 3 to 22 out of 25. Although registered 14
candidates did not submit an assignment. Good submissions provided
assignments which were well structured , contained detail of the working
principles of a seamer or a crowner and contained detailed information,
photos and diagrams where appropriate. The purpose of the assignment is
to get the candidate to understand in depth the working principles of a
machine and be able to explain this in depth. The better submissions
demonstrated this and showed they had spent time at the machines and
not simply copied text from the manual. The assignment asked for key
parameter settings and how deviations in these settings may impact on
package integrity. Again the better submissions had real data and an
understanding of how these settings could affect the crowning or seaming
operation. Not all candidates answered this part which therefore lost
marks. Actual results were asked for which most but not all candidates
quoted. Analysis of these results was very important to demonstrate
control of the process the better submissions did this. Part 2 focussed on
managing , maintaining, calibrating and changing over a crowner or
seamer . Submissions which explained these 4 key aspects of operation
achieved good marks and excellent marks were also awarded if the actual
operating procedure or maintenance plan was included
Of the 62 candidates registered for this unit, 54 sat the examination with
the others marked absent or withdrawn. The average scores were 25
(62%), with scores ranging from 16 to 36 out of 40 marks (94 % of the
candidates scored greater than 50%). This section of the examination
paper focused on determining the candidates breadth of knowledge of
the unit subject matter.
Long Answer Section
Question
Answered by
1
36
2
17
Passed by
22
6
Passed %
61
35
Question 1
Explain the operation of one type of bottle labeller using a sketch or flow
diagram. (20) Describe the benefits and constraints of wet glue labelling
versus PSL ( Pressure Sensitive Labelling ). (10) List the main factors
which impact on bottle label presentation for a wet labelled bottle and
the reasons why these factors are important. (5)
The first part of the answer attracted the most marks and the best answers
had a detailed sketch or diagram of the labeller with all the important
parts highlighted and an explanation of the operation of each of these
parts. Marks were also awarded to candidates who explained which parts
were most important and included actual settings. This part of the
question was fairly well answered.
The second part was not so well answered. The best way to answer this
was by using a table which highlighted the benefits and constraints of PSL
labelling eg cost, presentation, efficiency, ease of application, cleanliness
etc. The third part required a list of factors that affect glueing a label to a
bottle and how they can affect the final presentation eg glue type,
amount, temperature, effect of brushes, pallets, grippers, bottle condition
etc, label condition etc. The question was answered by 36 candidates with
an average score of 18 . Candidates must ensure all parts of the question
are answered and not just simply draw a sketch of a labeller.
Question 2
Describe the can filling operation using a sketch or diagram highlighting
the reason for each part of the operation. (20) For cans which have been
produced with leaking seams list the reasons why this may have
occurred and what actions would need to be put in place to ensure this
process was brought back under control. (15)
Only 35% of candidates passed this question. The main reasons for such a
low score were that it was insufficient to just draw a diagram of a can filler
operation and not put in any detail on the operating principles of each
stage or an explanation of what was happening at each stage.
The better answers had this detail and also included real settings and
parameters from their operation. The second part of the question was best
answered by listing how a can may end up with a leaking seam and for
each possibility highlighting the probable cause and the remedy. There
were some really good answers covering flange damage, pin height
settings, chuck / roll settings etc which then discussed management and
maintenance of the seamer and how this my affect the integrity of the
seam. Although the average score was 17 there was a striking difference
between those candidates who obviously know how a filler / seamer works
and those who only knew some of the theory.
Module 2:
grade to give a pass rate of 64.9%, which is identical to last year. Similar to
last year a much lower proportion of candidates withdrew during the year
(after submitting at least the first assignment) which is often as a result of
the candidate already having successfully completed Module One and
therefore being more used to what is expected from them. It was also
interesting to note that the grade breakdown percentages were also very
similar to last year, and very pleasing to note that the proportion of
candidates sitting the Soft Drinks elective also remained at just over 20%
of the candidates.
Passed
Grade
A
B
C
D
No
0
4
9
11
0
10
23
28
Failed
13
33
Withdrawn
Unit 1 Quality
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understands the
key quality and analytical measures used on a can or NRB line; and how
these are monitored and managed to ensure consistently high packaged
product quality.
For a packaging N.R.B. or can line of your choice, outline FIVE key
quality/analytical measures applied in filling and seaming / filling and
crowning with respective key performance indicators/targets. For the
FIVE measures identified, conduct a full review and evaluation of these
on your line, and dimension both the key deviations and good
performance
areas
against
these
with
your
supporting
comments/reasoning. Select TWO of those measures/analysis which
have the highest impact on Quality, provide a detailed recommendation
of an improvement plan for each of these with your projected
performance improvement results. You are encouraged to provide and
include diagrams, checks, analysis samples and tools/techniques that you
have used in your evaluation as part of your submission.
Grade
No
A
5
B
4
C
4
D
6
E
12
F
6
G
1
%
13
10.5
10.5
16
31.5
16
2

(56%), with the range of scores from 8 to 23 out of 25. Although
registered, one candidate did not submit an assignment. Good submissions
(A and B categories) provided well structured comprehensive submissions
with good visual support material charts, trends, commentary ,and,
conducted in-depth reviews and evaluation of the content. They also
tabled good recommendations with supporting commentary,
quantification and substantiation for the measures and analysis selected.
Candidates with satisfactory scores (C, D and E categories) generally scored
lower on actual review aspects, and most submissions lacked in-depth
substantiation of recommendations and improvement plans tabled. The
weaker and poorer submissions (E, F and G categories) were not well
prepared, with little in-depth analysis and substantiation to
recommendations made. Most of these submissions did not adequately
address the review and recommendation aspects asked for in Parts B and C
of the assignment.
Short Answer Questions
the others marked absent. The average scores were 24 (60%), with scores
ranging from 17 to 32 out of 40 marks (95% of the candidates scored
greater than 50%). This section of the examination paper focused on
determining the candidates breadth of knowledge of the unit subject
matter. The lower scoring responses were generally in the quality
assurance and micro-biological/hygiene areas. These were either not
answered or answered incorrectly.
Long Answer Questions
Question 1
List the twelve principles of TQM. (6) Briefly explain with an example,
how each of these are applied on a packaging line. (24) Quality assurance
of a packaged product is structured into seven key steps outline FIVE
of these and provide a practical example of how you use on a pack line.
(5)
41

0 and 30, with an average score of 13 out of 35 marks (37%). This question
focused on total quality management and was aimed at verifying the
candidates understanding of what the key principles of TQM are and with
provision of examples how these are applied on a packaging line.
In the third part of the question the focus was on quality assurance and
the identification of five of the seven key steps and how these were
applied and used on a pack line. Of concern here was the lower than
targeted average scores and generally poor responses to this question,
which indicated that candidates either did not fully understand the
concepts and learning material content, and/or had not had sufficient
exposure and application development in their respective plants/pack
lines. The higher scoring candidates demonstrated a good understanding
of the subject matter and provided good examples and substantiation of
points made to the question.
Question 2
Draw a fishbone analysis diagram to evaluate whether the management
of a process environment is understood. Identify the FOUR key input
elements and indicate the supportive sub elements by key input
element. (20) Discuss THREE sub elements identified in (a) and elaborate
on these in terms of procedures, KPIs and consequence. (15)
7 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 3
and 26, with an average score of 17 out of 35 (48%). Two candidates had
poor scores of 3 and 10 out of 35 respectively. This question focused on
problem solving and trouble shooting, with the candidates required to
identify the key input elements and respective sub elements in the
management of a process environment. The second part of this question
was aimed at verifying the candidates understanding of the input
elements and sub elements, and their respective contribution to process
monitoring and management. The identification/determination of cause
and effect relationships of inputs to outcomes (process performance,
results and related consequences)by covering a more detailed discussion
of these using examples familiar to the candidate. One would have
expected the candidates to have scored higher on this question as the
topic is common across all aspects of the operation and applied
universally.
The higher scoring candidates demonstrated a good
understanding of process problem solving, using a fish bone analysis and
tabled good examples and rationale to their answers.
Module 2:
Unit 2 Operations Management
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood how
packaging financial performance is monitored and reported. Candidates
and their companies were reminded that financial information provided by
candidates in their submissions would be treated in the strictest
confidence.
For a packaging line (or packaging area) with which you are familiar and
for a financial month (or period) from the third quarter from this (or the
last) financial year, use actual financial figures for both fixed cost
accounts and variable cost accounts to demonstrate:
The month / period performance against budget.
The year-to-date performance against budget.
The year-end forecast position.

Explain how the significant positive and negative variances came about
and what measures were put in place to maintain the year-end budget
position. Suggest ways in which financial performance awareness could
be raised more widely for packing line operators and technicians and
suggest which financial KPIs might be included in a performance
dashboard or report.
Grade
No
A
3
B
6
C
10
D
6
E
8
F
2
G
0
%
8.5
17
28.5
17
23
6
0
Two candidates scored 24 and one 23 with all three producing near model
submissions. The better candidates had a good structure with very helpful
use of screen dumps and tables together with photographs of dashboards,
display boards etc.
In too many cases not all aspects of the assignment were answered,
especially the year-end forecast position in the first part. For those who
did answer, a number of candidates simply proportioned the full-year with
the 9 months year to date performance for both fixed and variable costs.
For most operations this will not be accurate enough and a more in-depth
analysis will be required superbly demonstrated in the near model
submissions.
Explanations on how the significant positive and negative variances came
about and what measures were put in place to maintain the year-end
budget position were very variable and generally lacking necessary detail.
The final part was characterised by some very sound suggestions on raising
financial awareness team briefings, notice boards, electronic dashboards
etc as well as being part of incentive schemes perhaps. Too many
candidates failed to suggest financial KPIs for a dashboard which they and
their colleagues could directly influence on a day to day basis preferring to
cite KPIs on overall company profitability, sales etc. Relevant KPI examples
might include (with appropriate targets): beer loss ($/hl), bottle or can loss
($/hl), cost of downtime ($/minute), packaging cost ($/hl), maintenance
cost ($/hl). The very best answers included energy consumptions ($/hl or
MJ/hl) and water ($/hl or hl/hl).
Short Answer
36 candidates sat the exam, and achieved an average score of 20, with the
scores ranging from 10 to a very good 33. Once again, the questions on
line operations and world class manufacturing were answered better than
those on finance and purchasing. For Q1, 2 marks were to be awarded.
This did not mean [2x1] and so more than two advantages for having
annualized hours were expected. This principle also applied elsewhere in
the paper and so candidates are reminded that if a specific number of
answers are required, the examiner will set the question accordingly for
example Q4 List the six key influences with [6x1/2] marks. For Q4
several candidates listed measures of performance rather than influences
on performance.
The missing component of the three that make up manufacturing cost
(Q10) should have been straightforward but too many candidates
answered Indirect Materials and several Utilities rather than the
correct answer of Direct Labour.
The majority of candidates were unclear on indirect material and indirect
labour costs (Q11 and Q12) whilst most had a better understanding of
variable costs (Q13). In the middle of the examination papers section on
finance, the examiner was entitled to expect a financial explanation of
depreciation (Q15)! One brief explanation might be the gradual
conversion of the cost of an asset into an operational expense which then
normally appears in the fixed cost budget.
Surprisingly, a number of candidates made no attempt to answer which
three items should match exactly to allow automatic payment to a
supplier? (Q19). The straightforward answer was purchase order, goods
received note and invoice (or, where appropriate, the up to date electronic
equivalents). Too many candidates, in answering on key aspects of a
service level agreement (Q20), provided aspects more in line with
traditional contracts. Importantly those that made a good attempt often
missed out performance pricing.
42
Long Answer
Question
Answered by
1
34
2
2
Passed by
16
1
Passed %
47
50
Question 1
Explain the typical composition of an autonomous canning line team
having responsibility for all tasks from operating (including on-line
quality checks), size changing, cleaning and maintenance. (15) Describe
the competences of the various team members and outline how these
competences can be gained and maintained. (20)
This was clearly the most popular of the long answer questions with marks
ranging between a poor 9 to a good 27, with an average score of 17. Too
many candidates clearly failed to exercise good time management and
allowed insufficient time for their answers.
The first part of the question specifically asked for an explanation not
simply a list. A list could have been supplemented with an explanation but
was not sufficient in itself to achieve good marks. In addition to the roles
and locations of team members the examiner was seeking explanations of
how planned and unplanned absences are covered, how specialist skills
are accessed for major maintenance / overhaul tasks and how interfaces
with the bright beer and warehouse are managed.
The second part of the question commanded the majority of the marks
and therefore demanded rather more than half the time available. The
examiner was expecting descriptions of competences, not brief job
descriptions. Better answers included managerial as well as technical
competences for the team leader and, for an autonomous team, a
development of multi-skilling.
In describing how competences can be gained and maintained, the better
answers covered training needs analysis, on-the-job and off-the-job
training and, importantly, the role of original equipment manufacturers
(OEM) in delivering training and supporting personnel using their
equipment subsequently. The best answers also indicated how, when
necessary, personnel could be released from their normal duties for offline training and how competence is monitored (and recorded) and
periodically re-evaluated. The examiner was particularly pleased to see
several candidates describe the buddy system for on-the-job training.
Question 2
Describe the process for the selection of a new supplier in an area of
competitive supply markets, in this case specifically CIP materials. (20)
What would be the benefits of having an ongoing partnering
arrangement with the new supplier of CIP materials and outline how
these would be achieved? (15)
The 2 candidates who chose to answer this question scored marks of 11
and 22. For the first part, the examiner was seeking a description (not
simply a list!) of the process stages for selecting a new supplier specifically
in an area of competitive supply markets with up to seven stages
representing a good answer. In addition, two very important aspects are
(a) establishing the financial health of potential supplier together with
past, present and future financial performance and analysis of the
suppliers financial accounts and (b) finding a means of establishing the
potential suppliers actual quality and delivery performance (and
reputation) with existing customers.
For the second part of the question, in addition to the well-known general
benefits of having an ongoing partnering arrangement, there can be
specific benefits in the case of a CIP chemical supplier. These might
include: the potential for holding consignment stock (only paying when
consumed), the use of supplier owned and maintained CIP plant and
equipment (e.g. bulk tanks, dosing pumps etc), the remote monitoring of
chemical stocks with automatic replenishment, the optimisation of CIP
regimes (including potential incentivisation of the supplier within the
contract) and the potential to extend the supply of chemicals to other
areas perhaps (e.g. boiler treatment chemicals, pasteurizer treatment
chemicals etc).
Module 2:
Unit 3 Large Pack Operations Keg
Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that you understood the process of
keg filling and how keg contents are controlled through the filling process.
For a keg filler of your choice, explain the theory and practice of keg
filling. This should include details of keg preparation stages prior to filling
to ensure beer quality is maintained. The assignment must show detail of
cycle times, filler settings and the factors which may affect beer quality.
Assess and discuss how keg contents are controlled by the filling process
showing all factors which may affect this control. Show your
understanding of Contents Legislation in your region and how this is
adhered to in practice. Analyse the actual contents results for the period
of the assignment and show the level of control achieved.
Grade
No
A
4
B
1
C
7
D
6
E
11
F
2
G
1
%
13
3
22
19
34
6
3

with a range of scores from 7 to 22 out of 25. Although registered 8
candidates did not submit an assignment.
Good submissions provided assignments which were well structured,
contained detail of the working principles of keg filling and contained
detailed information, photos and diagrams where appropriate. The
purpose of the assignment is to get the candidate to understand in depth
the working principles of a machine and be able to explain this in depth.
The better submissions demonstrated this and showed they had spent
time at the machines and not simply copied text from the manual. The
assignment asked for the theory and practice of keg filling and keg
preparation to maintain quality. The submission should contain drawings
of a keg being filled with appropriate description of each stage and actual
parameters for the filler related to keg preparation and filling. Purely
theoretical answers will not receive full marks. Every aspect of beer
quality eg fobbing, flat, high DO, micro infection etc should be listed and a
link made with how substandard set up of the filler and keg preparation
could have led to this. This then leads into the second question where the
candidate is asked to explain how the filling cycle controls the fill level.
Reference should be made to fill speed, pressure in the keg, filling control
valves etc to demonstrate an understanding of this. The last part of this
which asked for Legislation was not well answered. Candidates were then
asked for contents results for the 8 weeks of the assignment. Some did not
do this and for those that did the best submissions used these numbers to
demonstrate statistically how the contents were controlled and legal
(some were illegal which is interesting!)
Short Answer
the others marked absent or withdrawn. The average scores were 26
(65%), with scores ranging from 12 to 38 out of 40 marks (83 % of the
candidates scored greater than 50%). This section of the examination
paper focused on determining the candidates breadth of knowledge of
the unit subject matter.
43
Long Answer
Question
Answered by
1
32
2
4
Passed by
21
1
Passed %
67
25
Question 1
Draw a typical keg line layout highlighting the function of each piece of
equipment. (10) On the pre-fill side of the keg line choose two pieces of
equipment and describe in detail the purpose of each piece of
equipment, how it operates, how it is maintained and any process
parameters associated with the equipment running speeds for each piece
of equipment. (20) Draw a V Graph of this keg line highlighting the
potential running speeds for each piece of equipment. (5)
The answer to first part of this question was a straightforward drawing of a
keg line layout with explanation of each piece of equipment to show what
it was and what its function is. The second part of the question required
the candidate to choose 2 pieces of equipment and describe in detail its
purpose, operation, maintenance regime and any process parameters
associated with it. The better answers covered each one of these in detail
and described working principles, any maintenance plan in place and how
the keg operation was impacted by the machine. Candidates should
carefully select which machine they describe as some machines allow this
to be more fully answered than others. The last section of the question
required a V graph of the line. Marks were awarded for drawing a V graph
containing all the important pieces of equipment and for marking each
with a theoretical running speed based on the principle of the filler usually
being the slowest with a 5 to 10% increase for each machine from the
filler. I would have expected more candidates to have passed this question
as each section was asking for basic principles of a kegging operation. For
many candidates there was not enough detail in the answers.
Question 2
List the key design and operational features of a keg and extractor (
spear) which determine the dispense characteristics of beer . This may be
represented using diagrams of beer dispense from a keg. Include the
impact of keg and extractor design on dispense yield. (15)
Describe how beer quality during dispense may be affected by each of
the following parameters. (20)
Temperature
Hygiene
Gas Pressure
Gas type ( CO2 or CO2/N2 mix)

Only 4 candidates attempted this question. There was one excellent
candidate who scored 31 out of 35 and the other 3 candidates failed the
question. The first part of the question required an explanation of the
purpose and design of a keg extractor and then a more detailed discussion
of its component parts and how it works. Explanation was then required
on the impact of these components on beer yield from the keg. The 3
candidates who failed did not answer this part of the question.
The second part of the question was answered much better and the best
answer contained descriptions of how temperature. Hygiene, gas pressure
and gas type impacted the quality of the beer being dispensed. This should
include micro contamination, fobbing / flat beer, not being able to get
beer out of a keg, oxygen pick up etc. The model answer also covered
dispense equipment applicability to training of bar persons.
Module 2:
Unit 5 Brewing
Assignment
This assignment was designed to allow the candidate to demonstrate their
knowledge of their brewerys grist preparation facility and how it was
controlled. (If the candidates site did not have a grist preparation facility
then they were advised to organise attendance at an appropriate
location.).
44
With the aid of clearly labelled diagrams and/or photographs describe

the main features of the grist preparation facility in your brewery and
explain how grist composition is controlled. Your submission should
identify all equipment and unit operations from raw material intake to
slurried grist in the mash vessel (details of mash vessel are not required ).
Your description should include conveying techniques, safety features for
dust explosion avoidance, food safety compliance, and inventory control.
Provide two recommendations to improve grist preparation performance
at your brewery. Justify each with an indicative cost/benefit analysis.
Grade
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
No
2
7
6
5
2
0
0
%
9
32
27
23
9
0
0
Much better effort was made this year to describe the candidates own
operation rather than presenting a textbook description. Recognition was
given for this but more marks would have been gained by better
highlighting of photographs to identify the exact feature being referred to
in the text.
Most candidates were well aware of the need for dust extraction and iron
and stone removal to minimise the risk of dust explosions, but there was
very little mention on the need for ignition proof rated equipment or the
need for earthing to prevent static build up.
Conveyor design in some cases was very well covered, but there was little
mention of the need for rotation sensors to detect any abnormal speeds of
idler sprockets/rollers of chain conveyors/elevator belts, nor of the need
for choke switches at conveyor discharges to detect blockages The
description and importance of milling control for the performance of
mashing and mash separation was well covered. Suggestions for
improvement, which included changes to operational procedures as well
as plant modifications were generally valid and technically feasible.
However, with a few notable exceptions , there was insufficient
consideration of an outline cost/benefit analysis as requested and one
candidate offered no suggestions at all (32% of marks available)
Short Answer
The scores within this section ranged from 13(32%) to 36(90%), with 84%
of candidates scoring greater than 50% . An adjunct is a source of extract
other than malt. If added to the kettle it must have no requirement for
enzymic conversion which rules out cereal adjuncts as kettle additions
Some poor understanding of protein breakdown to polypeptides and
amino acids some candidates offering alpha acids and amylose. The
alpha acids naturally present in hops are not isomerised. Several
candidates identified good conditions for yeast growth such as pH and
temperature instead of providing nutrients as asked for in the question.
Methods for assessing a batch of yeasts suitability for pitching must be
immediate and practical such as methylene blue staining for viability. Light
during storage does not accelerate haze formation (but can lead to
skunky/sunstruck flavours).
Long Answer
Question
Answered by
1
19
2
6
Passed by
5
3
Passed %
26
50
Question 1
Describe the enzymic degradation of starch during the mashing process.
Clearly identify starch structure, enzymes and their mode of action, and
resultant breakdown products. (23) Discuss how mashing conditions
affect these enzymic reactions and how this will affect wort composition.
(12)
The answer would have required more widespread reading than the
learning notes and some of the poor marks (37% at grade G) suggests this
had not been the case.
Many candidates offered lines and dots as starch structure with no
explanation e.g. that the dots were glucose units Few mentioned the two
forms of starch, namely the linear polymer amylose (circa 25%) and the
branched polymer amylopectin (circa 75%). Even where both structures
were described no indication was given of the size of the molecule
(amylose a linear polymer of 200 400 glucose units, amylopectin a
branched polymer of circa 6000 glucose units with branches every 15-30
glucose units). Starch is a polymer of glucose units and therefore its
breakdown cannot contain fructose and sucrose (although these will be
present in the mash)
The temperature optima for alpha and beta amylase were frequently
reversed and there was a common incorrect perception that alpha
amylase was most active in the range 45-55C. Some candidates spent time
describing the enzymic degradation of beta glucan and protein which was
not asked for. The role of Calcium to adjust mash pH for optimum amylase
activity was generally understood, but nothing was mentioned about its
role to help stabilise alpha amylase during mashing. The impact on wort
fermentability was reasonably well covered by the better candidates.
Question 2
Draw a clearly labelled diagram showing the six major features of a yeast
cell. (12) Briefly describe the function of these features. Indicate the size
of the cell Provide a clearly labelled time based diagram showing the
progression of a fermentation, detailing the quantitative changes in yeast
count, specific gravity, pH, and ethanol. (9) In addition to ethanol and
carbon dioxide produced by the yeast during fermentation identify seven
other types of flavour active compounds that can occur. List each type of
compound and briefly describe the taste/aroma it can impart to the
beer. (14)
The diagrams of the yeast cell were generally poor and two candidates
appeared to be representing the cross section of a barley seed. Little
understanding of the role of each of the cell features was demonstrated
For the fermentation profiles offered, the timescale was generally correct,
but the pattern for each parameter was not e.g. the timing of maximum
ethanol needs to coincide with minimum specific gravity. Also the ethanol
concentration needs to reflect the degrees of gravity fermented.
One candidate provided a good description of the different phases of yeast
growth but this was not part of the question. Generally answers displayed
poor knowledge of the compounds that can be produced during
fermentation and their possible affect when present above flavour
thresholds. Correct answers would have included higher alcohols, fatty
acids, organic acids, esters, aldehydes, Diacetyl/VDK, sulphurs, phenols.
Module 2:
Unit 6 Carbonated Soft Drinks
Assignment
Using examples of filling machines in your own plant or company,
describe and explain, in your own words, the function of two different
types of filling machine, for example a counter-pressure filler and either
a vacuum or volumetric filler. On a filling line of your choice, investigate
and explain fully in your own words, how, under the following scenarios,
product is kept stable and under control in the filler bowl, following
carbonation or pasteurization and then how it is transferred into the
container, detailing gas pressure (CO2 or sterile air) and product
temperature data in order to maintain final product specification: at
production start-up or product changeover, and after a line stoppage in
excess of one hour. Use diagrams & photographs of filling valves, where
appropriate and reference any source material used eg supplier diagrams
or photographs from manuals. Provide a review of the filling process on
your line, highlighting the quality, hygiene, maintenance and operational
performance criteria and identify key aspects for improvement. Give
examples of two specific recommendations that have been, or could be
made to enhance the overall operation of the filling process.
Grade
No.
A
3
B
0
C
1
D
2
E
0
F
2
G
0
%
38
0
13
25
0
25
0
Good answers focussed on a well structured assignment report, with

detailed description and diagrams. They also gave strong evidence of
improvements and recommendations, whilst also giving a good summary.
Those assignment reports which were weaker than the others were
downgraded for reasons of poor to average explanations, little or no use of
diagrams and photographs and sparse evidence of improvements and
summary relating to cost, quality or efficiency. An assignment should be
viewed as an individual opportunity to demonstrate knowledge and
understanding of examples asked for, along with evidence of involvement
and appreciation of continuous improvement. Where the assignment
questions ask for review and explanation, marks are given for evidence
produced rather than a simple reproduction of information which is
contained either in training notes or equipment manuals. Of the eight
candidates, three received a mark in excess of 80% (grade A), one attained
a grade C, two attained grade D, and two received marks of less than the
pass mark.
Short Answer
The scores within this section ranged from 11 to 24, with 37% of
candidates scoring greater than 50%. Generally, the questions in which
most candidates did not score related to products containing aspartamer,
carbonation measurement and those questions relating to components of
soft drinks. Those questions which scored highly were based on topics
relating to primary packaging, as well as taste types and fill level variables.
Long Answer
Question
Answered by
1
4
2
4
Passed by
3
4
Passed %
75
100
Question 1
Consider a 2 litre PET bottling line with an empty bottle depalletiser, a
40-head bottle rinser, a 100-head filler, capper and wraparound labeller.
During the filling operation, intermittent underfills are being rejected at a
rate of approximately up to 10 bottles per filler revolution at a time. Give
three different operational reasons as to why this may be occurring. For
each reason, give specific recommendations for immediately curing the
issue of underfilling, and then detail a performance improvement
proposal which will outline monitoring checks to prevent re-occurence of
the issue. (3x10) Give one important reason why underfilled containers
of product must not be emptied and re-fed into the rinser/filler for refilling. (2) Fully explain the implication if this is ignored, and provide a
brief description of what preventative measure can be put in place. (3)
Good answers to Part a) focussed quite simply on exactly what the
question asked for three different operational reasons with specific
recommendations as to how the issues can be rectified. It is always a good
indication of how well a candidate understands the practical implications
of the process of filling a soft drink and the principles of problem-solving.
Part B of the question was looking for evidence that the candidate
understood the implications of hygiene and the avoidance of microbial
contamination, whilst Part C examined the candidates knowledge of the
risk implications which relate to the importance and understanding of food
safety and hygiene. Question 1 was answered by only 50% of the
candidates (with an encouraging pass rate of 75%).
Question 2
Describe, with the aid of diagrams, the features of each of the following
three labelling types used in PET soft drinks manufacturing, including an
outline of the application/operation of the equipment involved: (3x5)
45

Patch labelling
Wraparound labelling
Sleeve wrapping
Provide a short explanation of five key advantages of ACL labelling over
the use of paper/plastic labels, which encompass each of the following
parameters financial, design and quality and detail the benefits. (5x4)
The four candidates who attempted this question gave, in the main, model
answers to both parts and there was 100% pass rate. There was no
reproduction of training notes for Part a) and the answers demonstrated a
good to high level of practical understanding. In general, it should be noted
that, where a specific number of examples is asked for in a question, the
candidate should adhere to the instruction and avoid listing as many
examples as he/she can recollect from their notes. Careful reading of exam
questions is paramount so that candidates can clearly understand that
which is being asked. The clue is given in the marks allocated column as a
guide for the candidate, and this is noted in the instruction and
information at the front of the exam question pack.
Module 3:
General Comments
In all there were only 19 submitted scripts with 14 candidates achieving a
pass grade to give a pass rate of 73.7%, which is lower than last year
(82.1%). It was also interesting to note that the grade breakdown
percentages were also very similar to last year, but disappointing to see 3
candidates withdraw during the exam year something which is quite
unusual within Module Three history, as normally candidates have already
passed the two preceding Modules and are aiming for completion of their
Diploma by the time they are sitting this Module.
Passed
No
Grade
A
0
B
4
C
4
D
6
Failed
5
Withdrawn
4
%
0
17
17
26
22
17
Unit 1 Resource Management

Assignment
This assignment was designed to show that the candidate understood the
principles of health and safety risk assessment.
For an existing and controlled packaging line hazardous process or
procedure (operational or maintenance) with which you are familiar and
using your companys risk assessment process describe in detail: How the
risk of injury was assessed. The measures that were put into effect to
allow the process or procedure to continue safely. Explain the issues and
concerns which may arise when carrying out health and safety risk
assessments and how these issues and concerns may be overcome.
Grade
No
A
5
B
3
C
2
D
6
E
1
F
3
G
1
%
24
14
10
29
4.5
14
4.5
21 candidates tendered submissions for this assignment, achieving an

average score of 15, with the range of scores from a poor 7 to a very good
23. The better submissions had a good structure throughout with helpful
supporting diagrams, tables and photographs. Most candidates made
clever use of referenced appendices to convey additional information
without wordcount penalty.
46
For the first part of the assignment the best answer had a brief scene
setting introduction moving smoothly to an excellent table clearly showing
a six stage process in assessing the risks associated with the labelling
process. The table showed how risk scores were compiled from probability
of occurence, severity and exposure leading to an overall zone rating. The
table compared the current to the previous risk assessment together with
mitigating measures.
The second part of the assignment was, in general, not answered well and
a number of candidates chose not to answer it at all! For the issues and
concerns which may arise when carrying out health and safety risk
assessments the examiner was seeking examples such as:
Are the individuals / group competent to assess the risk do

they have the right knowledge and experience?
Are the individuals who will be exposed to the risk

represented?
Is the risk assessment original or merely a copy of another

which may not be identical?
Is the assessment being rushed without all the correct

information?
Is the assessment being carried out in the area of the risk or

remotely (are all the implications being taken into account)?
Do the individuals / group have authority to put mitigation

measures in place or would there be a delay in the process?
What are the processes or procedures for ensuring that tasks

are carried out safely, taking into account the results and
requirements of the risk assessment?
Is the risk assessment being adequately documented?
How frequently are risk assessments reviewed?

Short Answer
18 candidates sat the exam, and achieved an average score of 20, with the
scores ranging from a poor 8 to a good 29.
For Q2, disappointingly, only one candidate recognized the precautionary
principle whilst in Q3 (greenhouse gas emissions from a packaging
operation) a number of candidates included CO2 emissions from
fermentation which, in the context of this exam, is not part of a packaging
operation. In completing the safety section of the examination paper the
examiner was expecting Q7 (dealing with risk) to produce the answer
risk rather than waste in response to avoiding, reducing,
transferring and retaining are all techniques for dealing with..
Similarly for Q9 (compliance) an explanation of the term compliance was
anticipated in the context of safety.
Q11 (main objectives of holding an accident inquiry) saw most candidates
missing the objective of an assessment of the effectiveness of the
immediate response to the incident. For Q12 (so far as is reasonably
practicable) the examiner was seeking an explanation such as the degree
of risk in a particular activity or environment can be balanced against the
time, cost and physical difficulty of taking measures to avoid the risk. Q14
(boiler scaling) required more than one correct answer (actually two in this
case) even though there was only 1 mark to be awarded, hence the use of
the symbol before each alternative. Q17 (the principal electricity
consuming processes in packaging) importantly contained the word
principal and so the examiner did not expect to see minor consumers such
as PLCs and instruments!
Long Answer
Question
Answered by
1
8
2
10
Passed by
3
7
Passed %
38
70
Question 1
Discuss the pressures to reduce the materials used for the packaging of
bottle and can products in the last 20 to 25 years explaining in detail
where these pressures have come from. Use examples to illustrate the
answer. (35)
Marks for this question ranged between a very poor 5 and a good 25, with
an average score of 14. The examiner was looking for a well planned and
structured essay with an introduction which might have included
governments objectives to minimize packaging and packaging waste,
promote re-use of packaging materials and encourage recovery and recycling of packaging materials.
The sources of pressure should have included as a minimum: legislation,
market forces, the consumer and cost. The examiner expected these areas
to be developed for example packaging waste regulations, landfill tax,
sustainability, corporate social responsibility, environmental awareness,
recycling, competition, a whole range of cost pressures etc. Clearly these
areas will differ for different countries and different stages in supply chain
development across the world.
Examples of changes in packaging materials that could have illustrated
candidates answers include: can light weighting (bodies and ends), glass
light weighting, card and cardboard reduction, the rise of PET and
laminates, reductions in the thicknesses and uses of films, stretch and
shrinkwraps, Hi-cone etc. Several of the better answers pleasingly included
water as a packaging material and measures to reduce consumption.
Question 2
Explain the water treatments that may be necessary (and why) to meet
the requirements of a stand-alone small packaging operation. (20) The
packaging operation includes a tunnel pasteuriser. How may these
treatments be achieved? (15)
The 10 candidates who chose to answer this question, were awarded
marks ranging between 16 and a very good 28 with an average score of 20.
For the first part of the question the examiner was seeking a very broad
range of water treatments for the differing requirements of product water
(de-aerated for packaging), process water and service water. An
explanation of which types of water are used at different points in
packaging was expected. At the outset of course, a brief description of the
source of water was important as this generally dictates some of the
treatment(s).
The better answers went beyond basic treatments and included corrosion
prevention, scale inhibition, and biocide addition (to prevent the growth of
slime bacteria and Legionella). One of the best answers excited the
examiner with the inclusion of waste water treatment and water recycling.
For the second part of the question, having explained which water
treatments may be necessary, describing how they may be achieved was
relatively straight forward for most candidates some of whom chose to
include helpful simple sketches.
A number of candidates used a comprehensive table to lay out the
requirements for differing water specifications, treatments and how they
may be achieved. The very best answers included quantitative information
to support their explanations.
Unit 2 Fluid Mechanics
Assignment
This assignment is designed to show the candidates understanding of beer
carbonation.
Using diagrams and/or photographs describe in detail how the
carbonation level in beer is achieved or adjusted at your facility and
explain how this process is controlled. Describe how carbonation is
measured in the final product (both on-line and off-line), including typical
specifications and control limits. Explain the principle of operation for
each measurement technique. Provide clear recommendations of how
the carbonating and measuring processes can be improved or provide a
rationale justifying the current approach.
Grade
No.
19
19
13
19
19
Twenty candidates attempted this section but only 9 passed with an

average passing score of 67% correct. The examiner was looking for
candidates to discuss how beer is carbonated in the packaging hall with a
focus on the basic principles (Henrys Law) that determine equilibrium CO2
concentrations in solution. The candidate needed to discuss how CO2 was
measured prior to and after carbonation adjustment along with the
rationale and procedure for adjusting and controlling the carbonation level
upwards (or in some cases downwards, as some candidates pointed out).
While this task would appear to be straightforward it was not well
explained by many candidates. The second part of the assignment asked
candidates to describe how carbonation is measured and explain the basic
principles of the measuring technique(s). While some candidates did a fine
job, many chose to simply outline a technicians operating sequence,
which was not satisfactory. Nearly all candidates failed to identify control
limits for CO2 in the beverages being packaged. Recommendations varied
in detail and scope with some candidates simply ignoring this part of the
assignment.
Short Answer
Seventeen candidates attempted this section and 15 passed with an
average passing score of 73% correct. This section of the exam is meant to
examine the breadth of the syllabus. Nearly all candidates demonstrated
sound knowledge of fluid viscosity, state of flow and Reynolds number
concepts. Similarly, calculations involving mechanical energy balance were
handled well. However, concepts involving liquid-gas equilibria were weak.
Candidates were poorly prepared to answer simple questions around
factors affecting gas super-saturation and mixed gases. Likewise, simple
concepts around pressure were mishandled. For instance, when given a list
of factors that might affect the pressure at the bottom of a tank filled with
fluid, nearly all candidates selected temperature as a non-important
factor, which is wrong. Temperature affects a liquids density, which in
turn affects its hydrostatic pressure (for a given fluid height).
Long Answer
Question
Answered by
Passed by
Passed %
11
45
17
Question 1
Compare and contrast the operation and features of centrifugal and
positive displacement pumps including advantages and disadvantages of
each. (20) Calculate the pump size required for a pump operating at 60%
efficiency to deliver 15 m of pump head at 5 L s-1. Data: Acceleration due
to gravity is 9.81 m s-2. (15)
Eleven candidates chose this question and five passed with an average
score of 78%. The five that did not perform well were not close to passing,
averaging only 36%.
The first part of the question asked the candidate to briefly compare and
contrast the operation of centrifugal versus positive displacement pumps.
Concise answers of the basic operation were all that was required.
Drawing diagrams of the two types of pumps while somewhat help was
unnecessary, particularly in place of a compare and contrast list. The best
answers laid out a clean table with advantages in one column and
disadvantages in the other. The examiner was looking at features such as
delivery head pressure, flow rates (capacity), cost of purchase and
operation, metering capabilities, types of fluids to be pumped.
47
The second part of the question involved three steps and an understanding
of how to calculate pressure given density, gravitational constant and
pump head plus calculating pump power from flowrate and pump
pressure. Candidates needed to make an assumption about a fluid density
(all assumed water, which worked well). While in some cases there were
errors associated with units, this did not results in significant downgrading
provided the overall approach was correct.
Question 2
Name three factors that affect the equilibrium concentration of carbon
dioxide in beer. Examining each factor individually, discuss what happens
to the carbon dioxide concentration in beer when each of these factors
increases in magnitude, given all other chemical and physical properties
of the system are held constant. (15) Given beer with 2.4 volumes of CO2
in solution, calculate the mass of carbon dioxide dissolved in 1000 hL of
beer. (5) Assume that this beer (with 2.4 volumes of CO2) is being
packaged in aluminium cans with a target fill volume of 500 ml. One
standard practice for measuring the fill volume of cans is to measure the
weight of beer in the packaged can. Estimate the target weight of 500 ml
of fully carbonated beer. What percentage of this total weight is
contributed by the carbon dioxide? (15) Data: One mole of an ideal gas
occupies 22.4 L at STP. Atomic weights (g mol-1): CO2 = 44, H2O = 18. Beer
density (fully degassed, measured at 20C) = 1.0085 kg L-1
Six candidates chose this question but only one passed with average score
of 77%. The five remaining did poorly with an average of 23%.
The first part of the question involved describing the three main factors
that affect carbonation levels in beer, namely temperature, pressure and
beer composition (i.e. dissolved solids). As temperature increases, the
equilibrium CO2 concentration decreases (gases are less soluble at higher
temperatures). As pressure increases, the equilibrium CO2 concentration
increases. As beers residual extract increases the equilibrium CO2
concentration decreases (dissolved solutes reduce CO2 solubility). Many
candidates focused on the volume of beer as a factor, but this does not
influence the final carbonation level in the beer. It can affect how fast the
beer will come to equilibrium but that was not the focus of this question.
The second and third parts to this question proved very difficult for all but
one candidate. The second part involved converting 2.4 volumes of CO2
into 4.71 g/L, which meant 1000 hL would hold 47.1 kg of CO2. The third
part utilized the same 4.71 g/L CO2 concentration to estimate 2.357 g CO2
in a 500 ml can, which was approximately 0.465% of the total contents
weight.
Grade
No.
11
61
22
17
Eighteen candidates attempted this section and all passed with an average
passing score of 80% correct. The examiner was looking for the candidate
to present a detailed schematic as a key part of this assignment and
associated with it the identification of and description of pipe runs,
isolating valves, pressure reduction valves, blow down valves, pressure
relief valves, strainer/filters, pressure gauges, flow meter, expansion
joints/bellows, condensate traps, condensate pumps and return lines
along with piping insulation requirements. Energy losses often occur due
to missing pipe insulation, steam leaks and failing condensate traps. The
examiner was looking to see a discussion of these plus some rough
estimates of the amount of energy lost and conversion of these figures
into potential financial savings as determined by the amount of steam
saved.
Short Answer
Seventeen candidates attempted this section and fourteen passed with an
average passing score of 68% correct. Candidates in general did well the
basic concepts of latent vs sensible heats, convective vs conductive heat
transfer, and the factors that affect heat transfer. Many did not correctly
identify the temperature dependency of beer density on temperature and
that a maximum (not a minimum) density occurs around 3 4 C. All
candidates were able to correctly identify the components of a steam
pressure reducing station. Interestingly, very few candidates could
correctly draw the temperature profile across two materials over differing
thermal conductivities bonded together (i.e. an insulated wall). The largest
temperate drop across the material will occur in the insulation and not the
conductor. Working with steam tables gave some candidates trouble and
many were unable to calculate a specific enthalpy for wet steam using the
table.
Long Answer
Unit 3 Thermal Energy Transfer

Assignment
This assignment is designed to show the candidates understanding of the
operation and maintenance of an efficient steam distribution system.
Draw or reproduce a schematic diagram of the steam distribution system
for a brewery or packaging line of your choice. The diagram should trace
the path of steam flowing from the boiler, although a schematic of the
boiler itself is not required, to the point(s) or use and follow the
condensate back to the boiler. Clearly identify all the key devices in the
system along with pipe and insulation sizes, pressures and temperatures.
Explain the purpose of each device and its maintenance requirements.
Comment on any known performance issues. Explain where energy
losses occur in the system and propose ways to reduce avoidable thermal
energy losses. Estimate how much financial benefit could accrue by
reducing these losses. Draw conclusions on the overall performance of
the steam distribution system and make recommendations for
improvements.
Question
Answered by
Passed by
Passed %
10
70
29
Question 1
Refrigeration systems rely on primary and in most cases secondary
refrigerants. Explain the difference between the two by describing how
the two types function, explaining practical considerations for using
each, naming two different types of each, and providing a separate
example (one for each type) of where you would find them being used in
a packaging plant. (15) Using the R717 pressure enthalpy diagram on
the following page, draw the primary refrigerant flow path (directly on
the diagram) for a system operating with the condenser at 20 bar and the
evaporator at 3 bar. On or below the x-axis (enthalpy) write out or circle
the values for the specific enthalpy of the refrigerant when it is leaving
the condenser, leaving the evaporator and leaving the compressor. (15)
What is the coefficient of performance (COP) of this refrigeration
system? What does the COP describe? (5)
Ten candidates chose this question and seven passed with an average
score of 77%. The three that did not perform well were not close to
passing, averaging only 28%.
48
The first part of this question asked the candidate to define primary and
secondary refrigerants, that is those that involve a phase change and those
that dont. While the differences seem obvious some candidates had
difficulty accurately and completely describing and defining the two. Many
candidates failed to offer two examples of each. The points of use of each
type were handled with a broad range of detail from vague statements
about refrigerants being used to cool stuff to specific answer of glycol
systems being used to extract heat from heat exchangers or cooling
vacuum pump water.
The second part of the question asked the candidates to draw out the
refrigerant path on a P-H diagram, which most were able to do accurately.
The final part on COP was a mixed bag. While some answers were
thorough and included an accurate calculation others simple stated that
COP is a measure of efficiency, which in and of itself is not thorough
enough for full marks.
Question 2
Explain why steam is a useful heating medium in the packaging hall. (5)
Define steam quality, explain why wet steam is not desired, and describe
different means for ensuring dry steam is available at the point of use.
(15) Water at 60C is flowing at 0.001 m3 s-1 and being heated to 86C in a
steam-jacketed heat exchanger prior to receipt in a hot water tank.
Calculate the steam flow rate (kg s-1) in the heat exchanger if the steam
arrives at 300 kPa with a 95% dryness fraction. Steam table data are
provided below. (15)
Seven candidates chose this question and only two passed but they did
outstanding with an average score of 96%. The five nonpassing candidates
averaged 40%.
The description of why steam is an effective heating medium was correctly
answered by nearly all candidates, but things began to fall apart when
steam quality was addressed. Steam quality can be defined by how much
condensate has been formed in transit from the boiler to the point of use,
for instance as a measure of dryness or wetness. The dryness fraction is
the ratio of useable energy from the phase change at the point of use
relative to the total potential amount of energy capable of being released
(at a constant pressure) if the steam were 100% dry. Another way to
explain this is the portion of available latent heat at the point of use. Wet
steam is not desired because it is inefficienthot condensate is simply
being pumped around the system. If significant condensate forms then it
can damage pipes and fittings as it gets blown through the system.
There are several ways to ensure dry steam at the point of use. One is to
superheat the steam in the boiler and another is to discharge the steam
from the boiler at a higher pressure than is needed and step it down to the
desired pressure at the point of use. Yet another approach is to simply
remove the condensate via a trap prior to the point of use. The heat
balance calculation was difficult for many despite the fact that it was a
rather straightforward task of balancing the heating required by the water
being heated versus the energy released by the steam. Specific enthalpy
values were given in the steam table for all streams making the calculation
quick and simple.
Unit 4 Unit Control
Assignment
Part 1 How process control is applied on a packaging line and is able to
identify the types of devices on the line and their principle of operation.
Part 2 Using part 1 as the base, this question was designed to probe if
the system described was an open or closed loop system and why it was
chosen. Part 3 using an existing control system, critically analyse it and
make recommendations to improve in terms of reliability, control
accuracy and integration.
19 of the 23 registered candidates submitted the assignment. The average
mark was 16 out of 25. Part 1 was well answered with some excellent
examples of the application with good views on the types of devices in use.
Part 2 showed that some of the candidates had difficulty identifying a feed
forward control loop in operation. However the open loop was much
easier to identify and describe.
Assignment Performance 19/23 average mark 16/25

Grade
No
%
A
3
16
B
5
26
C
8
42
D
1
5
E
)
0
F
1
5
G
1
5
Part 3 had some very comprehensive responses, with the majority of
candidates responding well. An area of uncertainty was around how to
improve the current system, with some responses not grounded in the
principles of process control.
Short Answer
18 of the 23 registered candidates answered the short answer question
with an average mark of 16 out of 25.
The scores within this section ranged from 13 to 38 out of 40, with 83 % of
candidates scoring greater than 50%.
Q1 -7 were well answered

Q8 was variable, with many not attempting the question
Q9 response was variable, with many not responding correctly
and some not responding at all
Q11-12 were well answered
Q14-15 response was variable, with many not responding
correctly and some not responding at all
Long Answer
Question 1
Describe with the aid of a diagram how the necessary components of a
flash pasteurizer control the temperature of beer at the discharge of the
heating section of the heat exchanger. (15) Using the basic elements of
control theory, describe what type of controlling algorithm might be
used to control the beer temperature as it enters the holding tube.
Explain, with another diagram, how the various temperature and control
signals move throughout the control loop to achieve control, identifying
the nature of the signal joining each component. (15) What type of
control loop is being used in this example, feed forward or feed back, and
why is this type of control employed? (5)
Platinum Resistance Temperature Detector
Acceptable answers should include:
Resistance thermometers, also called resistance temperature detectors
(RTDs), are sensors used to measure temperature by correlating the
resistance of the RTD element with temperature. Most RTD elements
consist of a length of fine coiled wire wrapped around a ceramic or glass
core. The element is usually quite fragile, so it is often placed inside a
sheathed probe to protect it. The RTD element is made from a pure
material, typically platinum, nickel or copper. The material has a
predictable change in resistance as the temperature changes and it is this
predictable change that is used to determine temperature.
The advantages of platinum resistance thermometers include:
High accuracy
Low drift
Wide operating range
Suitability for precision applications.
49
Limitations: RTDs in industrial applications are rarely used above 660 C. At

temperatures above 660 C it becomes increasingly difficult to prevent the
platinum from becoming contaminated by impurities from the metal
sheath of the thermometer. This is why laboratory standard thermometers
replace the metal sheath with a glass construction.
At very low temperatures, say below -270 C (or 3 K), because there are
very few phonons, the resistance of an RTD is mainly determined by
impurities and boundary scattering and thus basically independent of
temperature. As a result, the sensitivity of the RTD is essentially zero and
therefore not useful.
Turbine flow meter
The basic structure of turbine flow meters includes a bladed rotor axially
suspended in the pipe. As the fluid flows through the pipe, the rotor spins
at a speed which is proportional to the fluid's velocity. The rotating blades
generate a frequency signal proportional to the liquid flow rate, which is
sensed by the magnetic pick-up installed outside of the pipe and
transferred to the applicable transducer. Electrical pulses can also be
added and totalized so that we get the aggregate flow rate over a specific
time period.
Advantages of turbine flow meter
Simple, durable structure
Easy to install and maintain
Turbine meters are able to operate under a wide range of

temperatures and pressures
Low pressure drop across the flow meter
Most effective in applications with steady, high-speed flows

Disadvantages of turbine flow meters
Require constant backpressure in order to avoid cavitation
Accuracy adversely affected by bubbles in liquids
Sensitive to changes in fluid viscosity
A straight run of pipe upstream and downstream the turbine

meter needs to be installed to allow homogenisation of the
flow pattern
Significant bearing wear is another drawback of turbine flow

meters.
15 out of 18 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging
between 20% and 74 %, with an average score of 54%. Part 1 diagram
should include heat exchanger of some sort, a regulating control valve on
the process fluid side (hot water or steam), temperature probe in the
product stream downstream of the heating section of the HX, and possibly
a temperature probe in the process stream upstream of the control valve.
See Revision notes 1.2.4.3 page 11 for flash pasteurization set up and
this should be blended with 3.4.1.4 - feedback vs feed forward control
beginning on page 30.
Part 2 looking for an appropriate explanation of P, PI or PID control.
Temperature signal comes from temperature sensor and may or may not
be converted before entering the temperature controller. Within the
controller, temperature difference between setpoint and measured
temperature produces an error. Controlling action is determined by the
type of control and magnitude of error. Controlling action results in a
signal that leaved the controller and most likely needs to be converted
(electric to pneumatic) before the actuator on the control valve can
respond appropriately. See Revision notes 3.4.1.2 Feedback control
beginning on page 17 and 3.4.1.5 on P, I and D control.
Part 3 depends on how the control loop in Part 2 is described. Looking
for key benefits of type of control loop. See Revision notes 3.4.1.4
Feedback vs feed forward control beginning on page 30. Open vs closed
loop control.
50
Question 2
Describe the principle of operation for the following sensors. Include in
your answers diagrams which identify the important components. (20)
Thermocouple
Platinum Resistance Temperature Detector
Turbine flow meter
Electromagnetic flow meter

Draw comparisons within each group (temperature and flow) by listing
their advantages and disadvantages. (15)
34% and 68%, with an average score of 54%.
Thermo couple
Acceptable answers should include
Tthermocouple is a temperature-measuring device consisting of two
dissimilar conductors that contact each other at one or more spots, where
a temperature differential is experienced by the different conductors (or
semiconductors).
It also produces a voltage when the temperature of one of the contact
points differs from the reference temperature of another, in a process
known as the thermoelectric effect. Thermocouples are a widely used
type of temperature sensor for measurement and control, and can also
convert a temperature gradient into electricity.
Commercial thermocouples are inexpensive interchangeable, are supplied
with standard connectors, and can measure a wide range of temperatures.
In contrast to most other methods of temperature measurement,
thermocouples are self powered and require no external form of
excitation. The main limitation with thermocouples is accuracy; system
errors of less than one degree Celsius (C) can be difficult to achieve.
Electromagnetic flow meter
Although there are numerous types of magnetic flowmeters available for
measuring liquid flow rates, all of them function according to the
fundamental principles of Faradays law, which dictates the relationship
between a moving conductor and the voltage it creates within a magnetic
field.. Issues of cost, accuracy, reliability, and ease of use are some of the
significant factors involved in choosing a flowmeter.
Advantages and Disadvantages
There are numerous benefits to using electromagnetic flowmeters to
perform fluid flow measurements. They are generally non-invasive and
have no moving parts, reducing the risk of breakdowns and the frequency
of repairs. A decrease in flowmeter pressure is also usually no greater than
that of an equivalent pipe length, reducing the piping costs. Some of the
other major advantages provided by magnetic flowmeters include:
Power usage is relatively low, with electrical power

requirements as low as 15 watts for some models.
They are mechanically obstructionless and can be equipped

with abrasion-resistant liners, making them effective for
measuring slurries and other erosive fluids.
They are capable of dealing with most kinds of acids and bases,
as well as water and water-based solutions, due to lining
materials that are both insulators and have corrosion
resistance.
Relatively small amounts of electrode metals are needed for

magnetic flowmeters.
They can measure both very low flows and very high volume
flow rates, with a minimum diameter of roughly 0.125 inches
and a maximum volume of up to 10 cubic feet.
They can usually measure multidirectional flow, either

upstream or downstream.
FUNDAMENTAL AND GENERAL CERTIFICATE

EXAMINATIONS
Fundamentals of Brewing and Packaging of Beer
General Certificate in Packaging (Beer)
FBPB Nov 2014 - May 2015
GCP Nov 2014- May 2015
The number of candidates sitting the IBDs entry level brewing and
packaging examination, the Fundamentals of Brewing and Packaging of
Beer, was 106 for the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate
of 82% compares just less favourably to the pass rate of 83% from the
same period last time. 37 credit passes and 11 demonstrates the
commitment of the candidates to studying the Learning Material.
A total of 269 candidates sat the General Certificate in Packaging (Beer)

across all formats in the period November 2014 to May 2015, up slightly
from 266 candidates for the equivalent period 2013-14. The pass rate of
56% was lower than the 67% from the equivalent period 2013-14.
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
FBPB CF
16
35
37
11
99
FBPB CASK
FBPB Total
19
38
38
11
106
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
GCP CAN
25
16
49
GCP KEG
17
GCP NRB
32
19
10
63
GCP RB
47
26
31
15
119
GCP All
10
21
119
79
54
17
269
GCP Total
Fundamentals of Distilling
FD Nov 2014- May 2015
General Certificate in Distilling
The number of candidates sitting the IBDs entry level distilling

examination, the Fundamentals of Distilling, was 50 for the period
November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 62% compares less
favourably to the pass rate of 72% from the same period last time.
A total of 172 candidates sat the General Certificate in Distilling across all
three formats in the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of
51% was slightly lower than the 54% from the equivalent period 2013-14.
GCD Nov 2014- May 2015
FD
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
19
18
10
50
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
70
65
15
150
GCD Grape
GCD Molasses
15
22
GCD Total
85
72
15
172
GCD Cereal
The Learning Material from both the FBPB and the FD qualifications can be
purchased in book form from the IBDs bookshop at
http://www.lulu.com/spotlight/IBD
General Certificate in Brewing
General Certificate in Packaging (Spirits)
GCB Nov 2014- May 2015
A total of 32 candidates sat the General Certificate in Packaging (Spirits)

across in the period November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 84%
was higher than the 79% from the equivalent period 2013-14.
560 candidates sat the General Certificate in Brewing across all formats in
the period November 2014 to May 2015, up from 493 candidates for the
equivalent period 2013-14. The pass rate of 56% was also up on 55% last
time.
GCB Mainstream
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
188
149
44
389
GCB Craft
58
91
20
171
GCB Total
246
240
64
10
560
An updated version of the General Certificate in Brewings Revision

Notes have been prepared by the GCB Examiners and is available to all
candidates.
GCP(S) Nov 2014- May 2015
GCP(S)
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
13
13
32
General Certificate in Malting

A total of 50 candidates sat the General Certificate in Malting in the period
November 2014 to May 2015. The pass rate of 64% was higher than the
53% from the equivalent period 2013-14.
GCM Nov 2014- May 2015
GCM
Fail
Pass
Credit
Distinction
Total
18
26
50
51
Successful Candidates Completion of Award

Diploma of Brewing
Diploma of Distilling
Crystal
Fraley
International
Elaine
Cassidy
UK Scottish
Stephen
Frazier
International
Rebecca
Eccles
UK Scottish
Keith
Garson
UK Scottish
Pauric
Ennis
Irish
Fiona
Gogo
Africa
Aidan
Finnegan
Irish
Aaron
Golston
International
Nickolas
Franchino
UK Southern
Adam
Goodall
UK Midland
Calum
Fraser
UK Scottish
Jocelyn
Havel
International
Jennifer
Graham
UK Scottish
Michael
Heinrich
International
John
McGhee Doyle
UK Scottish
Matthew
Hill
Africa
Sam
Slaney
Asia Pacific
Jennifer
House
International
Diane
Stuart
UK Scottish
Rodney
Hughes
International
Roselyn
Thomson
UK Scottish
Sarah
Hughes
UK Southern
Alan
Wardlaw
UK Scottish
Paul
Johns
Asia Pacific
Silas
Kaale
International
Paul
Kaposela
Africa
Zikhona
Kondze
Africa
Jason
Lappe
Asia Pacific
Rory
Main
Asia Pacific
Guylain
Mantezolo
Africa
Nadeau
Aaron
Gordon
Marc-Andre
McClure
McKenzie
International
UK Southern
UK Southern
Herman
Moloto
Africa
Agnieszka
Morgan
UK Midland
Mpelegeng
Kyle
Dominic
Moshidi
Moskovitz
Mutiso
Africa
Africa
Africa
Diploma of Packaging
Chee Hoong
Chim
Asia Pacific
Ikechukwu
Ekeleme
Africa
Piotr
Janas
UK Scottish
Tichafara
Jaya
Africa
Peter
Mushonga
Africa
Joseph
Mwaikasu
Africa
Ashley
Ndaba
Africa
Emmanuel
Onabanjo
Africa
Mthulisi
Nyoni
Africa
Patrick
Ongom
Africa
Minh
Peart-Tang
Asia Pacific
Sreenath
S.R.
Asia Pacific
Zibusiso
Siziba
Africa
Ronald
Timbigamba
Africa
Nicolas
Muzzin
International
Tapiwa
Mwazha
Africa
Robert
Obree
Africa
Nicholas
O'Donnell
Asia Pacific
Matthew
Ojo
Irish
Miles
Chesterman
UK Southern
Gabriel
Olatoye
Africa
Lisa Marie
Marlow
Irish
Rabinarayan
Pradhan
Asia Pacific
Wade Paul
McCann
Africa
Chen Liang
Qian
Asia Pacific
Patrick
McGinty
UK Midland
Andre
Raposo Dos Santos Silva
International
Richard
Moxom
Irish
Winston
Reddy
Africa
Luis
Ortega
Irish
Aleksandr
Sanin
International
Genevieve
Upton
UK Midland
Diana
Santana
International
Chris
Willcock
Asia Pacific
Anil Kumar
Sharma
Asia Pacific
Tshifhiwa
Sidogi
Africa
Brett
Sinclair
Asia Pacific
Darren
Tan
Asia Pacific
Samuel
Tourle
Asia Pacific
Bruce
Turner
UK Southern
Michael
Wootton
UK Midland
Wenyan
Zhang
International
52
Master Brewer
The Institute of Brewing and Distilling

www.ibd.org.uk
53

2015 Examiners Report

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Qualifications

The Master Brewer, Diploma, General Certificate and Fundamental

Board of Examiners and Examination Centres

Master Brewer Report

Diploma in Beverage Packaging

Fundamental and General Certificate Examinations

List of Successful Candidates

Institute of Brewing and Distilling

BOARD OF EXAMINERS AND EXAMINATIONS CENTRES 2015

Chair of the IBD Board of Examiners David Quain

THE EXAM CENTRES

Alger - SARL Tango Heineken

Douala - Guinness Cameroun SA

Abbotsford - Carlton United Breweries

Calgary AB - University of Calgary

Kinshasa - Bralima (Heineken)

St Michael - Ministry of Education

Brussels - Boston University

Plzen - Plzensky Prazdroj (SABMiller)

Copenhagen - Scandinavian School of Brewing

Bujumbura - Brarudi (Heineken)

Roseau - University of West Indies

Examiners Report 2015

Alexandria - British Council

Banbury - Hook Norton Brewery

Ibadan - Nigerian Breweries

Papua New Guinea

Ports Moresby - Vitis Industries Li.

Saint-Denis - Brasseries de Bourbon (Heineken)

Brasov - Ursus Breweries

Aberfeldy - John Dewar & Sons

Mahe - Ministry of Education

Cape Town SABMiller

Lautoka - Paradise Beverages Ltd

Paris - American University of Paris

Accra - Accra Brewery Ltd (SABMiller)

Colombo - British Council

Thessaloniki - British Council

Vieux Fort - Heineken

St Peter Port - RW Randall Ltd

Kingstown - St Vincent Brewery

Budapest - Dreher Breweries

Juba - Southern Sudan Beverages Ltd (SABMiller)

Akureyri - University of Akureyri

Matsapha-Swaziland Beverages (SABMiller)

Aurangabad - SABMiller (Central India Centre)

Lillkyrka - Grythyttan Whisky

Tangerang - PT Multi Bintang

Dittingen - Novozymes Switzerland AG

Clonmel - William Grant & Sons

Dar Es Salaam - University of Dar Es Salaam

Bangkok - Thai Asia Pacific Brewery Co. Ltd

Champs Fleurs - Caribbean Development Co.

Dubai - African & Eastern BVI Ltd

Jinja - Nile Breweries Ltd (SABMiller)

Milan - British Council

Tokyo - Temple University Japan Campus

Nairobi -British Council

Maseru - Lesotho Brewing Company

Kuala Lumpur - British Council

Maputo - Cervejas de Mozambique SA

Bushmills - Old Bushmills Distillery

Institute of Brewing and Distilling

Binh Duong - SABMiller