EXERCISE-4 ..............................................................................................

50
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE .............................................................................. 3

EXERCISE-5 .............................................................................................. 51

SIMPLE EQUATIONS .................................................................................... 3

EXERCISE-6 .............................................................................................. 51

RATIO, PROPORTION - VARIATION ............................................................. 4

EXERCISE-7 .............................................................................................. 52

PERCENTAGES - PROFIT & LOSS - PARTNERSHIPS .................................... 6

EXERCISE-8 .............................................................................................. 53

NUMBERS .................................................................................................... 9

EXERCISE-9 .............................................................................................. 54

GEOMETRY AND MENSURATION ............................................................... 14

EXERCISE-10 ............................................................................................ 55

TIME AND DISTANCE ................................................................................ 21

EXERCISE-11 ............................................................................................ 56

TIME AND WORK ....................................................................................... 24

EXERCISE-12 ............................................................................................ 58

AVERAGES - MIXTURES - ALLIGALIONS.................................................... 25

EXERCISE-13 ............................................................................................ 59

SIMPLE INTEREST- COMPOUND INTEREST .............................................. 27

EXERCISE-14 ............................................................................................ 61

INDICES - SURDS....................................................................................... 28

EXERCISE-15 ............................................................................................ 62

LOGARITHMS ............................................................................................ 29

DATA INTERPRETATION ............................................................................... 63

QUADRATIC EQUATION ............................................................................. 30

TABLES ..................................................................................................... 64

INEQUALITIES AND MODULUS .................................................................. 31

BAR CHARTS............................................................................................. 64

SPECIAL EQUATION .................................................................................. 33

PIE CHARTS .............................................................................................. 65

PROGRESSIONS......................................................................................... 34

LINE GRAPHS ............................................................................................ 66

PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATION ........................................................ 36

STACKED BARS AND THREE DIMENSIONAL GRAPHS ............................... 67

PROBABILITY ............................................................................................ 37

DOUBLE PIE CHARTS ................................................................................ 67

STATISTICS ............................................................................................... 38

MISCELLANEOUS ...................................................................................... 68

NUMBER SYSTEMS .................................................................................... 39

REASONING APTITUDE ................................................................................. 68

TRIGONOMETRY ....................................................................................... 41

NUMBER AND LETTER SERIOUS ............................................................... 68

COORDINATE GEOMETRY ......................................................................... 43

NUMBERS AND LETTEER ANALOGIES ...................................................... 74

FUNCTIONS AND GRAPHS ......................................................................... 44

CODING AND DECODING ........................................................................... 80

OPERATOR BASED QUESTIONS ................................................................ 45

ODD MAN OUT .......................................................................................... 84

DATA SUFFICIENCY ...................................................................................... 47

VENN DIAGRAMS ...................................................................................... 89

EXERCISE-1 .............................................................................................. 47

CLOCKS .................................................................................................... 96

EXERCISE-2 .............................................................................................. 48

CALENDARS .............................................................................................. 98

EXERCISE-3 .............................................................................................. 49

SYMBOLS AND NOTATIONS ..................................................................... 100

DIRECTION SENSE .................................................................................. 105

WORD SUBSTITUTES .............................................................................. 134

BLOOD RELATIONS ................................................................................. 111

SENTENCE COMPLETION ........................................................................ 135

ANALYTICAL PUZZLES............................................................................. 114

MISSING PART ........................................................................................ 135

VERBAL APTITUDE ..................................................................................... 119

SPOTTING ERRORS ................................................................................. 136

SYNONYM ................................................................................................ 119

THEME DETECTION ................................................................................ 136

DISEASE HUMAN BODY ........................................................................ 120

WORDS USAGE ........................................................................................ 137

FOREIGN EXPRESSION ........................................................................... 120

PARAGRAPH FORMATION ....................................................................... 137

WORD MATCHING ................................................................................... 120

SENTENCE FORMATION.......................................................................... 138

ONE WORD SUBSTITUTES ....................................................................... 120

MATCHING DEFINITIONS ........................................................................ 139

ANTONYM ................................................................................................ 121

READING COMPREHENSION ....................................................................... 139

PAIR OF ANTONYM .................................................................................. 121

EXERCISE-1 ............................................................................................ 139

IDIOMS .................................................................................................... 121

EXERCISE-2 ............................................................................................ 140

SELECTING WORDS ................................................................................. 122

EXERCISE-3 ............................................................................................ 140

SENTENCE IDENTIFICATION ................................................................... 123

EXERCISE-4 ............................................................................................ 140

SENTENCE CORRECTION ........................................................................ 124

EXERCISE-5 ............................................................................................ 140

JUMBLE WORDS ...................................................................................... 125

SPOTTING ERRORS ................................................................................. 125
ORDERING OF SENTENCES ..................................................................... 126
SENTENCE SELECTION ........................................................................... 128
SENTENCE ANALOGIES ........................................................................... 128
MATCHING DEFINITIONS ........................................................................ 128
ODD SENTENCE OUT ............................................................................... 128
VERBAL ANALOGIES ............................................................................... 129
CLASSIFICATION ..................................................................................... 130
VERBAL REASONING ............................................................................... 131
PHRASES ................................................................................................. 131
MATCHING DEFINITION .......................................................................... 131
CLOSET TEST .......................................................................................... 132
ANALYZING ARGUMENTS ........................................................................ 133

5.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
SIMPLE EQUATIONS

1.

2.

3.

4.

=>

3x =12
x =8
The number is 8.

Let the present age of Bhargav be b.

Let the present age of Anurag be a.
From the data,
(a - 3) = 3(b - 3)
2b a =6 ->(1)
(a + 2) = 2 (b + 2)
=> a 2b = 2 ->(2),
By solving, b = 8
Substituting b = 8 in (1) => a = 18
The present age of Anurag is 18 years.
Let the age of Gouthan be m and that of Girija be n.
From the data,
M = 4n -> (1)
(m + 4) = 3(n + 4) -> (2)
Substituting (1) in (2)
4n +4 =3n + 12
n=8
m =4n = 4 * 8 =32
The age of Goutham is 32 years.

= 9 => R = 18

Rajanis age is 18 years.

Let the number be x.

2x = + 12

Let Ranjanis age be P years

From the data,
R = 9+

6.

Choice (3)

Let the cost of each Samosa and Puff be Rs.S and Rs.P respectively.
From the data,
S + 2P = 14 -> (1)
3S + P =17 -> (2)
2x (1) + (2) => 2S + 4P = 28
3S + P = 17
--------------5S + 5P = 17
The cost of 5 Samosa and 5 Puffs is Rs.45

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

7.

Let the two digit number be 10x + y. When its digits are reversed it becomes 10y + x
The difference is ( 10x + y) (10y + x)
= 9x 9y =9(x y)
Given that the two digits differ by 4, (x - y) = 4
The difference = 9(x - y) = 9 * 4 = 36
Choice (3)

8.

Let the three digit number be 100x + 10y + z.

When the digits are reversed it becomes 100z + 1oy + x.
The difference is (100x + 10y + z) (100z + 1oy + x)
= 99x 99z= 99(x - z)
The difference is always divisible by 99, irrespective of values of x, y and z.

Choice (4)

Let the three digit number be 100a + 10b + c

The difference is (100a +10b + c) (100c + 10c + a)
=99a 99c = 99(a c)
Given that the first and the last digit of the number differ by 3 a - c = 3
The difference = 99 (a c) = 99 * 3 = 297

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

9.

Choice (4)

Let the cost of each pencil and each pen be Rs.x and Rs.y respectively. From the data,
2x + 3y = 8 -> (1)
3x + 2y = 7 -> (2)
Adding (1) and (2) , we get 5x + 5y = 15
The cost of 5 pencils and 5 pens is Rs.15
Note that in some cases it is not necessary to solve individually for x and y.
Choice (1)

10. Let the number be divided into x and y.

From the data,
X2 y2 = 48 (x - y)
(x + y) (x - y) = 48 (x y) => x + y = 48
The number = x + y = 48
Note for the Questions 11, 12, 13 and 14.

Choice (4)

Suppose there are two linear equations in two variables, a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0

And a2x + b2y + c2 = 0, where a1, b1, c1, a2, b2, c2 are the coefficients of x and y.
(i)
The set of equations has a unique solution when

2 * (2) => 6x + 18y = 36 -> (4)

Equations (3) and (4) are same i.e. infinite solutions are possible
14. 4x + 5y = 22 -> (1)
3x + 4y = 17 -> (2)
(1) (2) =>
x + y = 5 -> (3)
3x + 4y = 17 --- (2)
3x + 3y = 15 --- (1) * 3
--------------------y=2
Substituting y = 2, in (3) we get . x + 2 = 5 => x=3
There is only one solution possible

(ii)

The set of equations has infinite solutions, when

(iii)

The set of equations has no solutions, when

=
=

11. Let the cost of each sharpener and eraser be S and E respectively.
From the data,
3S + 4E = 25 -> (1)
4S + 3E = 24 -> (2)
(1) + (2) =>
7S + 7E = 49
7(S + E) = 49 => S + E = 7 -> (3)
(1) (3) * (3) =>
3S + 4E = 25
3S + 3E = 21
----------------E=4
Substituting E = 4, in (3) we get
3 + 4 = 7 => S= Rs.3
The cost of each sharpener Rs.3 and that of each eraser is Rs.4
12. 2x + 4y = 8 ->(1)
3x + 6y = 8 ->(2)
Multiplying the equation (1) with 3
6x + 12y = 24 ->(3)
Multiplying the equation (2) with 2
6x + 12y = 20 ->(4)
From (3) & (4), we find that, the two equation are inconsistent.
There is no solution for the set of equations i.e. Zero solution.
13. 2x + 6y = 12 -> (1)
3x + 9y = 18 -> (2)
3 * (1) => 6x + 18y = 36 -> (3)

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

15. Let the cost of each chocolate, cake and milk shake be Rs.a, Rs.b and Rs.c respectively.
From the data,
2a + 4b + 3c = 17 -> (1)
a + 2b = 4 -> (2)
The corresponding coefficients of a and b in both the equations are in the same ratio
i.e., We can find the value of c
(1) 2 * (2) =>
2a + 4b + 3c = 17
2a + 4b
=8
-----------------------3c = 9
C=3
The cost of each milk shake is Rs.3.
Choice (3)

RATIO, PROPORTION - VARIATION

1.

Choice (1)

Let the number of chocolates Rita got be 3x

The number of chocolates that Sita got be 2x
Total number of chocolates is 2x + 3x = 5x
But total number of chocolates is 25
i.e. 5x = 25
=> x = 5
The number of chocolates, that Rita got is 3x = 3 x 5 = 15

Choice (2)

2.

3.

4.

a:b=2:7
2a : 3b = 2 x 2 : 7 x 3 = 4 : 21

Choice (1)

x: y = 3: 7 --- (1)
y : 3 = 7 : 4 --- (2)
from (1) and (2) we have
x : y : z = 3 : 7 : 4, since y = 7 in both the ratios.
i.e. x : z=3 : 4

Choice (4)

Let the numbers be x and y. From the data.

=
7x = 3y --- (1)
x + y = 20 --- (2)
(1) + 3 x (2)
7x
= 3y
3x + 3y = 60
------------------------1 0x + 3y =3y + 60
10x = 60
x = 6; y = 20 - 6 = 14.
i.e. The smaller number is 6.

5.

6.

7.

a : b=7 : 4
By applying component and dividend we get
(a + b): (a - b) = (7 + 4) : (7 - 4) = 11 : 3
p: q=4:1
p = a + b, q = a - b
(a + b) : (a - b) = 4 : 1
By applying component and dividend
We get (a + b) + (a - b) : (a + b) - (a - b) = (4+1) : (4 - 1)
2a : 2b = 5 : 1
a:b=5:3

8.

Let the marks obtained in maths, physics and chemistry be 2x, 3x and 4x respectively.
i.e. Total marks = 2x + 3x +4x = 9x = 189
x = 21
i.e. The marks obtained in maths is 2x = 2 x 21 = 42
Choice (2)

9.

Let the number of working days and the salary be x and y respectively.
yx
y = kx.
25 = k * 10,000
10,000 = k.25
k = 400
If x = 26,
y = x * k = 26 * 400 = RS.1 0,400

Choice (4)

10. x

Choice (4)

Choice (1)

xy = k
9 * 30 = k
If x = 6, y =

= 45

11. A B. C
A = k . BC
300 = k (20) (50)
K=
When A = 900, c = 60
900 = * B * 60
B = 50

Choice (3)

Let the number of male employees be 8x and the number of female employees be 7x
Total number of employees = 8x + 7x = 15x = 30
x=2
i.e. Number of male employees is 16 and that of female employees is 14.
If two female employees are recruited then the total number of female employees will be
14 + 2 = 16 which is equal to that of male employees.
Then the ratio becomes 16 : 16 i.e. 1: 1
Choice (2)

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

12. P (Q + R)

P = K (Q + R)
If Q increased by 2 and R inversed by 2, then P increased by4k [ i.e. P = k(Q + R + 4)].
Since k is not known, 4k cannot be found.
Choice (4)
13. x

xyz = k
when x = 5, y = 7 and z = 8
k=5*7*8
when y = 4 and z = 10
x * 4 * 10 = 5 * 7 * 8
x=7

Choice (4)

14. Let the salaries of A and B is RS.2x and RS.3x respectively.

Let the expenditure of A and B is Rs.3y and Rs4y respectively.
Ratio of Savings = (2x - 3y) : (3x - 4y)
For different values of x and y we get different ratios for savings.
We cannot find unique answer.
15. Triplicate ratio of a : b means a3 : b3
a3 : b3 = 8 : 27 = (2)3 : (3)3
a:b=2:3
16. Sub-duplicate ratio of a : b means
:
= 2 : 3 a:b = 4 : 9
a2 : b2= 16 : 81

PERCENTAGES - PROFIT & LOSS PARTNERSHIPS

Choice (5)
1.

Let 100 be the price of the product, if it is increased by 10%; the price will become 110.If
this price is decreased by 10%, then the final price will be 99.A decrease of 1%. Any price
when first increased and then decreased by x%, then the Change is (x/10)2 % decrease.
(x/10)2 % = (10/10)2 = 1 % decrease.
Choice (2)

2.

Any price if first decreased and then increased by x% then the change is (x/10)2 % decrease.
Let Rs.100 be the price of the product, if it decreased by 10%, the price will become Rs.90.
If this price is increased by 10% than the final price will be RS.99.
The change is 1 % decrease
(x/10)2 % = (10/10)2 = 1 % decrease.
Choice (2)

3.

Let the original price be Rs.100. Price after increase = Rs.135. When the price after
increase is Rs.54, original price =
x 100 = Rs.40

Choice (3)
:

duplicate ration of a : b means a2 : b2

Choice (4)

17. a = 50% of b =

b = 25% of c =

c = 4b

a : c = : 4b = 1 : 8
18. Let the present ages of the two persons be 3x years and 5x years
From the data,
(3x + 5) : (5x + 5) = 2 : 3
9x + 15 = 1 Ox + 1 0

x=5
The present age of the younger person is 3x = 3 x 5 = 15 years.
19. Let the weights of Arun and Bala be 4x kg and 5x kg respectively.
4x + 5x = 45

x=5
Weight of Bala = 5x or 25 kg
20. x = A

Choice (4)

Alternately the price of the product after being increased by 35% will become to 1.35 times
the original price. The original price =
= Rs.40
Choice (3)
4.

Let the salary of each person be Rs.x The total salary = Rs.2x. Total salary after the changes
in the salaries of the two persons = x (1 +0.1)+ x (1 -0.1) = Rs.2x
There is no change in the total Salary.
Choice (3)

5.

If the price of a product is decreased by 10%. Then it becomes 0.9 times the original price
The original price = =Rs.80
Choice (4)

6.

Let the price of the product B be Rs.100. The price of the product 'A will be Rs.200. Total
price of A and B = 100 + 200 = Rs.300. The price of A after 10% Increase = 200(1.1) =
Rs.220
The price of B after 25% Increase = 100(1.25) = Rs.125
Total price = 220 + 125 = Rs.345

Choice (1)

Choice (4)

wnere A is constant.
A=

=1

The percentage increase =

i.e. x =
when y = 216, x = 6
Alternative solution:
=

x 100 = 15%
7.

--- (1)

If x1 = 2, y1 = 8 and y2 = 216, x2 can be found to be 6.

100

Choice (1)

Let the price of fan Q be Rs.100, the price of fan P be Rs.300.

Total price of P and Q = 100 + 300 = Rs.400
The price of P after 10% increase = 300 x (1.1) = Rs.330

Choice (1)

The price of Q after 30% decrease = 100 x (0.7) = RS.70

Total price = 330 + 70 = Rs.400
No change in the total price.
8.

Let the original price be Rs.100

The price after 25% increase = (1.25)
The required percentage decrease

9.

salary.
Choice (3)

100 = Rs.125
100 = 20%

Let the number of children in the previous year be x.

The number of children in the current year is 4x.
Percentage increase in the number of children

Choice (2)

= 300%

Choice (4)

10. Let the total marks of Suresh be 100.

Total marks of Pradeep = (1.1) x 100 = 110
The question is to compare the total marks of Suresh with that of Pradeep.
Suresh has got 10 marks less than that of Pradeep.
Suresh got

Choice (3)

11. Profit = selling price - cost price = 104 - 80 = Rs.24

percentage of profit =

100

x 100 = 30%

Choice (3)

12. Selling price = Cost price + Profit = 240 + 30 = RS.270

This selling price is (100 - 10)% of the marked price (M.P)
[10% is the discount on marked price]
M.P=
The market price =
=

100

= Rs.300

14. Given that shop keeper incurred a loss of 10% after selling the item at Rs.36
90% of the cost price of the item = 36
The cost price of the item = x 100 = Rs.40
30% profit = 40

= Rs.12

To gain 30%, the shopkeeper should sell the item at

Rs.40 + Rs.12 = Rs.52.

Choice (2)

15. Let the selling price of the product be Rs.100

The cost price of the product = Rs.80
Profit=100-80 = Rs.20
Percentage profit = 100 = 25%
Unless otherwise specified profit percentage is always calculated on the cost price.
Choice (3)

% less than that of Pradeep

i.e., 9 % less.

Choice (4)

16. Let the cost price of each product be RS.1 00

The selling price of the first product
= 1.16 100 = Rs.116
The selling price of the second product
= 0.92 100 = Rs.92
Total selling price = 116 + 92 = RS.208
Overall profit = 208 - 200 = Rs.8
Percentage of profit =
x 100 = 4%

Choice (1)

17. Total money invested = 15000 + 20000 = Rs.35,000

B Invested RS.20000.
=> B invested

100

i.e., th of the total investment

Choice (4)

Bs share =
=

13. Let the total salary of first 30 employees before hike be Rs. X
The total salary of these 30 employees after 20% increase will be x (1.1) = 1.1x
Let the total salary of remaining 20 employees before like be Rs.y
The total salary of these 20 employees after 20% increase will be y (1.2) = 1.2 y
Total percentage change in the salary = p%
=
100
As p depends on the values of x and y we cannot find the percentage increase in the total

th of the total profit

8400 = Rs.4800

18. Total cost of 60 items = 60 x 10 = RS.600

In order to get a profit of RS.5 per unit the total profit
Should be 60 x 5 = Rs.300
Profit on 20 unit by selling 'at RS.12 each
= (12 -10) x 20 = Rs.40
The profit that is to be obtained on remaining 40 items = 300 - 40 = RS.260

Choice (2)

Profit per Item =

= Rs.6.50

Selling price of each item = 10 + 6.50 = RS.16.50

Choice (3)

19. Profit on 3 pieces = Cost price of 2 pieces.

(Selling price - Cost price) of 3 pieces
= Cost price of 2 pieces.
=> selling price of 3 pieces = cost price of 5 pieces
=> S.P. of 1 piece = C.P. of pieces
= C.P. of (1 + ) pieces.
(S.P. - C.P) of one piece C.P of pieces.

24. Cost price for the company is Rs.60

Selling price for the company is RS.70
Profit = 70 - 60 = RS.10
Percentage of profit
100 = 16 %

Choice (1)

25. Cost price tor the company is Rs.60

Selling price for the company is RS.70
Profit for the company = 70 - 10 = RS.1 0
Similarly, Profit for the dealer = 85 - 70 = Rs.15 and
Profit for the shopkeeper = 102 - 85 = RS.17
The shopkeeper got highest profit.

Choice (3)

By selling one piece 1 the profit made is equal to of the cost price.
Profit percentage =

100 = 66 %

20. The increase in percentage points = 40% - 30% = 10 percentage points.

Choice (1)
Choice (2)

21. Let the total income of the family before Karan's increment be Rs.100 Karan's income is
Rs.30
Karan's income after increment is 30 x (1 + ) = Rs.35
Total income of the family = 100 - 30 + 35 = RS.105
Karan's contribution =
1 00 = 33 %

Choice (1)

22. Let the total income of the family be RS.100

=> The savings = Rs.30
The expenditure = 100 - 30 = RS.70
Given that expenditure on Children education is increased by 10% of the total income i.e.,
RS.10 and the new expenditure on children education = Rs.40 Since the savings is constant,
savings as a percentage of expenditure towards education = 100 = 75%
Choice (2)
23. Let the total income of the family be RS.100 initially
Total expenditure = Rs.60 initially
Total savings = 100 - 60 = Rs. 40 initially
Income of Ramu = Rs. 40 initially
Income of Ramu after the increment
= 40

26. The cost price of the product is Rs.60

The price after increasing it by 25%
= 1.25 x 60 = Rs75
The price after increased by 33 %
= (1 +

) 75 = 75=RS.100

The selling price = RS.100

Choice (1)

27. Anil and Nikhil invest same amount of money for the different time periods. .. The profits
are shared in the ratio of respective time periods.
The ratio is 8:12 i.e., 2 : 3
Anil's share is
i.e., of the total profit
Which is 1,000 = Rs.400.

Choice (2)

28. Rajath invested RS.10,000 for eight months and Manoj invested RS.6,000 for six months.
The ratio of profit that is to be shared
10,000 8: 6,000 12 = 10: 9
Manoj's Share is
of the total profit
i.e.,

5,700 = RS.2,700

29. Annual income is' equal to the interest accrued/dividend

paid = 20000
= RS.1000

Choice (2)

Choice (1)

Rs.60

New total savings = RS.60

New total income = RS.120
New total savings =
100 = 50% of the total

Choice (2)

30. 4.5% premium means the market value is Rs.104.5,

Whereas the face value is RS.100
The number of units of this stock purchased
=
= 100
Because the money invested in 6% stock, every stock of face value of RS.100 gives an

income of RS.6 at the end of the year.

100 units will give 100 6 = Rs.600

The cost of others is increased by 10%

Alternately, when the cost of each of the raw materials A, B and C as well as the total cost is
increase
10%, the cost of others also increases by 10%. There no need to calculate in this case.
Choice (3)

Choice (2)

31. 2.5% discount means the market value is Rs.97.50

Whereas the face value is Rs.100
The number of units of this stock purchased
=
= 200
Because the money invested in 7% stock, every stock of face value of RS.100 gives an
income of Rs.7 at the end of the year.
200 units will give 200 7 = RS.1400.
Choice (3)

NUMBERS
1.

38= (34)2= 812= 6561

Choice (3)

2.

216 = (28)2 = (256)2 = 65536

Choice (2)

3.

The tens digit of a perfect square ending with 6 is always odd. So, a perfect square can never
end with 46.
Choice (2)

4.

If a perfect square ends with 5, the tens digit is always 2.

Choice (2)

5.

4356 is a perfect square whereas 4256 is not.

Choice (3)

Because, the money invested in 6% stock, every stock of face value of RS.1 00 gives an
Income of RS.6 end of the year.
200 units will give 200 6 = RS.1200.

6.

It is useful for the students to remember the perfect squares up to 502. None of 136, 236,
336, 436, 536. 636. 736, 836 and 936 is a perfect square.
Choice (2)

Yield percent =

7.

In 169. 529 and 729 A is odd while in 289, A is even.

8.

The three-digit perfect squares of the form A6B are 169, 361 and 961. So, whatever be the
number. A is always odd.
Choice (1)

Income of Ajay at the end of the year = 30 8

= Rs.240
Number of units that Sujan purchased

9.

There is only one three-digit square of the form X9Y and that is 196.
Hence, X + Y = 1 + 6 = 7

10. The product of an m-digit and an n-digit number will have either (m + n - 1) or (m + n)
digits.
So, the given product has either 14 or 15 digits.
Choice (3)

32. Number of units of stock purchased

=
= 200
Profit on one share = RS.1 07 - RS.92 = RS.15
Profit on 200 shares = 200 15 = Rs. 3,000

Choice (3)

33. 13% discount means the market value RS.87 where as the face value is RS.100
The number of units of this stock purchased
=

= 200

100 ~ 6.9% ~7%

Choice (1)

34. Number of units that Ajay purchased

=

= 30

= 40

Income of Sujan at the end of the year

= 40 5 = RS.200
Ajay will get more income than Sujan.
35. Let the total cost price of the product be RS.1 00
Other costs = 100 - (10 + 15 + 15) = Rs.60
Increased cost of material A, Band C together
= (10 + 15 + 15) 1.1 = Rs.44
The new total cost = 100 1.1= RS.110
The new cost of others = 110 - 44 = RS.66 which 10% more than RS.60

Choice (3)

Choice (1)

Choice (2)
11. The product of m-digit. n-digit and p-digit numbers will have either (m + n + p - 2),
(m + n + p - 1) or (m + n + p) digits. So. the given product has 25 or 26 or 27 digits.
Choice (4)
12. The least 15-digit number is 1 x 1014 and its square-root is 1 x 107, an eight-digit number.
The largest 15-digit number is (1 x 1015 - 1) whose square root is less that
x 101 =: 3.-3 x
101, which is also an eight- digit number. Note that while the square of an eight-digit

number has either 15 or 16 digits, the square root of a 15-digit number has exactly 8 digits.
Choice (2)
13. 2000 < (2ABC) < 3000
=> (2000)4 < (2ABC)4 < (3000)4
(16)(1012) < (2ABC)4 < (81)(1012)
both (16)(1012) and (81)(1012) have 14 digits. Hence, (2ABC)4 also has 14-digits.

Choice (2)

14. The smallest and the largest 23-digit numbers are [1 x 1022] and [1 x 1023 - 1] respectively.
Their cube roots are [310 107] and [3100 107] (approximately). In either case, the cube
root of a 23- digit number has exactly 8 digits. Note that, though the cube of an eight-digit
number has 22 or 23 or 24 digits, the square root of a 23-digit number exactly has eight
digits.
Choice (2)
Note: In general nth root of a M-digit number will
is not an integer, where

digits if

is an integer OR

+1 if

16. The product of any number of even numbers is even.

Choice (1)

17. A composite number may be even (like 4, 6..........) or odd (like 9, 15). Since we do not
know how many of them are even and how many are odd, we cannot say whether the sum
is even or odd.
Choice (3)
18. For the same reason as mentioned above, we cannot say whether the product of odd
number of composite numbers is even or odd.
Choice (3)
19. 2 is the only even prime number. Since we do not know whether 2 is included or not we
cannot say whether the required product is even or odd.
Choice (3)
20. Except 2 all other primes are odd. If all the primes are odd. then their sum would of also be
odd. But since the sum is given as even, hence 2 have to be one of them.
Choice (1)
21. 17017=17000+17=17(1001)
= 17(7)(11)(13) = (71)(111)(131)(171)
The number of prime factors of 17017 is 4.

Choice (4)

22.

Choice (1)

24. 0.

Choice (2)
=

25. 391 = 400 - 9 = 202-32 = (23)(17) not a prime

899 = 302 -12 = (29)(31) not a prime
621 is a multiple of 9, not a prime
199 is a prime. (It is not divisible by 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 and 13)
26. Twin primes are the prime numbers which differ by 2
161 = (7)(23)
So, 161 is not a prime.
Hence (161,163) are not twin primes.
Note: Students must be in a position to identify primes less than 200.

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

Choice (4)

is the greatest integer less than .

15. Sum of two odd numbers is even. The even number (say 2k) of odd numbers can be written
as k such sums. So, it turns out to be sum of k even numbers, which is even.
Choice (1)

=0. =

23. 0

27. A number is a multiple of 11, if and only if the difference of the sum of the digits in the
even positions and that in the odd positions is a multiple of 11.
Only for 123321, this is true.
Choice (3)
28. If a number is divisible by 9, the sum of the digits is also a multiple of 9.
Sum of the digits = 28 + A = 36
=>A = 8

Choice (2)

29. Since the number 975321A is a multiple of 9, sum of the digits (27 + A) is also a multiple of
9.
=> 27 + A = 27 or 36 =>A = 0 or 9
Choice (4)
30. A number is divisible by 2n or 5n if the number formed by the last n digits, taken in that
order (from left to right), is divisible by 2 n or 5n respectively.
So, the number is divisible by 32, if F8768 is divisible by 32.
Since we do not know F, we cannot say.
Choice (3)
31. Applying the divisibility rule mentioned in the previous solution, we need to know if 9125
is divisible by 625. It is not divisible.
Choice (2)
32. Let N be the number and S be the sum of its digits.
N=9m+r
S = 9n + r
N - S = 9 (m - n), a multiple of 9.
Note: A number N and the sum of its digits S have the same 9's remainder.

Choice (2)

33. LCM (A,B) x HCF (A,B) = A x B

Given LCM = 144 HCF = 2
A= 16
=>B =

= 18

34. If LCM (A, B, C) = ABC, then every pair of A, Band C are co-prime.
Hence, HCF (A, B) = 1
35. Given HCF (A, B, C) = 1
Let (A, B, C) = (4, 6, 9)
HCF (4, 6, 9) = 1
But LCM (4, 6, 9) = 36
4x6x9
Let (A, B, C) = (3, 5, 7)
LCM (3, 5, 7) = 105 = (3)(5)(7)
36. (36)(63) = (23)(39)
The number of factors of the given number
= (3+1) (9+1) = 40

42. (56) (75) is not perfect square.

The number of ways of writing (56) (75) as a product of two numbers =
Choice (1)

Choice (2)

Choice (1)

43. If a number has n distinct prime factors, it can be written as a product of co-primes in 2n-1,
ways. The given number has two prime factors. So, it can be written as a product of coprimes in 22 -1= 2 ways.
Choice (2)
44. The given number has 4 distinct prime factors. Hence it can be written as a product of coprimes in 24 -1, i.e., 8 ways.
Choice (1)
45. The sum of the factors of (23)(34)

= (13+1)(17+18) = 252

Choice (2)

38. A number N = aPbq

where a, b are distinct primes is a perfect cube if p, q are multiples of 3.
If (p + 1) (q + 1) is odd we can only say that both p and q are even but not whether p and q
are multiples of 3.
Choice (3)

40. 112=121
1112 = 12321
11112 = 1234321
111112 = 123454321
1111112 = 12345654321

47. Sum of the factors of a perfect number is twice the number. Hence K=2

Choice (3)
Choice (3)

48. If a , b, c, ..Are the prime factors of N, then the number of numbers less than N that are
co-prime to N, is
.

21

Choice (2)

49. N = (2 A+2C)(3b)

Choice (2)
Choice (3)
50.
Choice (1)
Choice (4)
51. 36=22*32

41. (2 )(3 ) is a perfect square

The number of ways of writing it as a product of two distinct factors
4

Choice (2)

46. 221=(13)(17)
Sum of the factors of 221

37. A number N is expressed as a product of the powers of its prime factors. If it is a perfect
square, the exponents of all the prime powers must be even.
(37) (511) [(3) (5)]5= (312) (516)
Hence, the number is a perfect square.
Choice (1)

39. A perfect square will always have an odd number of factors.

=1815

Choice(3)

Choice (1)

The sum of the co-primes of N less than N=

Choice (4)
52. (9989)(10011)=100002-112
=100000000-121 = 99999879

Choice (2)

= a2+

a2+

Choice (3)

Rem

Choice (3)

= Rem

= Rem
54. a- = 2
=>

=a+bc

63. Given that N = 36k + 23

53. a+ =3
=>

62. a3 + b3 - c3 + 3abc
= a3 + b3 + (-c)3 - 3ab (-c)
= (a + b - c) (a2 + b2 + c2 - ab + bc + ca)

= a2+

a2+

55. x4+x2+1
= (x4+2x2+1)-x2=(x2+1)2-x2
= (x2-x+1)(x2+x+1)

Choice (2)

58. 272n 112n=729n-121n

= (729-121)k = 608k
Note: an-bn is always a multiple of (a-b)

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

59. an + bn will always be divisible by a + b if n is odd. As n, is odd, always be divisible by 17 + 7

i.e. 24. As 17n + 7n is divisible by 24, it is also divisible by factors of 24 of the options, 3 is
the only factor of 24. Hence 17n + 7n is always divisible by 3.
Choice (3)
60. If a+b+c=0
a3+b3+c3-3abc
=(a+b+c)+(a2+b2+c2-ab-bc-ca)
=> a3+b3+c3-3abc = 0
=> a3+b3+c3 = 3abc

N = 72n + 23

Rem

= 23 is

Rem

= is either 59 or 23

Choice (2)

65. Given N = 36k + 9 = 9 (4k + 1)

When N is divided by 45 (a multiple of 9),
the remainder will also be a multiple of 9.

Choice (2)

66. LCM (120,180) = 360

LCM [120, 180, 270)
= LCM [LCM (120,180), 270)
=LCM [360, 270) = 1080

Choice (4)

67. HCF (63, 84) = 21

HCF [63, 84, 154]
= HCF [HCF (63, 84), 154]
= HCF [21,154) = 7

Choice (2)

68. LCM of fractions first expresses the fractions in the simplest form. They
LCM =
Choice (2)

The fractions are

=

61. a3+b3+c3 = 3abc => a+b+c=0 or

a2+b2+c2-ab-bc-ca=0
=>a+b+c = 0 or a=b=c

= 59

Let k = 2n

56. (7101+18101) is always a multiple of (7+18) i.e., 25. Note that an+bn is always a multiple of
(a+b) when n is odd.
Choice (2)
57. a+b=10 and ab=23
a3+b3=(a+b)3-3ab(a+b)
=103 3(10)(23) = 1000-690 = 310

Choice (2)

64. Given that N = 36k + 23

K is either odd or even.
Let k = 2m + 1 N = 72m + 59
Rem

Choice (2)

=5

Choice (3)

= 10

Choice (3)

69. For the LCM of fractions, first express the fractions in the simplest form.

76. Using the above logic, the highest power of 2 in 128! Is

64 + 32 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 127

HCF =
HCF
=

= HCF

77. Rem

Choice (3)

70. When finding the HCF of more than two numbers, each number must be involved in the
HCF functions at least once.
For e.g. HCF [a, b, c, d]
= HCF [HCF (a, b, c), d]
HCF [HCF (a, b, c), HCF (b, c, d) and so on
HCF [a, b, c, d] = HCF [HCF (a, b) HCF (c, d)]
Choice (1)

72. The last digit of 7n repeats in a cycle of 4.

7 1 7 , 7 2 9 , 7 3 3 , 74 1 , 75 7 , 7
7400 = 7 4 (100) 1,
The last digit of 9n repeats in a cycle of 2.
The last digit of 9" repeats in a cycle of 2.
91 9 , 9 2 1 , 9 3 9 , 9 4 1, and so on
9 300 = 9 4 (75) 1
The last digit of (7400)(9300) is 1

Choice (3)

Rem
79. Rem

= Rem

= Rem

=1

Choice (4)

= Rem
=4

= Rem

=1

Choice (1)
= Rem

= Rem

=7

Hence 8 - 7 i.e., 1 is to be added to make the sum a multiple of 8.

81. Rem

= Rem

Choice (1)

Choice (3)

= (-1)175

=-1 or 13 - 1= 12

Choice (2)

82. A number is divisible by 19 If twice the unit's digit when added to the rest of the number
results in a multiple of 19. If the result of twice the unit's digit when added to the rest of the
number is a large number, we repeat the procedure till we get a number which can readily
be identified whether it is a multiple of 19 or not carrying out this process for all the
options it can be found that only 554781 is divisible by 19.
Choice (4)

Choice (2)

=ab

75. In the first 125 natural numbers. The number of multiples of 5

multiples of 25 5 the number of multiples of 125 1
The number of 5s 31
Hence the number of zeros = 31

=4

78. 2300 = 8100

80. Rem

9, and so on

Here a = 9.77 and b = 3. 68

a - b = 9.77 - 3.68 = 6.09

= Rem

Rem
Choice (1)

73. The units digit of 137682533 is the same as the units digit of 82533
The last digit of 8n repeats in a cycle of 4.
81
, 8 2 4 , 8 3 2 , 84 6 , 85 8 , 8 6
, 8 5 2 , and so on
2533
4(k)
+
1
8 =8
8
74.

= Rem

The remainder when the given number is divided by 25

Rem

71. The same rule (as mentioned) above holds good for LCM.
Hence LCM (a, b, c, d, e)
= LCM [LCM (a, b), LCM (c, d) LCM (a, e), LCM (b, c)]

Choice (2)

Choice (1)
25 the number of

Choice (1)

83. 1 + 3 x 4 2 of 0.5
= 1 + 3 x (4 1) = 1 + 3 (4) = 13

Choice (2)

84. 5 is present in the first 30 odd numbers. All odd multiples of 5 end with 5.
Hence the product of the first 30 odd numbers ends with 5.

Choice (1)

85. Similarly the product of the first 75 even numbers ends with a 0.

Choice (3)

86. Any prime number greater than 3 is of the form

6k 1 where k is a natural number.

Choice (2)

87. The product of r consecutive natural numbers is divisible by r !.

Hence the product of six consecutive natural numbers is divisible by 6! i.e., 720 Choice (1)
88. Each even number is a multiple of 2. Hence the product of 10 even numbers is always
divisible by 210.
Choice (2)
89. Given number is (29) (38) (511).
To get a perfect square the exponents of all the prime factors must be even.
Hence it must be multiplied by (21) (51) i.e. 10

Choice (3)

91. (2 ) (3 ) (5 ) = 2 (3
) (5
)
Hence it must be divided by (32) (51) i.e., 45 to make
the resulting number a perfect cube.

Choice (4)

92. The least perfect cube greater than 399 is 83 i.e., 512.
Hence 113 must be added to 399 so that the sum is a perfect cube.

Choice (3)

3(3)

2(3)+2

Choice (1)

99. The side of the smallest square that can be formed with dimensions 3 x 2 is LCM (3, 2) i.e., 6
Hence its area is 36.
Choice (3)

90. (37) (511)

If the number of 3's and 5's are decreased by 1 each, the number becomes a perfect square.
Hence it must be divided with (31) (51) i.e., 15
Choice (2)
9

98. LCM Model 3

Given 5k + 1 = 6m + 4 ~ 5k = 6m + 3
k = 3 and m = 2,
The number is of the form n - LCM (5, 6) + 16
The least such number is 16.

100. A number divisible by 5, 6 and 8 is always divisible by LCM (5, 6, 8) i.e., 120.
The three-digit multiples of 120 are 120, 240, 360, 480, 600, 720, 840 and 960.

Choice (3)

GEOMETRY AND MENSURATION

2(3)+1

93. The largest perfect square less than 512 is 484.

Hence 512 - 484 i.e., 28 must be subtracted, so that the resulting number is a perfect square.
Choice (1)
94. 9999 = (588)(17) + 3
9996 = (588)17
The largest 4-digit number, which leaves a remainder of 7 when divided by 17
is (588 -1) 17 + 7 = 9986

1.

If two sides of a triangle are a, b and the included angle is C, then the area is given by
ab sin C= (4)(5)(sin 30)=5 sq.cm.
Choice (3)

2.

Given triangle is an isosceles triangle.

For an isosceles triangle having sides a, a, b, the area is
=2

If the in radius and semi perimeter a triangle are known, then the area of the triangle is
given by product of the in radius and semi perimeter i.e., Area=rs
Choice (4)

4.

If the three sides and the circum radius of a triangle are known, the area of the triangle is
Choice (2)

Choice (2)
5.

97. LCM Model 2

The number is of the form LCM (12,18)-7
= 36 - 7 = 29

Choice (1)

3.

three sides divided by four times the circum radius i.e., area=

95. 999 = 41 (24) + 15

984 = (41)(24)
The largest 4-digit number which when divided by 24 leaves a remainder of 18 is
984 + 18 = 1002
Choice (4)
96. The (LCM model 1) number is of the form k -LCM(
It is least when k = 0 i.e., 6

= 12 sq.cm

The area of an equilateral triangle having side a is given by

The area =

=4

sq.cm.

Choice (3)

6.

The given triangle is a right-angled triangle [

. For a right-angled triangle,
the length of the circum radius is equal to half of the hypotenuse.
The length of the circumradius = = 2.5 cm
Choice (3)

7.

The given triangle is a right-angled triangle [

the orthocenter is at the vertex, having the right angle.

7,8) + 6= 56k + 6
Choice (4)

Choice (4)

. In right-angled triangle,

16. Let D be the mid-point of BC. If in a triangle, the three sides are known, then the sum of the
twice the sum of squares of the median to the third side and the half of the third side.
(Apollonius Theorem)
i.e., AB2+ AC2=2 [AD2+ ( ) 2] = 2[AD2+BD2]

From the figure B is the orthocenter.

The required sum= BA+BB+BC = 6+0+8=14cm
8.

9.

Choice (1)

The in radius of a triangle is always, less than the half of the smallest attitude. Given the
length of the smallest attitude is 6 cm, the in radius is always less than 3 cm.
Choice(3)
In an isosceles triangle, all the four centres i.e., the centroid, the orthocentre, the
circumcentre and the in centre lie on the median to the base. The given triangle is an
isosceles triangle. [ Two sides are equal]
The area of the quadrilateral formed by the centroid, the orthocenter, the circumcentre
and the incentre is 0.
Choice (4)

10. In an equilateral triangle, the centroid and the orthocenter coincide. The orthocenter
divides each of the medians in the ratio 2:1. [ the centroid divides each of the median in
the ratio 2:1]
Choice (3)
11. In an equilateral triangle all the four centres, i.e., centroid, the orthocenter, the circumcentre
and the incentre coincide. The area of the triangle formed by the centroid, the incentre
and the circumcentre is zero.
Choice (4)
12.

The length of the each of the medians =

(12) = 6

(6) = 3

)= 2

cm.

The area of GEC= (area of ABC) = (12) =2 sq.cm.

)= 2

cm.

BD =2.4 cm.

= 90 +

=125

18. The triangle is an acute-angled triangle since 72<52+62 i.e., 49<25+36

in an acute-angled triangle, the four centers lie inside the triangle.
The circumcentre lies inside the triangle.

Choice (3)

Choice (1)

19. The triangle is an obtuse-angled triangle, since 42>22+32 i.e., 16>4+9

In an obtuse-angled triangle the circumcentre and the orthocenter lies outside the triangle
Choice (3)
20. In centre. The point of contact of three internal bisectors of a triangle is called as the in
centre, and the perpendicular distance from any of the sides to the in centre is called the in
radius.
Choice (4)
21.

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

15. Angle bisector of an angle divides the opposite side in the ratio of the other two sides.
=

BIC =90 +

Choice (3)

14. The six triangles formed by drawing three medians to a triangle are of equal area, each of
which is equal to th of the area of the original triangle.

17. In a triangle, the angle subtended by two vertices at the in centre is equal to the sum of 90
and half of the angle subtended by these vertices at the third vertex.

cm. In an equilateral triangle the length of

the circumradius is times the length of the median i.e., ( 3

i.e.,

Choice (2)

cm. In an equilateral triangle the

length of the inradius is one-third the median i.e., ( 6

13. The length of each of the medians =

42+62= 2[AD2+42]
26= AD2+ 16
AD=
cm.

Choice (4)

In a triangle a line drawn parallel to one side of a triangle divides the other two sides in the same
proportion i.e.,
=

=
= 4.5 cm

22. In a cyclic quadrilateral sum of the opposite angles is 180

i.e., A+ C=180, B+ D=180
40+ C=180
C=140
60+ R=180
=120

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

23.

The length of UV given by

=6+8=14 cm

10 +

20
Choice (3)

24.

Given that DE is parallel to BC

ADE = ABC and AED = ACB
ADE and ABC are similar.
AD=AB-BD=8-6=2 cm
=
=
BC= 12cm

Choice (3)

26. A heptagon is a polygon with 7 sides.

The number of diagonals for polygon with n sides is
given by

Here ABD and BDC are similar and are similar to ABC, i.e., the attitude drawn from the
vertex of the right angle to the hypotenuse divides the triangle into two triangles, each of which
is similar to the original triangle.
The similar triangles are BDA and CDB
=

for n=7, this is

27. Here PQR and PST are two secants

PQ (PR)=PS(PT)
PR= PQ+QR = 6+3=9 cm
6(9)=PS(12)
PS= 4.5cm

= 14.

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

28.

AD(CD)=BD2

4(9) =BD2

BD=6 cm

Choice (2)

25.

OBA=90, since radius at the point of contact is always perpendicular to the tangent.
AB2=OA2-OB2=172-82=25(9)
AB=5(3)=15 cm
Choice (1)
29.

Let AB be the chord and C be the foot of the perpendicular from O to AB.
AC2 = OA2-OC2 = 52 32=42
AC =4 cm and AB=8 cm

Choice (4)

30.

Angle in a semicircle is a right angle

BCA=
AB2=BC2+AC2
102=62+AC2
AC2 = 102-62 =16 4
AC=(4)(2)= 8 cm

Choice(2)

35. The volume of a cuboids is equal to (length) (breadth) (height) = (4)(3)(5) = 60 cm3
Choice (4)

AOB= 2 ACB, since, the angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angles
subtended by the arc at any point on the remaining part of the circle. Given AOB=80
ACB= 80) = 40
Choice (3)

36. The longest diagonal of a cuboids with dimensions l, b and h is

Choice (3)

37. The lateral surface area of a cube of side a is 4a2 i.e., 4(42) = 64 sq.cm.

Choice (4)

38. Latent surface area of cuboids =(Area of base)(height)=2 (l+b) h

Choice (1)

39. The total surface area of a cube of side a is 6a2 i.e., 6(3)2 =54 sq.cm

Choice (2)

31. The lateral surface area (LSA) of a prism is equal to the product of the perimeter of the base
and the height of the prism.
LSA=2(4+5)(6)=108 sq.cm.
Choice (1)

40. The total surface area of a cuboids=2(l+b)h+ 2lb = 2(lb+bh=hl). This area is 148cm2.
148=2(4b+6b+24)
10b=74-24 b=5cm
Choice (1)

32. Total surface area of a prism = Lateral surface area + 2(Area of base)
Lateral surface area= (4)(5)(8)=160 sq.cm.
Total surface area=160+2(5)(5)=210 sq.cm.

41. Total surface area of a sphere = 4 r2

Hemisphere is half of the sphere and its surface area= r2 + r2 =3 r2
[ r2 is due to the surface area of the base].

Choice (3)

33. Volume of a prism =(Area of the base)(Height of the prism)

=[
34.

] (62) (10) =90

cm3

Choice (3)

42. The volume of a sphere with radius r is [ ] r3

Choice (3)

Volume= [ ] (3)3 = 36 cm3

43. The volume of a cylinder is r2h, when r is the radius and h is the height.
The volume of the right circular cone is r2h

Choice (1)

The fraction of the cylinder that is not covered by the cone is

=2/3

Choice (2)

frustum and the base of the smaller cone formed after cutting the original cone have equal
radii and the smaller cone is similar to the original cone. Let the height of the cone be h.
The required ratio

44. The prism and pyramid have the same base, height and the area of the base.
Volume of pyramid= ( area of base) (height of the pyramid)
The required ratio is

=3/1=3:1

53. Let the radius of the base be R. The radius of the top of the frustum is . The top of the

Choice(4)

45. Area of a regular polygon

= (perimeter) (perpendicular distance from the centre of the polygon to any side).
In a regular hexagon, the perpendicular distance from the centre to any side=

54. Volume of the smaller cone=

)(5)=

sq.cm

Choice (3)
( )2( )

Volume of the original cone=

(the length

The required ratio

of the side)
Area = ( )(6)(5)(

=7:8

R2h
= 1:8

Choice (2)

Choice(3)
55. The height of the smaller cone =

46. Area of the parallelogram = (product of two adjacent sides) (sine of included angle)
=3(4) sin (30)=12( )= 6 sq.cm.
Choice (3)
47. Total surface area of a pyramid = Lateral surface+ Area of the base.
Lateral surface area= (perimeter of the base) (slant height)
Total surface area= 48+(4)(4)=64 sq.cm.

adius of the smaller cone= =

Let l be the slant height of the original cone
l=
The slant height of the smaller cone =

Choice (2)

49. Lateral surface area of a cone frustum = ( )(slant height) (sum of the top radius and the base
radius)= (5)(4+6)= 50 sq.cm.
Choice (1)
50. Total surface area of frustum of a pyramid = Lateral surface + sum of the surface area of top
and that of base. Lateral surface area=( )(sum of perimeters of the base and top) (Slant

= 1:4

Choice (2)

56. The slant height of the frustum =

[ The slant height of the frustum is the square root of the sum of the squares of height of
the frustum and the difference of the radii]
=

=
The ratio =

=1:2

Choice (3)

57. Let h, l, R be the height, slant height and radius of the original cone.

height)
=( )[4(3)+4(8)](6) = 144 sq.cm.

The height of the frustum=

Total surface area= 144+(4)(4)+(8)(8)

=144+16+64=224 sq.cm.
51. Slant height=

The ratio of the curved surface area of the smaller cone to that of the original cone

Choice (1)

48. Total surface area of a cone = curved surface area + area of the base
Curved surface area= (radius)(slant height)=
4 5= 20 sq.cm.
Total surface area=20 +( )(4)2=36 sq.cm.

52. The volume of the frustum of the come.

= h (R2+Rr+r2)

The height of the smaller cone = h- =

Choice (3)
= 10 cm

Choice (1)

If l3, R3 are the slant height and radius of the smaller cone then from the property of
similar triangles,
=
Rs=

Choice (3)

65. Area of the cyclic quadrilateral with sides a, b, c and d

=
where

Top radius of the frustum =

The volume of the smaller cone=
The volume of the frustum =
The ratio =

)2 (

)=

s=

( ) [R2+R( )+( )2] = (19R2)

= 8:19

For the given quadrilateral,

s=

Choice (4)

= 13

Area =
=

58.

=4

sq.cm

Choice (1)

66.

Let S be the side of the base of the original pyramid. From the similar triangle property the side of
base of the smaller pyramid= S

= S/2

Let D be a point on the major arc AC

The side of the top of the frustum = S/2

ADC =

The ratio =

In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of the opposite angles is 180

ADC + ABC = 180
ABC = 180-35=145

= = 1:7

Choice (4)

59. Area enclosed by the ring =

(62-42)=20 sq.cm.

Choice (3)

60. Area of the rhombus = product of the diagonals

= ( )(8)(9)= 36 sq.cm.

Choice (2)

61. Area of the trapezium = (1/2) (sum of the parallel sides)

Distance between them =

(6 + 8)(4) = 28 sq.cm.

62. Area of the quadrilateral =

(10) (4 + 5) = 45 sq.cm.

Choice (3)
Choice (3)

64. Area =

(r2)=

+ 14 =22 + 14 = 36cm.
(72)=15.4 sq.cm.

70=35

Choice (4)
Choice (4)

Choice (2)

67. AB is the diameter, therefore the arc ACB is a semicircle. As the angle in a semicircle is
right angle
ACB = 90
BAC = 180 - ( ACB + ABC)
=180 - (90 + 30) = 60
Choice (2)
68. Angle between the radius and the tangent at the point of tangency is 90
PAD= PBO = 90
In quadrilateral OAPB AOB = 360-( APB + PAO + PBO)
=360 - (40 + 90 +90) = 140
69. AB, CD and IJ are parallel and EF and GH are parallel.
We can extend GH

63. Perimeter of the semicircle = r + 2r

=7 + 297) = 7

AOC =

Choice (1)

72. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles touching each
other externally is 3.

ILH = 60, since alternate angels are equal and corresponding angels are and corresponding
angles are equal.
Choice (2)
70. In a cyclic quadrilateral, the sum of the opposite angles is 180
BAD + BCD = 180
BAD = 180 - 130=50

PP1, QQ1, and RR1, are the three common tangents to the two externally touching circles
Choice (3)
73. In a cyclic quadrilateral the sum of opposite angles is 180. In parallelogram, opposite angles
are equal and their sum need not be equal to 180.In rhombus, opposite angles are equal
and their sum need not be equal to 180.Now, consider an isosceles trapezium ABCD.

Choice (1)

71. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to 2 circles is 4.

In an isosceles trapezium, non-parallel sides are equal and the corresponding angles made
by them with the parallel sides are equal.
i.e., DAB = CBA
And ADC = DCB
Sum of the four angles is 360
i.e., DAB + ABC + BCD + CDA = 360
ABC + ABC+ ADC+ ADC=360
[

AA1, BB1, CC1 and DD1 are the four common tangents to the above two circles.

Choice (4)

DAB = ABC and ADC]

2( ABC+ ADC=360

ABC + ADC = 180

Sum of the opposite angles is equal to 180
An isosceles trapezium is necessarily a cyclic quadrilateral.

Choice (3)

74. The angles in a segment are equal

i,e., ADB = ACB
ADCB=70
From the triangle ABD,
ABD + ADB + DAB =180
70+ DAB = 180
DAB = 60

6.

The speed of the train =

=

=36 sq.cm.

8.

If Q starts from the same point from which P started, then the distance of separation
between them is the distance travelled by P in 2 hours,
(because 8:00 a.m. - 6:00 a.m. = 2 hours).
The information about the starting points of P and Q is not available.
Hence, the question cannot be answered.
Choice (4)

9.

Ajay is travelling with the stream.

The relative speed is (6 + 2)kmph = 8 kmph.

Choice (1)

TIME AND DISTANCE

1.

The distance between P and Q = 360=180

2.

To completely cross the bridge the train has to travel a distance of 300 m +700 m =1000 m

Choice (4)

The speed = 36 kmph =

takes

Choice (1)

The relative speed = (40 + 60) = 1000 kmph.

Time taken for them to meet =

= 3 hours.

8:00 am + 3 hours = 11:00 am

4.

Choice (2)

From 9:00 a.m. to 10:00 am, A travels for 1 hour i.e. 60 km. At 10:00 am. B and A are
Separated by 60 km. The relative speed of B with respect to A = 80 - 60 = 20 kmph. (Since,
A and B are travelling in the same direction)
The time taken by B to meet A = = 3 hours.
At 10:00 a.rn. + 3 hours = 1:00 p.m., B meets A.

5.

Choice (2)

Consider the line joining the centre of the dial and the number 12 on the dial as the
reference line. Measurements of angles made by the two hands, during any specified
interval, are measured with reference to their line. At 12' 0 clock, the two hands coincide
and the angle made by each of the hands with the reference line is zero degrees. The angle
made by the hour hand at 3:30 p.m.
= (3 x 30) + (30 x 1/2) = 105..... (1)
The angle made by the minute hand, in 30 minutes
= 30 x 6 = 180 .... (2)
Hence, at 3:30 p.m., the minute hand leads the hour hand by
an angle equal to (180 -105) = 75.
Hence, the required angle is 75.
Choice (1)

Choice (2)

The area of this quadrilateral i.e., parallelogram is

= 15 m/sec

= 54 kmph.

7.

75. After joining the midpoint of the 4 sides of any quadrilateral formed is a parallelogram and
its area is half of the area of the original quadrilateral

3.

The length of the train is equal to the distance travelled by the train in 20 seconds.

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

10. The ratio of speeds of A and B = The ratio of distances travelled by A and B.
A beats B by 250 m means that by the time A covered 1000 m, B covers only 750 m.
The ratio of speeds of A and B = 1000 : 750 = 4 : 3
The speed of B =

Average speed =

Total time taken =

Average speed =
= 45 kmph.

= 3 hours.

= 6 m/sec.

Choice (2)

11. Total distance travelled by A = 3 x 60 + 4 x 95 = 560 km.

Total time taken = 3 + 4 = 7 hours.

Let the distance be d.

Total distance travelled = 2d.

The time taken to row 24 km distance =

Choice (3)

= 80 kmph

Choice (3)

12. Difference in speeds Suresh and Ganesh is 12 - 6 = 6 m/sec.

The difference in number of rounds made = Number of rounds made at 6 m/sec.
i.e.

= 72

Choice (4)

13. As the duration of journey at different speeds is constant, the average speed of the journey
is average of the speeds. i.e.

= 50 kmph.

Choice (2)

Hence they meet at 10:36 a.m.

[Note: In all such cases, t=

(here

=24,

=54 ) ]

Choice (2)

18. To cross each other completely two trains together have to cover a distance equal to the
sum of the lengths of the trains.
i.e. 700 + 800 =1500 m.
Choice (3)

14. Let the distance between P and a be d km. and the required time be t hours.

=>d(60 - 40) =4800 => d= 240 km.

t=

= 5 hours.

Required speed =

= 48 kmph

Choice (1)

15. Ratio of speeds of A and B is 100 : 90 = 10 : 9

Ratio of speeds of Band C is 100 : 80 = 10 : 8
Ratio of speeds of A, Band C is 100 : 90 : 72.
A : C = 100 : 72
A beats C by 28 meters.

20. If speed s becomes

Choice (3)

16. Let the distance between A and B be d km

To meet, they have to cover together a distance, d km.
In one minute the total distance travelled by them

17.

P
|

C
||

10:00 a.m.

A
V
|

Q
|
10:00 a.m.
|

A
24 min.
|
|
54 min.
Let Vijay and Ajay take t minutes to meet at C.
=> Vijay takes t minutes to cover PC.
But CP is covered by Ajay in 54 minutes.
As distance is same, speeds are in the inverse ratio of times.
=>

(1)

Choice (4)

hen time t becomes

Hence,

= ;

Hence,

= t becomes

, provided the distance is the same.

Choice (2)

21. The time taken is 20% more than the usual time.
i.e. if t is the usual time , then is the actual time taken.
i.e. t has become

=
In 6 minutes they will meet each other.

19. The first train would have to gain a total distance of 700 + 800 = 1500 m to cross the second
train completely.
Choice (3)

;hence speed wil become ,where

s is the actual speed.

Choice (2)

22. As we don't know the distance of the race. We cannot find the ratio of speeds and hence we
cannot determine by what distance A beat C.
Choice (4)
23. By the time B finishes the race, C requires 20 more seconds to finish the race. 10 seconds
before that, when A finishes the race, B requires 10 seconds more. C requires 30 seconds to
finish the race.
A beats C by 30 seconds
Choice (3)
24. Ratio of speeds of A and B
= 1000: (1000 - 100) = 10: 9.

Choice (2)

25. As we don't know either the speed of A or the time taken by A,

we cannot find the ratio of speeds.

Choice (4)

26. The ratio of times taken by A, Band C

=
=6:4:3

Choice (3)

Extending the same argument, to the section CQ,

=>

(2)

(1) and (2) are equal; hence,

=>

= 54

24 and t = 36.

27. Let the speed of A be 3x kmph, speed of B is 2x kmph. In one hour B covers a distance of 2x
km. As, at 9:00 a.rn. A and B are travelling in the same direction the relative speed
= (3x -2x) kmph = x kmph.
To catch, B, A has to gain 2x km.It takes 2 hours to gain 2x km.
At 9:00 a.m. + 2 hours = 11 :00 a.m., they meet
Choice (2)

28. Let the speed of Tarun be 4x kmph. The speed of Varun is 3x kmph. If Tarun covers a
distance of 4x km, he gains x km over Varun;
=> to gain x km, he shall cover 4x km.
Distance between Tarun and Varun is 10 km.
In order to gain 10 km over Varun, Tarun has to cover 40 km.
Choice (2)
29. For every minute, minute hand gains 5.50 over hour hand. From the time the two hands
Coincide once, to the next time the two hands coincide, minute hand has to gain 360 .
The required time =
=
minutes.
Choice (4)
30. In normal clock for every

minute, the minute hand and hour hand coincide with

each other. As in this clock, for every 65 minutes, coinciding of both hands occurs, the
clock is running fast i.e. gaining
Choice (1)
31. The relative speed, if they are running in the same direction = 12 - 8 = 4 m/sec,As Bharat is
faster, Bharat has to gain 300 movers Anil in order to meet Anil.
The time required =
= 75 seconds.
The relative speed, if they are running in the opposite directions = 12 + 8 = 20 m/sec.
In order for them to meet, they together have to cover 300m.
The time required =
= 15 seconds.
The required times are 75 sec and 15 sec.
= 15 seconds.

The time taken by B to complete one round =

= 10 seconds.

After a time which is the LCM of (15, 10) seconds, they will meet right at the starting point
i.e. after 30 seconds.
Choice (2)

i.e. 15 see, 12 sec, 10 sec respectively.

The time required =

=

= 32

minutes

minutes

36. In a day, any angle

occurs 44 times.

Choice (1)
(0 <

< 180) between the two hands (hours and minutes) of a clock
Choice (2)

37. In a day the angle between the two hands is 0 for 22 times and is 180 for 22 times.
The two hands coincides (i.e. 0) for 22 times.
Choice (1)
38. Let the distance be 'd' km. The speed of the boat in still water be u kmph and that of
current be v kmph.
..(1)
..(2)
(1)

=2

By applying component do and dividend,

= 3 : 1.

Choice (4)
sec,

sec,

Choice (1)

39. Let the speed of the boat in still water be u kmph and that of the current be v kmph.
u v =12
. (1)
u + v = 18
.(2)
(2) (1) 2v = 6 v = 3 kmph.
Choice (2)
40. Length of the track = 300 meters
Speeds of A and B, respectively, are: 5 m/sec and 8 m/sec.

33. Let the three cyclists be A, Band C.

Let their respective speeds be 5 m/sec, 10 m/sec and 20 m/sec.
Relative speed of A and B = (10 - 5) = 5 m/sec.
Length of the track = 100 meters.
The intervals at which A and B meet = 100/5 = 20 seconds..... (1)
Relative speed of Band C = (20 - 10) = 10m/sec.
The intervals at which Band C meet = 100/10= 10 seconds..... (2)
The interval at which A, Band C meet = LCM of (1) and (2).
= LCM of 10 and 20 = 20 seconds.
34. The times taken by the three cyclists to complete one round each are

35. If the angle between the minute hand and hour hand is 90, then the minute hand has to
gain 180, to get the angle between both the hands again as 90.

(2)

Choice (2)

32. The time taken by A to complete one round =

After a time which is the LCM of (15, 12, 10) see, they will meet right at the starting
point for the first time after 60 seconds.
Choice (1)

sec.
Let S be the starting point and let them meet after Kumts of time.

Let M be the 1st meeting point.

Arc SPM : Arc SOM =5 : 8 as speeds are 5 and 8 meters/sec.
At M, A and B inter change their speeds.
As there is no change in the direction, A covers MOS at speed of 8 meters/see, and hence
takes K units of time to reach S ... (1)
B continues in the direction of MPS, at a speed of 5 m/sec.
Hence, B takes K units of time to reach S ... (2)
(1) and (2) imply, A and Breach S at the same time; hence, neither reaches first. Choice (3)

TIME AND WORK

1.

Time taken by them to fill the tank

=
hours =
60 minutes = 72 minutes.
6.

4.

7.

interval, are measured with

th

th

= 6 days to complete the work

of the tank in 1 hour

It takes 12 hours to completely fill the tank.

Alternative solution:
The emptying tap takes twice the time as the filling tap. Hence emptying tap is half as
efficient as the filling tap. Thus when both work together the tank gets filled at half the rate
of the filling tap. Hence it takes double the time as that of the filling tap.
6 hours x 2 = 12 hours.
Choice (2)
Tap A can fill

of the tank in 1 hour.

Tap B can fill

of the tank in 1 hour.

Tap A and tap B can together fill

i.e.

th

of the tank in 1 hour.

th

P and Q together can complete

th

of the tank

Choice (2)

of the work in 1 day between P alone can complete

In 10 days, Q alone can complete the work

Choice (1)

In 1 hour, the quantity of water filled by both the taps

th of the tank
working together is

5.

of the work. i.e, during any specified

of the work in 1 day The work done by Q alone in 1 day

of the tank in 1 hour

Emptying tap can empty

th

Choice (4)

Given one man can eat one fruit in one day Eating one fruit represents a work of 1 manday
by 1 man. In n days, 1 man can eat n fruits. In n days, m men can eat m x n fruits. They
would do a work of m x n mandays.
8 men in 8 days i.e. in. 8 x 8 = 64 mandays = 64 fruits.
Choice (2)
th

A and B together, in one day can do

th

Choice (4)

In 12 days they will complete the work working together.

of the work i.e.

Number of manhours = 8 6
one man working 8 hours a day needs

Filling tap can fill

i.e. 4 : 3

of the tank.
Note: Here, the actual time taken to fill the tank is not required.

8.

3.

In the time the tank is filled completely by both taps working together tap P can fill

Number of mandays = 20 x 20 = 400

1 man in one day can complete

2.

Ratio of efficiencies of P and Q is

Choice (3)

9.

th

th

of the work.
Choice (1)

The ratio of efficiencies of the two persons is 2 : 3

Q is faster. He completes
i.e. th of the work by the time, the work completes
In 24 days he completes

th

of the work

He completes total work in 24 x = 40 days.

Choice (1)

10. Ratio of individual times taken by A and B is 3 : 4.

Their efficiencies are in the ratio :
=4:3
The ratio of work done by them is equal to the ratio of their efficiencies since they work for
the same time.
The required ratio is 4 : 3
Choice (4)
11. Ratio of times taken by P, Q and R is 2: 3: 4
Their efficiencies are in the ratio of : :
The ratio of work done in one hour = 6: 4 : 3

=6:4:3
Choice (2)

12. Number of manhours required to complete the work

= 4 x 4 x 4 = 64 manhours
Eight men working 8 hours a day completes 8 x 8 = 64 man-hours in one day which is
required total number of manhours.
In one day the work will be completed.
Choice (4)

13. A worked for 4 days

The part of the work completed by A is
The share of A is

=:

the exact time taken by them to complete the work and this will depend upon who starts
the work

th

of the total earnings i.e.

Rs. 1000.

14. The ratio of efficiencies of A, Band C is 3 : 4 : 6

The work done by A was
i.e, th of the total work.

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

20. A and B take less time to complete the work than Band C take to complete the work
working together. Hence A takes less time than C to complete the work working alone.
Band C take less time to complete the work than A and C take to complete the work
working together. Hence B takes less time than C to complete the work. C is the slowest
worker.
Choice (3)

15. Quantity of ration = 60 kg Quantity of ration consumed by a family of 8 members if each

consumes at 1.5 kg per day
= 8 x 1.5 = 12 kg per day
60 kg is sufficient for = 5 days.
Choice (1)
16. A is 20% more efficient than B.
The ratio of efficiencies is 120 : 100 i.e. 6 : 5
The ratio of work done by A and B is 6 : 5

AVERAGES - MIXTURES ALLIGALIONS

1.

Present average age of the family is 20 years. After 4 years, each person in the family will be
older by 4 years. Hence the average also increases by 4 years.
So, it is 24 years.
Choice (2)

2.

Total weight of the 40 students is '40 x 40 = 1600 kg. Total weight including the weight of
the new student is 1600 + 40 = 1640 kg.
New total number of students is 41.
The average weight of the class =
= 40 kg
Choice (1)

3.

Let the number persons in each group be x. Total age of the first group = 2 x 30 = 30x
Total age of the second group = x x 40 = 40x
Average age of the two groups combined =
= = 35 years
Choice (2)

4.

Given the average height of female employees and that of male employees. Also, given total
number of employees. But as we don't have the information regarding number of female
employees or male employees, we cannot say anything about the average height of all in
employees.
Choice (4)

5.

If there are exactly 30 boys, the average weight of the entire class is obtained from the rule
of alligation table as follows.
Girls
Class
Boys
Number
..20
..30
Weight
..40
.. x
..50
=
=
150 -3x = 2x - 80

Choice (2)

17. The ratio of efficiencies of man and women is 1 :

i.e., 2 : 1.The number of mandays required = 6 x 10 = 60
The number of womandays required = 60
= 120
10 women can complete the work in

i.e. 12 days.

Choice (4)

18. If A starts the work, A can do 1/10th of the work on the 1 st day. B can do 1/15th of the work
on the 2nd day. In the first two days, 1/6th of the work will be completed. Working in this
manner, the work will be completed in 12 days. Similarly if B starts the work, the work will
be completed in 12 days.
Choice (3)
19. If P starts the work, P can do 1/3th of the work on the 1st day; Q can do 1/5th of the work on
the 2nd day. In the first two days, 8/15th of the work will be completed. 7/15th of the work
remains on the third day, P completes 1/3 rd of the work. 2/15th of the work remains. This is
completed by Q in another 2/3rd of a day. Hence the work is completed in 3 days.
Similarly, if Q starts the work it can be shown that the work will be completed in 3
The work is completed in less number of days if P starts the work.

days.

Choice (1)

Note: Suppose two persons work on alternate days to complete a work. If the work done by
them in 1 day by both working together is 1/nth of the total work and n is an integer, the
approach in solution 21 is to be used to find the time taken by them to complete the work.
Also, in such a case, the work will be completed in the same time irrespective of who starts
the work. However, if n is not an integer, the approach is solution 22 is to be used to find

x=

= 46

As there are possibly more boys, the average could be greater than 46 but not less.Choice (4)

6.

Total number of students = 40

Number of boys = 25
Number of girls = 40 - 25 = 15.
Average of the class =

7.

9.

= 75

Choice (2)

Let the number of female and male employees be f and m respectively.

Average salary of all the employees
=

8.

15. The quantity of milk in the solution =

= Rs. 20000

Choice (2)

Total marks of 5 subjects at an average of 54 are 5 x 54 = 270.

Total marks 6 subjects at an average of 60 is 6 x 60 =360
In the sixth subject 360 - 270 = 90 marks are to be scored by Suresh

Choice (3)

= 38 kg

(75) = 36 liters. Already we have 16 - 12 = 4 liters of water.

36 - 4 = 32 litres of water is to be added

Choice (3)

Choice (3)

16. The quantity of pure milk is 100% The profit of 150% should be because of water that is
added 100% 10 liters
150%
15 liters
15 liters of water is to be added
Choice (2)
17. The concentration of milk in the final solution
=

Let the number of girls be 2x, the number of boys is 3x

Average weight of the class

(16) = 12 liters. To have 25% of milk in new

solution, 75% of water should be there.25% of solution is 12 liters 75% of solution is

the rate of concentration of milk to water

= 49: (64 - 49) = 49: 15

Choice (4)

18. The percentage content of milk in the solution

10. The numbers are in the arithmetic progression, therefore the average is the average of
middle two terms if the number of term is even and is the average of middle term if the
number of terms is odd. Here total number of terms is 8.
The average of 4th and 5th terms is the average of sum of all the numbers.
The average =
= 41.5
Choice (1)
11. Total number of chocolates possessed by four children = 4(4) =16 Total number of
chocolates with five children together, after fifth child joined = 5(5) = 25
The number of chocolates with the fifth child
= number of, chocolates increased = 25 - 16 = 9
Choice (2)
12. Total cost of potatoes = 2(5) = RS.10 Total cost of Tomatoes = 3(8) = R$.24
Total cost of the vegetables in the = 10 + 24 = RS.34
Average cost per kg of vegetables in the bag = = Rs. 6.80
13. The quantity of milk present in 10 litre solution =

(10) = 4 litres.

The quantity of milk after adding 6 litre of pure milk is 4 + 6= 10 Iitres.

The percentage of milk in new solution =
(100%)= 62.5 %
14. The quantity of milk in the solution = 20

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

= 6 liters. The quantity of water = 20 - 6 = 14

liters. To get the ratio 1 : 1, the solution must contain 14 liters of pure milk.
14 - 6 = 8 litres of milk is to be added to get 1 : 1 ratio of concentration.

Choice (3)

(100%)

(100%) = 81%

The content of milk in 10 line solution =

= 8.1 liters.

Choice (3)

19. The average number of chocolates given per child for the boys is 4 and for the girls, it is 5.
For the entire group it is 4.4. This data is tabulated below.
Boy
Group Girl
Number
A
B
Number of class/child 4
4.4
5
From the rule of allegation
=
As a + b = 10, a = 6, b = 4.
There are 4 girls.

Choice (3)

20. As the period for which each of these average salaries is drawn is the same i.e. four months,
the average of these salaries will give the average salary for the entire year.
The average salary per month
=
=

= Rs. 7000

21. The total cost of the sugar after mixing

= 6(15) + 9(12) = RS.198

Choice (2)

The average cost per kg =

= RS.13.20

If the new mixture is sold at RS.13.20 per kg,

then there will be no loss and no gain.

4.
Choice (4)

24200 = 2000

22. The smallest of the numbers is 21 and the largest of the numbers is 39.
The average should lie between 21 and 39 (both exclusive), i.e. the average is more than 21
and less than 39.Except 29 all the three choices are out of range.
Choice (2)
23. Let 10 liter of first solution and 90 liter of second solution are mixed, then the content of
sulphuric acid.=
10 +
10 = 19 liters.
The concentration of sulphuric acid in new solution is 19%.

1.21 =

5.

I=

= Rs.2000

2.

Interest for the first year

=
= Rs. 100

3.

= 5%

= Rs. 10

= Rs. 10.5

Total interest = 10 + 10.5 = RS. 20.5

Choice (2)

The amounts at the end of each year, in compound interest, are in geometric progression of
common ratio

. Similarly the interests accrue in each year, in compound interest,

are also in geometric progression of the same common ratio, i.e.

Also

> 1, i.e. the progressions are increasing. Also the difference between any

two consecutive terms, say interest for ith year and interest for (i + 1 )th year will be aRi+1 Choice (2)

aRi [Where R =

and a = Pr ] = aRi[R - 1], which is also an increasing GP of

common ratio R .Hence, the difference in the interest for the k th and (k + 1)th year will be
more than that for the mth and (m + 1 )th year if k > m.
Choice (1)
7.

When interest is compounding many times a year, the equivalent rate of interest that will
fetch the same amount of interest, if the interest was calculated annually, is called the
effective rate of interest. The effective rate of interest is constant for every year. Choice (1)

8.

Let the sum be RS.1 00

The interest for the first six months between
= 100
= Rs. 10.

Choice (1)

The sum after six months is 100 + 10 = RS.110

The interest for the next six months
= 110
= Rs. 11.
Choice (1)

I = Amount - Principal = 2.200 - 2.000 = RS.200

r=

Choice (1)

Principal for next six months = 200 + 10 = RS.210

Interest for next six months

6.

Principal for the second year

= 1,000 + 100 = RS.1,100
Interest for the second year
=
= RS.110
Total interest for the two years = 100 + 110 = RS.210

= 0.1

Interest for first six months

=

Choice (3)

SIMPLE INTEREST- COMPOUND

INTEREST
1.

= 1.1

r =10%

24. The, average income is RS.10,000 per month for 9 months and that is RS.20,000 for 3
months. As Rs.10,000 is maintained for greater period; the average income per month for
the entire year lies between RS.1 0,000 and RS.15,000.
Choice (1)
25. Total income for the family = 5 x 8,000 = Rs 40,000 In a particular month a
total or Rs.800 x 5
= Rs 4000 is decreased
Total income in that month = 40,000 - 4,000
= Rs.36,000 income per person
=
= Rs. 7200

A=P

Choice (3)

Total interest for the year = 10 + 11 = Rs.21, which is 21% of 100.

The effective rate of interest is 21%.

Choice (1)

9.

Interest accrued on a certain sum under simple interest is same for every year
The sum of interests accrued in 6th, 8th and 9th years
= 2.000 + 2,000 + 2,000 = RS.6,000

15.

= 1500

Choice (1)

10. The interests accrued under compound interest are in the geometric progression of common
Ratio =

Hence

Choice (4)

INDICES - SURDS

= 1.1

r = 10 %.
Alternative solution:
The difference in the interests accrued in the fifth year and sixth year is the interest on the
interest accrued in the fifth year.
1,408 - 1,280 = RS.128 is interest accrued on RS.1,280
Rate of interest =
100 = 10%
Choice (1)

(1.5) =1500

P = Rs.1,000
The present value of RS.1,500 due after 5 years is Rs 1,000.

1.

2.

= 81
=> 2x = 4 [ If
=> x = 2

, then m=n]
Choice (2)

Conjugate of a surd f the form a +

is (a - )
The conjugate of
- 2, i.e., -2 +
is -2 -

Choice (4)

11. The amounts for every year under compound interest are in geometric progression of
3.

common ratio =

Similarly,

Hence
r = 10 %
Alternative solution:
The difference in the amounts after five years and six years is the interest on the amount
after five years.
6,050 - 5,500 = 550 is interest on. 5,500
Rate of interest =
100 = 10%
Choice (3)

= 2P

=(

4.

)+(

) =2-

5.
12. P

= 2+

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

=2

=4

= 4P

In 14 years the sum will become 4 times itself

Choice (1)

6.

=
13. P

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

= 2P
=1

=3

= 4P

In 21 years the sum will become 4 times itself.

7.
Choice (2)

14. In all the four cases the nominal rate of interest per year is same. If the nominal rate of
interest is constant, then the interest will be more if the number of times compounding is
done per year is more. In choice (1), the interest is compounded the maximum number of
times. Therefore, the interest will be the maximum.
Choice (1)

The denominator is of the form

=
=

, the rationalizing factor for which is (a+b).

Choice (1)

8.

1.

is of the form a-b.

If we multiply (a-b) with

(24)(18) = (3)(8)(2)(9) = 33 x 24
(27)(16) = (33 )(24 )
(24)(18) = (27)(16)
=1
(
= 1]

we get

If we multiply

with

We get

= 4 3 =1, which is rational

is the rationalizing factor of

Choice (3)

2.

9.
=
=

10.

as

11.

Choice (2)

=> log y = log x

=> y = x, when a =1, x = y.
In general, x need not be equal to y.
3.

=
Choice (1)

13.

= 16
=4
=

14.

Choice (4)

=
]
Choice (4)

= 0 [ m0 = 1 and log1 = 0]

6.

=3

=1 =>
=1

.
.

=>
Choice (4)

]=

=3

=3

Choice (4)
Choice (4)

=p

]=3

Choice (2)

=1

=1

=> log 3 =log x => x=3

8.

=
8 = 2x

Choice (3)

5.

7.

=>
x = 3 and y = 3

15.
=

Choice (2)

+
=
[
+
=
=>m = (6)(12) = 72

4.

= 216
=
=

is equal to

=>

12. 6 + 3 = (3)(2) + 3
= 3 (2 + )
To rationalize 3 (2 + ) , we need to multiply
2 is the rationalizing factor of 6 + 3

Given
=
,
If a = 1, logx 1 = 0 and logy 1 = 0
Irrespective of values of x and y,
If a = 2,
=

Choice (2)
<

is greater than

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

]
Choice (3)

Choice (1)

LOGARITHMS

9.

= k =>

= k [

= N] => k = 9

Choice (3)

10. 4 =
=
p = 81
11.

= p [ If N =

then x=

]
Choice (1)

3.

x2-8x+9=0. The roots are

=
=
=>
=>

=>

=>

=
4.
Choice (2)

12. If

13.

=k

5.

=k
=k
= k => k =

14. 10,000 lies between

and .
The logarithm of 10,000 to the base 2 lies between 13and14.
The integral part is 13.

Choice (3)

QUADRATIC EQUATION

2.

We know that, if s is the sum and p is the product of the

roots of a quadratic equation then the equation is
x2-sx-p=0
Note that the constant term in the equation is nothing
but the product of the roots.
Given s=4, p=15
The quadratic equation is x2-4x+15=0

and 4 -

Choice (3)

The sum of the root of the equation ax2+bx+c=0 is b/a

he sum of the roots of 9
Choice (3)

Let , be the roots of the equation. Given, + =11 and

=24.
(-)2= (+)2-4 =112- 4(24)= 121 9 = 25
- =5(1)
+ =11(2)
(1)+(2) =>22 = 16 => =8
=11-8 =3
he roots are 8 ,3.

Choice(3)

Given the sum of the roots is 7 and product of the roots is 12.
The equation is
x2 - (sum of the roots) x + (product of the roots) = 0
i.e., x2-7x+12 = 0

Choice(3)

Discriminant of the quadratic equation ax2+ bx+ c=0 is b2-4ac

The discrimination of 2x2+3x+4=0 is
2
3 + 4(2)(4) = 9 32 = -23

Choice(1)

3x2+ 6x-5= 0
Discriminant = 62 -4(3) (-5) =36 +60 =96
96 is not a perfect square.
=>Discriminant > 0 and not a perfect square.
The roots are conjugate surds

Choice(3)

x2+ kx+ 7=0

Discriminant =k2 (4) (1) (7) = k2- 28
As we dont know whether k2 >28 or k2 =28 or k2 <28,
We cannot say anything about the nature of the roots.

Choice(4)

Choice (2)
7.

The quadratic equation is (x-2)(x-3)=0

or x2-2x-3x+6=0 or x2-5x+6=0

=4

Choice (3)
6.

15. Any 20-digit number lies between

and
.
the logarithm of a 20-digit number to the base
10 lies between 19 and 20.
The integral part is 19.

=4

, a =1 than x is always equal to y.

Choice (1)

=>

=
The roots are 4 +

=> x = 9

1.

8.
Choice (2)

9.

Choice (1)

10. (x2-3)3- 4x4 = 0

(x2) 3 + 3 x2 (-3) (x2-3) + (-3) 3 -4x4 = 0
x6- 9x4 + 27x2 -27 -4x4 =0
=>x6- 13x4 + 27x2 -27 =0
The highest power of x in the equation is called the
degree of the equation.
The degree of the equation is 6.

17. The maximum value for quadratic expression ax2+ bx+ c,

where a is negative is given by
The maximum value of -7x2+ 2x +5 is
=
Choice(3)

=5

Choice(4)

18. The maximum value for quadratic expression ax2+ bx+ c,

where a is negative is given by

11. (xn - a)2 =0

The highest power of x in the equation is n x 2 =2n
The degree of the equation is 2n.
The equation has 2n roots.
12. x + 6x +9 =0 =>x (-6) x +9= 0
The sum of the roots is negative and the product of the
roots is positive.
Both the roots are negative.
2

The maximum value of -7x2+ 2x +5 is

=

Choice(3)

7x + 5x+ 3= 0
15. To find a new quadratic equation, whose roots are
half of the equation, x2+ 5x+ 9= 0, we have to
replace x by 2x.
The equation is (2x)2 +5 (2x) +9 = 0
=>4x2+ 10x +9 = 0
16. Here the equation (x -4)2 =0 is given.
Number of distinct roots = 1

= 3

Choice(4)

19. If a>0, the quadratic expression ax2+ bx+ c, has its

minimum value at -b/2a and if a <0 it has its maximum
value at -b/2a.
Any quadratic expression of the form ax2+ bx+ c
has its maximum or minimum value at b/2a.

where a>0,

Choice(1)

given the minimum value of the

expression.
When a<0,

given the maximum value of the

expression.

Choice(3)

Choice(4)

INEQUALITIES AND MODULUS

+ +7 = 0 => 3 + 5x + 7x2 = 0
2

20. Quadratic expression is ax2+ bx+ c

14. To find a new quadratic equation, whose roots are

reciprocals of the roots of 3x2+ 5x+ 7= 0, we have
replace x by 1/x.
The equation is 3 ( )2 + 5( ) + 7 = 0
=>

Choice (3)

13. To find a new quadratic equation, whose roots are 4

more than the roots of x2+ 7x+ 16= 0,we have to
replace x by (x - 4).
The equation is (x - 4)2 +7 (x -4) +16= 0
=>x2-8x +16 +7x -28 +16 = 0
=>x2 x- 4 = 0

1.

2< x 5 can also be represented as(2,5]

Choice(4)

2.

x - 2 => x (- , -2]
x 5 => x [5, )
x - 2 or x 5 => (- , -2]

Choice(3)

Choice(1)

[5,

3.

] => 1 x 7

4.

x < 3 => x

5.

The set of all numbers excluding -2 and including 3 is

denoted by (-2,3]

(- , 3]

Choice(2)
Choice(4)

Choice(1)

Choice(4)
6.

(x 3)(x + 5) 0

Choice(2)

=> x 3 0 and x + 5 0
=>

12.

When a and b are positive, the first two options are true, but if a and b are negative
numbers, they are not true. When c > 0, ac > be => a > b, but when c < 0,
is not true. None of the options is always true.
Choice (3)

13.

x+3

14.

5 - 2x 6 => -2x
x

=> x
Or x -3
=>

7.

[-5, 3]

-2x - 6 0
-2x 6
x < -3

9.

|x + 3|<5=>-5<x + 3<5=>-5-3<x + 3- 3<5 3

-8 < x < 2
The number of integer solutions are -7, -6, -5, -4, -3,-2,-1,0,1
which are 9.
If c < 0 and a< b then ac > bc
If c > 0 and a< b then ac < bc
If c = 0 and a< b then ac = bc
We see that (1) is false, (2) is false but (3) is true.

6 - 5 => -2x

11.

The set of all real numbers greater than 3 and less than
6 is (3, 6)

1 => x

Choice(2)

=>No solution
Choice (2)

16.

x2 - 7x - 18 0 =>(x- 9) (x + 2) 0
-2 x 9
The number of integral values in the interval [-2, 9] is 12.

Choice(4)

Since |x| is always positive, 20 - |x|

The maximum values is 20

Choice (3)

18.

=> x >

Choice(3)

20

Since |3 - 2x| is always positive 6 + |3 - 2x| 6

The expression is equal to 6 when |3 - 2x| = 0
3 = 2x => x =

Choice (2)

|x| < a =>-a < x < a

|x| < 4 => -4 < x < 4
The integral values of x are {-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3} i.e., there are 7 integral values.

Choice (1)

Choice (4)

Choice (1)

20.

Given x is negative
Let x = -a when a is positive
x + = -a +
=> - (a + )
We know that the minimum value of a +
The maximum value of - (a +

Choice (3)

Hence the maximum value of x +

10.

Choice(1)

4x + 7 > 9 => 4x > 2 => x >

19.
8.

[4,

15.

17.
0 if x

4 => x

[-5 ,3]

The solution set of(x 3)(x + 5)

7 => x

Choice (1)

is -2

Choice(4)

21.

Since the modulus of a number is always non-negative, the given inequality is true for all
values of x.
x R.
Choice (2)

22.

|3x - 5|< -7.

When a and b are negative real numbers then ab and are always positive a b is positive.
When a <b, a - b is negative but when a > b, a - b is positive. 2a + 3b is always negative for
all negative values of a and b
Choice (1)

when a> 0 is 2.

) is -2

Since the modulus of a real number is always non-negative, it cant be less than -7.
The solution set is {}
Choice (1)
23.

x2 - 4x + 8 = x2 - 4x + 4 + 4 = (x - 2)2 + 4, which is always positive.

24.

a < b then a2 <b2 or a2 >b2

Choice (1) is not always true.
Similarly, choice (2) and choice (3) are not always true.

25.

8.
Choice (4)

Since the modulus of a number is always greater than or equal to 0 and |x + 3| and |x 5|
simultaneously cannot be zero, for any real value of x, the number of solutions = 0.
Choice (2)

1.

Given 2x + 3y = 15, x, y Z+. x is a multiple of 3 when x = 3, y = 3 and when x = 6, y =1 only

two combinations of positive integral solutions are possible.
Choice (3)

2.

Given 3x - 7y = 28 and x, y > 0

From options x = 14, y = 2satisfy the given equation.

4.

5.

Given, 7x + 4y = 64, x, y
4y and 64 are multiples of 4
Values of x are also multiples of 4

Rem

= 3 or Rem

6.

Rem( ) = 4 => 4x = 5

Choice (4)

Choice (4)

As Rem

= 0, Rem

is also 0.

When x = 0, y = 5. This is the only non-negative solution.

There exists only one non-negative integral solution.

Choice (2)

10. Let the number of gel pens, ball point pens and pencils, the student purchased be x, y and z
respectively, Total amount spent is 15x + 5y + 3z = 28
As x > 0, x = 1 and y = 2 and z = 1
Only one combination is possible.
Choice (1)
Choice (3)

12. Let the number of toys of each variety sold be x, y, z respectively

The total cost is 100x + 50y + 25z = 300
He sold at least one of each variety
Amount received by selling one of each toy is 100 + 50 + 25= 175
Amount left with him 300 - 175 = 125. For the number of toys sold to be the maximum he
has to sell toys of the third variety for the remaining amount 125.
For Rs.125 he can sell
= 5 toys of this variety.

14. Let the number be x and y respectively 7x + 11y = 61

Rem = 5 Rem = 5 or 4y = 5y1 + 7
Rem

= 1 or y1 = 1,5,9.

y1 = 1 => y=3 => x= 4.

Choice (1)

Choice (4)

13. In order that the total number of toys is the minimum, toys of the first variety have to be
bought for remaining Rs.125
He can buy one toy each of the first and third varieties for Rs.125
Minimum number of toys he can sell is = 2 + 1 + 2 or 5.
Choice (3)

Rem =3

+4

=> x1 = 0, 4, 8,
and x = 1,6,11
x = 5k + 1, where k is any integer.

Choice (4)

The given equation is 12x + 7y = 35

The maximum number of toys he can sell = 1 + 1 + 6 = 8

=3 .i.e.,

= 3,7,11,.and = 8, 17 ,26..
= 8 satisfy the above condition.

9.

Given 3a + 7b = 72. As 3a and 72 are multiples of 3, b is also a multiple of 3

From the options, when b = 6, a = 10.

Choice (4)

Rem ( ) =5 => 4p = 9p1 + 5.

Rem = 1 ,

= 6 and one of the values of x that satisfies this equation is 2. The possible values of x

11. In the problem above, the number of ball point pens purchased, y is 2.

Choice(2)

Given 4x + 5y = 60. By Inspection x is a multiple of 5 and y is multiple of 4.

The values of x, y are tabulated below
y
0
4
8
12
x
15
10
5
0
4 combinations of values are possible.

Rem

are 2, 9, 16, 23, 30. They form an arithmetic progression with a common difference
of 7.
Choice (1)

Choice (3)

SPECIAL EQUATION

3.

7.

Choice (1)

15. Let the number be 10x + y where (x > y). The sum of the number and the number formed

by reversing the digits is 10x + y + 10y + x = 88

11 x + 11 y = 88 or x + y = 8
Possible two-digit numbers such that x > y are 80, 71, 62, 53. There are 4 such numbers.
Choice (4)

9 is the arithmetic mean.

7.

PROGRESSIONS
8.
1.

Arithmetic mean =
=

= 11
9.

Arithmetic mean of an AP =

2.

= 11

Geometric mean =
=

Choice (2)

Alternative solution:
Geometric mean of a geometric progression
=
=
=
3.

4.

Choice (2)

The Fourth term is equidistant (3 terms away) from the first and the seventh term in the
arithmetic progression.
The fourth term is the arithmetic mean of the first term and the seventh term in an A.P.
Fourth term =
= = 16
Choice (1)
Sum of the first n terms of an A.P.
= = ( ) [2a + (n - 1)d]
= ( ) [4 + 24] = (28) = 98

Given first term = 3 and the last term = 31

As we don't know the total number of terms, we cannot find the common ratio.
We cannot find the sum of first 8 terms of the progression.
Choice (4)

6.

Given total number of terms is 13, i.e., n = 13

=

, the

Given

term is 9

term is the arithmetic mean of that A.P.

Choice (2)

In A.P.
= ( ) [First term + Last term]
Choice (2)

In an A.P.,
term ( ) = a + (n - 1) d
= 9 + (7 - 1) 3 = 9 + 6 (3) = 27

Choice (1)

10. The fourth term is equidistant from the second term and the sixth term.
In a G.P. the fourth term is the geometric mean of the second term and the sixth terms.
Fourth term =
=
= 16
Choice (4)
Note: It can't be -16. The common ratio would be complex and
we are considering only progressions with real terms.
11. In a G.P.
=

, were r is the common ration, a the first term and

=

= (3) (80) = 240

in the sum to n terms.

Choice (4)

12. As the average of the

term from the beginning and the
term from the end is equal to
the arithmetic mean, the average of 10 and 20 is the arithmetic mean
i.e., the mean is
= 15
Choice (2)

Choice (2)

5.

As

term is equidistant from first term and

term.
Term is the arithmetic mean of first 15 terms.
Sum of first 15 terms = 15 x (eight term)
= 15(4) = 60

In an A.P. as
= n (A.M.)
= 100(15) = 1500

= = ( ) [2(2) + (7 - 1)4]

In an A.P. if n is odd, then

The

= ( ) [5 + 15] = 110

Alternative solution:
=

Choice (1)

13. Given m, n and p are in A.P.

Let n m = p n = k
n = m + k, p = m + 2k
consider an A.P.
, , , . whose common difference is d.
+d=
[ is
term]
+ kd =

term is the arithmetic mean.

+ 2kd =

[ n = m + k]
[ p = m + 2k]

log m, log n and log p are in A.P.

-

= [ + 2 kd] - [ + kd] = kd
= = kd
, and
are in A.P.
term,
term and
term are in A.P.

18. For any two unequal positive numbers a and b

>
Choice (1)

Term,

and

term and

>4

Choice (3)

= 3(64) = 192

Choice (3)

20. The

tenn is equidistant from the first term and the

term
term is the geometric mean of first and ninth tenn and moreover, it is the geometric
mean of first 9 terms, The product of the first n terms in a
G.P. =
Product =
= 512
Choice (1)

are in G.P.
term are in G.P.

=4

19. In a G.P.
=
=

=
=

Given

Arithmetic mean,

14. Given m, n and p are in A.P.

Let n - m = p - n = k
n = m + k, p = m + 2k
Consider a G.P.
, , , . whose common ratio is r.
(r) =
[ is
term]
( )=
=
[ m + k = n]
( )=
=
[ m + 2k = p]
=

Choice (1)

Choice (2)
21. In G.P. if the number of terms is n which is odd, then the middle term i.e.,

15. In an A.P. if the sum of the first n terms is zero and n is

odd, the

term is zero.
i.e.,

term is zero.

16. Given
= 30 and
= 30
=
+
+ +
+
+ +
=0
The mean of
to
is 0.
Sum of to
is zero.
17. Given m, n and p are in G.P.
Let = = r
n = mr and p=
Let log m = a.... (1)
Log n = log (mr)
= log m + log r [ log (xy) = log x + log y]
Let log r = b
log n = a + b .... (2)
log p = log (
) = log m + log ( )
= log m + 2 log r [ log = 2log r]
log p = a + 2b ..... (3)
From1,2,3

term is

the geometric mean.

term i.e. the

term is the geometric mean i.e., The geometric mean is 4.

Choice (2)

Choice (2)
22. Common ratio =
=

Choice (1)

=
=2

Choice (2)

23. Let the geometric progression be a, ar,

Given a = m (ar +
+ )
ar+
+ =
a=m( )

, .

=> mr = 1 - r => mr + r = 1
r=

Choice (2)

24. Given a = 1, = 27
=
2
27= (1) => r = 3
=

= 1093

25. Sum of the first 9 natural numbers =

Choice (1)
= 45

Sum of the cubes of first n natural numbers = (Sum of first n natural numbers)2

Sum of the cubes of first 9 natural numbers = 45 2 = 2025

Choice (2)

PERMUTATIONS AND COMBINATION

1.

When a dice is rolled n times the number of outcomes is

2.

When a coin is tossed for (n - 1) times the number of outcomes are

3.

When a coin is tossed n times the number of ways of getting exactly r heads is n ,
Choice (2)

4.

We know that
120
= 120

5.

6.

7.

or

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

13. The total number of balls in the bag is 3 + 4 + 5 = 12.

Two balls can be selected from 12 balls in 12 or
= 66 ways.

Choice (3)
.

= 210 ways.

Choice (2)

14. Consider 3 blanks _ _ _.

Since there are 5 digits, each blank can be filled in 5 ways.
Total number of ways is 5(5) (5) =' 125.

Choice (4)

15. Since all the digits are even, no odd numbers can be formed. Number of odd numbers
formed = 0.
Choice (1)
= 120

We know that n
35
= 35!

= 120

Choice (3)

= n!
Choice (1)

Given n = n
We know that if n = n , then r + s = n
n
= n => n = 5 + 7 = 12
2n + 1
= 2(12) + 1 = 25 = 300
Given n = n ,
We know that n
=> r! = 1

21

.r!
r = 0 or 1

=>

Choice (2)

16. Consider four blanks _ _ _ _.

The units place is filled with 5. The remaining three blanks can be filled with 4 digits in 4
ways.
The number of four-digit numbers required is 4(3) (2) or 24.
Choice (3)
17. Treat all the girls as one unit. Now there are 3 boys and
1 unit of girls. They can be arranged in 4! ways.
The two girls can be arranged among themselves in
2! ways.
Total number of arrangements 4!2! = 24(2) = 48.

Choice (4)

18. A straight line is formed by joining any two points.

Two points can be selected from 10 points in 10 or
= 45ways.

Choice (2)

.r!
Choice (4)

8.

We know that 'n' persons can be arranged in a row in n! Ways here n = 6 =>
of ways of arranging 6 members in a row = 6!

the number
Choice (1)

9.

In the given word GINGER there are six letters of there G : y occurring two times

19. Let the number of sides be n.

the number of 6 letter words are

= 360.

Choice (4)

10. Since one particular member is always included, we have to select 3 members from 9
members. This can be done in 9 = 84 ways.
Choice (3)
11. 11.The word COUNTRY has 7 letters. Since the first letter is N, the remaining 6 places can
be filled with 6 letters in 6! ways.
The number of words that begin with N is 6! = 720.
Choice (1)
12. We know that there are 21 consonants.
Two consonants can be selected from 21 consonants in

Then the number of diagonals is

Given

= 5n => n - 3 = 10 => n = 13

20. We know that n persons can be positioned around a circle in (n - 1)! ways.
8 persons can be arranged in 7! or 5040 ways.

Choice (1)

Choice (4)

21. The number of different words that can be formed using all the letters of word TRINETRA
is or

or 10080.

Choice (4)

22. 4 boys can be seated in 6 chairs in 6

= 360 ways.

Choice (3)

23. n books can be arranged in n! ways

Given n! = 720 = 6!
=> n = 6
6 books can be arranged on a circular shelf in (6 - 1)!
ways = 5! = 120.

greater than 6 is not possible.

The required probability is 0.
Choice (1)

24. The number of letters in the word EDUCATION is 9.

4 letters can be selected from these 9 letters in 9 ways.

Choice (3)

Choice (1)

4.

When three dice are rolled, there are 6(6) (6) or 216 outcomes. The number of ways in
which all the dices show the same number is 6.
The required probability =
=
Choice (2)

5.

In the given set all the numbers are odd, any two numbers are selected their sum is always
even.
The required probability is 1.
Choice (3)

26. Consider 6 blanks_ _ _ _ _ _.

Since the first and the last place are to be filled with K and 'R', the remaining four letters
can be arranged in 4! or 24 ways.
Choice (2)

6.

The probability of a sure event is 1.

Choice (4)

7.

The probability of an event always lies in the interval [0, 1)

Choice (2)

27. The number of blue balls is 6. 3 balls can be selected from 6 blue balls in 6

8.

Given A and B are mutually exclusive and exhaustive events.

P(A B) = 1 and P(A B) = 0
P(A) + P(B) = 1
Given P(A) = 3/5
The probability of non occurrence of B, is equal to the occurrence of A.
P( ) = P(A) =

Choice (1)

P(A) + P ( ) = 1

Choice (3)

25. Each letter can be posted in 3 ways.

Four letters can be posted in 3 (3) (3) (3) or 81 ways.

Choice (4)

28. When two coins are tossed there are 4 possible outcomes.
When a dice is rolled there are 6 outcomes
When two coins are tossed arid a dice is rolled, there
are 24 outcomes.
29. Rahul can invite 5 friends or 6 friends. 5 friends can be invited in 6
can be invited in 6 ways
The total number of required ways = 6 + 6 = 6 + 1 = 7.

ways = 20.
Choice (1)

Choice (2)
ways and 6 friends
Choice (3)

9.

10. Probability of getting heads =

Probability of getting tails =

30. Bananas can be selected in 4 ways and apples can be selected in 5 ways.
The number of ways of selecting fruits is = 4 (5) = 20.
The number of ways of selecting one or more fruit is
= 20 -1 = 19.

Probability of getting heads or tails is 1.

Choice (4)

PROBABILITY
1.

2.

3.

When one coin is tossed, there outcomes, are 2.

When seven coins are tossed, there are 27 or 128 outcomes.

Choice (3)

In a pack of cards there are 26 black cards.

The probability of drawing a black card is

Choice (4)

= .

When a dice is rolled the outcomes are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} with this dice getting a number

Choice (2)

11. When four dice are rolled, there are 64 or 1296 outcomes.
When the outcomes are (1, 1, 1, 1) and (6, 6, 6, 6) the sum is the minimum and maxim
respectively.
There are 2 possibilities.
The required probability is = .
Choice (3)
12. If five letters are placed into 5. Corresponding envelopes, then the 6th letter is also placed
into the corresponding envelopes. Exactly five letters cannot be placed into corresponding
envelopes. Probability = 0
Choice (3)
13. In February of a leap year we have 29 days. Only one day of the week occurs five times.
Two days can never occur 5 times.

Required probability = 0.

Choice (2)

P ( ) = 1 - P (A) = 1 - =

14. In a pack of cards, we have two red queens.

Probability of drawing a red queen is = .

Choice (1)

15. In the calendar, there is a cycle of 400 years of which 97 are leap years.
The required probability =

Choice (4)

16. We know that

P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A
P(A B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A
+ - =
=

Choice (4)

24. We know that P (A) always lies in [0, 1].

Choice (1)

25. Probability of an impossible event is 0.

Choice (2)

STATISTICS
B)
B)

P( )= ,P( )=
) = P ( ). P ( ) = . =

18. We know that A, B, C are three mutually exclusive and exhaustive events,
P(A) + P(B) + P(C) = 1
0.3 + 0.5 + P(C) = 1
P(C) = 1 - 0.8 = 0.2
P ( ) = 1 - P(C) = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8

1.

Size or length of the class is the difference between the lower (or upper) limits of two
successive classes i.e., 34 - 24 = 10.
Choice (3)

2.

Length or size of the class (Standard definition).

Choice (4)

3.

Given mid value of a class is 9 whose size of the class is 7.

=> Lower limit of the class is 9 - 3 = 6
Upper limit of the class is 9 + 3 = 12
Class interval is 6 12

Choice (2)

4.

Mid value =

Choice (2)

5.

The given values are in A.P then the Arithmetic mean

Choice (1)

17. Given P (A) = , P (B) =

P(

23. Given P (A) =

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

=
19. When a dice is rolled, there are 6 possible outcomes.
The prime numbers are 2, 3, 7 i.e., there are 3 primes.
The required probability = =
20. In the English alphabet, there are five vowels.
The probability of selecting a vowel is .

Choice (4)

The probability that both the dice show an odd number is . = .

22. Total number of balls = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10.
The bag contains 2 white balls. The rest are not white.
The probability of drawing a ball that is not white is
= = .

=8

Choice (1)

Mean deviation of 8 and 17 is

7.

Of all the given observations 3 is occurring for 4 times even if the value of x is either 2 or 1
still 3 only most occurring value.
Mode = 3.
Choice (1)

8.

The boundaries of a class are obtained by subtracting 0.5 form lower limit and adding 0.5 to
upper limit.
The upper boundary of the given class is 14.5.
Choice (3)

9.

Range = maximum value - minimum value = 21 - 5 = 16.

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

= 32.5

6.

Choice (1)

21. The probability that one dice shows an odd number is .

= 4.5

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

10. By adding or subtracting a fixed value to each of the observations of an individual data the
standard derivation of the data does not change.
Standard derivation remains same i.e. unchanged.
Choice (3)

22. If A, G, H are arithmetic mean, geometric mean and harmonic mean of any two positive
11. The sum of deviations about mean is zero. (standard result)

Choice (1)

12. The sum of deviations about median is the least. (Standard result).

Choice (2)

13. Since given 10 < x < 15 and when arranged the given observations in order the value that
lies between 9 and 21 is the median i.e. x
Median of the data is x.
Choice (3)
14. We know that arithmetic mean
=

numbers respectively, then G2 = A H or

24. Range = Maximum Value - Minimum Value

17 = Maximum Value 88
Maximum Value = 88 + 17 = 105
25. When the observations are in order (ascending) then the (

= 12

Choice (4)

23. When each observation of the data is increased or decreased by a constant, the range does
not change.
Choice (3)

Number of observations =
=

quartile ( ).
Here n = 7 (

Choice (1)

Choice (2)
)th observation is the first

) i.e. 2nd observation.

=8
15. We know that for a. symmetric distribution, arithmetic mean, median and mode coincides.
Arithmetic mean = mode = 24
Choice (3)

26. The third quartile

3(

16. We know that for a moderately symmetric distribution, mode = 3 median - 2 mean
mode - median = 2(median - mean)
Choice (4)
17. The sum of the first n natural numbers =
Their arithmetic mean =

Choice (1)
is the 3(

)th observation

) = 9th observation is Q3.

= 51

Choice (1)

27. The median of five observations is the third observation.

The third prime number = 5

Choice (2)

28. |

Choice (4)

Choice (3)
| (standard result)

18. When the number of observations is odd. The median of observations when arranged in
order is the exact middle most observation. Here middle observation is 13.
Median = 13.
Choice (2)

29. If the arithmetic mean of

19. When the number of observations is even, the median of the observations when arranged
in order is the average of two middle observations.
Here the number of observations = 6

30. The variance of the series ,

, is p.
The standard deviation of the series ,

is . The standard deviation of the series 2 + 3,

2 + 3, 2 + 3 is 2 .

is , then the

Median =
=

= 24.5

NUMBER SYSTEMS

Choice (1)

20. In a data the most occurring observation is called mode.

Mode of the data is .

Choice (1)

21. Geometric Mean of

=

Choice (3)

is

i.e.

1.

2
2
2
2
2
2

132
66 - 0
33 - 0
16 - 1
8 - 0
4 - 0

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

2 - 0
1 - 0

----------=

2.

3.

4.

7
7

12
12

235
33 - 4
4 - 5
=

9.

The largest 4 digit number in octal system is

= 20(1) + 25(1) = 1 + 32 = 33
= D (160) + A(161) + B(162)
13(1) + 10(16) + 11(256)
13 + 160 + 2816 = 2989

=
Choice (1)

10.

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

We know that 28 = 256, 29 = 512

256 < 432 < 512
Hence 9 bits are required.

Choice (1)

12. We know that 53 = 125, 54 = 625

The number of bits required is 4.

Choice (4)

13. 17 625
Consider the integer part
2 17
2 8 -1
2 4 - 0
2 2 - 0
1 - 0
=

Choice (2)

14.

2 3 4 (8)
4 3 2 (5)
-----------

Choice (1)

Choice (4)

From right to left group four digits as 1 unit as shown

below
=
=

-----------

x
-----------1540
352
-----------------------

7.

8.

11.

Choice (2)

1364
113 - 8
9 - 5
=

5.
6.

Choice (3)

Choice (3)

15.

Choice (2)

Consider the fractional part

0.625 (2) = 1.250 -> 1
0.25 (2) = 0.5 -> 1
0.5 (2) = 1 -> 1

=
2 x k0 + 5 x k + 1 x k2 = 86
2 + 5k + k2 = 86
k2 + 5k 84 = 0
(k + 12) (k - 7) = 0
Since k is a positive integer.
k = 7.
=
= 1 + 27 + 243 + 729 =
The cube root of

Choice (3)

16. 129 = 128 + 1= 27 + 20 =

17.

-----------

When every digit in the above is expressed in the binary

system, we get
4=
7=
3=

Choice (1)
Choice (4)

437 =

Choice (2)

5.

88
14 - 4
2 - 2

=
88
9 -7
1 - 0
=
All are true

Choice(4)
.

Choice (1)

TRIGONOMETRY
= and

Choice (2)
=4

=4

=>

= 30 .

Choice (1)

Each revolution makes an angle of 360 . In three revolutions angle made by

1080 .

7.

1420 = (4 x 360 - 20 ) lies in fourth quadrant.

Choice (4)

8.

(1 +
=

Choice (2)

) (1 .

Given p =
=> =

)
=1

= (1 -

+
-

p + =

=2

=
10. 3

is 3 x 360 =
Choice (3)

Choice (1)
- 4 = 0 =>
=

=
( 180 <

< 270 )

positive and

is negative in third
Choice (3)

The relation between r,

and s of a triangle is r = or

= rs.

Choice (2)

Arc of the sector l = r when

= =

6.

9.

20. The argest 3 digit duo-decimal number is

3.

Given 5
=> 4
+
4
=3

)2 - 1 =

Choice (3)

9
9

2.

=
=(

is acute

6
7

=> e
as
quadrant ( )

=>

88
12 - 4
1 - 5

Given

=
=> cot

1.

Given
=

18. The square of

= 321
x321
-----------------321
642
1263
-----------------136341

19. 7
7

4.

, x

Choice (3)

is in radians.
Choice (4)

11. For every value of e, we know that

+
=1

=1
Choice (3)

12. The range of

The range of 2

is [-1, 1]
is [-2, 2]

Choice (1)

22. cosec 70 = cosec(90 - 20 ) = sec 20

sec 160 = sec(180 - 20 ) = -sec 20
cosec 70 + sec 160 = sec 20 - sec 20

Choice (1)

13.
(
=
14. We know that
lies in
or
15.

)=1
=5

23. In the interval 0 <

Choice (2)

is positive in the first and third quadrants.

.

=0

16. If
Then

= 90 =>

is negative in

=0

and

18. Given BC = 40, AB = 9,

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

<1

Choice (1)

)2 = 1

Choice (3)

+
=(

25. Given tan is positive and cos

3rd quadrant.

is negative,

lies in the
Choice (3)

Choice (4)

+
2

=
= 1(

when

= ,

= 2,

= 22

cot22

=> 2 = 45
=

+1

Choice (3)

=1

21. When = 90 ,
is not defined.
The given statement is not true for

27. The maximum value of acosx + bsinx + c is

c+
The maximum value of 3cosx + 4sinx is
0+
=5

Choice (4)

28. When 0 x
/2, the graphs of sinx and cosx intersect
only at x = /4, lie at only one point.

Choice (1)

29. 135 = 135(

Choice (2)

=
Choice (2)

Put

30. By sine rule

=

)2 = 7

20. We know that

26. Given cot

AC = 41

19. The given expression E

E = (2)2 + (

=>

=2
=>

17.

< cot

24.
Choice (4)
Choice (3)

tan

<

Choice (3)

= 90 .

Choice (4)

)=

sin C =

Choice (1)
9.

COORDINATE GEOMETRY
1.

2.

The distance from the origin to the point (x, y) is

The distance from the origin to the point (5, 12) is
=
= 13

We know that x = 5 is parallel to the y-axis and y = 7 is parallel to the x-axis.

The angle between the two lines is 90 .

10. The equation of the line perpendicular to 3x + 4y + 5 = 0

is of the form 4x - 3y + k = 0.
Choice (3)

The perpendicular distance from P(3, 5) to the x-axis is the y-coordinate of the point
P(3, 5).

12. The acute angle between the lines with slopes

=
=

given

= 3,

and

= 1/3

3.

4.

5.

Choice (2)

A line perpendicular to the x-axis is the y-axis (or a line parallel to the y-axis.
The slope y-axis (or any line parallel to y-axis) is undefined.

Choice (4)

The line x = 3 is parallel to the y-axis.

A line perpendicular to the y-axis is parallel to the x-axis.
The slope of x-axis (or a line parallel to x-axis) is 0.

Choice (1)

The equation of a line parallel to the x-axis and passing through (h, k) is y = k.
The equation of a line parallel to the x-axis and passing through (3, 4) is y = 4.

Choice (3)

13. The given lines are y = 7 and y = -7

The distance between them is 14.

Choice (3)

6.

The equation of a line perpendicular to the y-axis i.e., parallel to the x-axis and passing
through (h, k) is y = k. The equation of a line perpendicular to the y-axis and passing
through (5, 6) is y = 6.
Choice (4)

7.

The given lines are x 3 = 0 and y + 2 = 0

Their point of intersection is (3, -2)

Choice (2)

11. We know that a line passing through only two quadrants is parallel to the x-axis or the yaxis or passes through the origin. All options can be true.
Choice (4)

is

Distance is 5 units.

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

14. We know that the equation of a line with slope m and y-intercept c is y = mx + c
Given slope is ; y-intercept is 'a'.
y=

x + a => my = x + am

15. When the first equation is multiplied by 5 we get the second equation.
The two lines are coincident lines.

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

Choice (4)
16. Slope of the line joining the points (a, b) and (c, d) is

8.

The slope of the line is x =

=>

y + 4 = 0 is

Given slope is 0

= 0 => d - b = 0 => b = d

Choice (2)

= 30

The inclination of the line is 30 .

The required angle is 30 .

17. The equation of the line with slope -1 and passing through the origin is y = -x.
Choice (1)

Choice (3)

18. Given

= 135 => slope (m) =

135 =-1

Choice (1)

19. Slope of the line 3x - y + 1 = 0 is 3.

Slope of the line perpendicular to 3x - y + 1 = 0 is -1/3.
20. The x-axis divides the line joining the points ( ,
The given points are (3, 5) and (4, -6)
The ratio is = -5 : -6 = 5 : 6. (internally)

) and (

5.
Choice (4)
) in the ratio - :

22. G divides DA in the ratio 1: 2.

Choice (1)

23. The distance from (0, 0) to (1, 3) is

The distance from (0, 0) to (2, -3) is
The distance from (0, 0) to (-3. 0) is
The distance from (0, 0) to (1. 2) is
The point nearest to the origin is (1, 2)

24. The point of intersection of diagonals is the midpoint of each of the diagonal i.e., the
midpoint of (1, 2) and (3. 4) = (2, 3)
Choice (3)
25. The distance from (0,,0) to 5x + 12y + 26 = 0 is
=2

Given f(x) = x - [ x ]
x z ; [ x ] = x => f(x) = x - x = 0
x z;0 x[x]<1
Range of f(x) = x - [ x ] is [0,1)

Choice (4)

7.

Substituting (0, 0) in the equation, we get k = 0

Choice (3)

8.

X R, y is positive. y is positive in first and second

quadrants.

Choice (2)

A function is even if f(-x) = f(x) and a function is odd if

f(-x) = -f(x)
=
is odd
=
is even
y = -x is odd
y = (-x)3 = -x3 is odd

Choice (2)

9.
Choice (4)

Choice (1)

Given f(x) =
Choice (2)

Choice (2)
Choice (3)

10. A function f(x) is odd if f(-x) = -f(x)

=
All the given functions are odd functions.

12. For any function f(x) the function defined by

Given f(x) =

3.

Given, f(x) =
f(x) is real when x + 2 0 => x
Domain is given by x -2

Choice (2)

-2
Choice (3)

Given f(x) =
f(x) is real when x - 3 > 0 => x > 3
Domain is given by x > 3

4.

and (-x)3 = -x3

Choice (4)
Choice (3)

is odd.

Choice (2)

When x = -1, f(x) is not defined.

Domain = R - {-1}
2.

11. The function f(x) = 0 is both even as well as odd.

FUNCTIONS AND GRAPHS

1.

Choice (2)

When x = -3, f(x) is not defined.

6.

21. Area of ABC = 4 (area of DEF) = 4 (5) = 20

Domain is R - { 1 }

Given, f(x) =
When x = 1, f(x) is not defined.

Choice (2)

13. Given f(x) = 2x + x2

f (-x) = 2(-x) + (-x)2 = -2x + x2 It is neither even nor odd.

Choice (4)

14. For a given value of k, 2k2 - 1 is constant.

The given function is y = constant it represents a set of horizontal lines

Choice (2)

15. The sum of two odd functions is always odd.

Choice (2)

16. The graph of f (-x) is obtained by reflecting the graph of

f (x) in the y-axis.

Choice (2)

17. (-a, 0) lies on the x-axis. Every point on the x-axis

reflects into itself, when reflected in x-axis.

18. When a point is reflected in the y-axis the sign of the
x-coordinate changes.
Reflection of ( , ) in y-axis is (- , ).

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

19. When a point is reflected in the origin, then the sign of both the coordinates of the point
changes.
Reflection of ( , ) in y-axis is (- ,- ).
Choice (2)
Choice (4)
20. The graph of y = f(x - 3) is obtained by shifting the
graph of y = f(x) to the right (horizontally) to 3 units.

Choice (3)

28. x2 + y2 = 4 represents a circle with centre origin and 3x + 4y - 7 = 0 represents a line distance
of the line from the centre of the circle is = |

21. If f(x) is the given graph then the graph f(x) - 2 is

obtained by moving it down (vertically) by 2 units.

= 1.4 units but radius of the circle is 2 units

r>d
the line cuts the circle at two points.

Choice (2)

22. (2, 0) and (0, -2) lie on the graph.

Equation of the line joining them is given by
+ =1

29. y =

graph in the interval [

|=

Choice (2)

+ ] is as follows.

=> x - y = 2. Since origin side is shaded when the coordinates of the origin are substituted it
must result in a true statement. The required relation is x - y 2.
Choice (4)
23. The product of even and odd functions is always an odd function.

Choice (2)

24. If f(x) is a constant function then the image is same for all x.
Given f(2) = 4 => f(4) = 4

Choice (4)

25. If f(x) is a given graph then f(x - a) is obtained by shifting the graph of f(x) to the right
(horizontally) by a units.
Choice (3)
26. We know |x 3| =
=> Range of
=

(x - 3)
1

Choice (3)

Choice (3)
30. The given function is y = f(x) The graph of y = f(x) + c, c > 0 is obtained by moving the
graph y = f(x) vertically above for c units
Choice (3)

OPERATOR BASED QUESTIONS

27. y = |x| is given by
1.

2.

Given
a b = a2 - b2 + ab
2 3 = 23 - 32 + 2(3)
49+6=1
x

y = product of x and 2y = 2xy

Choice (3)

4
3.

5 = 2(4) (5) = 40

We consider the options,

a b = a + 2b.
a b = 2a - b.
Option (1)
( ) = + 2( ) =
<0
Option (2)
( )= + =
Option (3)
=

4.

5.

Choice (2)

For any values of a and b

ab is always positive
a b=

Choice (2)

Option (1)
= 2( ) = not an integer.

11.

Choice (4)

=xy
= x 3 y3
=x+y
= x 3 + y3
As 1 < y < x, < and < . Also < and < but
then . Among the options, only < < is true.

12. Given f(a, b) = a b

g(a, b) = (a - b)2
h(a, b) = (a - b)3
since a, b distinct so
when a < b h(a, b) < g(a, b) < g(a, b)
a > b h(a, b) > g(a, b) f(a, b)

= not an integer.

= not an integer.

Option (4)
=2
= 1 is an integer.

Choice (4)

8.

14.

a 3 = 0 => a + 3 - 3a = 0
=> 3 - 2a = 0 => a =
a 1=a
=> a + 1 - a = a => a = 1

Choice (4)

= =

Choice (1)

=
=

may be less than, equal to or greater

Choice (3)

13. h (3, 4) = (3 - 4)3 = -1

f(3, 6) = 3 - 6 = -3
g(1, 3) = (1 - 3)2 = 4
=

For all a, b,
a b = a + b ab
a e = a + e ae
a = a + e - ae (given)
=> e(1 - a) = 0 => e = 0

Option (iii)

=< 0

Option (3)

7.

Choice (4)

= y2

Option (2)

6.

(x, y) = x3 + y3
(x, y) = x3 - y3

Option (ii)
>0

Choice (2)

(x, y) = x + y
(x, y) = x y
(1, 1) = 0 and (2, 1) = 3
( (1, 1), (2, 1)) = 03 + 33 = 27

10. Option (i)

Option (4)
-5 2 = -5 + 2 (2) = - 1 < 0

9.

Choice (2)

15. Given t (a, b) = LCM of a, b

H (a, b) = HCF of a, b
L (3, 4) = LCM of 3, 4 = 12
L(5, 7) = LCM of 5, 7 = 35
H(L (3, 4), (5, 7) = H(12, 35) = 1

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

Choice (1)

Choice (2)
16. H (15,10) = 5, H (20, 64) = 4

L[(15, 10), H(20, 64)

] = L(5, 4) = 20

Choice (4)

17. (b * c) * (d * a) = b * d = c

Choice (1)

18. c2 = c * c = d, c3 = d * c = c
n=3

Choice (3)

19. d2 = d * d = a, d3 = a * d = d, d4 = a etc.,
a2 = a * a = b, a3 = b * a = a, a4 = b etc
d 6 * a5 = a * a = b

Choice (2)

20. (a * b) * c = c * c = d
While a * (b * c) = a * (b * c) = a * b = c.
Unless the order in which the operations are performed
are indicated, we cannot determine the value of a * b * c.

5.

Let the cost of an orange and an apple be b and a respectively from statement A, 3b = 2a +
15 from this equation we can't say whether b > a or not. Form statement B, 5b = 6a + 12 =>
b > a Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Choice (2)

6.

Let the four-digit number be abcd. Using statement A, a + b + c = d = 3a Using statement B,

b = 2a and c = a - 2 Using both the statements, a + b + c = a + 2a + (a - 2)
= 4a - 2 = 3a as a + b + c = 3a
=> a = 2, b = 4 and c = 0
d=a+b+c=6
Hence the number is 2406
Choice (4)

7.

Let Bhavan's daughter's and wife's ages be y and x respectively. The data is tabulated below
Amar
Bhavan
Wife
y + 24
Wife
x
Son
x-6
Daughter
y
Using both the statements, 7y - (x - 6) = Y + 24 - x
=> 7y - x = y+ 24 - (x - 6)
=> 6y = 30 => Y = 5
Age of Amar's wife = y + 24 = 29
Choice (4)

8.

Neither 0 the statement is independently sufficient, as we do not know the savings of the
third year. Using both the statements, we have 30% of (4k + 5k) + 30,000 = Savings of the
third year. As the ratio of income and expenditure = 30: 11, the ratio of income and savings
becomes 30 : 19. Combining the two statements, total income of 3 years = 4k + 5k + 6k =
15k
Total savings of 3 years
= 30% of 4k + 30% of 5k + (30% of 4k + 30% of 5k + 30,000)
= 5.4k + 30,000
Ratio of 3 year's income to 3 year's savings
= (15k) : (5.4k + 30,000) = 30 : 19.
This equation can be solved for k; and savings can be calculated.
Choice (4)

9.

From statement A alone, we cannot find the score as we do not know the number of
mistakes he committed. From statement B alone, we cannot find the number of
marks he got as we do not know the number of questions he attempted. From statements A
and B, we can find his marks as
39-18- (18/3) = 15.
Choice (4)

Choice (4)

DATA SUFFICIENCY
EXERCISE-1

1.

If the prices are 3x, 2x, 5x, from statement A, we get 5x - 3x = 30,000; hence we get x and
the price of the car of medium price. From statement B, we get 2x = 20,000 hence x and
then the required price. Hence, each statement itself is sufficient.
Choice (3)

2.

From statement A, we can assume the number of students in each class as 2x, 3x and 5x.
Since we don't know x, 1Qx cannot be found. From statement B, we get 2x + 20 = 4y; 3x +
20 = 5y and 5x + 20 = 7y. Solving these we can get x, and hence the number of students in
the three classes. Hence, both the statements are required.
Choice (4)

3.

From statement A, If Amisha purchases equal number of apples and oranges, she must pay
RS.12n (n, positive integer). Since 65 12n, she has not bought equal number of apples and
oranges. Hence A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, had she bought 3 oranges
and 4 apples more, she would have paid RS.1 08. So, she actually paid 108 - 3 x 5 - 4 x 7 =
65.This is now same as statement A and hence B alone is sufficient.
Choice (3)

4.

From statement A, for Rs.72, Hrithik can buy (1 apple and 13 oranges or (6 apples and
6 oranges). So, we cannot conclude from A. From statement B, for Rs.46 (101 - 5 x 7 - 4 x 5),
he can buy 5 oranges and 3 apples. So, we can conclude from B. Hence B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

10. Statement A alone is not sufficient, as it does not deal with salaries. Statement B states:
SavA : SavB = SalA : SaIB.
This data is not sufficient. However, when the two statements are combined, the question
can be answered. Salary = Saving + Expenditure.

Hence, SalA : SalB = (SavA + ExpA) : (SavB + ExpB)

=>
SavA + ExpA = SavB + ExpB
SavA
SavB
=> 1 + ExpA = 1 + Exps=> ExpA = Exps
SavASavB
SavA SavB
=>SavA
=ExpA
SavB ExpB
Hence SavA = ExpA = SalA
SavB ExpB
SalB
As per statement A, ExpA > ExpB;
Hence, SalA > SaIB.

Choice (1)
5.

From statement A, as the relation between the cost prices of the two articles is not given,
statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we know that the selling price of
both the articles is same and hence, the overall loss% is x 2/100.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)

6.

From statement A, We have 15% of SP = 18% of CP + 3. Profit = SP - CP. But from the
above equation, we cannot uniquely determine (SP - CP). Hence statement A alone is not
sufficient. From statement B, 9% of SP = 10% of CP + 1. So, we cannot find the profit.
Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. Using A and B together, we have two
independent linear equations. in SP and CP. So, we can find SP and CP, hence, we can find
the profit. A and B together are sufficient.
Choice (3)

7.

Given that 35% are men ~ 65% women. From statement A, 20% of 35% of the total = 7% of
the total. But, we do not know what percentage of the women employees attended the
meeting. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, 40% of 65% of the
total = 26% of the total. But, we do not know what percentage of the men attended the
meeting. Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. But, if we take both the statements
together, we have (7% + 26%) of the total i.e., 33% of the total employees attended the
meeting.
Choice (3)

8.

From statement A, we can say that Ram's income < Shyam's income. Hence, statement A
alone is sufficient. From statement B, though Ram's expenses are 80% of Shyam's expenses,
he is able to save the same amount. Ram's income - (0.8) Shyam's expenses = Shyam's
income - Shyam's expenses. Shyam's income - Ram's income = (0.2) Shyam's expenses.
Hence Ram's income is less than Shyam's income.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

9.

From statement A, p% = (d + 10)%, from which nothing can be concluded. From statement
B, when p% = d% => Discount> Profit, as mark up price is more than the cost price.
Choice (1)

Choice (4)

EXERCISE-2
1.

We know that discount percentage = discount/MP x 100 Using statement A alone S.P = 4d
MP = SP + d
MP=5d
Since MP is known in terms of discount, discount percentage can be found. Statement A
alone is sufficient. Using statement B alone, 5MP = 6SP
=>
Let M.P be 6x and S.P be 5x.
Discount = 6x - 5x = x As discount and MP are found in terms of x, Discount percentage can
be found.
Either statement A alone or statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

2.

3.

4.

Statement A gives us only the market value of the house, and cannot help us to calculate the
actual purchase price. Statement B says that, if the purchase price is p, then the mortgage
price, 4p/5 = 8,00,000.
So, 4p = 40,00,000, or p = 10,00,000. So statement B alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice (1)
From statement A, if the diagonal of the cube increases by 17% then its side (or edge) also
increases by 17%. So, the percentage increase in the volume can be found. From statement
B, when the lateral surface area increases by 56.25%, then its side increases by 25%. So, the
percentage increase in the volume can be found.
Choice (2)
Given, selling price of article = 1.2 time the cost price. From statement A, Selling price I =
market price As we do not know the marked price we cannot find the selling price.
Without knowing the selling price we cannot find the cost price as SP = 1.2 CP. From
statement B, as the SP is Rs. 180 we have (1.2) CP = 180. Hence CP can be found.

10. Given S.P. = Rs.144, if c is the cost price. From statement A, c(1 + C/100) = 144
100c + c2 = 14,400
(or)
c2 + 100c - 14,400 = 0 or c = 80 or -180. As c cannot be negative c is 80.
From statement B,
SP-CP x 100=45
SP
144-CP x 100 =45
144

So, CP can be calculated. Either of the statements is self-sufficient.

Choice (2)

EXERCISE-3
1.

2.

3.

4.

From statement A, one of a and b is an even prime. Hence one of a and b is 2 as 2 is the only
even prime. From statement B, a+ b + c + d = 89 If a, b, c and d are all odd, their sum would
have been even. As all primes are distinct only one of them can be even (i.e., assume value
of 2).
Let us say a = 2
b + c + d = 89 - a = 87
Consider a = 2, b = 3, c = 5, then
d = 89 - (2 + 3 + 5) = 79. So, 79 is the largest.
Consider a = 2, b = 5, c = 11, then
d = 89 - (2 + 3 + 11) =71. So, 71 is the largest.
So, we cannot find out the value of the largest of a, b, c and d.
Even using both statements, the question cannot be answered.
Choice (4)
From statement A, N can be 121 or 169 or 225 or 441 or 529 or 961. As we have more than
one value of N, statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, N is the square of a
prime number as it has only three factors.
Hence, N ranges from 112 = 121 to 312 = 961.
The possible values of N are 112 = 121, 132 = 169,
172 = 289, 192 = 361, 232 = 529, 292 = 841 and 312 = 961
We do not get a unique value of N using either of the statements.
From both statements together N is 121 or 169 or 529 or 961.
We still do not get a unique value of N.
Choice (4)
When the number is divided by 18 the quotient is 3, so the number is greater than or equal
to 54 and less than 71. From statement A, the value of the number is only 61 as from the
number 54 to the number less than 74 there is only one number (61) which leaves
remainder 1 when divided by 15. So when 61 is divided by 18 the remainder is 7.
Hence x = 7.
Statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, the possible values of the numbers are 58
and 66. When 58 is divided by 18 the remainder is 4.
When 66 is divided by 18 the remainder is 12. Hence x can be 4 or 12. As x is not unique,
statement B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
From statement A, abc = 35 and a = 7 so bc = 5 => b = 5 and c = 1 since b > c
or b = -1 and c = -5 is also possible. So statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B, abc = 35 and c = 1 =>ab = 35 a and b are odd integers so a = 7 and b = 5, as
a > band b > c so b is always positive as c = 1

so a = -7 and b = -5 is not possible. Hence the only possibility is a = 7 and b = 5.

From statement B, we obtain a unique value of b.

Choice (2)

5.

We know that for both 2 and 3 the last digits of their powers repeat after every 4 powers.
Hence, in order to get the last digit of any power of 2 or 3, we divide the respective power
by 4, get the remainder r and check the last digit of 2 or 3 raised to power r. But if the
power is a multiple of 4 then the last digit will be the last digit of 2 or 3 raised to 4 itself.
From statement A, if n is an even number we cannot say whether it is a multiple of 4 or not
and hence we cannot say what the last digit is. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B, we know that the power is a multiple of 4 and can get the last digits
according to the above-mentioned rule.
Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

6.

From statement A, If x = 2; Y = 1 then x 2> y3and x > y

If x = -2; Y = 1 then x2 > y3 but x < Y So statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B
1/x-1/y < 0
y-x/xy<0
=> (y - x) > 0 and xy < 0 or (y - x) < 0 and xy > 0
If Y = 4; x = -3 then y - x > 0 and xy < 0 and x < y
If Y = -3; x = -2 then y - x < 0 and xy > 0 but x > y
Statement B alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements,
If x = -2 Y = 1 then X2 > y3 and 1/x < 1/y and x < y
If x = -2 and y = -3 then x2 > y3 and 1/x < 1/y but x>y
Even after combining both the statements, the required result can't be obtained. Choice (4)

7.

From statement A, x3(x + 1) + x2 + x is even x3 (x + 1) + x2 + x = x3 (x + 1) + x (x + 1)

= (x + 1)(x3 + x). If x is odd, x3 +x is even
If x is even, x3 +x is even. Hence as x3 + x is even, x can be even or odd.
If x is odd or even then x4 + x3 + x2 + x is always even, so statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B, x2(x + 1) + x is even => x3 + x2 + x is even
If x is even, then x3 + x2 + x is also even If x is odd, then x3 + x2 + x is also odd. So statement
B alone is sufficient to say that x is even as x3 + x2 + x is even.
Choice (2)

8.

Let the two parts be 18x, 18y with 18x > 18y. Where x and yare co-primes
From statement A, 18x - 18y = 522 => 18(x - y) = 522
=> x - y = 29. If x = 31, y = 2. If x = 37, y= 8.
Hence unique values of x and y is not possible even though x and yare co-primes.
From statement B, 18x x 18y = 10044 => xy = 31 So the only possible pair of (x, y) is (31,1).
As x and yare known we can find the number i.e., 18x + 18y.
Hence statement B, alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

9.

From statement A, m2 + n3 < m3 + n2

n2 (n -1) < m2 (m -1) Statement A alone is not sufficient as (n - 1) and (m - 1) may be
positive or zero. From statement B, m2 n3 > m3 n2 => n > m
statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

10. From statement A,

Y=13(2n+1)=26n+13. So, y is not divisible by 26. From statement B,
Y = 39n + 26
If n is even, then y is the multiple of 26, otherwise not,
Hence, cannot be decided from statement B.

2.

From statement A alone we can say n is 2 => LCM of 22,24, 26 is 64.

Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, we can say that LCM of 2 2,24, 26 is
64. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (3)

6.

From statement A, we have the LCM of (16, 24, a)

= 144 and HCF of (16,24, a) = 4. As the LCM is a multiple of 9, the third number should be a
multiple of 9 and as it is 4, it has to be 9 x 4 = 36.
Statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, we have the LCM of (18, 24, a)
= 72 and HCF of (18, 24, a) = 6. As 18 = 3 2 x 2; 24 = 2 3x 3; LCM of these two is 32 x 23. We
cannot find the third number uniquely. It can be any multiple of 6 satisfying LCM = 72.
Statement B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)

7.

From statement A, (x + 1) (x + 3) (x + 5) (x + 7) is odd.

=> (x + 1), (x + 3), (x + 5), (x + 7) are all odd.
=> x is even. Statement A gives that x is even.
From statement B, ax + b 4x = c. x is a 4th power. Using both the statements, x is an even
number and is a 4th power. So, it is divisible by 16.
Choice (4)

8.

From statement A x x Y = 8 x 9
8 - 9 = -1 or 9 - 8 = 1
x-y=-1 or x-y= 1
Statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B alone, x = 4, or x = 9 and y = 6 or y=8
Hence (x - y) will have more than one value. Statement B alone is also not sufficient.
Combing both the statements. x = 9. And y = 8 because 9 has exactly three factors and 8 has
exactly four factors. Hence x - y = 9 - 8
Choice (4)

9.

When a fraction x/y is converted into decimals, the properties of the resultant decimals
depend on the prime factors involved in y. If y has only 2 and 5 as prime factors, then the
decimal will be of finite length. If y has prime factors, other than 2 and 5, a nonterminating recurring decimal is produced.
From statement B alone, which says y has exactly 3 distinct prime factors i.e., y has one
more prime factor besides 2 and 5; which means x/y is a non-terminating recurring decimal.
So statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

Choice (1)

EXERCISE-4
1.

5.

From statement A the number will be of the form 210k + 45. We cannot say whether the
above number is divisible by 23 or not. From statement B, the number will be of the form
(276k + 81). 276 is divisible by 23 and hence the remainder, when the above number is
divided by 23, will be the remainder of the division of 81 by 23 i.e., 12. Hence, statement B
alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
Let the numbers be hk and hl such that from statement A,
LCM is hkl = 160 ------------ (1)
From statement B h (k + I) = 72 ------------ (2)
Divide equation (1) with equation (2). Then we get
Since k and I are co-primes and they can only take the values 5 and
4, from (1) h x 5 x 4 = 160 =>h = 8, the numbers are (8 x 5) and (8 x 4)
i.e., 40 and 32.

Choice (4)

3.

We know xn - yn is always divisible by (x - y) whether x is even or odd. From statement A,

we know that n is divisible by 4 i.e., it should be an even number or we can assume n = 2k
where k is also even. So 24n - 3n = 28k - 32k = 256k - 9k which is always divisible by 256 - 9 =
247. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B also, we have that n is
divisible by 8 and so it should be an even number (2k). Then by the same reasoning as
above, 24n - 3n is always divisible by 247. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient. Choice (3)

4.

From statement A alone, we can rewrite the number a as a = n(n + 1). We can say that the
HCF is n. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot find
the HCF, if n = 1. Hence, statement B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)

10. It is given that x/y is in its simplest form. From statement A, x is 128, that means 2 is not a
factor. of y. From statement B, y has 2 prime factors. From both the statements A and B, y is
of the form 5P x b2 where b is a prime factor other than 2 and 5
x/y is a non-terminating and recurring decimal.
Choice (4)

EXERCISE-5
1.

2.

An infinite number of different triangles can be drawn having the same given area, and
each of them will have a different perimeter. So, statement A by itself cannot enable us to
answer the given question. Again, an infinite number of triangles can be drawn with one
angle being . So, statement B by itself cannot enable us to answer the given question.
Even using both the statements A and B, an infinite number of triangles having both
properties can be drawn. So, both the statements A and B together also do not help us to
answer the given question.
Choice (5)
Neither of the statements is independently sufficient as complete information about the
figure is not given.

Using both the statements, OAB is an equilateral triangle, because OA = OD + DA = OC +

CB = OB and
= ---- (1)
ODC is also an equilateral, for similar reasons --- (2)
As ODB =
DB is a tangent. By symmetry AC is also a tangent.
= . In OAC, CAD =
- AOB - OCA
=
= 30 .
Choice (4)
3.

From statement A alone, Though we know that the given polygon has 3 sides, the triangle is
not fully defined. Also we do have any other information to find its area. From statement B
alone, we do not know whether the polygon is a triangle or not. Hence this statement alone
is not sufficient. From A and B together, we know that the two adjacent sides of the triangle
and the included angle. Hence its area can be formed.
Choice (4)

4.

From statement A, x = 360/3 = 120 . So, statement A by itself is sufficient for answering the
given question. Since the length of the radius of the circle is irrelevant for calculating the
value of x, statement B by itself cannot help us to answer the given question.
Choice (1)

5.

Since the hour hand and the minute hand make an angle of 72 between 8 O' clock and 9 O'
clock twice, the answer choice is (4).
Choice (4)

6.

From statement A alone,

, we cannot find the ratio of the sides from information,

hence cannot find the ratio of P, Q, and R.

So, A alone is not sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot find the ratio of the sides
and what is given here is a relevant information (it is true for all triangles). So, B alone is
not sufficient. From statement A and B together, we cannot find P: Q: R as A alone is
not sufficient and B alone is a redundant statement.
Choice (5)
7.

It is given that a, c and e are parallel and b, d are parallel. Even after combining both the
statements, we cannot conclude that a is parallel to d,
which is necessary to conclude that x = y.
Choice (5)

8.

Since AB = 4; BC = 3 or AB = 3 BC = 4 satisfies both the statements A and B. We cannot tell

with certainty whether AB = 3 or AB = 4
Choice (5)

9.

For a given hypotenuse, there can be more than one combination of the other two sides, so
we cannot compute a unique value of the perimeter with statement A alone. However, with
another side as 4 units, the third side can be computed and hence the perimeter. Choice (4)

10. Since the tangent is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact, radius OT = AT 2
OA2. Taking both the statements together, we have AO = 12 - r and AT = 6, where r is the
radius of the circle.
Choice (4)

EXERCISE-6
1.

Let d km be the distance. d = 400 Let the speed of the bus be s kmph and the time taken be t
hours. 400 = st -->(I)
From statement A, (s - 20) (t + 20) = 400
=>st + 20s - 20t - 400 = 400
=>20(s - t) = 400
=>s - t = 20 --> (II)
From (I) and (II), we get (20 + t) (t) = 400
t2 + 20t - 400 = 0
A unique value of t exists and hence 's' can be determined. So statement A alone is
sufficient. From statement B
s 20 and t 20 and st 400
from (I) st = 400
=>s = 20, t = 20
Hence statement B alone is also sufficient. Either statement alone is sufficient. Choice (2)

2.

3.

From statement A, PQ= relative velocity x time of travel; and the time of travel 11.30-9.30 =
2 hours; relative velocity (60 + 40) = 100 kmph. So statement A is sufficient to answer the
question. From statement B, do not know whether two trains starts at same time or not. So
we can't answer to the question.
Choice (1)
Time taken to cross the bridge
= length of the bridge + length of the train
speed of the train
= time taken to cross the bridge, Statement A alone is sufficient.

the time taken by B is not know we can't find the speed of A. Using both the statements A's
speed = 100/20 = 5m/sec.
Choice (3)
10.

Choice (1)

4.

Neither of the statements is independently sufficient as the length of the track and the
speed of A and B are mentioned in two different statements. Using both the statements, as
the length of the track is 1200 m and the speeds are co-prime, always time taken by them to
meet at the starting point = length of the track.
i.e., 1200 seconds will be the answer.
Choice (3)

5.

Since neither the speed of the train nor the speed of the. man is given, the question cannot
be answered even by taking both the statements together.
Choice (4)

6.

Let the distance travelled = d km Let the speed in still water be x kmph and the speed of the

->Ram,Ramesh,Rameez
Length of the track = 500 m From statement A, Ram and Ramesh meet after 10 seconds for
the first time. There is no information of Rameez. So statement A alone is insufficient. From
statement B, Ramesh and Rameez meet after 10 seconds. There is no information of Ram
here. So, statement B alone is insufficient Using both the statements we get that Ram,
Ramesh and Rameez, met for the first time after 10 seconds. But it cannot be deduced
whether they are meeting for the first time at the starting point or elsewhere. So both the
statements together are not insufficient.
Choice (4)

EXERCISE-7

stream be y kmph. From statement A,

=>

1.

From statement A, work done by A and C in one day

= 1/10 -1/25 = 3150
So A and C together can do the work in
50/3 = 16 213 days.
We don't know the time taken by A and the time taken by C so we can't find who is the
most efficient. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, Band C's one day's
work
= 1/10 -1/50 = 2125
B's one day's work + C's one day's work is 2/25 so either B's one day's work or C's one day's
work must be more than 1/50 as the sum of the two fractions which are less than 1/50 is not
equal to 2/25. Either B or C will take less number of days to complete the work so A is not
the most efficient among A, Band C. Statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

2.

From statement A, time taken to complete the work by each of Kavya and Karuna is not
known so we can't answer the question. From statement B, time taken by Karuna, Kavya
and Kavita cannot be calculated so statement B alone also is not sufficient. Even by
combining both the statements, the time taken by Karuna or Kavya is not known. We can't
find their shares.
Choice (5)

But we can't find d. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, speed in still
water and the total time taken to cover the distance is not known. So statement B alone also
not sufficient. Using both the statements,
=>
So we can't find the value of d. So using both the statements also we can't answer the
question.
Choice (4)
7.

Whether they run in the same or in the opposite direction, they will meet at the starting
point after a time equal to the LCM of time taken by them individually to complete one
round. The time taken by each individually is given in statement B and hence, statement B
alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)

8.

Since the hour hand and the minute hand make an angle of 72 between 8 O' clock and 9 O'
clock twice, the answer choice is (4).
Choice (4)

9.

From statement A, B takes 100/4 = 25 seconds, but time taken by A is not known. So we
can't find A's speed. From statement B, A takes 5 sec less than B to complete the race but

3.

4.

From statement A alone, since 50% of the work is completed by B, 5 days we can say that
work can be completed by B in 10 days. So, we can answer the question. Hence, statement
A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone, since B works twice as fast as A, he can
complete the work in 5 days and hence we can answer the question. So, statement B alone
is sufficient. Each statement by itself is sufficient.
Choice (4)

Consider statement B: 9m + 3b = 1/3 ----- (1)

And 10b + 15w = 1/3 ----- (2)
We have to see whether we can get 6m + 4b + 3w = k ------ (3)
From a linear combination of these two equations. The 6 m is obtained by multiplying (1)
by
To get of (3) we need to divide (2) by 5
(1)+ (2)=>6m+4b+3w= +
we can't answer the question from A alone, but we can from B alone.

6.

7.

Let the work done by a man, boy and woman be m, b and w respectively. Consider
statement A: 2b + 3w = 1/5 ------ (1)
10m+3b =1/5------(2)
We need 6m + 4b + 3w = k -------- (3).
To get 6m, we multiply (2) by
We have 1.8b from (2). We need 4b in (3).
We multiply (1) by we get 3.3w and 3w, i.e., (3) is not a linear combination of (1) & (2)

5.

In either case the work is completed in 10 th hour only.

Hence in either case n is 9. We get a unique value from B.

Given a + b = 1/10
-------- (1)
Statement A gives a + b + c => 1/6
-------- (2)
Statement B gives c = 2a
-------- (3)
Using (1), (2) and (3), the question can be answered.

of the

work. In 18 hrs (9 periods of 2 hrs) they complete

is completed by Sudhir in

8.

Question statement gives, A + C do 1/20 ... (1) of the work in 1 day B + C do 1/15 .... (2) of
the work in 1 day. Statement A gives A + B do 1/12 in 1 day ..... (3) we can get C from the
three equations and hence, statement A alone is sufficient. Statement B gives A + B + C do
1/10 in 1 day ... (4). By solving (1), (2) and (4), we can get C and hence, statement B alone is
also sufficient.
Choice (4)

9.

Already in the question statement, relationship between efficiencies of A, Band C is given.

From statements A, Band C 1 day's work =
As Band C can be expressed in terms of A, time taken by A can be found.
Statement A alone is sufficient.From statement B, A and C can in 1 day work =
As C can be expressed in terms of A, time taken by A can be found.
Statement B alone is sufficient.

Consider statement A: In a period of 2 hrs, Sudhir and Sunil complete

If Sudhir starts, the remaining

(24) = 1.5 hrs. It implies if

sufficient.
Consider statement B: In a period of 2 hrs, Sudhir and Sunil complete

Choice (4)

10. Given P + Q = 1/216. Statement A gives P + R = 1/540. It is clear that statement A alone is
not sufficient as it gives another equation, but not the values of P and R. Statement B gives
Q = 1/540. This statement also gives one more equation and hence is not sufficient by itself
to find R. When both the statements are taken together, we get three equations and by
solving we get P, Q and Rand hence can answer the question.
Choice (3)

Sudhir starts the work it is completed in the 20th hour, as he takes more than 1 hr to
complete the remaining part. In that case n = 19. If Sunil starts, it is completed by him in
(16) =1hr.Here n=18 As we don't get a unique value for n, statement A alone is not

the work. In 8hrs, they do

From statement A, The earnings are distributed in the ratio of work done, as one days work
ratio of A and B is 3 : 2, so the time taken by A and B is in the ratio 2 : 3.
Hence we can find the time taken by A to complete the Work Statement A alone is
sufficient. From statement B,
A's 2 day's work = 3. 1/12 = .
A's 1 day's work = 1/8
So time taken by A to complete the work is 8 days So statement B alone is sufficient. Hence
either statement alone is sufficient.
Choice (4)

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

EXERCISE-8
1.

Since the profit percentage earned is not given in both the statements. It is not possible to
find the proportion of coffee in the mixture.
Choice (5)

2.

To require both the prices, we require both the statements. Since the other mixture is worth
1.45 (1.60 - 0.15), we can tell in what ratio they have to be mixed by applying the rule of
allegation.
Choice (4)

th part of

If Sudhir starts, the remaining

is completed in

If Sunil starts, it is completed by Sunil in

(12) = 2 hr.

3.

4.

5.

If x is the total mixture, then 2x/3 is milk from the main statement; From statement A, we
get (60 x 2/3) = (60 + y) 1/3, where y is the water added. Hence, y can be determined. From
statement B, we know that water in the initial mixture is 20 liters and hence, milk should
be 40 liters. Now 60 liters of water is to be added to make the ratio of milk and water equal
to 1: 2. Hence, statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (3)
From statement A, we can know that the milkman added 20% water. From statement B, we
can know that the milkman added 20% water.
Choice (3)
Using both the statements and applying the rule of Allegations

8.

9.

Since the ratio of boys and girls is given in statement A, we get, average weight
= 5/7(28) + 2/7(21) = 26 kg.

Choice (1)

Since the weights of the boys and the girls are not given, the question cannot be answered.
Choice (5)

10. From statement A, we do not get an idea of either the total volume of the initial mixture or
of the volume of either of the components. Hence, statement A alone is not sufficient. From
statement B also, we do not get any information regarding the volumes of the total mixture
or of the components and hence, statement B alone is not sufficient. Even when we take
both the statements together, we have the same problem.
Choice (5)

EXERCISE-9
1.
1 : 85
The ratio of the number of clerks to the number of supervisors can be found but we cannot
find the number of clerks and supervisors.
Choice (5)
6.

7.

From statement A,
Viv's average> Sachin's average.
Viv's innings < Sachin's innings.
So, nothing can be concluded from statement A, From statement B
Viv's average = Sachin's Average x (100 + x)/100.
Viv's innings = Sachin's innings x (100 - y)/100. and x > y > 0.
For Example :
If x = 25%; Y = 24%. runs scored by Viv < runs scored by Sachin.
If x = 25% and y = 16%, runs scored by Viv > runs scored by Sachin.
From the statements A and B also, nothing can be concluded.

a3 b2 - a2 b3 = a2b2 (a -b)
From statement A, a2 > b2
=> when a and b are positive then a > b When a and b are negative then a < b
so a > b or a < b
If a > b, then a3b2 - a2b3 is positive.
If a < b, then a3 b2 - a2b3 is negative.
Hence statement A alone is not sufficient.From statement B, a3> b3=>a>b
Hence a3b2 a2b3 is always positive.
Thus the question can be answered using statement B, alone.

Choice (2)

2.

Statement A gives an equation in terms of Principal and the rate of interest. Statement B
gives the rate of interest. Principal can be found using the statements A and B. As the
principle and the rate of interest can be found, compound interest can be calculated.
Choice (3)

3.

Statement A alone gives us the rate of interest and the number of installments is known to
be 36. Hence, using the formulae for equal installments

Choice (5)

From statement A,
Viv's average > Sachin's Average.
Viv's innings > Sachin's innings.
runs scored by Viv > runs scored by Sachin.
statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B,
Viv's average = Sachin's Average x (100 + y)/100.
Viv's innings = Sachin's innings x (100 - x) /100.
Since x > y > 0.
statement B alone is also sufficient. (For example, substitute suitable values for x and y)
Runs scored by Viv < runs scored by Sachin.
Choice (3)

equal installments =
We can find the answer. Hence, statement A alone is sufficient. Using statement B, we
cannot answer the question because we do not know anything about the rate of interest.
The rate of annual increase in land rates is irrelevant.
Choice (1)
4.

To solve this, both the rate and the principal amount are required. A + 205
= A (1 + x/100)n. A and x are required. As they are given in two different statements, both
the statements are required.
Choice (3)

5.

Given the rate of interest is 12% p.a. From statement A, the difference between S.I and C.l
for 1 year when compounded half yearly is Rs.8. If principal is P, then S.I for 1 year is
=8, p can be found, Hence statement A alone is sufficient.

Statement B alone is not sufficient as no monetary value is mentioned

To solve this, we require the rate of interest B gives and also know whether it is compound
interest or simple interest. We should also know the amounts A and B or the ratio of the
amounts. Statement A tells about the interest B fetches but does not give us any information
about the amounts. Statement B only gives the ratio of the amounts but does not inform
about the rate of interest B fetches. Hence, each statement by itself is not sufficient but if
taken together we get the required information to solve the problem.
Choice (3)

7.

From statement A, x-2*+12 = 256

By trial and error, we have (2)-2(2)+12=256
Also (4)-2<4)+2 =256
x = 2 or 4
From statement B alone, we cant get x By combining A,B we get x = 4

9.

B=1000[

]=10x +

Statement A gives the rate at which 40% of the total amount is invested and statement B
gives the rate at which the remaining 60% is invested. Hence, we observe that each
statement by itself does not give us any conclusive answer, but when taken together, we
can get the total earnings as part of the total investment and hence the total interest p.a. per
rupee.
Choice(3)

10. As A and B are given in two different statements, neither of them is independently
sufficient. Using both the statements,

Choice (3)

1.

Statement A alone is not sufficient since the triangle can be of any type i.e., right-angled or
equilateral. Using statement B also, it has to be an equilateral triangle (as the area is
maximum) From both the statements.
AB = AC = AC = P/3.
we can find the area of ABC.
Choice (3)

2.

From statement A, 3x + 2y = 16 As 2y and 16 are even, 3x = 16 - 2y, being difference of two

even numbers must be even. Hence x must be even. X can take values of either 2 or 4
satisfying the condition, then y assumes positive values of 2 or 5 respectively. Unique value
of x is not possible, so statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, x2 - 7x + 10 = 0
=> x2 - 5x - 2x + 10 = 0
=> x(x - 5) - 2 (x - 5) = 0
=> x = 5 or 2
Unique value of x is not possible from statement B, so statement B alone also is not
sufficient. Using both statements, the value of x = 2.
Choice (3)

3.

From statement A, a/(1 - r) = 5a => r = 4/5. Statement B alone is not sufficient, as t3 -t4 = 10
and cannot be found
Choice (5)

4.

The nth term of the geometric progression = arn-1

From statement A ar3 =16 > (1)
ar5 = 64 -> (2)
Dividing the second equation by the first equation we get
r2 = 4 => r2
If r = +2 then a = 2
If r = -2 then a = -2
160th term = ar15 = 2(2)15or -2(-2)15 = 2(2)15
In both the cases 16th term is the same. So the first statement alone is sufficient.
From statement B, ar = 4 -> (1)
ar7 = 256 -> (2)
By dividing the second equation we get r6 = 64
=> r = +2 or 2
if r = +2 then a = +2

Choice (3)

Given Rs.10,000 is divided into two parts A and B.

B= 10,000 -A.
Also as total interest rate on A and B for 1 year is Rs. 750.
Let the interest rate on A be r% and on 10,000 - A be s%.
Hence r% of A + s% of (10,000 - A) = 750 (1)
From statement A, we have r = 8%. But in the equation to find the value of A, we require
the values of s or one more relation. Hence statement A alone is not sufficient. From
Statement B, we have s% of (10,000 - A) - r% of A = 100(2).
But here also to find A, r and s should be known.
Using both the statements, we have 8% of A + s% of (10,000 - A) = 750 and s%
(10,000 - A) - 8% of A = 100. As two equations in A and s are there, both the values can be
found.
Choice (3)

>10x, B always greater than A.

EXERCISE-10

Choice (1)

6.

8.

]=10x.

As 10x +

and C.l for 1year when compounded half yearly is p{

Also p{

A=1000[

if r = -2 then a = -2
So the 16th term is 2(215) or (-2) (-2)15, i.e., it is uniquely determined. Second statement alone
is sufficient to answer the question.
Choice (4)

5.

From statement A, leaving out the first nine digits 1 to 9, a total number of 87- 9 = 8 digits
were used in the succeeding 2-digit numbers, or, in other words, = 39 two-digit numbers
were used. So, the two digit numbers used must be those from 10 to 48. So, we can say from
statement A alone that the term paper had 48 pages.
From statement B, the first 5 occasions in which the digit 6 would be used are in the
numbers 6, 16, 26, 36 and 46. So, the number of pages in the term paper could have been
ranged from 46 to 55. So, it is not possible to answer the given question uniquely from
statement B alone.
Choice (1)

6.

10. From statement A, if a is the first term and d is the common ratio, then we have 4(a + 11 d)
= 3 (a + 15d).
But with this, we cannot find any value. From statement B, we know the thirteenth term.
Sum of the first twenty-five terms.
=

[a + (a + 24d)]

[2 (a + 12d)] =

[2 x t13]

As we know t13, we can find the sum from statement B alone.

( if

1.

, both expression are equal to

Therefore

= =

The ratio of any two corresponding terms is the same.

From A, it follows that the ratio of any two corresponding terms is 1/2 provided, both the
terms are not 0.From B, it follows that the third terms are not 0 (as d > 0 and e > 0and a + 5d
= b + 5e = 0)
Therefore, even statement B is needed to make sure that the third terms are not both 0. We
need both the statements.
Choice (3)
7.

Let the consecutive terms be a/r, a, ar respectively.

From statement B, we can say a/r. a . ar = 27 or a = 3.
Also using statement A, we have 3/r + 3 + 3r = 13 solving r = 3. Therefore, the terms are 1, 3,
9. Sum of their squares can be found.
Choice (3)

8.

Middle term = G.M of the GP =

Using statement A, we do not know the product of the terms.
We cannot find the G.M and hence the middle term. A is not sufficient.
Using statement B, product is known. B is sufficient.

From statement A x3 1 or x3 -1
Or x 1 or x -1 | x | 1
Statement A alone is sufficient.
Using statement B alone, | x3| 1 so -1 x3 1 => -1 x 1
If x = 1, the answer is yes, if x 1, then | x | < 1.
Hence statement B alone is not sufficient.

(-b/a)2 = 4c/a
=> b2 = 4ac
As the value of the discriminate b2 - 4ac = 0, of the roots equation are equal.
Statement A alone is sufficient.
From statement B

Choice (2)

EXERCISE-11

Let the two APs be a, a + d, a + 2d,.. and b, b + e,

b + 2e ,.
We have

9.

= => -b = c
If b - 4ac = 0 then the roots are equal. We do not know the value of a so we cannot say
whether b2 - 4ac = 0 or not. So the second statement alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)

Choice (1)

2.

Let the cost of apple be Rs.x and cost of orange be

Rs.y, where x, y are integers.
From statement A: 7x + 8y = 80. we see that x has to be a multiple of 8. (x, y) = (8, 3) is the
only solution
Statement A alone is sufficient to answer.
From statement B we cannot decide anything because except cost of orange nothing else is
known.
Choice (1)

3.

Is PQ < Q

Is PQ - Q < 0

Is Q(P - 1) < 0 and

P > 2. So, to decide whether PQ < Q or not, we need the sign of Q. Statement A is not
enough, while statement B tells us that PQ < Q as Q is negative.
Choice (1)
Choice (2)

4.

Let the number of sweaters, raincoats and pairs of gloves be x, y, z respectively. From
statement A, 225x + 125y + 75z = 425 or 9x + 5y + 3z = 17
(x, y, z) = (1,1,1) or (0,1,4)
Statement A alone is not sufficient From statement B, the number of items of each variety
cannot be determined.
But by combining both A and B, (x, y, z) = (1, 1, 1)
Choice (3)

5.

From statement A, the given polygon ABCD is represented by |x| + |y| = 3.

This represents a square bounded by the lines
x + y = 3, - x + y = 3, x - y = 3 and - x - y = 3.
The points are B(3, 0), C(0, 3), D(-3, 0) and A(0, -3).
each diagonal is 6 units
area of square =

From statement A alone,

f(5) = f(4) - f(3)
f(4) = f(3) - f(2)
----------------f(5) = -f(2) (given that f(2) = 0)
=0
(A) alone is sufficient.
From statement B alone,
f(5) = f(4) - f(3)
f(4) = f(3) - f(2)
---------------f(5) = -f(2)
since f(5) = f(2) (given)
f(5) = 0

= 18 sq. units and each diagonal is a diameter of the circle. Area of the

circle whose radius is 3 units is 9 .

Area of shaded portion = 9 - 18 = 9( - 2) sq. units
Statement A alone is sufficient to answer From statement B:
The equation of the circle is x 2+y2=16
radius of the circle r = 4
Area of the circle = (42) = 16
Since a diameter of the circle is a diagonal of the square, the diagonal of square (d) = 8

Statement (B) alone is sufficient. Either of the two statements is sufficient.

Area of square = = 32
Area of shaded region = 16 - 32 = 16(-2)
Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question.
We can answer the question from either of .the statement.

9.
Choice (2)

6.

From statement A, we cannot say whether r > s or not as signs of rand s are not known.
From statement B, we can say r > s as rand s are raised to an odd power so their sign will not
change.
Choice (1)

7.

From statement A, 9(n + 2)2 + 2(n + 2) + 11 = n3 + 3n2 + 3n + 1

n3 - 6n2 - 3n - 50 = 0
Since number (92B), B = 11, so the base n + 2 > 11.
i.e., n > 9.
By trial, if n = 10, n3 - 6n2 - 35n - 50
= 1000 - 650 - 350 - 50 = 0
Dividing the polynomial by n -10, we get (n - 10) (n2 + 4n + 5) = 0, i.e., n = 10 or n is
complex.
n has to be 10.
statement A above is sufficient From statement B, given (1887) n = (1456)10
n3 + 8n2 + 8n + 7 = 1456
n3 + 8n2+8n -1449 =0
By inspection, only n = 9 only satisfies the equation. Statement B is sufficient.
We can answer the question from either of the statement.

8.

f(x)=f(x + 1) + f(x - 1)
f(x + 1) = f(x) - f(x - 1)
To find f(5).

Choice (2)

Choice (2)

Given the cost of each of apple, mango and orange respectively is Rs.9,Rs.8 and Rs.3
From statement A Ashok spent an amount of Rs.67.The following table gives the possible
number of fruits of each variety
Apples
1
2
3
4

Mangoes
2
2
2
2

Oranges
14
11
8
5

Total cost
67
67
67
67

We cannot uniquely determine the number of apples

purchased.
Statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B, we do not know the total amount spent. We cannot find the number of
apples. But combining the statements A and B only the 4 th row of table i.e., 4 apples, 2
mangoes and 5 oranges satisfies the given conditions.
Number of apples purchased=4
Choice (3)
10. (ABXY34)12 = 12(ABXY3)12 + 4,which is always divisible by 4.
As 572 = 4(143) = 4(11) (13),we have to find out ,whether (ABXY34) 12 is divisible by 11 and
13 (i.e., 12 -1 and 12 + 1)
The remainder when (ABXY34)12 is divided by (11)10
=A + B +X + Y + 3 + 4
=10+11+X+Y+3+4=28+X+Y
If X+Y=5 or 16
(ABXY34)12 is divisible by 11 (i)

(ABXY34)12 =A(12)5 + B(12)4 + X(12)3 +Y(12)2 +3(12)1 + 4

when (ABXY34)12 is divided by 13(i.e.[12 (-1)])
the remainder is A + B X + Y 3 + 4=2 +(Y X)
if(ABXY34)12 is multiple of 13,2 + (Y X) = 0 or 13.
Therefore ,if X Y = 2 or -11, (ABXY34)12 is divisible by
13 (ii)

Thus statement A alone is sufficient.

From statement B, q is false.
~q=>~p, from this we cannot conclude anything.
Hence statement B alone is not sufficient.
4.

From A, the number is divisible by 11 and 13

Hence it is divisible by 143,as well as by 572
From B,(ABXY)12 = 18,979 We express 18979 in base 12

The number is (AB97)12

X=9 and Y=7
As X Y = 2 and X + Y =16
(ABXY34)12 is divisible by 572
We can answer the question from either statement.

Choice (2)

EXERCISE-12
1.

From statement A, all companies which have managers also have engineers. But there is no
specific information about engineers in XYZ. Statement A alone is not sufficient. Statement
B alone is not sufficient as there is no information about engineers in the company XYZ.
Using both the statements, company XYZ has a manager implies it has an engineer also.
Choice (3)

2.

From A alone, Rohan does not play Hockey.Hence Sanjay does not play Cricket. So A alone
is sufficient. From B alone, Rohan plays Hockey, Sanjay plays Cricket and Sunil plays
Football. So, B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

3.

Let the statements be denoted by p, q, r and s respectively, where p = Kishore wakes up in

the morning q = he goes to office r = he meets his boss s = he watches a movie in the
evening. The problem statements and their implications are as follows.
If p, then q; p => q and ~q =>~P
Only if ~q, then r; r=> ~q and ~q =>~ r.
Only if r, then s; s => r and ~r =>~s
From statement (A) q is true.
~q=>~r, i.e., he does not meet his boss on Monday.
=>He does not watch a movie in the evening.

Choice (1)

Let the statements he denoted by p, q and r respectively, where p = It rains. q = Pratap

carries an umbrella r = he does not visit the temple. Now the problem statements and their
implications areas follows:
Implications:
Only if p, then q
q => p and ~p=>~q
Unless q, then r
~q => rand ~r => q
From statement A, p is not true.
Since ~p=> ~q and
~q =>r.
So we can conclude about r. i.e., he did not visit the temple yesterday. Thus statement A
alone is sufficient. From statement B, p is true. Since nothing can be concluded from p, so
statement B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)

5. Let the statement be denoted by p, q, r and s respectively where p = Dhoni losses the toss
q = India selects to bat first r = shewag opens the inngings. s = India sets a target of more than
250 runs. Now. the problem statements and their implications are as follows.
Implications:
Unless p, then q
~p =>q and ~q=>p
If q, then r
q =>r and ~r=>~q
If r, then s
r =>s and ~s=>~r
From statement A, r is not true
Since ~r=> ~q and ~q=>p, we can conclude that p is true. i.e., Dhoni lost the toss, thus statement
A alone is sufficient. From statement B, s is not true. Since, ~s =>~r and
~r=>~q and ~q =>p, we can say that Dhoni lost the toss. Thus statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)
6.

From statement A alone we do not know the percentage of students who passed in only
Maths or in only English or both the subjects. Hence statement A alone is not sufficient.
From statement B alone, we do not know the percentage of students who pass only in
Maths or Maths. Statement B alone is not sufficient. Combining both the statements, those
who passed only in English = 50% - 25% = 25%
Those who passed only in Maths = 50% - 25%
Those who have passed either in English or Maths
= 25% + 25% + 25% = 75%
Those who failed in both English and Maths. = 100% - 75% = 25%
Choice (3)

7.

8.

From statement A alone, we know the total number of persons in the club as 500 and the
number of persons who play both hockey and football is 250. But to find the number of
persons who play only football, we require the number of persons playing football.
Statement A alone is not sufficient.
Statement B alone is not sufficient as we don't have any information about the number of
persons who play football. Using both the statements, as we know the number of persons
who play only hockey as 50, both the games as 250 and total as 500, we can find that the
number of persons who play only foot ball = 550 - 250 = 50.
Choice (3)
From A, as the numerical value is not given we cannot determine the number of members
who play both Bridge and Chess. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B alone we cannot
determine the number of members who play both Bridge and Chess. So, A alone is not
sufficient. Combining A and B, we get

= 40 - x + x + 40 - x
80 -x = 100
x = 20.
20 players play both Chess and Bridge.

10. From A, as we do not have any information regarding A we cannot determine how A
relates to B. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B, as we do not have any information
regarding B, we cannot determine how B relates to A. Combining A and B, we get A is the
wife of B.
Choice (3)

EXERCISE-13
1.

From statement A, B is not seated to the right of A. This means B is seated to the left of A.
So B may be in the middle of the row or to the extreme left of the row. So the first
statement alone is not sufficient. From statement B, C is not seated to the left of B. This
implies C is seated to the right of B. So B may be in the middle of row or extreme left of the
row. So the second statement to alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements, B is to
the extreme left of the row.
I
II
III
B
A or C A or C
So by using both the statements we can say that S is not seated in the middle of the row.
Choice (3)

2.

From statement A, the possible arrangements are

Choice (3)

9.

So, the first statement alone is not sufficient. From the second statement we get A, D and G
are sitting together. But we cannot determine whether B is sitting exactly in the middle of
the row or not. So, the second statement B alone is not sufficient. Combining both the
statements, the possible different arrangements are
From A, We have b + c + e = 40 --- (1)
a + c + f = 60 --- (2)
and c = 20. but we have a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 100 --- (3)
(1)+ (2) =>a+b+2c+e+f=100
---(4)
(3) - (4) => g + d - c = 0
=> c = g + d.
but it is given c = 20. d + g = 20
So, A alone is sufficient. From B, we have d + e + f + g = 70.
a + b + c = 20. So, B alone is not sufficient.

From the above arrangements we can conclude that B can never sit exactly In the middle of
the row.
Choice (3)
3.
Choice (1)

From statement A, we know that Band E are adjacent to each other and B is to the
Immediate right of E, but as we do not know the positions of the other people, we cannot
determine who is sitting in the middle of the row. So, statement A alone is not sufficient.

From statement B as E is the only person sitting adjacent to C, C is at either of the ends of
the row.
C E A/B/D A/B/D A/B/D
A/B/D A/B/D A/B/D E C
So, statement B alone is not sufficient. From A and B, we get,
C E B D A or C E B A D
Hence, we can find that Bharat is sitting at the middle of the row.
Choice (3)
4.

5.

6.

the other two people. Hence, A alone is not sufficient. From statement B alone, we cannot
say if Ravi is in the first or in the last position. From A and B together, we can say that he is
in the first position.
Choice (3)
8.

From statement A as we do not know the position of Rupesh and Nishant we cannot
determine the number of people in the row. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From
statement B as we do not know the number of people standing in between Rupesh and
Nishant, we cannot determine the number of people standing in the row. So statement B
alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements,
Number of people in the row = 20 + 15 + 22 = 57 (or)
Number of people in the row = 5 + 15 + 7 + = 27
So the number of people in the row cannot be determined uniquely.
Choice (4)

In none of the above cases, it is possible to say if A is standing next to C or not. So statement
A alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we only know that A occupies the middle
position

We cannot conclude if A is next to C or not. So statement B alone is not sufficient.

Now, using both the statements we have the following arrangements.

From A, we have Physics and Zoology are at the bottom and top and neither of these are
adjacent to Chemistry which implies that the book on Chemistry is in the middle. So, A
alone is sufficient. From B alone, we get the book of Mathematics is in the middle.
Choice (2)

Case a) and c) are not possible, since D and G must have one place between them. In case b,

From A, the possible ways are

Except in the second arrangement where A and C cannot be next to each other the others
two arrangements we cannot conclude if A and Care together or not. So even by using both
the statements together it cannot be determined if A is next or C or not.
Choice (4)
9.

The distance between A and D, Band D, A and C is maximum. So, A alone is not sufficient.
Similarly, from (B) alone we get

As explained earlier, (B) alone is also not sufficient. Combining A and B, we get

Hence, we cannot determine.

7.

From statement A, we know that there are 3 persons standing between E and F.

From statement A, we cannot conclude if Pratp is sitting next to Vijay for we only know
that Pratap and Ramkuar are sitting next to each other. So statement A alone is not
sufficient. From statement B, we only know that Abhishek and Kishore do not sit next to
each other. From this we cannot conclude if Pratap is sitting next to Vijay or not. So
statement B alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements together. We can conclude
that Pratap is not sitting next to Vijay.

Choice (4)

From statement A alone, as Jaipal is behind Ravi, we can conclude that Ravi is to in the last
position. But we cannot say if he is in the first position as we do not know the positions of

OR

EXERCISE-14

The above two possibilities shows that Vijay must be sitting between Kishore and
Abhishek, so he cannot be next to Pratap.
Choice (3)
10. From statement A, we cannot conclude as to who is sitting opposite to C for we only know
that Band D do not sit next to each other. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From
statement B we know that E and F sit on either side of A. Now from this we cannot draw
my conclusion as to who is sitting opposite to C. Hence statement B alone is not sufficient.
By using both the statements together, we can conclude that A sits opposite to C.
The possible cases are as follows.

1.

To find if "X is the father of Y" From statement A, Y is not the son of X. But this does not
imply "X is not the father of Y". X still, may be father of Y (if Y is the daughter of X) So first
statement alone is not sufficient. From statement B, here, the gender of Z is not specified. X
may be male or female. Combining both the statements it is clear that Y is the female and is
the daughter of X and Z. But whether X is male or female, that can't be determined.
Choice (4)

2.

From statement A, Z, is the father of Y and X. X is the brother of Y since X is the son.
Hence we can say that X is not the cousin of Y. First statement alone is sufficient. From
statement B, Y is the daughter of the mother of X. Therefore Y is the sister of X. Hence we
can say that X is not the cousin of Y.
Second statement alone is also sufficient.
Thus, either of the statements is sufficient.
Choice (2)

3.

From statement A, P's father's mother's only child is none other than P's father. As his
spouse is Q, Q is the mother of P. As Q is the female she cannot be the husband.
So, statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, R is the father of Q and they belong
to different gender which implies that Q is a female. So Q cannot be the husband. So
statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

4.

From A, we get X's mother's father is Band V's father's father is B. X's mother and V's father
are siblings. Hence X is the cousin of Y. So, A alone is sufficient. From B alone, X could be
either the brother of Y or the cousin of Y. So, B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)

5.

Statement A alone is not sufficient to find the relationship between A and B as the genders
of A as well as B are not known. From statement B, as D's father's only son is A and B is the
daughter's daughter of D, A is the uncle of B. Hence statement B alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)

6.

From A, as we do not have any information regarding A we cannot determine how A

relates to B. So, A alone is not sufficient. From B, as we do not have any information
regarding B, we cannot determine how B relates to A. Combining A and B, we get A is the
wife of B.
Choice (3)

7.

Among six members there are two housewives and two spinsters and the other two are
fathers. Hence, there are only two male members. So, A alone is sufficient. Among six
members there are two couples which imply that two females are there and two nieces
which implies the other two are males. So, B alone is sufficient.
Choice (2)

(or)

Choice (3)

8.

9.

From statement A we cannot say if A is the mother of B or A can be the father of B. So

statement A alone is not sufficient. From, statement (B), we cannot say whether A is the
mother of B or not as nothing is mentioned about B. So statement B alone is not sufficient.
Using both the statements together we can say that A is the mother of B for in statement
(A), it is given that B is A's son. Where as in statement. (B), it is given that A is a female. So
by using both we can conclude that A is B's mother.
Choice (3)
From statement (A), we cannot say if E is the father of G. D being the grandfather of G,
does not make E as the father of G, or it is possible that D had a daughter whose child is G.
So statement A, alone is not sufficient. From statement (B), we cannot say regarding E being
G's father or not as we do not know if D had any other child other than E. So statement B,
alone is not sufficient. Even by using both the statements together, we cannot conclude
whether E is the father of G or not. Thus both the statements together are not sufficient to
answer.
Choice (4)

10. From statement (A), we cannot say if D is the niece of B, since nothing is mentioned
regarding D. So statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement (B), we cannot say
regarding D being the niece of B or not, as nothing is mentioned about B. So, statement B
alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements together we can conclude that D is the
niece of B.
A-E
|
B, C-F
|
.
D
There are three females E, F and D and there males A, B, C. Married couples.
1. A-E
2. C- F
B is D's uncle or D is B's niece. Using both the statement together we can answer that D is
the niece of B.
Choice (3)

EXERCISE-15
1.

From A, between 4 and 5 oclock, the two hands of the Clock is at 90 at 4 hrs 5 min and at
4 hrs

min.

So, A alone is not sufficient From B alone we cannot determine as no time is mentioned.
Combining A and B, we can conclude that Michael asked Change to meet him at 4hrs 5
min but he came at 4 hrs

min.Hence,change was late by

Choice (3)

2.

From statement A, the total number of times the clock strikes in 12 hours =

= 78 times.

So, A alone is sufficient. From statement B alone we cannot determine the number of times
the clock strikes in each hour. So, B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
3.

In 12 hours the two hands of the clock are together for 11 times. So, A alone is not
sufficient. From B alone the time could be any time between 4 and 5. So, B alone is not
sufficient. Combining A and B, at 4 hrs 21 min the two hands of the clock are together
between 4 and 5.

Choice (3)

4.

When the reflection of the clock is seen in the mirror it shows 8 hrs 25 min. Hence the
actual time is 12- 8 hrs. 25 min = 3 hrs -35 minutes. So, A alone is sufficient. From
statement B alone we cannot find the time in the clocks as it may 6 o' clock, 9 o' clock 3 o'
clock etc. So, B alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)

5.

From statement A, we can find the time for which he was outside. Let the time when he
went out and the time when he returned be x minutes past 5 pm and y minutes past 6 pm
respectively.
12
12

6
Clock when he went out

6
Clock when he returned

When he went out went,

Minute hand position

Hour hand position

From 12:

150+

6x

When he returned,
Minute hand position
From 12:
6y
Now 6x =180+ ---(1)
6y=150+ ---(2)
12x-y=360---(1)
12y-x=300---(2)
Multiplying (2) by 12 and adding

Hour hand position

180+

Since there is only one leap year among the given 5 years, it has to be year C. So statement
B alone is sufficient.
Choice (1)

143y=3960 or y=27
Substituting this value of y in (1)
12x=360+
x = 30 +

=32

He went out at 32

mins past 5 pm

He returned at 27

mins past 6 pm

Time spent outside

5:32 pm to 6pm+6pm to 6:27
=27

127

minutes

From statement A, any two years having same number of days may be both leap years or
non-leap years. If both are leap years, the two years must differ by 4 years or a multiple of
4. As A and D differ by only 3 years, they are not leap yea's. Hence B or C has to be a leap
year as in any four consecutive years one of them must be a leap year. Hence statement A is
insufficient. From statement B, either B or D is a leap year. Hence statement B is
insufficient. Using both the statements as D is not a leap year, B is a leap year.
Choice (3)

8.

From statement A, in a non leap year the year starts and ends with the same day of the
week. So, the year X is not a leap year Statement A alone is sufficient. In a non leap year the
months February and Mach start with the same day of week, where as in a leap year they
will not start with the same day of the week. So, the year X is a leap year statement B alone
is sufficient.
Choice (2)

9.

From statement A, we can say that Menon has not celebrated hrs birthday in February. But
this alone is not sufficient to find the month in which he celebrated his birthday.
From statement B, we have the following possibilities.
(i) December, January and February :
31 + 31 + 28 = 90 days
(ii) February, March and April:
29 + 31 + 30 = 90 days
(iii) January, February and March:
31 + 28 + 31 = 90 days
So statement B, alone is not sufficient. Using both the statements also we cannot find the
month exactly as still there are two possibilities (Dec, Jan, Feb) or (Feb, March, April).
Note: (January, February, March) combination is ruled out as in that case we get Menon has
celebrated his birthday in February which is contradicting statement A.
Choice (4)

pm

Thus statement A alone is sufficient. From statement B, let the time when he went out be x
minutes past 5 pm. So when he returned it was x minutes to 7 pm. Let the time he spent
outside be T.
x + T + x = 2 (60) mins [From 5 pm to 7 pm]
T = 120 - 2x We cannot find the value of T without knowing the value of x. So statement B
alone is not sufficient.
Choice (1)
6.

7.

Let us consider the years such that only one among them is a leap year.
A 2001
2002
2003
B 2002
2003
2004
C 2003
2004
2005
D 2004
2005
2006
E 2005
2006
2007
But we take years where the centre year is not a leap year, we get anyone of the five years
as leap year.
A 1896
1895
1894
1893
1900
B 1897
1896
1895
1894
1901
C 1898
1897
1896
1895
1902
D 1899
1898
1897
1896
1903
E 1900
1899
1898
1897
1904
From statement A, we cannot say which are among them is the leap year.
Since A + B + C > C + D + E
A+B>D+E
It is possible that one of A or B is the leap year, but we cannot say which one, Statement A
alone is not sufficient. From statement B, we can conclude that year C is the leap year.
Since (A + B + C) = (C + D + E)
A+B=D+E

10. Let us assume that the year 'X' is a leap year and Ranjit's birthday is on 1st March (Sunday)
and in the next year he celebrates his birthday on the same date and is on Monday. Let us
assume that year 'X' is a non leap year and Ranjit's birthday is on 28th February (Sunday)
and in the next year he celebrates his birthday on the same date and is on Monday. So, the
year X could be either a leap year or a non leap year. So, A alone is not sufficient. Similarly
B is also not sufficient.
Choice (4)

DATA INTERPRETATION

TABLES
1.

2.

3.

4.

Number of people who like only Bar one = 124

Number of people who like only Kit Kat = 178
x 100 = 69.6% or 70%
Number of people who like perk = 144
Number of people who like Munch = 132
Ratio of sales = 144 x 12 : 132 x 8 = 18 : 11

Ratio of sales of Band D in 1997

:
= 420 : 529

Choice (3)
9.
Choice (5)

The number of people whose first preference is Eclairs and second preference is munch are
129 and the number of people whose first preference is munch and second preference is
Eclairs are 83.
%=
x 100 =(
) x 100
55%

Choice (2)

The population of the residential area cannot be determined as we don't know the exact
number of people whose first preference is a certain brand and the second preference other
brand.
Choice (5)

6.

Out of the given choices, the increase in B will be greater than that of A, since 15% of 115
will be greater than 20% of 110 which is greater than 20% of 108. The tie is between A and
E only. The overall percentage increase from 1997 to 2000 in case of
A = 1.3 x 1.2 x 1.1 x 1 = 171.6
In case of E = 1.28 x 1.1 x 1.12 x 1 = 172.03
The increase in E is the greatest.
Choice (5)

7.

Let sales in 1997 be 100

Sales in 2000 = 108+ 21.6 + 38.8 =163.8 or 164
Sales in 2000 =
x 41 = 164 crores
Sales in 1997 = 100 crores.
Sales of B in 1999
100 crores = 1.15 x 1.15 x sales in 1997
Sales of B In 1997 =

Let the sales turnover in 1997 be 100 The sales turnover of Company A in 1999 = 110 + 20%
of 110 = 132. But sales turnover in 1999 = 135 crores
Sales turnover in 1997 =
less than 100

Sales turnover of C in 1997 =

more than 100

Sales turnover of D in 1997 =

less than 100

Sales turnover of E in 1997 =

less than 100

There is only one company, whose sales turnover was more than 100 crores.
Choice (2)
10. The sales turnover of company C in 2001 = 100 x 1.08 x 1.2 x 1.3 x 1.3 = 219%
The increase is 219 - 100 = 119%

Choice (3)

BAR CHARTS
1.

Trade deficit is in 1997, 99 and 2000 = 10 + 40 + 30 = 80

Trade surplus is in 1996, 98 and 2001 =10+20+rn=40.
Total trade deficit = 80 - 40 = Rs.40 thousand crores
Average exports = 140 thousand crores.
30% of 140 = 42
-2%of140 = 2.8
--------39.2
----- ---+0.5% of 140 = 0.7
-------------- --------Hence 28.5% = 39.9

Choice (4)
2.

8.

Choice (1)

Similarly sales turnover of B in 1997

=
less than 100 crores

In whichever square the 'brand' in the column and the brand in the row meet. that gives
the exact number of chocolates of the brand. The number of each brand of chocolates is in
the diagonal form starting with 256 and ending with 132. Adding all these values,
256 + 498 + 178 + 144 + 286 + 124 + 88 + 132 = 1,706
Choice (1)

= (1.55 - 1) 100
5.

Sale of D in 1999 = Rs.130 crores = 1.05 x 1.3 x sales in 1997

Sales of D in 1997 =

In 1999, totals tonnage of exports

= 20 x 107 tones
Total tonnage of Imports =

= 30 x 107

Choice (1)

107 is common. Exports are less than imports by

x 100=33
3.

4.

7.
Choice (4)

Trade surplus in 1998 = 130 - 110 = 20,000 crores.

Trade surplus in 2001 = 160 - 150 = 10,000 crores.
Percentage decrease =
x 100 = 50%

Production of rice in 2010 will be 90 + 20% of 90

= 108 m tons.
Percentage increase of wheat from 1990 to 2000
x 100 = 40%

Trade surplus in 2002 = 50% of 10,000 = 5,000 crores.

Imports in 2002 = 150 + 20% of 1,50,000 = 1,80,000 crores.
Exports in 2002 = Imports + Trade surplus
= 1,80,000 + 5,000 = 1,85,000 crores.
= 185 thousand crores.

Production of wheat in 2010 will be 70 + 40% of 70 = 98 million tons.

Total production of rice and wheat in 2010 = 108 + 98 = 206 million tons.
Target = 240 million tons.
The production of coarse grain in 2010 should be
240 - 206 = 34 million tons.

Exports after three years will become 160(1.1)3 = 212.96 thousand crores.
Imports after three years will become 150(0.9)3 = 109.35 thousand crores
Total trade = 213 + 109 = 322 thousand crores.

Choice (2)

Choice (1)
1.

Percentage decrease in production of pulses from

1989-90 to 1999-2000
x 100 = 13.33%
The average price of pulses for the given years increases by the same 13.33%.
13.33% of 18 to be added to Rs.18
Rs.18
10% of 18
=
1.8
3% of 18
=
.54
.3% of 18
=
.054
----------20.394
----------= Rs.20.40 (approx.)

6.

2.

3.

Choice (3)

Total quantity of food grains in the year 2000 = 190 + 13 = 203 million tons = 203 x 10 6 x 103
kg Indian population = 100 crores = 100 x 10 7 persons.
Per capita availability =

= 203 kg

Choice (2)

PIE CHARTS

Quantity of food grains in 1999-2000 as per the target = 175 + 20% of 175 = 210 m tons.
Whereas achieved quantity of production = 203 m tons.
Deficit = 7 m tons.
Deficit as a percent of total production
= 7/210 x 100 = 3.3%
Choice (2)
5.

Increase of rice from 1990 to 2000

= x 100 = 20%

Choice (4)

4.

Imports of pharmaceutical products = 40% of 64.8 = 25.92

Given 360
----- 36 billion dollars
25.92
-----?
?=
= 2.592 billion dollars
Total internal production = 8 x 2.592
= 20.736 billion dollars

Choice (3)

Angle made by Bulk goods and paper and allied products is 147.6 .
360
------ 36 billion dollars
147.6
------?
Clearly 1
------ 0.1 billion dollars
147.6 will be = 147.6 x 0.1 = 14.76 billon dollars

Choice (1)

Total value of exports of textile industry is 20% of 24 = 4.8 billion dollars.

Total value of imports of textile industry =
x 64.8
= 32.4 = 32.4 x 0.1 = 3.24 billion dollars
Net exports = 4.8 - 3.24 = 1.56 billion dollars

Choice (5)

India's fuel bill =

x 36 = $9 billion
New fuel bill = $(9 - 2) = $7 billion
Capital good's bill =
= $3.96 billion
Ratio of imports of now fuel bill to the capital goods
bill = 7 : 3.96 7:4

Choice (2)

5.

6.

Fuel bill was 90 in 1999-2000 and has increased by 40%. Hence the new angle is 90 + 36
= 126. Since all the other commodities bills have not changed, the total angle for these
remains = 270 i.e. the total angle is 396 .
Angle for Capital C300ds is 39.6. Hence for a new pie
chart, angle of Capital Goods is
x 360 = 36 .
Choice (1)
Child mortality in Afghanistan =

8.

= 4.16%

Child mortality in India in 1999-00 =

Considering the given choices, ratio of expenditure to profit is as follows.

1994-95, 1998-99 => 20: 5 = 4: 1 and 20: 10 = 2: 1
1995-96, 1999-2000 => 30: 10 = 3: 1 and 40: 10= 2:1
1997 -98, 1999-2000 => for 1997-98 ratio cannot be determined, as profit is nil.
1998-99, 1999-2000 => 20: 10 = 2: 1 and 40: 20 = 2: 1
In 1998-39 and 1999-2000, ratio of expenditure to profit is same.

Choice (4)

Choice (4)

4.

Observing the graph and the values of income computed for the given years, none of the
variables income, expenditure and profit shows the similar trend.
Choice (5)

5.

The imports may be in dollars or in some other currency. This is not mentioned. Hence the
profit or loss cannot be determined.
Choice (5)

6.

Profit available for share holders in 1995-96 for

X = 0 x 40,000 = 0
Y = 15 x 15,000 = Rs.5,25,000
Z = 35 x 15,000 = Rs.5.25.000
Both Y and Z have equal amount of profit available.

Choice (5)

Profit available to share holders of company Z in

1996-97 and 1997-98 is as follows
1996-97: 25 x 20,000 = RS.5.00.000
1997-98: 35 x 18,000 = Rs.6,30,000
Percentage Increase
=
= 26%

Choice (2)

Let the number of shares of company Y in both the years be x.

Profit available to shareholders in
1995-96 = Rs, 15 x X and that In 1998-99
= Rs.25 x X
Ratio of EPS for these years
= Rs.15: Rs.25 = 3: 5
Also ratio of profits available to shareholders is
15x : 25x = 3: 5

Choice (1)

x 18 = 1.25

Child mortality in India in 1998-99 was

= 1 lakh

Child mortality in Asia in 1998-99 was =

= 16.66 lakhs
Choice (1)

If child mortality in Bangladesh decreases by 40% it will reduce by 40% of 20 i.e. 8 . The
total will also reduce to 360 - 8 = 352. Hence child mortality rate in 2000-01
would be =
x 360 which must be slightly greater than 12 .
Choice (4)

10. In others half i.e., 40 are from For East countries. 20%
i.e., 16 are from Arab countries.
Angle made by remaining countries in others will be
= 80 - 40 - 16 = 24

7.

Choice (3)

LINE GRAPHS
1.

3.

Choice (3)

Child mortality in rest of Asia = (16.66 - 1) lakhs = 15.66 lakhs

9.

The percentage increase in the income is highest in 1999-2000 over its previous year, since
here only income is doubled, whereas for others it is not doubled.
Choice (1)

Difference in percentage points of child mortality in Iraq and Pakistan

=

Choice (4)

2.

x 18 = 81akhs

But this is equal to 40% of its child population below five years of age.
Child population of this segment
=
= 20 lakhs
7.

Income in 1999-00 is highest.

Income = Expenditure + Profit for different years, income is as follows, (Rs. 00,000)
1994-95 = 20 + 5 = 25
1995-96 = 30 + 10 = 40
1996-97 = 40 -10 = 30
1997-98 = 40 + 0 = 40
1998-99 = 20 + 10 = 30
1999-2000 = 40 + 20 = 60

8.

9.

The EPS of the shares approximately for the year 1998-99 are RS.10 and Rs.25 respectively.
Number of shares of x and Y in 1998-99 is
X=
and
Y=
=

4.

and

Ratio of shares
:

= 10 : 1

By observing the table given in situation 1, we see that France, USA and Argentina had 50%
success rate and won 60 matches in all. The other two teams, Germany and Brazil won 50
matches in all.
Choice (3)

6.

By observation

7.

Total production of all textiles in India in 1996-97

=
= 6 000 ('000 bales)

the total production has decreased and in terms

of percentage, It is
x 100

Choice (5)

= 16.66%
8.

=(

Germany
France
Brazil
USA
Argentina

Matches
won
20
15
30
30
15

By observation, Germany lost maximum number of matches.

Matches
lost
30
10
15
?

Matches
drawn
10
15
5
15
?

9.

Originally, Brazil had the highest success rate, Even after doubling, it will have the highest
success rate, (Since the ratio of matches drawn and won to total matches respectively
remains the same)
Choice (2)

3.

As we do not know the number of matches played by each team against Argentina, the
success rate cannot be determined.
Choice (5)

x 100) x
x 100) x = 50%

Choice (1)

By observation, the production of cotton is less than denim for 1997-98 and 1999-2000. The
percentage may not 'be required to find as the base i.e. the denominator will be the same for
both cotton and Denim.
Choice (2)

10. As we do not know the price per bale of each type for any of the years, we cannot find for
which type, the cost of production is the least.
Choice (5)

DOUBLE PIE CHARTS

Choice (1)

2.

Choice (2)

Average annual percentage

=(

1.
Matches
played
60
30
45
60
30

Choice (5)

In 1999-2000
=
= 5,000 ('000 bales)

STACKED BARS AND THREE

DIMENSIONAL GRAPHS
Country

Choice (2)

5.
Choice (3)

10. EPS of company Y in 1997-98 is RS.25

Profit available for Y in 1997-98 = 25 x 60,000 = Rs.5,00,000
Expenditure of company
Y = 120% of 15,00,000 = Rs,18,00,000
Income of Company Y
= Expenditure + Profit
= 18,00,000 + 15,00,000
= Rs.33,00,000

Matches lost by Germany = 30

Matches lost by Brazil = 10
Required ratio = 30 : 10
=3:1

1.

2.

Market of Audio and Video sales in 1999-2000 is 150(1.2) = 180 crores.

Sales of RPG in 1998-1999 = 20% x 150 = 30 crores
Sales of RPG has to increase from 30 to 90 (half of the market in 1999-2000)
=> 200% increase.
10% of sales of super market chain = 10% of 11 % = 1.1 %
If this double counting is removed, its new share will

Choice (4)

be

x 100 =

x100 = 10.0101%

3.

As we do not know the total sales in 1999-2000, we cannot find the percentages of sales of
Sony and RPG.
Difference in percentage points also cannot be found.
Choice (5)

4.

RPG sales turnover from others = 3%

RPG sales from Audio and Video CDs = 20%
angle =
= 23 x 3.6 = 82.8

5.

MISCELLANEOUS

Choice (5)
1.

2.

Choice (4)

The percentage increase in the food grain production for AP is

Now, 300/360 will be common for all the states we need not calculate the entire percentage.
It would be sufficient if we observe the percentage Increase in the percentages of the
respective states.
i.e., for AP
12% to 16%
which is <100%
for TN
4%t010%
which is>100%
for Kerala
8% to 5%
which is a decrease
for Karnataka 5% to 8%
which is <100%
Choice (2)
6.

Share of Maharashtra in the total production of food grains in 1999-2000 and 2000-01 is
10% of 360
i.e., 36 and 8% of 300 i.e., 24 respectively.
required percentage =
x 100
= 37.5%

7.

Rice production in West Bengal in

1999-00 =
x 15% of 360 = 27 million tones
2000-01 =
x 10% of 300 = 15 million tones
Revenue from the sale of rice in 1999-2000 and that
in 2000-01 is 27 x 11 X = 297X and 15x12X=180X
There is a decrease of 120 from 297
Percentage loss =
x 100 40%

8.

Choice (2)

Choice (2)

4.

The number of students playing at most one game = 258.

The number of students playing at least two games = 500 - 258 = 242.
Difference = 16.

Choice (2)

The number of students who do not play Cricket, Football or Hockey is 31 + 159 = 190
Choice (2)

REASONING APTITUDE

NUMBER AND LETTER SERIOUS

1.

3.

We can find the production of the food grains of A.P. and Karnataka for the year 2001-02
but the total food grail production in 2001-02cannot be found. Hence,
Choice (5)

The number of students who play either cricket or basket

ball but not football = 27 + 18 + 19 + 8 + 16 + 31 = 119.

Students playing at least three games = students playing exactly three + students playing
exactly four. = 8 + 13 + 36 + 31 + 37 = 125
Choice (1)

5.

2.

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

3.

x 100
- 1) x 100

The number of students playing at least one game = 341.

The number of students playing none of the games = 159
The number of students playing exactly one game = 27 + 23 + 31 + 18 = 99
The number of students playing at most one game= 159 + 99 = 258

4.

5.

6.

14+3, 17+3, 20+3, 23+3. 26+3, 29

20 + 3 = 23

Choice (3)

5+6, 11+6, 17+6,23+6, 29+6, 35

23 + 6 = 29

Choice (2)

48-5,43-4, 39-3, 36-2, 34-1, 33

39 - 3 = 36

Choice (4)

6+2,8+4,12+6.18+8,26+10, 36
26 + 10 = 36 (Consecutive even numbers are added)

Choice (1)

63+3,66+5,71+7,78+9,87+11, 98
87 + 11 = 98 (Consecutive Odd numbers are added)

Choice (2)

43+1, 44+4, 48+9, 57+16, 73+25, 98 Consecutive squares are added

75 + 25 = 98
7.

8.

9.

Choice (4)

4,49,144,289, ___
This can be written as (2)2, (7)2, (12)2, (17)2, __
2 + 5 = 7, 7 + 5 = 12 and 17 + 5 = 22 and (22) 2 = 484
4,8,12,7,11,18,9, ____,22
4+8=12; 7+11=18; Similarly, 9 + 13 = 22
2,4,8,3,9,27,5,25,125,___,___,___
(2), (2)2, (2)3, (3), (3)2, (3)3, (5), (5)2, (5)3, __,__
2, 3, 5 are consecutive primes and the prime number
after 5 is 7.
7, (7)2, (7)3 =7, 49, 343

17. 67,71, 73, 79, 83, __ , __

The series consists of successive prime numbers. The
Choice (5)

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

Choice (1)

12. 49,1625,3649,6481, ___

The above series can be written as
22 32, 42 52, 62 72, 82 92, 102 112
102 = 100 and 112 = 121
100121
13.

, ,

Choice (5)

Choice (2)

14. 3x1,3 x2,6 x3,18 x4,72 x5,360 x6, __

The given numbers are multiplied with natural numbers in the increasing order. 360 x 6 = 2160
Choice (1)
15. 8x5,40 2,20 x5,100 2,50 x5,2502,125
50 x 5 = 250
16. 43,47, 53, 59, 61, __

prime numbers after 83 are 89 and 97.

Choice (3)

18. 47+4,51+6,57+8,65+10, __ +12,87

Successive even numbers are added to generate the series.
65 + 10 = 75

Choice (4)

20. 13,221,17,19,437,23,23, __ ,29

13 x 17 = 221; 19 x 23 = 437
Similarly, 23 x 29 = 667

Choice (2)

21. 24,30,36,42,52,60, __
Sum of the consecutive prime numbers are given.
.. 11 + 13 = 24; 13 + 17 = 30; 17 + 19 = 36 and so on.
So, 31 + 37 = 68

Choice (5)

22. 64,216,512,1000,1728, ___

This can be written as
(4)3, (6)3, (8)3, (10)3, (12)3, (14)3
(14)3 = 2744

Choice (5)

23. 2,8,4,64,7,343,11,1331,16, __
This can be written as 2,23,4,43,7,73,11,113, 16, 163
(16)3 = 4096

Choice (3)

24. 1,8,9,64,25,216,49, ___

This can be written as 12, 23, 32, 43, 52, 63 ,72, 83
(8)3 = 512

Choice (3)

25. 1728-343 ,1385-216 ,1169-125, 1044-64, 980-27,___

343 = 73; 216= 63; 125 = 53 and so on
980 - 27 = 953

Choice (4)

26. 17x2,34x3,102x4,408x5,2040x6, __
2040 x 6 = 12240

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

,___ The number given in the numerator the square of its number is given in the

denominator.
Next number is

prime number after 61 is 67. Choice (4)

19. 113+23,136+25,161+27,188+29, 217+31, 248

Successive odd numbers starting from 23 are added to generate series. 188 + 29 = 217 Choice (5)

10. 4x4, 16 x4, 64 x4, 256 x4, __ x4, 4096 .

Each number is multiplied by 4 to get the next term in the series. 256 x 4 = 1024

11. 7 x3, 21 +1, 22 x3, 66+1, 61 x3, _,202

67 x 3= 201

The series consists of successive prime numbers. The

Choice (2)

27. 12, 14, 18,26,38,62, __ The product of the digits in each number is added to the number to
get the next number in the series.
12 1 x 2 = 2 and 12 + 2 = 14
14 1 x 4 = 4 and 14 + 4 = 18 and so on.
Similarly, 62 6 x 2 = 12 and 62 +12 = 74
Choice (3)
28. 12,36,150,392,1452, __
The given series can be written as
(2)3 + (2)2, (3)3 + (3)2, (5)3 + (5)2, (7)3 + (7)2,
(11)3+ (11)2, (13)3 + (13)2
(13)3 + (13)2 = 2197 + 169 = 2366

Choice (5)

29. 134-1, 514-1, 2034-1, 8114-1, 32434-1 ,___.

3243 x 4 1 12972 - 1 = 12971

Choice (2)

30. 49,925,2549,___,121169
This can be written as 22 32, 32 52,52 72, 72 112, 112 132
Squares of successive prime numbers are given
72 112 49121

Choice (4)

31. 3, 35, 99, 195, __ , 483

This can be written as
1 x 3, 5 x 7, 9 x 11, 13 x 15, 17 x 19, 21 x 23
17 x 19 = 323

Choice (5)

32. 13+1, 14+8, 22+27, 49+64, 113+125,___+216, 454

1 = 13, 8= 23, 27 = 33 and so on-,
113+125=238

Choice (4)

33. 21+2,23 x2,46+2,48 x2,96+2,98 x2,___

98 x 2 = 196
34. 900,18,180,36,45,108, __ ,432
The given series is an alternate series
900+5, 180+4, 45+3 15
18 x2, 36 x3, 108 x4, 432
Hence, the missing number is 15.
35. 7 x2+1,15 x2+2+32 x2+1 ,65 x2+2,132 x2+1 __ x2+2,532
132 x 2 + 1 264 + 1 = 265
36. 3,10,15,26,35, __

Choice (3)

This can be written as

22-1, 32 + 1, 42 1, 52 + 1, 62 1, 72 + 1.
72 + 1 = 50

Choice (2)

37. 8,9,125,49,1331, __
This can be written as
23, 32, 53, 72, 113, 132
132 =169

Choice (3)

38. 15,66,132,363,726, __
The digits in each number are reversed and the number
so formed is added to the original number.
15 + 51 = 66; 66 + 66 = 132 and so on
Similarly, 726 + 627 = 1353

Choice (5)

39. 4 x1+1,5 x2+2,12 x2+2,39 x4+4,160 x5+5, __

160 x 5 + 5 = 800 + 5 = 805

Choice (1)

40. 2 x2,4 x 3, 12 x 5,60 x 7,420 x 11 ___

The given numbers are multiplied with successive prime numbers to get the next number.
420 x 11 = 4620
Choice (5)
41. The given numbers are Pythagoras triads
6, 8, 10, 12,16,20,15, __, 25
i.e. 62 + 82= 102
122 + 162 = 202
152 + 202 = 252

Choice (5)

42. 4, 18,
100,
294,
1210

23-22 33-32 53-52

73-72
113-112
All the numbers are of the form of n3 - n2 and are all primes. .

Choice (3)

43.

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

2,
30,
130,
350,

13 + 1
33 + 3
53 + 5
73 + 7
Odd numbers in the form of n3 + n.

738

93 + 9

44.

506

222+22

930,

302+30

812,

282+28

702,

262+26

600,

242+24

Choice (2)

All the numbers are decreasing even numbers of the form n2 + n.

Choice (1)

45. 0 ,
4,
48 ,
180 ,
448 ,
900

03-02 23-22 43-42

63-62
83-82
103-102
All the numbers are increasing even numbers of the form n3 - n2.

Choice (4)

46. 5thletter to the right of F is K. Fourth letter to the left of K is G.

Choice (4)

47. The letter which is 8th to the right of P is X. The 6th letter to the left of X is R

Choice (4)

48. The 7'h letter to the left of is H. The third letter to the right of H is K.

Choice (3)

49. The fourth letter to the left of H is L. The fifth letter to the left of L is Q.

Choice (1)

50. The letter which is 5th letter to the right of X is S. The letter immediately to the left of S is T.
Choice (1)
51. The letter which is four places to the right of P is L. The letter which is two places to the left
of L is N.
Choice (3)
52. C+5 , H+5 , M+5 , R+5 , W+5 , B+5 , G

Choice(1)

53. The series consists of pairs of corresponding letters from the two halves of the alphabet So
the next pair is ER
Choice (5)
54. B E,
2

5
+3

G K, M R,

T Z,

B I.

20

28

11

+4

18

+5

55. J L, M O,
10 12

13

13 15

26

+6

35

Choice (2)

+7

P R,

S U,

V X

16

19 21

22

18

24

Choice (4)

56. The first two letters in each group make a series. LM,NO, PO, RS, TU. The third letter in
each group makes another series.
N-2, L-2, J-2, H-2, F. Hence, TUF is the next group in the series.
Choice (3)
57. N L K, J H G, F D C, B Z Y,____
14

12 11

10 8 7

N-2=L N-4=J
L-1 =K J-4=F

6 4

28 26 25

Similarly, for the others. The next group should be XVU.

Choice(1)

58. The three letters in each group make three different series.
F+6 = L+6 = R+6 = X+6 =D
-5
T = O-5 = J-5 = E-5 = Z
J+4 = N+4 = R+4 = V+4 = Z
So, 'DZZ' is the next group in the series.

Choice (2)

59. The three letters in each group constitute three different series as follows.
P-2 = N-2 = L -2 = J -2 = H
L +2 = N+2 = P+2 = R+2 = T
J-2 = H-2 = F-2 = D-2 = B
So, the next group, in the series as HTB.

Choice (3)

60. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
The first letters are consecutive vowels.
A, E, I, O, U
C+3 , F+3 , I+3 , L +3 , O
D+4 ,H+4 , L +4 ,P+4 , T
Hence the missing letters are IIL.

Choice (2)

61. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
A2 , B2 , D2 , H2 , P
J+2 , L+2 , N+2 , P+2 , R
X-3, U-3 , R-3 , O-3, L
Hence the missing letters are DNR.

Choice (4)

62. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given

set of letters.
C+2, E+3, H+5, M+7, T+11, E
D+2 , F+3 , I+5 , N+7 , U+11 , F
F+2 , H+3, K+5, P+7 , W+11 , H
Hence the missing letters are MNP.

Choice (1)

63. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given set of letters.
B+l , C+1 , D+1 , E+l , F
D-2, B-2 , Z-2 , X-2 ,V
F+3 , I+3 , L+3 , O+3 , R
H-4 , D-4 , Z-4 , V-4 , R
Hence the missing letters are FVRR.

Choice (3)

64. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given

set of letters.
A+1 , B+2, D +3 , G+4, K
C+2, E+3, H+4, L+5, Q
D+3, G+4, K+5,P +5, V
B+4, F+5, K+6, Q+7, K.
Hence the missing letters are KQVX.

81,100,121,144,169,196
92,102,112, 122, 132,142
Hence, 170 is the wrong number.

Choice (2)

Choice (1)

74. The given series is Fibonacci series

8,9+8, 17+9,26+17,43+26,69+43, 112
Hence, 113 is the wrong number.

Choice (5)

75. The given series is

31, 32, 63, 184, 725, 3606, 2160
Hence, 380 is the wrong number.

Choice (4)

65. Consider the corresponding letters in each of the given

set of letters.
A = 1 and B = 2
1+2=3
C = 3 and E = 5
3+5=8
G = 7 and K = 11
7 + 11 = 18
I=9 and N=14
9+14=23
K = 11 and Q = 17
11 + 17 = 28
Only E13H follows this pattern.

Choice (5)

66. 1 L 2
12 and the 12th letter is L.
1Q7
17 and the 17th letter is Q.
Similarly, 2 V 2 is 22 and the 22nd letter is V.

76. The given series is

8+1, 9+4, 13+9, 22+16, 38+25, 63+36, 99
Consecutive squares are added. Hence, 16 is the required wrong number with a greater
margin.
Choice (5)

Choice (2)

77. The given series is

67. 4 B 2
4 - 2 = 2, and the 2nd letter is B,
8G1
8 - 1 = 7, and the 7th letter is G.
Similarly, 6 C 3
6 - 3 = 3, and the 3rd letter is C.

22 ,

Choice (3)

68. It is a series of vowels written in ascending first and then in descending order, hence 'e'
comes next.
Choice (1)
69. c+1 = d+1 = e+5 = j+1 = k+l = I+5 = q+1 = r+1 = s+5 = x

Choice (2)

70. This is the series of consecutive consonants. So, the next letter in the series is p. Choice (1)
71. The given series is
82, 162, 322, 642, 1282,256
Hence, 120 is the wrong number.
72. The given series is.
8+31, 39+37, 76+41,111+43, 160+47,207
Prime numbers are added in the increasing order.
Hence, 120 is the wrong number.
73. The given series is the series of consecutive squares.

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

, 125 ,607 ,

,462013 ,60060

Given numbers are multiplied with prime numbers. Hence, 425 is the wrong number with a
greater margin.
Choice (2)
78. The given series is
521+1 , 522+2, 524+4, 528+8, 536+16, 552+32, 584+64, 648
where the added numbers are 12, 22, 42, 82, 162 , 322,64.
Hence, 540 is the wrong number with a greater margin;

Choice (1)

79. The given series is series of consecutive cubes in decreasing order

1728, 1331, 1000, 729, 512, 343, 216.
123, 113, 103, 93, 83, 73, 63.
.. Hence, 726 is the wrong number with a greater margin.

Choice (1)

80. The given series is

2+2, 42, 8+2, 102, 20+2, 222, 44+2, 46.
Hence, 24 is the wrong number with a greater margin.

Choice (2)

81. The given series is

200+ 8, 209+25, 234+49, 283+81 , 364+121, 485
The differences are squares of consecutive odd numbers; the required series is
9+9, 18+25, 43+49, 92+81, 173+121, 294

(a) (b) (c)

Hence (d) = 173.

(d)

(e)

82. The given series is

43 + 2, 142 + 3, 313 + 2, 952 + 3, 1933 + 2, 5812 + 3, 1165
The required series is
23 + 2, 82 + 3, 193 + 2, 592 + 3, 1213 + 2, 365
(a)
(b) (c)
(d)
(e)
Hence, (e) = 365.
83. The given series is
4+1, 52, 10+3, 134,52+5,516,342
The required series is
10+1, 112, 22+3, 254, 100+5, 105
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(e)
Hence, (b) = 22.
84. The given series is
353-37,316-41, 275-43, 232-47,185-53,132
The differences are consecutive prime numbers. The required series is
100-37, 63-41, 22-4 3, -21-47
(a) (b) (c)
Hence, (c) =-21.
85. The given series is
101+2,122+3,213+5,864+7,3514+7,3515+11,1766
The required series is
121+2, 142+3, 313+5
(a)
(b)
Hence, (b) = 31.
86. The given series is
20+2, 22+5,27+11, 38+17, 55+23, 78
The differences are alternate prime numbers.
40 is the wrong number.
The required series is
40+2,42+5,47+11,58+17,75+23,98
Hence, the fifth number is 75.
87. The given series is
8+21, 29+23, 52+25, 77+27, 104+29, 133+31, 164.
The differences are odd numbers is increasing order.

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

.. The wrong number is 80 and the required series is

80+21, 101+23, 124+25, 149+27, 176+29,205
Hence, the sixth number is 205.
88. The given series is
8+5, 13+10,23+15, 38+20, 58+25, 83+30, 113
the wrong number is 40 and the required series is
40+5, 45+10, 55+15, 70+20, 90+25, 115
Hence, the fourth number is 70.

Choice (4)

Choice (2)

89. The given series is

,
,
,
, 3.84
The wrong number is 5 and the

Choice (2)

,
,
,
, 0.192
Hence, the fourth number is 0.24.

Choice (2)

90. The given series is

201 +1, 212 + 2, 443 + 3, 1354+4, 544
The wrong number is 40 and the required series is 401+1,412+2,843+3,2554+4,1024
Hence, the fifth number is 1024.
Choice (2)
Choice (4)

91. Row (1) is 33 11 4

Resultant of 33 11 =

= 3 (from rule (4))

Resultant of 3 4 = 3 + 4 = 7 = x (from rule (5))

Row (2) is 147 16
Resultant of 14 7 = = 2 (from rule (4))
Resultant of 216 = 2 x 16 = 32 (from rule (3))
Hence, resultant of row 2 is 32.

Choice (1)

Choice (2)
92. Row (1) is 22 9 15
Resultant of 22 9 = 22 x 9 = 198 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 198 = 198 - 15 = 28 (from rule (2
Row (2) is 12257
Resultant of 12 25 = 12 x 25 = 300 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 300 5=
= 60 (from rule (4))
Choice (5)

Resultant of row 2 = 60
Hence, the sum of the resultants of row (1) and row (2)
is 183 + 60 = 243.
93. Row (1) is 24 15 33

Choice (2)

Resultant of 24 15 = 24 - 15 = 9 (Form rule (2))

Resultant of 9 33 = 9 + 33 = 42 (from rule (1))
Row (2) is 42 9 4
Resultant of 42 9 = 42 x 9 = 378 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 378 = 378 x 4 = 1512 (from the rule (3))
Hence, the resultant of row (2) is 1512.
94. Row (1) is 2 25 1
Resultant of 2 25 = 2 x 25 = 50 (Form rule (3))
Resultant of 50 1 = 50 x 1 = 50 (from rule (3))
Resultant of row (1) is 50.
Row (2) is 2 16 4
Resultant of 2 16 = 2 x 16 = 32 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 32 4 = 32 x 4 = 128 (from the rule (3))
.. Resultant of row (2) = 128.
Hence, the difference between the resultants of row (1)
and row (2) = 128 - 50 = 78.

Row (2) is 20 20 5
Resultant of 20 20 =

96. Row(1) is 19 4 3
Resultant of 19 4 = 19 - 4 = 15 (Form rule (3))
Resultant of 15 3 = 15 x 3 = 45 (from rule (4))
Row (2) is 90 45 13
Resultant of 90 45 = 90 45 = 2 (from rule (2))
Resultant of 2 13 = 2 x 13 = 26 (from the rule (4))
Hence, the resultant of row (2) = 26.
97. Row (1) is 49 5 1 2
Resultant of 49 51 = 49 + 51 = 100 (Form rule (1))
Resultant of 100 2 = 100 x 2 = 200 (from rule (4))
Resultant of row (1) = 200.

Resultant of 1 5 = 1 x 5 = 5 (from the rule (4))

..Resultant of row (2) = 5.
Hence, the product of resultants of row (1) and row (2)
= 200 x 5 = 1000.

Choice (5)

98. Row (1) is19 3 50

Resultant of 19 3 = 57 (Form rule (4))
Resultant of 57 50 = 57 - 50 = 7 (from rule (3))
Row (2) is 50 25 7
Resultant of 50 25 = 50 25 = 2 (from rule (2))
Resultant of 2 7 = 2 7 = 14 (from the rule (4))
Hence, the resultant of row (2) is 100% more than of
the resultant of row (1).
Choice (1)

95. Row (1) is 29 24 15

Resultant of 29 24 = 29 + 24 = 53 (Form rule (5))
Resultant of 53 15 = 53 + 15 = 68 (from rule (1))
Resultant of Row (1) = 68
Row (2) is 6 9 2
Resultant of 6 9 = 6 x 9 = 54 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 54 2=
= 27 (from the rule (4))
Hence, resultant of row (2) = 27.
Hence, the resultant of row (1) is 41 (= 68 - 27) greater
than the resultant of row (2).

= 1 (from rule (2))

Choice (1)

100. Row (1) is 99 3

200
Resultant of 99 3 = 99 x 3 = 297 (Form rule (4))
Resultant of 297 200 = 297 - 200 = 97 (from rule (3))
:. Row (2) is 97 65 9
Resultant of 97 65 = 97 + 65 = 162 (from rule (1))
Resultant of 162 9 =
= 18 (from the rule (2))
Hence, the resultant of row (2) = 18

Choice (4)

Choice (2)

99. Row (1) is 24 3 12

Resultant of 24 3 = 24 x 3 = 72 (from rule (4))
Resultant of 72 12 =
= 6 (from rule (2))
Resultant of row (1) = 6
Row (2) is 21 6 8
Resultant of 21 6 = 21 -6 = 15 (from rule (3))
Resultant of 15 8 = 15 - 8 = 7 (from rule (3))
Resultant of row (2) = 7
Hence, the positive difference between the resultants of
row (1) and row (2) is = 7 - 6 = 1.

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

NUMBERS AND LETTEER ANALOGIES

1.

9: 16: : 49 : ___
3 2 : 4 2: : 7 2 : 8 2
3 + 1 = 4, 7 + 1 = 8 and 82 = 64

Choice (3)

2. 48 : 120 : : 35 :___
72-1: 112-1 : : 62-1: ___
7 + 4 = 11, 6 + 4 = 10 and 102 - 1 = 99

Choice (2)

3. 324: 18 : : 576 :
= 18 and

Choice (4)

4.

= 24

64: 512: : 100 : ___

82:83: :102:103
103 = 1000

5. 15:90: :17:___
15 x 6 = 90 and 17 x 6 = 102
6. 7: 91 : : 13 :___
7 x 13 = 91 and 13 x 13 = 169
7. 625: 526 : : 225 : ___
The digits in the given numbers are reversed.
625 when reversed is 526. Similarly, 225 when reversed is.522.

Choice (5)

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

Choice (3)

8. 9: 72 : : 16 : ___
92 - 9 => 81 - 8 = 72
Similarly, 162 - 16 = 256 - 16 = 240

Choice (3)

9. 31:37: :41:___
Next prime number to 31 is 37. Similarly, next prime number to 41 is 43.

Choice (4)

10. 3 : 81 : : 7 :___
3 and (3)4 = 81
Similarly , 7 and (7)4 = 2401
11. 110: 132 : : 210 : ___
102+ 10 => 100+ 10= 110
112+11 =>121 +11 =132
where 10 + 1 = 11
Similarly, 142 + 14 = 210 and 152 + 15 = 240.
12. 23: 529 : : 29 : ___
23 and (23)2 = 529
Similarly, 29 and (29)2 = 841.

13. 64: 16: : 70 : ___

64 4 = 16
Similarly, 70 4 = 17.5

Choice (2)

14. 216: 36 : : 1331 : ___

(6)3: (6)2: : (11)3:(11)2
(11)2=121

Choice (1)

15. 28: 15 : : ____: 63

15 + 13 = 28
Similarly, 63 + 13 = 76

Choice (3)

16. 89: 83 : : ____: 67

Next prime number to 83 is 89. Similarly, the next prime number to 67 is 71.

Choice (2)

17. 23: 161 : : 19 : ___

23 x 7 = 161
Similarly, 19 x 7 = 133

Choice (5)

18. 2: 32 : : 4 : ___
2 and (2)5 = 32
Similarly, 4 and (4)5 = 1024

Choice (4)

19. 7: 53 : : 8 : ___
7 x 7 + 4 = 49 + 4 = 53
Similarly, 8 x 7 + 4 = 56 + 4 = 60

Choice (2)

20. 21 : 440 : : 18 : ___

21 and (21)2 - 1 = 441 - 1 = 440
Similarly, 18 and (18)2 - 1 = 324 - 1 = 323

Choice (3)

21. 400 : 420 : : 961 : ___

(20)2 and (20)2 + 20 = 420
Similarly, (31)2 and (31)2 + 31 = 992

Choice (2)

22. 1225: 1190 : : 1089 : ___

= 35 and 1225 - 35 = 1190
Similarly,
: : 33 and 1089 - 33 = 1056

Choice (1)

23. 2197: 13 : : 729 : ____

Cube root of 2197 = 13 and cube root of 729 = 9

Choice (3)

Choice (5)

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

24. 625: 5 : : 1296 : ____

Fourth root of 625 = 5
Similarly, fourth root of 1296 = 6
25. 41 : 43: : 47 : ____
Next prime number to 41 is 43. Similarly, next prime
number to 47 is 53.
26. 182:210 : :342: ___
182 = 132 + 13
210 = 142 + 14
Similarly, 182 + 18 = 342 and 192 + 19 = 380

(6)3 + 2 => 216 + 2 = 218

Choice (5)

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

27. 468: 163664: : 579 : ___

468 42 62 82 = 163664
Similarly, 579 = 527292 => 25498.

Choice (4)

28. 13: 127: : 46: ____

13 (1)3 = 1 and (3)3 = 27 i.e., 127
Similarly, (4)3 (6)3 = 64216

Choice (5)

29. 29.18:342. 17, ___

(18)2 + 18 = 324 + 18 = 342
Similarly, (17)2 + 17 = 289 + 17 = 306
30. 4: 256 : : 5 : ___
(4)4= 256
Similarly. (5)5 = 3125
The digit is raised to its power.
31. 14:182::16: ___
(14)2 - 14 = 196 - 14 = 182
Similarly, (16)2 - 16 = 256 - 16 = 240
32. 57: 711 : : 1113 : ___
Successive prime numbers are given.
Next prime number to 5 is 7 and for 7 is 11.
Similarly, for 1113 the missing numbers are 1317.
33. 29: 66 : : 127 : ___
This can be written as
(3)3 + 2 : (4)3 + 2 : : (5)3 + 2 : __

Choice (1)

34. 24: 47 : : 76 : ___

24 x 2 - 1 = 48 - 1 = 47
Similarly, 76 x 2 -1 = 152 - 1 = 151

Choice (4)

35. 12: 1728 : : 8 : ___

(12)3 = 1728
Similarly, (8)3 = 512

Choice (3)

36. 25: 49 : : 169 : ___

(5)2 : (7)2 : : (13)2 : __
Next prime number to 13 is 17 and (17) 2 = 289.

Choice (5)

37. 786: 765: : 937 : ___

Sum of the digits in the given numbers are subtracted
from the numbers. .
7 + 8 + 6 = 21 = 786 - 21 = 765
Similarly, 937 - 19 = 918

Choice (2)

38. 169: 2197 : : 225 : ___

This can be written as
(13)2 : (13)3 : : (15)2 : (15)3 and (15)3 = 3375

Choice (4)

39. 37: 43 : : 23 : ___

Alternate prime number to 37 is 43.
Similarly, alternate prime number to 23 is 31.

Choice (3)

40. 48: 24 : : 56 : ___

48 + 2 = 24
Similarly, 56 + 2 = 28

Choice (5)

41. 11: 132: :____ : 462

(11)2 + 11 = 121 +11 = 132
Similarly, (21)2 + 21 = 441 + 21 = 462

Choice (2)

42. 6: 42 : 14 : ___
6 x 7 = 42
Similarly, 14 x 7 = 98

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

Choice (1)

43. 58: 89 : : 63 : ___

(5)2 + (8)2 = 25 + 64 =89

Similarly, 63 = (6)2 + (3)2 = 36 + 9 = 45

44. 7: 77 : : 13 :___
Next prime number to 7 is 11 and 7 x 11 = 77
Similarly, next prime number t6 13 is 17 and
13 x 17 = 221
45. 9: 720 : 7 : ___
(9)3 - 9 = 729 - 9 = 720
Similarly, (7)3 - 7 = 343 - 7 = 336
46. 11: 1331: :___ : 4096
(11)3 = 1331
Similarly, (16)3= 4096
47. 538: 32 : : 796 : ___
538 5 + 3 + 8 = 16 X 2 = 32
796 7 + 9 + 6 = 22 x 2 = 44
48. 23: 506 : : 26 : ___
23 (23)2 - 23 = 529 -23 = 506
Similarly, 26 (26)2 - 26 = 676 - 26 = 650
49. 5: 0.2 : : 8 : ___
5, 1/5 = 0.2
Similarly 8 1/8 = 0.125

Choice (2)

51. 2: 14: : 4 : ___

2 and (2)4 - 2 = 16 - 2 = 14
Similarly, 4 and (4)4 - 4 = 252
52. 13: 56 : : 19 : ___
13 x 4 + 4 = 52 + 4 = 56
Similarly, 19 x 4 + 4 = 76 + 4 = 80
53. 11: 36 : : 23 : ___
11 x3+3 = 33+3=36

Choice (4)

54. 4: 12: : 17 : ___

Previous number to 4 is 3 and 4 x 3 = 12
Similarly, 17 x 16 = 272

Choice (1)

55. 596: 270 : : 7946 : ___

596 5 x 9 x 6 = 270
Similarly, 7946 = 7 x 9 x 4 x 6 = 1512

Choice (2)

56. 17: 36 : : 31 : ___

Next prime number to 17 is 19 and 17 + 19 = 36
Similarly. 31 + 37 = 68

Choice (4)

57. 57.3125:5:: ___:4

(5)5 = 3125
Similarly. (4)5 = 1024

Choice (5)

58. The relation is as follow

110=102+10
Similarly 122 + 12 = 156

Choice (1)

59. 135+ 55 = 190 similarly 210+ 55 = 265

Choice (5)

60. K+5 L-5 M+5 = PGR

Similarly A +5 B-5 C+5 = FWH

Choice (1)

Choice (3)

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

Choice (2)

Choice (5)

Choice (4)

50. 4: 0.25 : : 5 : ___

4 = 0.25
5 = 0.2

Similarly, 23 x 3 + 3 = 69 + 3 = 72

Choice (3)

Choice (5)

Choice (2)

61. S
-3
P

L
-3
I

62. T
-4
P

S
-3
P

Similarly,

L
-3
I

P
-3
M

Choice (1)

J
-4
F

T
-3
Q

Choice (2)

63. J P
Similarly,
-10 -10
Z F

K
-10
A

T
-10
J

Choice (3)

64. J M
+5 +7

K
+5

F
+7

Similarly,

Similarly,

65. L J
+15 +15
A Y

G
+15
V

66. P C
+3 +4
S
G

0
+5
I

Similarly,

M
K
+15
Z

Similarly, B
+3
E

Choice (3)
M
+15
B

T
+15
I

K
+4
0

S
+5
X

P
+3
S

Similarly, M
+3
P

O
+3
R

68. M U
+2 +0
O U
Similarly,
P U
+2 +0
R U

L
+3
O

T
+0
T

A
+4
E

N
+0
N

R
+3
U

I
+0
I

F
+4
J

Y
+0
Y

69. F R
+0 -2
F P
Similarly,
M E
+0 -2
M C

I
+0
I

E
-3
B

N
+0
N

D
-4
Z

N
+0
N

T
-3
Q

0
+0
O

R
-4
N

70. P A
+1 -1
Q Z
Similarly,
T A
+1 -1
U Z

R
+1
S

K
-1
J

N
+1
O

K
-1
J

71. L E
+4 +4
P I

M
+4
Q

0
+4
S

N
+3
0

A
+4
E

N
+4
R

G
+4
K

72. A M
+5 -5
F H
Similarly,
A R
+5 -5
F M

B
+5
G

E
-5
Z

R
+5
W

R
+5
W

0
-5
J

W
+5
B

73. S
T
+2 +2
U V

G Similarly,
+2
I

Choice (3)

Choice (5)

L
+2
N

Choice (1)
M
+2
O

Q
+2
S

74. Each letter in the word is coded with its preceding and the succeeding letters.
Preceding and succeeding letters for M are Land N.
So, MAN: LNZBMO
Similarly, SUN.: RTTVMO

Choice (3)

Choice (1)

Choice (1)
S
-2

S
+2

E -2

C
E +2

G
T -2

R
T +2

V
Hence, SET: QUCGRV and MAT: KOYCRV.

75. S

Q
U

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

Choice (2)
N
+4
R

E
+4
I

Choice (2)

Choice (5)
67. C A
+3 +3
F 0

Similarly,
O R
+4 +4
S
V

76. T O
P
T +2
=V
T -2
=R
O +2
=0
O -2
=M
P +2
=R
P -2
=N
Hence, TOP: VRQMRN and SET: UQGCVR
77. F L
+3 +4
I
P

A
+5
F

S
+6
Y

H
+7
O

Choice (1)

Similarly,
C L
+3 +4
F P

U
+5
Z

S
+6
Y

H
+7
O

78. It is based on arrangement of letters.

MAN: ANM
123:231
POT: OTP
123:231
79. P L
-1 +2
O N
Similarly,
S
T
-1 +2
R V

A
-3
X

I
+4
M

N
-5
I

U
-3
R

M
+4
Q

P
-5
K

80. L A
-7 -7
E T
Similarly,
B A
-7 -7
U T

M
-7
F

P
-7
I

N
-7
G

D
-7
W

81. P L
-3 -3
M I
Similarly,
A P
-3 -3
J
X

A
-3
X

N
-3
K

L
-3
M

E
-3
I

83. L is the 2nd letter from the left and Q is the 2nd letter from the right. Similarly, Y is the 12 th
letter from the right end and B is the 12 th letter from the left.
Choice (5)
Choice (1)

Choice (4)

Choice (2)

84. Corresponding letters from the two halves of the alphabet are taken. H is the 6th letter from
the left in the first half, whereas U is the 6th letter from the left in the second half.
Similarly, the corresponding letters for the other letters are also obtained. Hence, HDB:
UQO:: WTS : JGF.
Choice (3)
85. J is the 4th letter from the left and Q is the 4th letter from the right of the alphabet. So, J and
Q are corresponding letters. Similarly, M and N are the corresponding letters. Hence, JM :
QN : : CT : XG.
Choice (4)
86. Corresponding letters from the other side of the alphabet series are written.
LKH : OPS : : TSQ : GHJ.

Choice (1)

87. Corresponding letters of the two halves of the alphabet are written as
ZUS: MHF: : PJN : : CWA.

Choice (5)

88. Corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet are written as
LMST: ONHG:: PKLM : KPON.

Choice (3)

89. T
-2
V

P
-2
R

U
-2
W

Similarly , J
-2
L

C
-2
E

K
-2
M

Choice (1)

90. L
-7
S

J
-7
Q

O
-7
V

P Similarly, T
-7
-7
W
A

K V
-7 -7
R
C

M
-7
T

Choice (2)

91. L
-1
M

J
-2
L

T
-3
W

U Similarly, P S T U
-4
-1 -2 -3 -4
Y
Q U W Y

Choice (4)

92. W S
+3 +4
T O

T
+5
O

Similarly, B
+3
Y

Choice (5)

93. A
-4
E

Similarly,

Choice (2)

-3
B

Choice (2)

82. J is the fourth letter from the left and Q is the fourth letter from the right end of the
alphabet. Similarly, D is the 10th letter from the left and W is the 10 th letter from the right.
Choice (2)

E
-4
I

I
-4
M

T
+4
P
O
-4
S

U
+5
P

Choice (1)

94. L J
-4 +4
P F

T
-4
X

U Similarly, P S T U
+4
-4 +4 -4 +4
Q
T O X Q

95. K J
-1 -2
L L

W
-3
Z

D Similarly,
-4
H

S G P Q
-1 -2 -3 -4
T I S U

Code:
PL
LLTP FLZ
Similarly, 'MILLION' is coded as BTZZTFD.

Choice (2)

96. There are two possibilities. a and e are consecutive vowels. o and u are the consecutive
vowels.
Similarly, a + 4 = e , o+ 4 = s
Choice (4)
97. P and k are the corresponding letters with respect to the two directions of the alphabet
series. Similarly, s and h are the corresponding letters.
Choice (1)
98. e=5 5 x 2 = 10 = j
p = 16 16 x 2 = 32; 32 - 26 = 6 = f

Choice (3)

100. a = 1 1 X (1)2 = 1 = a
b = 2 2 X (2)2 = 8 = h

Choice (1)

CODING AND DECODING

1. In this, alternate letters starting from the first are written followed by the remaining letters.
So, SIGNIFICANT is written as SGIIATINFCN.
Choice (2)
2. Word: GROWTH
Logic 1: The word is reversed
H T W O R G
Logic 2:+1 + 1 +1 +1 + 1 +1
Code: I U X P S H
Similarly, AVERAGE is coded as FHBSFWB.
E
x2+2
O
2+2

R
x2+2
R
x2+2

R
x2+2
Y
x2+2

4. Number of letters in the word INVADER = 7 and 7 x 6 = 42,

Number of letters in the word SECURE = 6 and 6 x 5 = 30
Similarly, SITUATION
9 x 8 = 72.

Choice (4)

5. The square of the number of letters in each word is given as its code value.
Number of letters in the word ENERGY = 6 and (6) 2= 36
Number of letters in the word 'ACQUIRE' = 7 and (7) 2 = 49
Similarly, COMPETITION = (11)2 = 121.

Choice (2)

6. Word: A R R I V E D
Logic: The word is reversed.
Code: D E V I R R A
Similarly, PETROLEUM is coded as MUELORTEP.

Choice (5)

7. Word :
SECTOR
Logic: The word is divided into two halves and each half is reversed.
Code: C E S ROT
Similarly, OPPOSITION is coded as SOPPONOITI.

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

99. c = 3 (3)2 = i
d = 4 (4)2 = p

3. Word: T
Logic: x2+2
T
x2+2

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

I
x2+2

Choice (2)

8. The number of letters in each word is multiplied with 10 to get the code value
i.e., PIONEER => 7 x 10 = 70
BRAND => 5 x 10 = 50
Similarly, TECHNOLOGY => 10 x 10 = 100.
Choice (3)
9. Word: FOUNDATION
Logic: Pairs of letters in the word are reversed
Code: O F N U A D I T N O
Similarly INTERIOR is coded as NIETIRRO.

Choice (5)

10. Word:
C O N C E P T
Logic:
+1 +2 +3 +4 +5 +6 +7
Code:
D Q Q G J V A
Similarly, EXECUTION is coded as FZHGZZPWW.

Choice (4)

11. In the word COMPANY, every alternate letter starting from the first is coded by taking the
sum of the digits in its place value as per the alphabet.
i.e., C = 3,
M = 13
1 + 3 = 4 and the 4th letter is D and so on

The other letters remain as they are

Hence, COMPANY is coded as CODPANG
Similarly, COUNTRY is coded as COCNBRG.
12. Word :
G RA D U A T E
Logic:
+1 -1 +2 -2 +3 -3 +4 -4
Code:
H Q C B X X X A
Similarly, 'LABORATORY' is coded as MZDMUXXKWT.

Logic 2 : +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
Code : O P J U B U V Q F S

Choice (1)

15. In this, product of the digits in the place-values of the letters as per the alphabet is obtained
first and then added i.e., CUSTOM
C=3
U = 21
2x1=2
S=19 1x9=9
T = 20 => 2 x 0 = 0
0=15 1x5=5
M=13 1x3=3
Now (3 + 2 + 9 + 0 + 5 + 3) = 22
So, CUSTOM = 22
Similarly, HISTORY = 49.
Choice (2)
16. PURPOSE is coded as EPSUORP.

Choice(2)

17. PROSPECTUS is coded as SPURTOCSEP.

Choice(1)

18. INTRODUCE is coded as EICNUTDRO.

Choice (4)

19. CENTURY is coded as YCREUNT

Choice (5)

20. Word : R E P U T A T I O N
Logic 1 : N O I T A T U P E R

21. Word :
Logic 1:
Logic 2:
Code :

L I Q
Y T I
+1 +1 +1
Z U J

U
D
+1
E

22. Word :
Logic 1 :
Logic 2 :
Code :

O
Y
+1
Z

23. Word :
Logic 1 :
Logic 2 :
Code :

S I T U
N O I T
+1 +1 +1 +1
O P J U

I D I T Y
I U Q I L
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1
J V R J M

Choice (4)

R
U
+1
V

T
T
+1
U

Choice (1)

A
A
+1
B

T I O
U T I
+1 +1 +1
V U J

Choice (3)

13. In this, the digits in the place-value of the .letters as per the alphabet are added. i.e.,
CHAMBER
=> C = 3 = C; H = 8 = H; A = 1 = A; M = 13
=> 1 + 3 = 4 = D and so on.
Similarly, INDUSTRY is coded as IEDCJBIG.
Choice (4)
14. Word : D O M E S T I C
Logic: x2 x1 x3 x1 x4 x1 x5 x1
Code: H O M E X T S C
Similarly, the word 'EXECUTIVE' is coded as JXOCFTSVD.

Choice (3)

Choice (3)

P P U
T I N
+1 +1 +1
U J O

U
R
+1
S

N
O
+1
P

I T Y
P P O
+1 +1 +1
Q Q P

N
S
+1
T

Choice (2)

24. It is given that 38 + 15 = 66 => (3 + 8) x (1 + 5)

=> 11 x 6 =.66 and 29 + 36 = 99 => (2 + 9) x (3 + 6)
=> 11 x 9 = 99 then 82 + 44 => (8 + 2) x (4 + 4)
=> 10 x 8 = 80.

Choice (2)

25. 13 x 14 => 13 + 14 = 27 and 27 - 4 = 23

28 x 57 => 28 + 57 = 85 and 85 - 4 = 81
Similarly, 65 x 49 => (65 + 49) - 4 => 114 - 4 = 110.

Choice (3)

26. The number of letters in each word is multiplied with 3 to get the value i.e., CONSUMER =>
8 x 3 = 24 and
DETERGENT =>.9 x 3 = 27
Similarly, EXPLORATION => 11 X 3 = 33.
Choice (5)
27. The square of the number of letters in each word is given as its value.
KNOWLEDGE = 9 and (9)2 = 81 and
INNOVATION = 10 and (10)2 = 100
Similarly, INTERNATIONAL = 13 and (13)2 = 169.
28. The given words and their codes are as follows
1. SOUND 67039
2. BOARD 85723
3. WORK 1847
In all words the letters O and digit 7 are common.

Choice (4)

Hence, the code for O is 7.

In 1st and 2nd words, the letters D and the digit 3 are common. Hence the code for D is 3.
In 2nd and 3rd words the letter R and the digit 8 are common. Hence the code for DOOR is
3778.
Choice (3)
29. In this the sum of the values of the letters as in the alphabet are taken and to this the total
number of letters in the word are added.
i.e., CONTROL => 3 + 15 + 14 + 20 + 18 + 15 + 12 = 97
Number of letters in CONTROL = 7
i.e., 97+7=104
QUESTION => 17 + 21 + 5 + 19 + 20 + 9 + 15 + 14 =120
Number of letters in QUESTION = 8
i.e., 120 + 8 = 128
Similarly, INSTITUTION
= 9 + 14 + 19 + 20 + 9 + 20 + 21 + 20 + 9 + 15 + 14
=> 170 + 11 = 181.
Choice (5)
30. Word :PRO S P E C T
Logic : The letters in the word are arranged in the increasing order of their place- values as
in the alphabet series.
Code : CEO P P R S T
Similarly, the word 'STRATEGY' is coded as AEGRSTTY.
Choice (3)
31. The given information is
Words
Code
1. How are you
345
2. Who are you
413
3. They are good
649
4. She is good
792
On comparing (1), (2) and (3) the word 'are' and the
Code '4' is common. Hence, the code for 'are' is '4', On comparing (1) and (2) the word 'you'
and the code '3' is common. Hence, the code for 'you' is 3.
Similarly, the codes for other words can be determined.
How
Who
are
you
they
Good She
is
5
1
4
3
6
9
2/7
7/2
The code for 'you' is 3.
32. The code for 'How is she' is '275'.
33. The given information can be tabulated as follows.
Words
Code

Choice (3)

1. tit pit kit

*
2. sit kit nit
o$
3. lit pit sit
$
On comparing (1) and (2) we find that the code for 'kit' is and on comparing (2) and (3) we
find that the code for 'sit' is $. On eliminating sit and kit from (2) we get the code for nit as
'o', similarly, we get codes for other words as follows.
Word
tit
pit
kit
lit
sit
nit
Code
*
i

$
o
The code for 'lit' is ' '.

Choice (3)

34. Code for nit is coded as o.

Choice (2)

35. The given information can be coded as follows :

Word
Code
1. apple is a Mango
bkl
2. guava is Banana
kmn
3. mango is not Banana
nkql
Comparing (1), (2) and (3) we get code for is is k . On comparing (1) and (3) we get code
for Mango is I and on eliminating is and Mango from (1) we get code for Apple as b
similarly the codes for the remaining words are
Word
Apple
Mango Guava
Banana Is
Not
Code
b
l
m
n
K
q
The code for Banana is n.
Choice (4)
36. Let us number the letters in the word
S
I
G
N
A
L
1
2
3
4
5
6
These letters are arranged in the coding as
G A
S
I
N
L
3
5
1
2
4
6
Similarly, H U R D L E is coded as RLHUDE.
1 2 34 56

as

Choice (5)

37. Word :
CUSTOMER
Logic:
The letters in the word are reversed
Code:
REMOTSUC
Similarly, DISTANCE is coded as ECNATSID.

Choice (3)

Choice (5)
38. Let us number the letters in the given word
P R
O
T
E
I
1
2
3
4
5
6

N as
7

These letters are arranged in the code as

R T
I
N
E
O
2
4
6
7
5
3
Similarly, PRODUCT is coded as RDCTUOP.

L = 12 and is coded as 2.
P
1

Choice (3)

Choice (5)

46. If all the letters represented by a prime number are coded as 2 and the remaining letters are
coded as 1, then the word TOGETHER is coded as 11221121, in which only G = 7, E = 5
represent prime number values.
Choice (4)

39. Word :
A D D RE SS
Logic:
-1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1 -1
Code:
Z C C Q D RR
Similarly, BUILDING is coded as ATHKCHMF.

Choice (1)

40. Word :
E N E R G Y
Logic:
-2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2
Code:
C L C P E W
Similarly, FORTUNE is coded as DMPRSLC.

47. SOUTH = 54176

NORTH = 78914
In the above two words the letters OTH are common and so are the digits 1, 4, 7.
So, we cannot determine the code for TOOTH, it can be
14417 or 17714 or 41147 and so on.
Choice (5)

Choice (4)

41. Word :
R E S I D E N T
Logic:
-2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2 -2
Code:
P C Q G BC L R
Similarly, VILLAGE is coded as TGJJYEC.

Choice (1)

42. Word :
M E A S U R E
Logic:
-1 +1 -1 +1 -1 +1 -1
Code:
L F Z T T S D
Similarly, OCCASION is coded as NDBBRJNO.
43. Word : P
U
B
L
I
Logic: +3
+3
+3
-3
-3
Code: S
X
E
I
F
Similarly, NUMBER is coded as QXPYBO.

Choice (3)
C
-3
Z
Choice (1)

44. In this, the place-values of the letters in the word as per the alphabet are given as the code.
CHEER is coded as 385518.
WATER is coded as 23120518
Similarly, EXPRESS is coded as 524161851919.
Choice (2)
45. Given that in a certain code language, A is represented by 1, B by 2, C by 3, all the multiples
of2 are given a code of 2, the multiples of 3 are given a code of 3. In case of a clash 2 will
prevail, and the rest of the letters in the alphabet are given a code of 4. Hence, VOWEL
V = 22 and is coded as 2
O= 15 and is coded as 3
W = 23 and is coded as 4
E = 5 and is coded as 4

48. The word and their codes are as follows.

REACH 75169
LATER 21563
RISE
5140
In these words 'E' and R coded as 1 and 5 but which stands for what is not known.
A is coded as 6.
Hence the code for EAR is 156 or 165 or any combination of 1, 5, 6.
Choice (3)
49. The words and their codes are as follows.
SOUTH 56279
NORTH 46379
TEETH 71179
From these we get,
T is coded as 7
E is coded as 1
H is coded as 9
O is coded as 6
Hence NORTON is coded as 463764.

Choice (2)

50. The words and their codes are as follows

ENERGY 786374
REAP 1073
We can get the code for the letters E, R only.
From this we cannot determine the code for GREEN.

Choice (5)

51. The code for 'Diamond' is 'z'.

Choice (4)

52. The code for 'Diamond is Black' is 'z f +'.

Choice (2)

53. 'Bag exported' is coded as

*.

Choice (3)

54. The code for 'exported' is '*'.

Choice (l)

55. The code for was is '%'.

Choice (1)

56. The code for 'coming' is '9'.

Choice (2)

57. The code for I is '6'.

Choice (4)

58. The code for 'going' is '1'.

Choice (4)

59. The code for 'will be' is '05'.

Choice (1)

60. The code for 'I am not going' is '6741'.

Choice (3)

61. The code for "Balbua is expensive will win Race' is 'Zar
Tar Dar Yar Car Mar'.

Choice (3)

This group follows condition (iii).

Hence, the code is P M COP A.
71. The given group of elements is % 9 5
code is 'J S K T Y K'.

Choice (2)

73. The given group of elements is 3 4 * 1 2 %. This

group follows condition (ii).
Hence, the code is J B C O Z K E.

Choice (4)

74. The given group of element is %

This group follows condition (ii)
Hence the code is YET I J.

6 .
Choice (2)
3 6 . This group

Choice (3)

75. The given group of elements is 2

follows condition (i).
Hence, the code is NT E V V Y.

63. 'Win Race' is coded as 'Car Mar'.

Choice (3)

76. From the rule (4) the code for "9

64. The code for 'Derby' is 'Bar'.

Choice (1)

65. The code for 'Very' is 'Sar'.

Choice (2)

67. The given group of elements is 5

Hence, the code is P Z MOP J.

7. The group follows condition (iv).

$29

2 = o " is jpobij.

Choice (1)

77. From the rule (2) the code for "

@ # = " is tlkhiu.

Choice (2)

78. From the rule (4) the code for 7

is rmbpr.

Choice (3)

79. From the rule (1), the code for "8 o

4" is pjrgop.

80. From the rule (3), the code for "

7 @ 1" is cmnfkq.

Choice (4)
Choice (2)

. This group follows condition (iii).

ODD MAN OUT

Choice (2)

69. The given group of elements is 4 8 2 6 9 $.

This group follows condition (ii).
Hence, the code is J M B 0 I E P
1 7 3.

Choice (3)

Choice (3)

68. The given group of elements is $ 3 @ 9 5. This group follows condition (i).
Hence, the code is C M A M E M H.

70. The given group of element is 3 $

4. This group follows condition (iii). Hence, the

Choice (3)

72. The given group of elements is 6 9 * % 8 .

This group follows conditions (iv).
Hence, the code is I W O J W W.

62. The code for 'Rocky lose Balbua win' is 'Par Lar Dar
Car'.

66. The given group of elements is 4 @ 8 x

Hence, the code is NT B F B P.

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

Choice (1)

1.

All except '76' are the multiples of 3.

Choice (3)

2.

All except '32' are the multiples of 6.

Choice (5)

3.

All except '514' are the cubes of natural numbers. 125 = 5 3,

216 = 63, 343 = 73, 83 = 512 but 514 is given.

Choice (4)

4.

Place values of all the letters except 'u' are perfect squares.

5.

All except 'FV' are the pairs of corresponding letters in the alphabet series. (Sum is 27 for all
except FV)
Choice (5)

6.

Choice (4)

(1 ) C+13P
(2) J+14X (3)D+13Q
+13
(4) L Y
(5) K+13X
All except JX follow the same pattern.

Choice (2)

7.

All except '1974' are leap years.

Choice (4)

8.

All except '46' are multiples of '7'.

Choice (1)

9.

All except '0' are natural numbers.

Choice (4)

18. All except 'DW' are the corresponding letters with to the two halves of the alphabet series.
Choice (3)
19. 8 = 23; 81 = 34; 1024 = 45; 3125 = 55; 15625 = (5)6
All the numbers except 3125 are of the form N(N+l)

Choice (5)

20. 80 = 43 + 42 ; 252 = 63 + 62; 576 = 83 + 82

10 = 22 + 2 ; 36 = 33 + 32
All the numbers are of the form N3 + N2 except 10.

Choice (1)

21. All except (6, 18, 19) are Pythagorean triplets.

Choice (4)

22. All except s are from the first half of the alphabet series

Choice (2)

23. All the groups of letters except RST are from the first half of the alphabet series. Choice (5)
10. All except '50' are divisible by 3.
11. (1 ) 222 = 63 + 6
(2)
350 = 73 + 7
(3) 520 = 83 + 8
(4)
738 = 93 + 9
(5) 130=53+5
As choice (1) is 214, it is the odd one.

Choice (4)
24. All except 'SF' are the pairs of corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet
series.
Choice (3)
Choice (1)
25. (1) L+l M+2 O-1 N
(2) P+1 Q+2 S-l R
(3) S+l T+3 W-1 V
(4) G+1 H+2 J-l I
(5) A+l B+2 D-1 C
All except (3) follow the same logic.

Choice (3)

12. All the numbers except 748 can be expressed in the form of
N3 - N2.
Ex: 18 = 33 - 32; 48 = 43 - 42; 294 = 73 - 72;
100 = 53 - 52; 648 = 93 - 92

Choice (5)

26. All except 'IE' are pairs of vowels in the natural order of the alphabets.

Choice (5)

13. All the given letters except '0' are from the first half of the alphabet series.

Choice (4)

14. All except '39' are divisible by 9.

Choice (2)

15. All except '603' have sum of the digits equal to 11.

Choice (4)

27. (1) 1728= (12)3 but 1726 is given.

(2) 512 = (8)3
(3) 216 = (6)3
(4) 1000 = (10)3
(5) 2744 = (13)3

Choice (1)

Choice (3)

28. (1) A+3 D

(2) F+2 H
(3) D+3 G
(4) G+3 J
(5) 1+3L
All except 'FH' follow the same pattern.

Choice (2)

16. (1) T2 V-1 U+2 W

(2) I+2 K-1 J+2 L
+2
-1
+3
(3) O Q P S
(4) R+2 T-1 S+2 U
+2
-1
+2
(5) B D C E
All except OOPS follow the same pattern.

17. First and the third letters are consecutive and the second and the fourth letters are their
respective corresponding letters from the other end of the alphabet series.
Choice (4)

29. The digits in each set represent the position of the given letter in the English alphabet.
2W3 => 23 =W
1Q7=>17=Q
1M3 => 13 = M,

2Y5 => 25 = Y,
1R9 => 19 = S but not R.
Hence 1 R9 is the odd one.
30. (1) C2 F
(2) F3R (3) J3 D
3
(4) D l
(5) K3 G
All except 'CF' follow the same logic.

44. All except 'Football' require a stick or a bat to hit the ball.

Choice (2)

Choice (4)

45. All except 'Dam' are natural water bodies.

Choice (5)

Choice (1)

46. All the given pair of letters except 'lR' comprise of corresponding letters from the other end
of the alphabet.
Choice (4)

31. B = 2 & D = 4 i.e., 2 and its square. Similarly CI = 3, 9, FJ = 6, 36, DP = 4, 16. EV = 5, 22 is the
only pair of letters that does not satisfy this criteria.
Choice (4)
32. (1) Z Y X (2) L K J
(3) U T S
(4) F-1 E-1 D (5) L+1M+1N
All except 'LMN' follow the same logic.
-1

-l

-l

-1

-1

33. (1) C+2 E+3 H

(2) 1+2 K+2 M
(4) 0+2 Q+2 S (5) V2 X+2 Z
All except CEH follow the same logic.

-l

Choice (5)

(3) S+2 U+2 W

Choice (1)

34. All the groups have a set of consecutive letters but only 'PQR' is a group which has no vowel
in it.
Choice (4)
35. All except '21' are prime numbers.

Choice (5)

36. All except '80' are divisible by 983.

Choice (3)

37. All the given numbers except 225 are perfect cubes whereas 225 is a perfect square.
Choice (4)
38. 35 = 5 x 7; 77 = 7 x 11; 437 = 19 x 23; 63 = 7 x 9.
All the numbers except 63 are the product of successive prime numbers.

Choice (4)

39. The number of times a digit is repeated is equal to its value except in (1).

Choice (1)

40. All except '6' are perfect square numbers.

Choice (3)

41. All except 'Brown' are the constituent colors of the rainbow.

Choice (3)

42. All except the word 'Two' have two vowels each.

Choice (2)

43. All except 'Oat' are rhyming words.

Choice (1)

47. The alternate letters in each group except in PBRC are consecutive.

Choice (3)

48. (1) J+2 L+l M-2 K

(2) C+2 E+l F-2 D
+2
+1
-2
(3) T V W U
(4) K+3 N-1 M-l L
+2
+1
-2
(5) W Y Z X
All except KNMl follow the same logic.

Choice (4)

49. All except '51' are prime numbers.

Choice (5)

50. (1) 194 = (14)2 - 2

(2) 290 = (17)2 + 1
(3) 362 = (19)2 + 1
(4) 485 = (22)2 + 1
(5) 325 = (18)2 + 1
The given numbers are of the form 'n2 + 1 except '194'.

Choice (1)

51. 464= 41 & 43 has written one next to the other.

5125 = 51 & 53; 327 = 31 & 33, 8512 = 81 & 83, All numbers except 6126 are written in this
form.
Choice (1)
52. (1) 4913 = (17)3
(2) 6859 = (19)3
(3) 2197 = (13)3
(4) 9261 = (21)3
3
(5) 1331 = (11)
.
All except '9261' are the cubes of prime numbers.

Choice (4)

53. (1) 210=(15)2-15

(2) 272 = (17)2 -17
2
(3) 342 = (19) - 19
(4) 158= (13)2-11
2
(5) 110 = (11) _11
All the numbers except '158' are in the form of 'n2 - n'.

Choice (4)

54. All the given numbers except '4' are divisible by 3.

Choice (1)

55. Pairs of prime numbers in descending order are taken and written one next to the other.
Ex: 97 & 89 = 9789; 83 & 79 = 8379; 61 & 59 = 6159; 5961 = 59 & 61

The only number that does not follow this pattern is 7573.

Choice (3)

56. Except digit all are related to each other.

Choice (1)

67. In each group of letters the second letter is the corresponding letter from the other end of
the alphabet and the third letter is the corresponding letter with respect: to two halves of
the alphabet. This process is followed in all the groups except in 'SHG'.
Choice (2)

57. Except Lid all are types of containers.

Choice (5)

68. The number of times a letter is written is equal to its place value except in AA.

Choice (5)

58. Except Trigonometry all are bunches of physics

Choice (3)

59. Except 'page' all are living places of some living beings.

Choice (5)

69. (1) G2 N
(2) D4 P (3) F4 X
4
(4) B H
(5) C4 L
All except 'GN' follow the same logic.

Choice (1)

70. (1) C-2 A

(2) P-1Q (3) E-2 C
-2
(4) W U
(5) I-2 G
All except 'PO' follow the same logic.

Choice (2)

71. The sum of the digits 'in all except '614' is 9.

Choice (3)

72. (1) 10 = 3(3) + 1

(2) 18 = 3(5) + 3
(3) 22 = 3(7) + 1
(4) 28 = 3(9) + 1
The numbers can be written as '3n + 1'. All except 18 follow this logic.

Choice (2)

73. In all the numbers except '223' same digits are used.

Choice (1)

74. The value of the letters is added and is given in the middle.
C9F => C = 3 and F = 6 and 3 + 6 = 9
GHJ => G = 7 and J = 10 and 7 + 10 = 17
F14H => F = 6 and H = 8 and 6 + 8 = 14
B60 => B = 2 and 0 = 4 and 2 + 4 = 6
K23M=> K = 11 and M = 13 and 11 + 13 = 24 but not 23.
Hence K23M is the odd one.

Choice (1)

60. The difference of the digits in each set represents the position of the letter in the English
alphabet.
8F2 => 8 - 2 = 6 = F
703 => 7 - 3 = 4 = D
9B7 => 9 - 7 = 2 = B, 9C6 = 9 - 6 = 3 = C
6H2 => 6 - 2 = 4 = 0 but not H.
Hence 6H2 is the odd one.
Choice (4)
61. The letters at the ends and the letters at the middle make two pairs of corresponding letters
from the other end of the alphabet.
Choice (4)
62. In all the fractions except '12/4' the number is divided by sum of its digits.
63. (1) P+1 Q+1 R+1 S
(2) K+1 L+1 M+1 N
(3) W+1 X+1 Y+1 Z
(4) F+1 G+1 H+2 J
(5) J+1 K+1 L+1 M
All except (4) follow the same logic.
64. (1) T+1 U+2 W+3 Z
(2) P+1 Q+2 S+3 V
+1
+2
+3
(3) L M O R
(4) A+1B+2 D+3 G
+1
+3
+3
(5) F G J M
All except FGJM follow the same logic.
65. (1) Y-1 X-2 V-3 S
(2) L-1 K-2 I-3 F
-1
-2
-2
(3) C B Z X
(4) P-1 O-2 M-3 J
-1
-2
-3
(5) W V T Q
All except CBZX follow the same logic.

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

Choice (5)

75. All the given numbers are perfect cubes but only '729' is a number which is both a perfect
square as well as a perfect cube.
Choice (5)

Choice (3)

76. (1) C1 C2 F3 R
(2) D1 D2 H3 X
1
2
3
(3) B B D L
(4) P1 P2 F2 L
1
2
3
(5) F F L J
All except PPLF follow the same logic.

Choice (4)

77. (1) Y-1 X

(2) U-1 T (3) Q-1 P
-1
(4) X W
(5) T-1 S
All follow the same logic but only UT has a vowel.

Choice (2)

66. In each pair, there are two groups consisting of three letters. The second group is the set of
corresponding letters of the first in the reverse order except in (3) where it is not given in
the reverse order.
Choice (3)

78. In all the given numbers except '765' the digits of all other numbers are written in the
ascending order.
Choice (3)
79. All except '13' are composite numbers.
80. (1) K2 Y
(2) H2 P (3) E2 J
2
(4) P F
(5) A4 D
All except 'AD' follow the same logic.
81. The sum of the digits-in each set represents the position
of the letter in the English alphabet.
1 D3 => 1 + 3 = 4 = D
2F4 => 2 + 4 = 6 = F
2J8 => 2 + 8 = 10 = J,
5K6 => 5 + 6 = 11 = K,
3H4 => 3 + 4 = 7 = G but not H.
Hence 3H4 is the odd one.
82. Book is used to read.
Pen is used to write.
House is used to live.
Bed is to sleep.
But Table is not used to sit.

Choice (1)

Choice (5)

Choice (5)

All except (4) follow the same logic.

89. (1) L-2 J-3 G (2) P-2 N-3K
(3) S-2 Q-4 M (4) D-2 B-3 Y
All except SOM follow the same logic.

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

90. The letters in the words are given in jumbled form. When arranged in a proper order, we get
the following
(1) GUITAR (2) SITAR
(3) FLUTE
(4) TABLA (5) RADIO
All except 'RADIO' are musical instruments.
Choice (5)
91. The letters in the words are in jumbled order. We get the following words when they are
arranged properly.
(1) CARROT (2) ONION (3) POTATO
(4) MANGO (5) RADISH
All except 'MANGO' are vegetables.
Choice (4)
92. In all the groups the first four letters are consecutive letters of the alphabet series. The fifth
letter is a vowel. This is followed in all the groups except in (2).
Choice (2)

Choice (3)

93. In all the pairs, the sum of the digit and the place value of the letter is equal to 5 except in
E2.
Choice (1)

83. (1) 125 = (5)3 (2) 729 = (9)3

(3) 343 = (7)3
(4) 27 = (3)3 (5) 1331 = (11)3
All except '729' are the cubes of prime numbers.

94. All numbers except '256' are divisible by 6.

Choice (2)

84. (1) 11: 11 x 3 + 2

(2) 12: 12 x 3 + 2
(3) 13:13x3+3
(4) 15:15x3+2
(5) 14:14x3+2
All except (3) follow the same logic.

95. The letters in the words are jumbled. We get the following words when arranged properly.
(1) BULB
(2) FAN
(3) LAMP
(4) TORCH
All except 'FAN' are the appliances used for getting light.
Choice (5)

Choice (3)

96. All except '34' are perfect square numbers.

Choice (1)

85. In all the choices except (3), the letters 0, U, Sand R are used.

Choice (3)

97. (1) 139=53+14

(2) 337 = (7)3 - 6
3
(3) 505 = (8) - 7
(4) 721 = (9)3 - 8
3
(5) 211 = 6 - 5
So, the numbers can be expressed as n3 - (n - 1).
All follow the same logic except 139.

Choice (1)

86. All the given numbers except (4) consist of consecutive digits in ascending order. Choice (4)
87. All except '33' are prime numbers.
88. (1) E-2 C+1 D-2 B
(3) X-2 V+1 W-2 U
(5) P-2 N+1 O-2 M

(2) I-2 G+1 H-2 F

(4) O+2 Q+1 R-2 P

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

98. The product of the digits in each set represents the position of the given letter in the English
alphabet.
1D4=> 1X4=4=D

3L4 => 3 X 4 = 12 = L
2P8=> 2X8=16=P
4T5 => 4 X 5 = 20 = T
2J6=> 2X6=12=L but not J.
Hence 2J6 is the odd one.

Choice (2)

99. 150 = 53 + 52; 36 = 33 + 32; 392 = 73 + 72; 810 = 93 + 92;

113 + 112 = 1452 but not 1352
All the numbers except 1352 are written in the form of
N3 + N2.

Choice (5)

100. All except '115' are divisible by '31'.

Choice (3)
6.

VENN DIAGRAMS

7.

EXERCISE 5(a)
As per the given data , we get the following diagram :

8.

9.

H History
G Geography
1. 55 like only Geography.

Choice (3)

2.

35 students like only History.

Choice (2)

3.

10 students like both History and Geography out of a total of 150 students. Hence, 150 - 10 =
140 students do not like either History or Geography.
Choice (4)

4.

35 + 10 + 55 = 100 students like at least one subject.

Choice (5)

5.

(150 - 100) = 50 students like neither of the two subjects.

Choice (3)

Total 100% = 80 + 5% + 45% + 10%

80=100% - 60% = 40%
40% of the (Total) number of youngsters
surveyed = 80
Total = 200 youngsters
200 youngsters were surveyed in the locality.

Choice (1)

Exactly one game.

Only cricket + only football.
80 + 45% of the total.
80 + 45% of 200 = 80 + 90 170.

Choice (3)

10% of the youngsters did not like any of the two games.
10% of 200 = 20

Choice (2)

45% of total
Football.

Choice (5)

45% of 200 = 90 youngsters liked only

10. The number of youngsters who liked at least one game

= 80 + 5% of total + 45% of total = 80 + 50% of total
= 80 + 50% of 200 = 180
The given information can be represented in the following Venn diagram.

From the given data , we get the following diagram.

a supporters of RK party only

Choice (2)

b supporters of JS party only

x supporters of both the parties
n does not support any party
given that n + a + x + b = 100
a + x = 35
b + x = 45
x = 20
a = 15 and b = 25
n = 100 - (25 + 15 + 20) = 40
11. 15 politicians support RK party only.

Choice (3)

12. 40 politicians do not support any of the two parties.

Choice (1)

13. x + a + b = 60 politicians support at least one party.

Choice (2)

14. 25 politicians support only JS party.

Choice (4)

16. 35 families use mobile-phones of only Siemens.

Choice (2)

17. 25 families use mobile-phones of both Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens (Region
common to Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens).
Choice (1)
18. Exactly one company
= Only Panasonic + Only Nokia + Only Siemens
= 22 + 10 + 35 = 67 families

Choice (2)

19. Neither Panasonic nor Siemens implies only Nokia. So, 10 families use mobile-phones of
neither Panasonic nor Siemens.
Choice (5)
20. All the families use mobile-phones of at least one out of the three mentioned companies. So,
there is no family which did not use any mobile phone.
Choice (3)
Given .100 students were surveyed who read novels of Christie or Doyle or both.

15. a + b = 40 politicians are supporting only one party.

60 are not supporter of only one party.

Choice (2)

From the given table we get the information that 40 females read Doyle and 70 students read
Christie.

From the given data, we get the following the diagram.

Total = 200
1.
2.
3.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

P Panasonic
S Siemens
N Nokia
22 families use only Panasonic Phones.
10 families use only Nokia phones.
35 families use only Siemens phones.
4.25 families use both Panasonic and Nokia but not Siemens.
15 families use both Nokia and Siemens but not Panasonic.
23 families use both Panasonic and Siemens but not Nokia.
All the 200 families use mobile-phones of at least one company.

Further,
37% of the total students read both i.e. 37 students.
The ratio of males and females is 1 : 1. i.e. number of
males = number of females = 50.
50% of the females i.e. 50% of 50 = 25 females read
both.
With the above information, we get,

So, Doyle = 27
Christie = 35
Both = 12

Now after filling the gaps in the table we get:

Doyle

Christie

Both

Total

Male

27

35

12

50

Female

40

35

25

50

Total

67

70

37

100

I Indian Express
H The Hindu
T The Times of India
Percentage of residents who read at least one newspaper
= 22 + 5 + 14 + 7 + 10 + 6 + 20 = 84%
Therefore 16% of the residents read none of the three newspapers which is given as 64.
i.e. total x
= 64
Total = 400

So, Doyle = 40
Christie = 35
Both = 25
21. 12 Males read the books by both the authors.

Choice (2)

22. The number of students who read books by only Christie is 23 + 10 = 33.

Choice (3)

23. 15 females read books by only Doyle.

Choice (4)

24. 37 students read the books by both the authors. Hence, those who do not read both the
books is 100 - 37 = 63.
Choice (5)
25. 27 males read books by Doyle.
From the given data, we get the following diagram.

26. 400 residents were surveyed.

Choice (3)

27. 7 + 5 + 6 = 18% of 400 = 72 read exactly two newspapers.

Choice (3)

28. 22 + 14 + 20 = 56% of 400 = 224 read exactly one newspaper.

Choice (5)

29. Residents who read only The Times of India = 20% Residents who read only The Hindu =
14%
So, the residents who read only The Hindu, expressed as a percentage of the residents who
read only The Times of India, is: x 100 = 70%
Choice (4)

Choice (1)
30. Residents who read The Indian Express = 44%
Residents who read only The Times of India = 20%
Ratio = 44: 20 = 11 : 5
The given information can be represented as in the following Venn diagram.

Choice (2)

34. 10 guests have eaten Vanilla and Chocolate ice cream but not Strawberry ice cream.
Choice (3)
35. The guests who did not eat Vanilla are b + z + c + n = 60 + 40 + 100 + 80 = 280 guests
Choice (5)
From the given data, we get the following diagram.

Vanilla ice cream have eaten by a + x + y + h = 100

Strawberries ice cream have eaten by b + x + z + h = 150
Chocolate ice cream have eaten by c + y + z + h = 170
Ice cream of all flavors have eaten by h 20 (i)
Vanilla ice cream and Chocolate ice cream have eaten by h + Y = 30 (ii)
Vanilla ice cream and Strawberry ice cream have eaten by h + x = 50 (iii)
Chocolate ice cream and Strawberry ice cream have eaten by h+ x= 60 (iv)
80 guest have not eaten any ice cream n = 80
From (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
x = 30
y = 10
z = 40
As we know
a + x + y + h = 100
a + 30 + 10 + 20 =100
a = 40
b + x + z + h = 150
b + 30 + 40 + 20 = 150
b = 60
also, c + y + z + h = 170
c + 10 + 60 = 170
c = 100
31. Total guests are = a + b + c + x + y + z + h + n = 40 + 60 + 100 + 30 + 1 0 + 40 + 20 + 80 = 380
guests
Choice (4)
32. At least two flavors of ice creams are eaten by
x + y + z + h = 30 + 10 + 40 + 20 = 1 00

Choice (2)

33. Only Vanilla and Strawberry ice creams have been eaten by 30 guests.

Choice (2)

x + y + z=45
a + b + c = 20
Total = x + y + z + a + b + c + 5 = 45 + 20 + 5 = 70
36. There are 70 people in the locality.

Choice (2)

37. Number of people who read at least two magazines is given by a + b + c + 5 = 20 + 5 = 25.
Choice (1)
38. Given, IT: SS : BI = 2 : 3 : 4
Let IT = 2x, SS = 3x and BI = 4x
But it is given that
2x = 18
x=9
So, SS = 3x = 27
BI = 4x = 36
Therefore, 27 persons read Sports Star.
Choice (5)
39. The 10 people who stop reading India Today and start reading Business India could be from
region 'x' or from region 'a'. If it is from 'x' they would be added to 'z' and if they are from 'a'
they would be added to 'c'. In either case there is no net addition to a + b + c. Therefore the
maximum value of a + b + C remains uncharged i.e., 20.
Choice (1)
40. a + b + c = 20 read exactly two magazines.
(x + y + z) + (a + b + c) + 5 = 45 + 20 + 5 = 70 read at least one magazine.
Percentage = 100 = 28
%

Choice (3)

Given that out of a total of 150 students, 10 students failed in both the subjects.
This implies remaining 150 - 10 = 140 students passed in at least one subject.

From the given data. we get the following diagram.

Total = 140
So, 70 - x +x+90-x= 140
x= 20
20 students passed in both Physics and Statistics.

a + b + c + 10 = 60
=>a+b+c=50
It is known that Pop + Classical + Light
= 2(a + b + c) + (x + y + z) + 30
=> 125 + 135 + 95 = 100 + (x + y + z) + 30
=> x + y + z = 355 - 130 = 225.
41. x + y + z = 225 cassettes belonged to exactly one type of music.

Choice (3)

42. a + b + c = 50 cassettes were of exactly two types of music.

Choice (2)

43. (x + y + z) + (a + b + c) + 10 = 225 + 50 + 10 = 285 cassettes had music of at least one type.

Choice (1)
44. Given, x = z = 2y
x:z:y=2:2:1
Also, x + y + z = 225
Only Classical Music => y = 225 = 45
45. Given,
x = 65 and a = b
But, we know that x + a + b + 10 = 125
=>75+2a+10=125
(a=b)
=>a=2=b
Also, a + b + c = 50
20 + 20 + c = 50
c = 10.
So, there are 10 cassettes which are both Classical and Light but not Pop.

46. 140 students passed in at least one subject.

Choice (3)

47. 20 students passed in both the subjects.

Choice (1)

48. The number of students who passed in only Physics

= 70 - x = 70 - 20 = 50.

Choice (5)

49. The number of students who passed in both = 20. Number of students who passed in physics
= 70.
100 = 28
% of the students those passed in physics also passed in statistics.
Choice (4)

Choice (4)

50. The number of students who passed in exactly one

subject = 70 - x + 90 - x = 160 - 40 = 120
EXERCISE 5(b)
The given diagram is

Choice (5)

Choice (2)

7.

'v', 's', 'w' and z are in the Triangle but not in Square. Hence those represent the people who
like Marinda but not Thumbs up.
Choice (5)

8.

u, y, x belong to both Circle and Square, hence they like Maaza and Thumbs up.
Choice (4)

9.

The letter 'v' belongs to Circle and Triangle but neither to Square nor Rectangle. Hence v
represents the people who like Ma'aza and Marinda but not the other 2.
Choice (2)

10. w belongs to Circle and Rectangle but not Square, hence w represents the people who like
Maaza, Marinda, Coca-cola but not Thumbs up.
Choice (4)
1.

The number belongs to only Circle is 5. Hence 5 students passed only in Mathematics.
Choice (2)

2.

Total 12 + 11 = 23 students belong to the Triangle and Square. Hence 23 student pass in both
Physics and Chemistry.
Choice (3)

3.

10 + 12 = 22 people belong to Square but not Circle. Hence the number of student passed in
Chemistry but not in mathematics is 22.
Choice (1)

4.

3 students belong to Triangle and Circle but not Square. Hence 3 student like Physics and
Chemistry but not Mathematics.
Choice (1)

5.

11 is in all the three. Hence 11 passed in all the three subjects.

Choice (2)

Given venn diagram is

11. a and I do not belong to circle II ad IV

a and I represent the athletes do not participate in either Running or Long jump.
Choice (3)
12. b, g, e, f represents the athletes who participated in Running and Swimming.

Choice (4)

13. f belongs to all the four Circles.

Choice (5)

14. g, e, i and j belong to exactly 3 Circles.

Choice (2)

15. 'i' belOngs to circle I, III but not IV

Hence, i represent the people who participate Swimming and Javelin throw but not Long
jump.
Choice (5)
6.

Given Venn diagram is

In the diagram b represents the people who like only Coca - cola and Thumbs up.
Choice (3)

16. 9 + 2 = 11, Engineers are also Singer.

Choice (3)

17. 20 + 3 = 23 Actors are no Engineers.

Choice (2)

18. 3 Singers are Actors but not Engineers.

Choice (2)

19. 9 + 21 = 30 Engineers are either Singers or Actors but not both.

Choice (5)

20. 2 Singers are Actors as well as Engineers.

Choice (4)

21. Number of employee that are member of club C only = b = 260.

Choice (4)

22. Number of members of club A and B = x + 20

= 50 + 20 = 70.

Choice (3)

23. a + 40 + b + n = 310 + 40 + 260 + 0 = 610 are not the members of club B.

Choice (2)

24. Members of club A or club C = a + x + 40 + 20 + b + 20

= 310 + 50 + 40 + 20 + 260 + 20 = 700.

Choice (2)

25. x + 40 + 20 = 50 + 40 + 20 = 110 are the members of exactly two clubs.

Choice (1)

The given Venn diagram is

R = 100 z = 100 - (13 + 15 + 14) = 58

26. The number of students having Passport = 100
Y = 100 - (12 + 15 + 14) = 59
Similarly x = 100 - (12 + 15 + 13) = 60
Number of students having at least one of the three 10 proofs x + y + z + 12 + 13 + 15 + 14
= 60 + 59 + 58 + 13 + 15 + 13 + 14 = 231.
Choice (4)

C = b + 40 + 20 + 20 = 340
b = 260
B = 500 + 20 + 20 + x = 590
x=50
A= a+ x(=50) + 40+ 20 =420
a = 310
n = 0 [given]

27. It is given that the number of students having an 10 card is half of the number of student
having PAN card
x + 12 + 15 + 13 =
= 50
x= 10

Choice (1)

28. The number of students not having either voter ID or Passport = n + z = 20+ 58 = 78.
Choice (3)
29.

y = = 29

x=2y=58

Number of students having only voter - 10 card = 58.

Choice (2)

41. 48 + 15 + 20 + 11 + 10 + 13 + 28 = 145 Members of at least one of the three

Choice (2)

42. 15 Professors are Doctors but not Singers.

Choice (3)

30. x = y = z = 58
Number of students not having PAN card = x + 12 + Y + 20
= 58 + 12 + 58 + 20 = 148.

Choice (5)

43. 10 Singers are Doctors as well Singers.

Choice (4)

31. River and Ocean are two different water sources.

Choice (4)

44. 48 + 15 = 63 Doctors are not Singers.

Choice (4)

32. Marigold and Rose are two different types flowers.

Choice (4)

45. 11 + 15 + 20 + 28 = 74 are either Singers or Professors but not both.

Choice (5)

33. India, China, Australia are 3 different countries.

Choice (3)

46. 19 + 24 = 43 female Entrepreneurs are Professors also

Choice (5)

34. All fathers are males and some males are Doctors.

Choice (1)

47. 20 + 10 = 30 Professors are neither Entrepreneurs nor Engineers.

Choice (3)

35. Some odd numbers are natural numbers and both are real numbers.

Choice (2)

48. 11 + 20 = 31 male Professors are Entrepreneurs also.

Choice (2)

49. 22 + 19 + 10 = 51 females are not Engineers.

Choice (1)

50. 13 + 24 = 37 are Professors, Engineers and Entrepreneurs.

Choice (1)

36. All brothers are males but no female is males any venn diagram given cannot represent this
relation.
Choice (5)
37. Coca Cola is a cool drink which is a Beverage.

Choice (3)

CLOCKS

38. Cardiologists are Doctors some of whom are Professors. No Venn diagram can represent this.
Choice (5)
1.
39. No Doctor is an Engineer but some of Doctors some of engineers are females.

Choice (2)

40. Some of Singers can be Actors, some Actors can be Dancers and some Dancers can be
singers.
Choice (1)
The given diagram is

In 1 hour the hour-hand moves 360/12 = 30 .

Hence, in 10 minutes it covers 30 /6 = 5

Choice(4)

2.

The hour hand moves 10 in 20 minutes. In 20 minutes the minute-hand moves

20/60 x 360 = 120
Choice(5)

3.

In 50 seconds the second hand covers 300 .

In 60 seconds the minute hand covers 300/60 = 6 .
Hence, in 50 seconds it covers 5 .

Choice (2)

4.

The time in the mirror is 4 hours 20 minutes. The actual time = (12 - 4 hours 20 minutes)
= 7 hours 40 minutes.
Choice (3)

5.

The actual time given in the mirror is 7 hours 15 minutes. The time shown by this clock
when seen in the mirror is (12 - 7 hours 15 minutes) = 4- hours 45 minutes.
Choice (4)

6.

At 4 hours 20 minutes the angle between the two hands is

=> = 30 x 4 - 11/2 x 20

= 30 h - 11/2 m.

=>
7.

8.

9.

= (120 -110) = 10

Choice (2)

=> 11/2 m = + 30 h
11 m = 2(70 + 30 x 7)
m = 560/11 = 50
min past 7.

At 4 hrs 30 min, the hour hand is In between 4 and 5 and the minute hand is at 6. It is given
that the minute hand points towards South which implies that the minute hand point
towards South-east.
Choice (1)

At 7 hours 50
minutes, the angle between the two hands is 70 .
When = 30 h -11/2 m
11/2 m = 30 h -

The angle between the hands at 3 hours 25 minutes is

= 11/2 m - 30 h (where 8 = angle, m = minutes and h = hours)
Here, h = 3 and m = 25
= 11/2 x 25 - 30 x 3

=> m =
m = 280/11 = 25
14.

=>

=>

= 95/2 = 47

Choice (4)

=> m =
m = 280/11 = At 25
= 30 h -11/2 m
11/2m=30h

=>

=> m =

=>

= 265/2 = 132

Choice (3)

min past 3, the two hands of the clock are 50 apart.

=> m = 80/11 = At 7
10.

= 11/2m - 30h
Here it is given that = 0 and h = 6
11/2 m = 30h
=> 11 m = 60 h => m =
m = 360/11 = 32

15.

min past 6.

The two hands of the clock are together at 32

minutes past 6, between 6 and 7 O'clock.

Choice (1)

11. It is given that e = 180, h = 3

= 11/2 m - 30h
11/2 m = + 30h
=>11 m = 2(180 + 30 x 3) => m = 540/11
=> m = 49
minutes past 3.
At 49
12.

minutes past 3, the two hands of the clock are in opposite directions. Choice (5)

= 30 h - 11/2 m, where h = 7, m = 20
= 30 x 7 - 11/2 x 20
= 210 - 110 => 8 = 100

13. In this it is given that

= 70 , h = 7
= 11/2 m - 30 h

Choice (3)

Choice (5)

= 11/2m - 30h
11/2 m = + 30 h

The angle between the two hands of a clock at 2 hours 35 minutes is e = 11/2 m - 30 h,
here h = 2 and m = 35
= 11/2 x 35 - 30 x 2
=

min past 7.

min past 3 the two hands of the clock are 50 apart.

Choice (2)

= 11/2 m - 30 h
11/2 m = + 30 h
11 m = 2(62 + 30 x 5)
m=
= At 38
min past 5 O'clock the two hands of the clock are 62 apart.
= 30 h - 11/2 m => 11/2 m = 30 h
=> 11 m = 2(30 x 5 - 62)
=> m = 176/11 = At 16 minutes past 5 O'clock, the two hands of the clock are 62 apart.
Choice (5)

16. Time from 6 a.m. Monday to 7 p.m. on Thursday = 85 hours.

The watch gains (4 + 6) = 10 minutes in 85 hours
The watch gains 4 minutes in [4/10 x 85] = 34 hours. (Shows correct time)
34 hours = 1 day 10 hours.
1 day 10 hours from 6 a.m. Monday = 4 p.m. Tuesday.
17. In a correct clock, the hands of a clock coincide every 65
are together again after 66 minutes, hence clock loses time.
Loss in 66 min = (66 - 65
) = 6/11 minutes.
Loss in 24 hours = 6/11 x
= 1440/121 = 11

Choice (2)

minutes. But in this case they

The clock loses 11

minutes in 24 hours.

Choice (3)

18. In a correct clock, the hands of a clock coincide every 65

minutes. But in this case both
the hands are together again after 62 minutes, hence the clock gains time.
Gain in 62 minutes = (65
- 62) = 3
min gain.
Gain in 24 hours = 38/11 x 60 x 24 / 62
=
= 80
So the clock gains 80

minutes in 24 hours.

19. Time from 12 noon Monday to 6 p.m. the next day = 30 hours.
The watch gains (5 + 10) = 15 minutes in 30 hours.
The watch gains 5 minutes in 5/15 x 30 = 10 hours.
10 hours from 12 noon = 10 p.m.
The clock shows the correct time at 10 p.m. of the same day.

Choice (5)

25. Difference in minutes between the two clocks in one hour = 1 minute
Number of hours between 12 noon to 8 p.m. on that day = 8 hours.
In 8 hours, one of the clocks gains 8 minutes and shows the time as 8:08 p.m. The other
clock which gains 2 minutes in 1 hour shows the time as 8:16 p.m.
Choice (3)

Choice (1)

CALENDARS
1.

It is given that 22nd April, 1982 was a Thursday. Number of days from 22 nd April 1982 to 3rd
November 1982.
Month: April + May + June + July + August + September + October + November
In each month number of odd days:
1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 6 odd days
6th day after Thursday is Wednesday.
Choice (2)

2.

Number of odd days from 30th June, 1989 to 30th June, 1993 is five.
Number of days from 30th June, 1993 to 17th September, is
Month: July + August + September
Odd days: 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
Number of odd days = 9 + 5=14 = 0 odd days
Hence, 17th September 1993 was a Friday.

Choice (4)

20. Time from 3 p.m. Sunday to 9 p.m. Tuesday = 54 hours.

The watch loses (5 + 10) = 15 minutes in 54 hours.
The watch loses 5 min in 5/15 x 54 = 18 hours 18 hours from 3 p.m. Sunday is 9 a.m. on
Monday, which is when the clock shows the correct time.
Choice (5)
21. Time from 8 a.m. on one day to 4 p.m., the next day = 32 hours.
24 hours 10 minutes of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock.
24
= 145/6 hrs of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock. 32 hours of this clock
= 32 x 6 x 24/145
= 31 hours 47 minutes approximately.
The correct time is 31 hours 47 minutes from 8 a.m.
= 3 hours 47 minutes the next day, afternoon.
Choice (2)
22. Time from 10 a.m. today to 5 p.m. the next day = 31 hours.
24 hours 12 minutes of this clock = '24 hours of the correct clock.
24
= 24
= 121/5 hours of this clock = 24 hours of the correct clock.
31 hours of this clock = 31 x 5/121 x 24 = 30 hours 45 minutes approximately.
The correct time is 30 hours 45 minutes after 10 a.m.
= 4 hours 45 minutes approximately.

24. Difference in minutes between the two clocks in one hour = 3 minutes.
Number of hours from 8 a.m. to 12 noon on that day = 4 hours.
The two clocks differ by = 3 x 4 = 12 minutes.

3.

It is given that 26th February, 2014 is a Wednesday. 26th February, 2017, is four days after
Wednesday, i.e., on Sunday.
Number of odd days from 26th February, 2017 to 14th July, 2017 = 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 0 = 12
odd days. Number of odd days in 12 days = 1217 = 5 odd days 5 th day after Sunday is Friday.
Choice (1)

4.

Number of days from 10th April, 1963 to 23rd August, 1963

Month: April + May + June + July + August
Days: 20+ 31 + 30 + 31 + 23 = 135
Number of odd days in135 days = 135/7 = 2 days
23rd August 1963 is 2 days to Wednesday i.e., Friday
Number of odd days form 23rd August 1963 to 23rd August 1959 are five odd days.
Hence, 23rd August 1959 is five days back to Friday is Sunday.
Choice (1)

5.

Number of days from 4th August 1996 to 12th April 1992

Month: August + July + June + May + April

Choice (3)

23. Time from 4 a.m. on 6th of this month to 6 p.m. on 10th of this month = 110 hours.
The watch loses (12 + 20) = 32 minutes. The watch loses 32 minutes in 110 hours.
The watch loses 12 minutes in 12/32 x 110 = 41 hours 15 minutes
Hence 41 hours 15 minutes from 4 a.m. on 6th is 9:15 p.m. on 7th.
Choice (1)

Choice (5)

Days: 4 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 19 = 135 days 135/7 = 2 odd days

Hence, 12th April 1996 is two days before Sunday, i.e., Friday.
Number of odd days from 12th April 1996 to 12th April 1992 is 5 odd days.
5 days before Friday is Sunday. So, 12th April 1992 was a Sunday.
6.

7.

8.

9.

Number of odd days from 1st January, 2012 to 1st January, 2016 is 5.
5th day after Sunday is Friday.
Number of days from 31st January 1995 to 30th July, 1995.
Month: Feb + Mar + Apr + May + Jun + July
Odd days: 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 2 = 12 days
Number of odd days in 12 days = 12/7 = 5 odd days
5 odd days after Tuesday is Sunday.
Number of odd days from. so" July, 1995 to so" July, 1993 are 2.
2nd day before Sunday is Friday.
20th January, 2000 is a Thursday.
20th January, 1997 is 3 days before Thursday, i.e., Monday.
Number of days from 20th January, 1997 to 26th February, 1997 is
Month: January + February
Days: 11 + 26 = 37 = 2 odd days
2nd day after Monday is Wednesday.
2008 is a leap year.
The number of odd day from 10th January to 1st December of 2008.
Jan + Feb ..: Mar + Apr + May + Jun + Jul + Aug + Sep + Oct + Nov + Dec (1st)
21 (0) + 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 4
the week on first December is = Monday + 4 days = Friday.
Hence, 3rd December is on Sunday.
3, 10, 1'7, 24, 31 are Sundays in the December.

10. It is given that 19th March in a particular year is a Sunday.

Number of days from 19th March to 23rd September in a particular year are:
Month: March + April + May + June + July + August + September.
Odd days: 5 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 = 20 odd days
Number of odd days in 20 days = 20 7 = 6odd days
Hence, 23rd September of that year is not a Sunday; hence it is not a holiday.
11. Number of odd days in 426 days = 426/7 = 60 complete weeks + 6 odd days.
6th day after Sunday is a Saturday.

12. Whether the given year is a leap year or a non-leap year, is not given, hence the answer
cannot be determined.
Choice (5)
Choice (5)

Choice (1)

Choice (3)

13. Odd days from 2005-2008: 1 + 1 + 1 + 2

Hence, 1st January 2009 is 5 days after Saturday, i.e., Thursday.

Choice (1)

14. It is given that 1st January, 2012 is a Saturday.

Odd days from 2012 to 2018: 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1
8 days means 1 odd day. 1 day after Saturday is Sunday.

Choice (3)

15. The number of odd days from 23rd February 2011 to 25th March 2013 can be calculated as
follows:
24th Feb 2011 to 23rd Feb 2012 1
24th Feb 2012 to 23rd Feb 2013 2
24th Feb 2013 to 25th March 2013 - 5 + 25 = 30 = 2
The day on 25th March 2013 is Tuesday + (1 + 2 + 2) days = Sunday.
Choice (4)
16. The person met the boss 15 days ago and he said that he would give the salary after 36 days
i.e. after 36 - 15 = 21 days from the day referred as today.
The required day is = Wednesday + 0(21 days) = Wednesday.
Choice (4)

Choice (3)

Choice (5)

17. Number of odd days in 382 days

=> 382/7 = 54 complete weeks + 4 odd days

Choice (4)

18. Number of days from 3rd April, 1995 to 1st October, 1995
Month: April + May + June + July + August + September + October
Odd days = 6 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 20 days = 6 odd days
6th day after Monday is a Sunday.
Hence, 1st October, 1995 is a Sunday.
I can meet my friend on the 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th of October.

Choice (2)

19. A century year is a leap year only if it is divisible by 400. In the given years, only 2800 is
divisible by 400. Hence, 2800 is a leap year.
Choice (3)
20. As the year starts and ends with Sunday means the given year is a non leap year. As the one
odd day is a Sunday, there will be 53 Sundays in the year.
Choice (3)
Choice (2)

Choice (5)

21. I met my friend (26 + 10) = 36 days before a Wednesday.

The number odd days = 1
One day before Wednesday = Tuesday.

Choice (3)

22. The required day is (26 - 15) = 11 days before a Sunday.

The number of odd days = 4
4 days before a Sunday is Wednesday.
23. Number of days in that calendar year = 436
Number of days in a week = 9
Hence, the number of odd days = 436/9
= 48 complete weeks + 4 odd days.
24. The required day is (55 - 23) = 32 days after Monday.
Number of odd days = 4.
4 days after Monday is = Friday.
25. Republic day i.e. 26th January is on Thursday.
It is not known that whether the year is a leap year or not.
The number of odd days from 26th January to 15th August
= 5 + 0/1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 5/6
If it is a non leap year day of the week on 15th August
= Thursday + 5 days = Tuesday
If it is a leap year day of the week on 15th August
= Thursday + 6 days = Wednesday.

Choice (1)

4.

5.
Choice (4)

2.

3.

Given that, in a certain code language,

+ means -
- means x
x means
means x
Based on this, let us convert the given expressions.
14 x 2 6 + 10 + 4 x 2
becomes 14 2 x 6 - 10 - 4 2
= 7 x 6 - 10 - 2 = 30
15 5 + 15 10 x 2
becomes 15 x 5 - 15 x 1 0
=15 x 15 15 x 15 = 0
11 15 x 3 + 6 5
becomes 11 x 15 3 - 6 x 5

13 + 3 - 5 - 20 + 25
becomes 13 - 3 x 5 x 20 25
=13 300 25 = -312

Choice (3)

196 x 14 25 x 5 + 225 x 15
becomes 196 14 x 25 5 - 225
= 14 x 5 15 = 70 15 = 55

15
Choice (5)

The given expression is on conversion this expression as per the directions we get the
10 2 x 5 + 3 x 4 2 + 1
According to BODMAS rule 10 2 x 5 + 3 x 4 2 + 1
=5x5+3x2+1
= 25 + 6 + 1 = 32
Choice (1)

7.

The given expression is on conversion as per the directions we get the expression
11 x 6 3 - 4 + 10 2
= 11 x 2 - 4 + 5 = 22 - 4 + 5 = 23
Choice (4)

8.

The given expression is on conversion this expression as per the directions we get
= 34 17 x 6 + 11 x 21 7 4
= 2 x 6 + 11 x 3 4 = 41
Choice (2)

9.

The given expression as per directions we get 18 x 3 + 4

= 54 + 2 x 54 = 54 + 10 - 4 = 60

SYMBOLS AND NOTATIONS

1.

Choice (4)

6.
Choice (5)

Choice (5)

= 11 x 5 - 30 = 25

2x54
Choice (3)

10. The given expression is on conversion this expression according to directions we get
16 + 5 - 3 + 8 2 x 3
= 16 + 5 - 3 + 4 x 3 = 16 + 5 - 3 + 12 = 30
Choice (5)
Given that
+

Choice (1)
$

2
Choice (3)

x
=
A
<
>
Let us convert the symbols as per the given directions.

11. (1) 8 2 4 6 36
becomes 8 + 2 4 6 = 36
0 = 36 (false)

Given that the symbol

= means
- means <
+ means
means >
x means =

(2) 8 2 4 6 36
becomes 8 2 > 4 6 + 36
6 > 34 (false)
(3) 8 $ 2 4 6 A 36
becomes 8 x 2 - 4 = 6 < 36
12 = 6 = 36
(false)
(4) 8 2 $ 4 6 A 36
becomes 8 + 2 x 4 + 6 < 36
22 < 36 (true)
12. (1 ) 4
A1 8 9
becomes 4 6 < 1 + 8 + 9
- 2 < 18 (true)

Choice (4)

Choice (1)

13. (1 ) 5 10 $ 2 8 5
becomes 5 + 10 x 2 = 8 5
25 = 3 (false)
(2) 5 10 2 A 8 $ 5
becomes 5 10 - 2 < 8 x 5
-1.5 < 40 (true)
14. (1) 7 A 3 5 6 $ 1
becomes 7 < 3 + 5 > 6 x 1
7 < 8 > 6 (true)
15. (1)

3 5 10 7 5
becomes 3> 5 > 10
3> 5> 12 (false)

75

(2) 3 5 A 10 7 5
becomes 3 - 5 < 10
-2< + 5(True)

7+5

Choice (2)

Choice (1)

16. Statement
P + Q means P Q
Q R means Q > R
R S means R < S
P Q > R and S > R
Conclusion I:
R x S means R = S is definitely false.
Conclusion II:
P R means P > R is true from both the given statements.

Choice (2)

17. Statement:
L x M means L = M
L + N means L N
N - T means N < T
implies
L = M N and T > N
Conclusion I:
M - T means M < T is not definite from both the given statements.
Conclusion II:
L x M means L = N is also not definitely true from the given statements.

Choice (4)

18. Statements:
A + B means A B
A x C means A = C
A = D means A D implies A < D or A > D.
Implies C = A B and A < D or A > D
Conclusion I:
B - C => B < C may be true C > B is not definitely true and hence it does not follow.
Conclusion II:
B x C means B = C may be true D < C.
Hence, either B C is definitely true.
Choice (5)

Choice (2)
19. Statements:
K + R means K R
R P means R > P

P x Q means P = Q
Implies K R > P = Q
Conclusion I:
Q - K means Q < K is true.
Conclusion II:
P - K means P < K is also true.

Choice (3)

20. Statements:
G x H means G = H
G - J means G < J
H + K means H > K
Implies that
J>G=H>K
Conclusion I:
K - J means K < J is true.
Conclusion II:
G - K means G < K is not true.

26. 2 | 8
2 | 4-0
2 | 4-0
1-0

22. T+2,

Choice (3)

, Q+2, L+1, 1+2, C+2, 5+1,

+2

Choice (2)

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

Choice (1)

, J+1,

8 => 1000
i.e. N M M M

27. M M N M represents
0 0 1 0 in binary system
1 0 = 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 2 in decimal system.
So, M M N M represents the number 2.

21. The given sequence is as follows.

STU ?J PQ8L1@C3S A$62BR79
(1) the series is -2, 7-4, 2-6, 3-8, -10, -12 1
+2

0
10 => NM
similarly, 3 is written as NN
Because
2 | 3
1-1
11 NM
Based on this system, we can answer the given questions.

+2

, $+2, 2+1, B+2, B+2, +2, 9

23. There are two such symbols which are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately
followed by a digit. They are A $ 6 and R 7.
Choice (3)
24. Eleventh element from the right is . The seventh letter to the right of

is .

Choice (3)

25. If the first ten elements from left are reversed then the given series transforms as follows.
8QP J? UTSL1@C3S A#62BR79
Fifteenth letter from the right is @ and the tenth letter/element to the left of@ is P.
Choice (4)
The coding pattern is based on the binary system in which only two digits 1 and 0 are used.
Given that
0
is written as M
1
is written as N
2
is written as NM
because
2 | 2

28. 2
2
2
2

|
|
|
|

30
15 - 0
7-1
3-1
1-1

=> 11110 = N N N N M

Choice (4)

29. The given equation is M N M + N N N i.e. (0 1 0 + 1 1 1) which implies

10 = 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 2
111 = 1 x 22 +1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 7.
Hence 2 + 7 = 9 in binary system is
2 | 9
2 | 4-1
=> 1001 = N M M N
2 | 2-0
1-0

Choice (1)

30. The given equation is

(M N M N M - N N M N N) i.e. (1 1 01 0 - 1 1 01 1) which implies
11010 = 1 x 24 + 1 x 23 + 0 x 22 + 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 = 30
11011 = 1 x 24 + 1 x 23 + 0 x 22 + 1 x 21 + 1 x 20 = 27
=> (30 -27) = 3
2 | 3
11
=> 11 = NM

Choice (5)

31. A B = A + AB + B - 6
So. 7 8 = 7 + 7 x 8 + 8 - 6 = 65

Choice (3)

32. P q = p2 + q2 + pq + q
1 0 5 = 102 + 52 + 1 0 x 5 + 5 = 180

Choice (1)

33. C D = C2 +CD + D2 - (C + D)
7 8 = 72 +7 x 8 + 82 - (7 + 8) = 154

Choice (2)

34. x $ y= +
49 $ 16 =

+
+

x 16 = 39

Choice (4)

35. a 0 b = 2ab
5 0 2 = 2 x 52 = 50

Choice (5)

36. 5 @ 6 = 52 + 62 = 61 and 8 @ 10 = 82 + 102 = 164

Hence 7 @ 9 = 72 + 92 = 130

Choice (3)

37. 3 5 = 52 - 32 = 16 and 7 5 = 52 - 72 = -24

Hence,10 11 =112 - 102 = 21

Choice (1)

38. 12 $ 13 = (12+1) (13+1) = 182

17 $ 8 = 162
So, 15 $ 16 = (15 + 1) (16 + 1) = 272

Choice (5)

44. 2 ? 3 = 23 + 32 = 17
5 ? 2 = 52 + 25 = 57
Hence, 5 ? 3 = 53 + 35 = 368

Choice (4)

45. 9 3 = 93 = 729
5 4 = 54 = 625
8 2= 82 = 64

Choice (2)

46. R 1 N T S 7 $ J 3 8 A # 2 L M 9 * C 0 8 4 P Y %
NO letter is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a digit.
Choice (1)
47. The pattern of the given series is as follows.
7+2, J+2, B+2, #x2, L
+2, M-2, 2-2, A-2, 3
+3
T , $+3, B+3, 2+3, 9
The series is
7 * T, J M $, B 2 B, #A2, L 3 9

Choice (1)

48. 3 J 8 3-1 J+2 B

9 L M 9-2 L-1 2
P 4 Y P-1 4+2 Y
N 1 T N-1 1+2 T
-1 %+2
%
except 9LM, all the others are following the same pattern.

Choice (2)

39. 3 > 2 = 3 + 2 = 31 and 4 > 3 = 4 + 3 = 283

Similarly, 1 > 2 = 11 + 22 = 5

Choice (4)

49. The digits which are immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a
letter are 7 and 9 i.e., only two.
Choice (2)

40. 17 * 18 = (17 + 1) (18 -1) = 306 and 14 * 23 = (14+ 1) (23 -1) = 330
Hence, 10 * 12 = (10 + 1) (12 - 1) = 121

Choice (1)

41. 11 + 15 = (11 + 15)2 - 11 x 15= 511 and 7 + 13 = (7 + 13)2 - 7 x 13 = 309

Hence, 15 + 19 = (15 + 19)2 -15 x 19 = 871

Choice (1)

50. 7th element from left end $

4th element to the left of $ N
8th element to the right of N A
A is the 8th element to the right of the element to left of the 7 th element from the left end.
Choice (3)

42. 32 47 = (3 x 2) + (4 x 7) = 34
48 22 = (4 x 8) + (2 x 2) = 36
Hence, 78 13 = (7 x 8) + (1 x 3) = 59

Choice (2)

43. 15 + 32 = 47 which when reversed becomes 74,

So, 15 32 = 74
So, 13 92=501 and 62 53 = 511

Choice (1)

51. After reversing the first half sequence, the news sequence is as following
NML
R P 7 B # A 3 S 8 % $ 2 1 C 5 T W
Fifth element from the right end Q
Fourth element to the left of Q $
Seventh element to the right of $ T
T is the seventh element to the right of the fourth element to the left of the fifth element

from the right end.

Choice (3)

52. The given number is 59361247.

After arranging the digits in ascending order, we get 12345679.
Now the digit remaining in the same position is only 3.
Hence, only one digit remains in the same position.
53. The given word is,
|
M A N A G
|

E
|

|
E

a=3
Now 3

Choice (3)

A - E and A - E are the only two pair of letters which have as many letters between them as
in the English alphabet.
Choice (2)
54. The given word is C E R E M O N Y
After arranging the letters in alphabetical order, C E E M N O R Y
C, E, O and Y i.e., four letters remain in the same position.

Choice (2)

55. According to the given condition i.e., after reversing first ten elements of the sequence, the
new sequence is as follow:
$ # 2 * 6 P K S R 3 A E J % 9 D F I 4.
The sixth element from the left end P
Seventh element to the right of P J.
Fifth element to the left of J S.
Hence, S is the fifth element to the left of the seventh element to the right of the sixth
element from the left end.
Choice (4)
56. 5 # 7 $ 4 = ( 5 x 7) - 4 = 35 4
x = 31
31 5 3 = 31 x 3 + 5
= 93 + 5 = 98.
57. 40 * 3 @ 3 = 40
= 40 - 9 = 31
P = 31
Now,
6 # 6 $ 31 = 6 x 6 31
= 36 - 31 = 5.

58. 7 2 3 =
3

=3
5 = 5 x 3 + 3 = 18

4 9 = 9 x 4 + 4 = 36 + 4
b = 40
Now. 40 & 5 2 8 = 40 - (5 x 8) = 40 - 40 = 0

Choice (3)

59. 4

Choice (1)

60. 12 24 6 = 12 + 24 6 = 36 6
y=6
Now, 7 # 6 $ 3 = 7 x 3 3 = 42 - 3 = 39

Choice (4)

61. 8 10 22 = (10 + 22) 8 = 32 8

x = 24
Now, 60 @ 24 % 24 = 60 x 2 + 24 = 120 + 24 = 5.

Choice (3)

62. 8 @ 4 % 16 = 8 x 4 + 16 = 32 + 16
a=2
Now, 76 # 19 $ 2 = (76 + 19) x 2 = 95 x 2 = 190.

Choice (3)

63. 12 4 5 = 12 x 5 + 4 = 60 + 4
P = 64
Now, 64 40 30 = 40 + 30 64 = 70 - 64 = 6.

Choice (2)

64. 11 # 5 $ 8 = (11 + 5) x 8 = 16 x 8
x = 128
Now, 128 50 90 = (50 + 90) 128 = 140 128 = 12.

Choice (5)

65. 9

Choice (1)

Choice (2)

2 7 = (9 x 7) + 2 = 63 + 2
Z = 65
Now, 13 @ 10 % 65 = (13 x 10) 65 = 130 65 = 2.

66. P Q P > Q
QR Q=R
R S RS
P>Q=RS
Conclusion I: Q S Q = S
Conclusion II: S $ Q S < Q
Either conclusion I or II follows.

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

67. S T S +
UV U>V
T$V T<V
U > v> T S
Conclusion I: V $ S V < S does not follow.
Conclusion II: T $ U T < U follows.
Hence only II follows.

Choice (2)

68. A B A B
CD C=D
B$D B<D
A$E A<E
E<AB<D=C
Conclusion I: C B C > B follows.
Conclusion II: A D A > D does not follow.
Hence only 1 follows.

Choice (1)

69. M N M > N
O P OP
NP N=P
M<N=PO
Conclusion I: M O M > O follows.
Conclusion II: P $ M P < M follows.
Hence, both I and II follows.

Choice (5)

70. I J I J
K L KL
L M LM
M$I M<I
JI>MLK
Conclusion I: I L I > L follows.
Conclusion II: K M K M follows.
Hence, only conclusion II follows.

Let 'A' and 'B' be the initial and the final points in the journey.
Hence, AB =
=
= 10 km.
2.

For these questions, we should draw figures based on the given data:

Let A be the starting point and B be the final point of Shahana's journey,

Hence, Shahana walks 2 km horizontally. She is facing North at the end of the journey.
Choice (2)
3.

Choice (2)

DIRECTION SENSE
1.

Choice (3)

Let A be the office and B be the house.

So, AB =
=.
= 17 km.
4.

Choice (4)

8.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey. The vertical distance between A
and B is (15 - 13) = 2 m
Choice (5)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey. The vertical
distance travelled is equal to 25 + 6 = 31 km.
Choice (5)

5.
9.

From the given description it is clear that the person starts from the same place and reaches
the starting -point. Hence, the distance between the Railway Station and his house is 0 km.
Choice (2)
6.

Let A and B be the initial and the final point respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 12 km (approx)
He is towards the South-West

Choice (2)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Distance he is away from the original place:
Vertically 10 km
Horizontally 5 + 3 = 8 km

Choice (1)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
He is 20 - (8 + 10) = 2 km away from the starting point.

Choice (4)

10.

Let A be the house and B be the park.

Hence, AB =
=
= 20 m

Choice (1)

7.
11.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey.
B is to the North-East of A.
AB =
= 11 km (approx).

Choice (2)

12.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
B is 5 km away from A.

Choice (5)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Salil is towards the North-East with respect to the original place.
AB =
= 18 km (approx)

Choice (4)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 10 km (approx)

Choice (5)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 11 km (approx)
He is 11 km away from his house towards the North-West.

Choice (3)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
AD = 15 + 6 = 21, DB= 6 + 4 = 10
AB =
= 23 km (approx)

Choice (1)

Let A and B be the' initial and the final points respectively in the journey.
Horizontal distance travelled => 6 + 10 + 8 = 24 km

Choice (3)

17.

13.

14.
18.

Let A and B. be the initial and the final point respectively in the journey.
AB =
=
=5km approx. in South-East direction.

Choice (3)

15.

19.
The person is 2 km away from the starting point.

Choice (1)

16.

20.

West.

Choice (2)

25.

Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
Tanya is now in the North-East direction with respect to the starting point.

Choice (5)
The shortest route is through the hypotenuse.
AB =
= 17 km
They meet at a point 8.5 km midway between A and B.

21.

Choice (1)

26.
Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
B is to the North-West with respect to A.

Choice (3)

22.

Let A and B be the initial and the final points in the journey. Mayank is travelling
towards the North-East.
Choice (3)
Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
G is the Grocery shop. AB = 200 - 150 = 50 m

27.
Choice (2)

23.
Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively in the journey. The cat
is now running towards the North.
Choice (2)
Let the two motorists started from points A and B. The first one started from A and stopped at
Sl. The second one started from B and stopped at S2. First, one travelled 50 km and the second
one travelled 65 + 45 = 110 km. So, distance between S1 and S2 is 250 - (50 + 110) = 90 km
Choice (5)

28.

24.

Since, I am now moving towards East, I must have started my journey from the

Total distance between the officers of Rohit and Kunal is 10 + 7 + 2 = 19 m, and

Kunal was travelling towards the South at the end.

29.

Vinay is walking towards the South. Now, if he turns 180 (in any direction),
then he will be facing North. Then, turning 45 in anti-clockwise direction, he
will be facing North-West direction.
= Turns 180 clockwise
= Turns 90 anti-clockwise
At this point he is facing the North-West.

Choice (4)

Choice (5)

30. The pater has been travelled by Raju is as follows

I and F represent the initial and final positions of Ganga.

Ganga is in South-east direction from her initial position.

Choice (4)

33. The path travelled by the van is shown below.

From pythogorous theorem 1 + 0 =

=
= 15 km.

Choice (1)

31. The actual direction and the directions shown by the compass are as follow.

The house is towards North-east from police station.

Distance between house and station is
=
=
=
2.2 km.
Hence the house is at 2.2 km distance and North-East with respect police station
towards.

Sudha started to travel towards west shown by compass which is nothing but north
path travelled by Sudha is as follows.

Now Sudha is facing North.

Choice (2)

Choice (2)

34. In evening the sun is in west hence shadow anything falls towards east. Sum as
right is towards east, i.e. she is facing north.
Rama is facing South.

Choice (1)

35. It was evening and the shadow of the pole fell to Shyam's right. This means Sun
was towards his left (West). So, Shyam was facing North.

Choice (1)

36. Given, the clock is so placed that the minute hand points towards North-West
when it is 3p.m.

32. The path travelled by Ganga is as follows.

Similarly, at 9 a.m., the hour hand points toward

South-West, as shown below.

37. When a watch shows 3:45, the minute hand points towards East, as shown below:
(when the minute hand points towards 9, and hour hand points between 3 and
4, the time is 3:45.)

My house is towards the North-West of the park.

Choice (2)

Hence, at 6 p.m., the hour hand points toward the North-East.

Choice (3)

Let A and B be the initial and the final points respectively In the journey. B is to
the North-West with respect to the point A.

Choice (1)

Jatin is walking towards the East.

Choice (4)

41.

Now, when the watch shows 6 0' clock, then the minute hand points towards 12
and hour hand points towards 6, as shown below:
42.

Hence, the hour hand will point towards North.

Choice (4)

38. Riya's shadow fell to her left i.e. towards East (as it was evening).So, Riya was
facing South As Priya had her back towards Riya, hence, Priya was facing North.

43.
Choice (5)

39. Given that a compass was damaged and its needle turned in such a way that it
showed North for East and so on.
So, the original directions

44.

A person walked towards West, which is actually North.

Choice (4)

40. As per the given data, we get

Point Q is towards North-East from P.

PQ =
= 36 (approx)

=
Choice (4)

45.
So, finally he is facing the South-West.

Choice (5)

50. As per the data, we get,

Let Hand C be the points representing House and Cinema theatre respectively.,
Cinema Theatre is towards the North of the House.

Choice (3)

So, I started the journey from East.

46. A watch shows 5: 15, with the minute hand pointing towards West, as shown
below:

At 5:15 the minute hand points towards 3, and the hour hand just beyond 5
Hence, the hour hand points towards North-West.
47. Given that - Piyush and Ravi were facing each other. Piyush's shadow fell to his
left (i.e, towards West as it was morning). So. Piyush was facing North. and Ravi
was facing South.

BLOOD RELATIONS

Choice (1)

49. Given that Rahim, who was facing West, turns 120 clockwise and then 155 anticlockwise.

1.

Anil's mother's husband is Anil's father. His father's mother is his grandmother.
Anil's grandmother's granddaughter can be Anil's sister or his cousin.
Choice (5)

2.

My mother's mother-in-law is my paternal grandmother.

My paternal grandmother's only son is my father.

Choice (1)

3.

My father's brother's only sibling is none other than my father.

Choice (3)

4.

My brother's grandfather is my grandfather either paternal or maternal. My grandfather's

only son has one child only. Therefore he has to be my maternal uncle only. My uncle's son
is my cousin.
Choice (5)

5.

My mother's mother is my maternai grandmother. My maternal grandmother's

daughter-in-law is my aunt. My aunt's daughter is my cousin.

Choice (2)

48.

Let A and B be the initial and final points respectively in the journey.
AB =
= 36 m (approx).

Choice (3)

Choice (3)

6.

Sheela is Rohit's sister's daughter. So Rohit is the maternal uncle of Sheela. Sheela was
playing with Namit But how Rohit is related to Namit IS not given.
Choice (5)

7.

The man whom X met is the brother of X's husband. Hence the man is the brother-in-law of
X.
Choice (1)

8.

The man's sister's husband is the man's brother-in-law.Brother-in-Iaw's wife is his sister.
Daughter of his sister is his niece.
Choice (2)

9.

From the given data, we get the following tree diagram.

Choice (4)

S - T means S is the son of T.

S T means S is the daughter of T,
S = T means S is the father of T.
S T means S is the mother of T.
16. A + C = B
A

A is the grandmother of F but F can be either the grandson or the grand-daughter of A.

Choice (5)
10. My father's sister is 'my aunt My aunt's daughter is my cousin.

Choice (1)

brother of

father of

i.e. A is the uncle of B.

17.

11. From the given data, we get the following diagrams.

Choice (2)

X = Z = Y means
X

father of

father of

So , X is the grandfather of Y and X = Z Y means

Clearly, B is the grandmother of E.

Choice (2)

father of

mother of

X is the grandfather of Y.

From the given data, we get the following tree diagram.

Choice (3)

18. Q P R means
Q

daughter of

mother of

Implies P is the mother of Q and R.

19.

12. Freda is the mother of Brian.

Choice (2)

13. Gerhard is the friend of Celina and there is no relationship between Gerhard and
Dimitri.
Choice (5
14. Emanuel is the grandfather of Celina.

Choice (5)

15. Anna is the daughter-in-law of Emanuel.

Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 16 to 20:

Given,
S * T means S is sister of T.
S + T means S is the brother of T.

Choice (2)

E D A means
E

mother of

son of

D is the son of A

Choice (3)

20. P * R + Q means
P

sister of

P is the sister of Q .
Solutions for questions 21 to 25:
Given that
L M means L is the father of M.
L M means L is the mother of M.

brother of

Q
Choice (4)

L M means L is the uncle of M.

L $ M means L is the aunt of M,
L M means L is the brother of M.
L M means L is the sister of M.
21. Y $ X O Z
Y

aunt of

father of

A + B means B is the daughter of A.

A - B means B is the son of A.
26. T P Q
Q
Z

So, Y is the grandaunt of Z.

22.

T
S

Choice (1)

AB

uncle of

Choice (5)

brother of

mother of
None of the given statements are true.

Choice (5)

sister of

Choice (5)

mother of

Choice (5)

P
Choice (3)

father of

29. Y Z ( ) K means
K

daughter of

R is the sister of P.

M means

28. P of Q + R
R

son of

L()MN
M
sister of
M is the sister of N.
N is the sister of M.

C means

24. P $ Q

27.

S is the uncle of U but we cannot determine as to how U is related to S

because Us gender is not mentioned.
23.

So, Q is the daughter of T.

U means
brother of

sister of

M
30.

mother of

Z is the son of K.
S J + T means

brother of

Since Paunt
is the
of aunt of Q. P is also the aunt of M because Q is the sister of M.
Choice (1)
25. L O J
L

means
father of

Uncle of

Solutions for questions 26 to 30:

Given that
A ( ) B means B is the mother of A.
A of B means B is the father of A.
A B means B is the sister of A.
A B means B is the brother of A.

brother of

T is the niece of S.
Solutions for questions 31 to 35:
31. My father's sister is my aunt. My aunt's son's mother is my aunt.

M.

L is the father of J and J is the uncle of M .Hence J is the son of L.

T daughter of

Choice (3)

Choice (2)
Choice (3)

32. Anil's sibling's grandfather is Anil's grandfather too Grandfather can be either
paternal or maternal. In this case it cannot be maternal as it says 'only daughter's
only child' which is not possible as Anil has a sibling. Paternal grandfather's
only daughter is Anil's aunt and only child of Aunt is Anil's cousin.
Choice (2)
33. My mother's sister's husband's only son is my aunt's son i.e. cousin. My cousin's
sister is also my cousin.
Choice (2)

34. My mother's father's only daughter is my mother. My mother's only son can be
either my brother or myself
Choice (4)
35. Pratima's daughter-in-Iaw's son is her grandson. Her grandson's son is the great
grandson for both Pratima and her husband.
Choice (3)

the son of Rahul.

Choice (1)

44. My father's father-in-law is my maternal grandfather, my maternal grandfather's

son is my maternal uncle, my maternal uncle's only sister is my mother.
Choice (2)
45. P's father's mother is P's grandmother. P's grandmother's son is P's father or uncle.
So, wife of Ps. Otherwise wife of P's uncle is P's aunt.
Choice (5)

Solutions for questions 36 to 40:

As per the given data, we grt the following tree diagram

Solutions for questions 46 to 50:

As per the given data we get the following tree diagram

The three married couples are L - A, M-B, and C-X. L and A have two
grandchildren, Y and D. Either M or B is the
mother of Y. C is the mother of D. Gender of D is not known.
36. Either M or B is the mother of Y.

Choice (5)

37. Since, the gender of D is not mentioned we can only say that D is the grandchild
of A.
Choice (5)

G(Salesman) is the husband of H(Teacher). Their daughters are C(Writer) and F(Lecturer) C's
husband is B(Doctor). B and C have a son A. F and E are the parents of D(Gender not
mentioned)
46. G is the salesman.

Choice (2)

38. A is the wife of L.

Choice (3)

47. F is the wife of E.

Choice (1)

39. Y is the grand-daughter of L.

Choice (4)

48. H is the teacher.

Choice (4)

40. M is the spouse of B.

Choice (1)

49. D's gender is not mentioned. Hence the relationship cannot be determined.

Choice (5)

Solutions for questions 41 to 45:

41. My sister's husband's father is my sister's father-in-law, whose wife is my sister's
mother-in-law. Her only daughter-in-law is my sister herself. My sister's father is
my father.
Choice (3)

50. The engineer is E, who is the uncle of A.

Choice (1)

42. Rina's father's mother is Rina's paternal grandmother. Paternal grandmother's

daughter is Rina's aunt, who is Samuel's sister. Therefore Samuel is Rina's uncle
and the person in the photograph is Rina's aunt.
Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 1 to 5 :

After reading this set we know that A and B are opposite and
that Hand D are to the left and right of B.

43. Given Shilpa is the only child of her parents. Her sister-in-law is the sister of her
husband. Hence if her sister- in-law is the daughter of Rahul then her husband is

ANALYTICAL PUZZLES

Hence, only the statement "F" is sitting between B .and C, must be true.

We also know G is opposite H and that F does not sit at 7 or

3, hence he is at 8.

8.

Places 7 and 3 can be filled by either C or E.

1. Right of A is F.

Choice (2)

2.

Two places to the right of B is 3 and either C or E can be at 3.

Choice (5)

3.

F would be opposite to H after the interchange.

Choice (4)

4.

Immediate left of G would be E.

Choice (3)

5.

F is opposite to D.

Choice (4)

Choice (3)

As per the given instruction, we get the following seating arrangement:

Hence, E is sitting to the right of B.

Choice (5)

Solutions for questions 9 to 13 :

For circular seating arrangement, the data is as given below
(i) Six friends - A, B, C, D, E and F.
(ii) F is to the left of A
(iii) B is sitting between C and E and is opposite to A.
(iv) E is sitting to the right of D.
Using statements (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get

Solutions for questions 6 to 8 :

6. As per the given data. we get the following diagram which satisfies all the conditions.

Hence, T is sitting to the immediate left of P.

7.

Choice (3)

As per the given conditions. if H is sitting between B and D, then H must be sitting to the
left
of D, as already E is sitting to the right of D. hence, we get the-following seating
arrangement.

Here, B is between C and E and E is to the right of D, this

statement means that E is at seat 2 and D Is sitting at seat 3.
9. C is sitting opposite to D.

Choice (3)

10. E is sitting to the left of B.

Choice (2)

11. A IS sitting opposite to B. E interchanges places with A, then E sits to the right of F.
Choice (5)
12. If every person interchanges seat with the person sitting opposite to him, then also the
arrangement remains the same, but rotates by 180. Hence. F is sitting to the right of C.
Choice (4)

13. It is given that the following persons interchange places:

A and D, F and E , B and C.
Now we get the following arrangement.

(1) is false, as A is to the left of A.

(2) Only E is sitting between Band D, hence false.
(3) As C and D sit opposite to each other hence this statement is true.
(4) E and F sit opposite to each other, hence this is false.

19. 10 students enter Jpto the class after A and 15 students enter into the class before Band 5
students enter into the class between A and B.
Case I :- 15 B A 10
The total number of students in the class are
15 + B + 5 + A + 10 = 32
Case-II :-9A B 4
The total number of students in the class are
9+A+5+B+4
In this the total number of students are = 20
Hence, we cannot determine the number of students in the class.
Choice (5)
Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 14 to 18:

It is given that
(i) 4 girls - A, B, C, D - and 4 boys. E, F, G, H - sit around an Octagonal table.
(ii)No two boys sit adjacent to each other. This means that the boys sit on alternate seats, hence
girls also sit in alternate seats.
(iii) A sits to the right of E and opposite to D.
(iv) G sits to the left of C, but not next to D.
Now, we get the following arrangement:

Based on the above arrangement, the questions are answered as below:

14. B is sitting between E and F.

Choice (2)

15. D sits to the right of H.

Choice (1)

16. A sits to the right of F.

Choice (3)

17. The person sitting between C and D is E (after' exchanging seat with H).

Choice (1)

18. The person sitting between A and B is E.

Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 19 and 20:

20. If A enters into the class before B. then the total number of students in the class are
9 + A + 5 + B + 4 = 20
Choice (1)
Solutions for questions 21 and 22:
S.No

1
2
3
4
5

Stations
Leaving Reaching
S1
S2
B3
B5
B4
B1
B5
B3
B1
B2
B2
B4

21. B3 is the first bus to leave from S.

Choice (5)

22. B, Leaves S, at 4th position and reaches S2 in 2nd position.

Choice (4)

Solutions for questions 23 to 25:

23.
Stations
Time
Arrival Departure
S1
6.00
S2
6.30
6.40
S3
7.10
7.20
S4
7.50
8.00
S5
8.30
8.40
S6
9.10
Hence the train started, S1 at 6:00 a.m.

Choice (2)

24.
Stations
Train t1

S1
6.30

S2
S3
S4
S5
S6
7.00, 7.40, 8.20, 9.00, 9.40
7.10 7.50 8.30 9.10
10.20 9.50, 9.10, 8.30, 7.50, 7.10 Train t2
9.40 9.00 8.20 7.40
Hence, t1 and t2 start at 6:30 a.m. and 7:10 a.m. respectively.

25. The two trains meet each other at S4

Choice (3)
Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 26 and 27 :

It is given that three trains numbered t1, t2 t3 leave station S1 and reach station 52 The train
number and the order in which they depart or arrive is not the same, i.e., T, is neither the
first to leave S1, nor the first to reach S2. The same is the case ofT2 and T3.
S1
S2
1 T2T3 T2T3
2 T1T3 T1T3
3 T1T2 T1T2
It is given that the train that starts first at S1, reaches last at S2. This is only possible for T2.
A S1 S2
1 T2 T3
2 T3 T1
3 T1 T2
26. T2 is the first train to leave from S1.
Choice (2)
27. T1 is the second train to reach S2.

29.
Case I

Case II

Choice (5)

30. If B1 leaves immediately after B5 then the order is

1
2
3
4
5
6
B6 B4 B2 B3 B5 B1
B3 leaves the station at 4th position.

Choice (2)

31. From the given information

P is taller than T P > T
U is shorter than Q who is taller than S
Q>U,S
S is taller than P but shorter than R
R>S>P
Neither of P, Q, Rand S can be shortest.
Either U or T is shortest.

Choice (5)

32. D wear Green shirt.

C wears neither Red nor White. Hence, C wears Yellow shirt. As B wears either Yellow or
Red
shirt. As C wears Yellow shirt, B wears Red and A wears White shirt.
Choice (1)

Choice (1)

Solutions For Questions 28 To 32:

28.
Position Student
1
B
2
D
3
C
4
E
5
A
A is the last to finish the race.

1
B6
B6
2
B2
B4
3
B3
B2
4
B5
B3
5
B4
B5
6
B1
B1
B4 leaves the station either at 5th position or at 2nd position.

Choice (5)

Solutions for questions 33 to 35 :

From (6) L and Q like Pink and Blue in any order.
From (3) E likes either Pink or Indigo. Hence, E likes Indigo.
From (5) B likes Black. but from (2) Either B or C likes Yellow, Hence . Q likes Yellow.
From (4) 'either G or H likes White, hence H likes White. The remaining friends are A and D.
colours are Red and Orange.
From (1) A does not like Red, hence A likes Orange and D likes Red.
The distribution is as follow.
Person
Colour
A
Orange
B
Black
C
Yellow
D
Red
E
Indigo

F
G
H

Blue / Pink
Pink / Blue
White

36. There are two persons ahead of the 5th tallest person.

Choice (2)

37. The fourth tallest person could be either in the sixth or eighth positions.

Choice (5)

33. D likes Red.

Choice (5)

34. A likes orange is the true statement

Choice (3)

38. Either the seventh tallest person or the third tallest person is immediately ahead of the third
tallest.
Choice (5)

35. A likes orange and E likes Indigo.

Choice (4)

39. Four persons stood behind the second tallest.

Choice (5)

40. Only one stood between the third tallest and the second shortest.

Choice (1)

Solutions for questions 33 to 35 :

From the given information the eighth tallest person occupies second position in the queue
and
is behind tallest person hence the tallest person is in the 1st position. The number of persons
ahead of the second tallest and the number of persons behind the second shortest i.e.
seventh
tallest are equal hence the following two arrangements are possible.
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 8
(2) 8
(3) 2/7
(3)
(4) (4) 2/7
(5) (5) 7/2
(6) 7/2
(6)
(7) (7)
(8) (8)
Case (i)
Case (ii)
It is given that the third tallest person is exactly in between the 4 th and 6th tallest persons
hence
they need three equidistant positions which are not available in case (i) hence only case (ii)
is
possible. It is given that 5th tallest person is immediately in front of the second tallest person.
The second tallest person occupies 4th position and the 5th tallest occupies 3rd position.
It is given that 3rd tallest is in between 4th and the 6th tallest persons. The final arrangement
is
as follows.
(1) 1
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 2
(5)7
(6)4/6
(7)3
(8)6/4

Solutions for questions 41 to 45 :

Let each of five persons is denoted by the first letter of their name.
From (2) Neither D nor E is on extreme end
From (3), C is to living in the house which is to the immediate left of the house in which E is
living, hence the following cases are possible.
C E __ __ __
Case (1)
__ C E D __
Case (2)
__ D C E __
Case (3)
From (4) Neither B nor D is painted with Red.
From (1) House of A is to the left of the house which is painted with Red.
In case (2) and (3) A occupies left most house.
But in case (i) A is left to either B or D but which are not painted in Red (from 4). (1) is not
possible.
From (6) Extreme house is not painted in White.
The possible arrangements are "
A C E
D
B
Blue
Case (2)
A D C
E
B
Case (3)
From (5) Green colour building is to the immediate left of Red building and in that either E or D
lives. It is not possible in case (2)
Case (3) is the only possibility and the arrangement will be
A D
C
E
B
Blue
Green Red
White Pink
41. B lives in Pink coloured building.
Choice (1)

42. White building is to the immediate left of Pink coloured building.

Choice (1)

43. A stays in the extreme left end house.

Choice (5)

44. Red building is exactly at the middle of the row.

Choice (2)

45. There are three houses to the right of D's house.

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 46 to 50 :

The given information is as follows.
Bhopal - Rank 6 - Mayor G
------- From (ii)
Chennai Rank 4
------- From (ii)
Rank 7 - Mayor F
------ From (iii)
Mumbai Rank 2
------- From (iii)
Rank 3 - Mayor B
------ From (iv)
Rank 5 - Mayor D
---- From (iv)
The above information is tabulated as follows
Rank Mayor
City
1
2
Mumbai
3
B
4
C
Chennai
5
D
6
G
Bhopal
7
F
From (vi) E is the Mayor of either Mumbai or the city which is ranked 3.
From the above table it is clear that B is 'the Mayor of the city which is ranked 3. E is the Mayor
of Mumbai. A can be the Mayor of the city which is ranked 1 or the city which is ranked 4
i.e. Chennai.
But from (i) A is not the Mayor of Chennai.
A is the Mayor of the city which is ranked 1.
C is the Mayor of Chennai.
From (v) Bangalore or the city to which D is the Mayor is ranked 3.
From the above table we know that the city to which D is the Mayor is ranked 5.
Bangalore is ranked 3.
From (i) and (ii), for Hyderabad A is not the Mayor and it is not ranked 5.
By comparing with the above derived information, we know that Hyderabad is not ranked 1 as
the Mayor of the city which is ranked 1 is A.
Hyderabad is ranked 7.
From (v) D is not the Mayor of Bhubaneshwar.
A is the Mayor of Bhubaneshwar.

D is the Mayor of Kolkatta.

The final arrangement is as follows.
Rank Mayor
City
1
A
Bhubaneshwar
2
E
Mumbai
3
B
Bangalore
4
C
Chennai
5
D
Kolkatta
6
G
Bhopal
7
F
Hyderabad
46. E is the Mayor of Mumbai.

Choice (3)

47. D is the Mayor of Kolkata.

Choice (1)

48. Bangalore Rank 3 is the correct combination.

Choice (1)

49. Bhubaneswar is ranked 1.

Choice (4)

50. F is the Mayor of Hyderabad.

Choice (5)

VERBAL APTITUDE
SYNONYM

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.

5
1
2
3
1
4
5
3
4
2
3
5
4
2
1
3

17.
18.
19.
20.

2
2
3
5

DISEASE HUMAN BODY

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

2
1
4
2
5
2
2
1
5
3
1
4
3
1
5
3
3
4
5
4

2
5
1
3
4
3
5
1
3
4

1
5
2
4
1
4
5
1
3
3

WORD MATCHING

FOREIGN EXPRESSION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

4
1
3
5
3
2
1
2
2
2
5
4
2
2
3
3
5
1
3
4

ONE WORD SUBSTITUTES

1.
2.
3.

3
4
1

4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

PAIR OF ANTONYM

4
5
1
3
5
2
4
4
1
4
5
4
5
1
2
3
4
ANTONYM

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

5
2
3
4
5
4
3
1
1
3
4
1
5
2
3
1
5
5
2
4

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

1
2
3
4
5
2
1
5
4
1
3
5
2
4
3
1
2
3
4
5

IDIOMS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

3
4
1
5
4
1
2
3
5
3
2
4
1
3
4

16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

2
5
3
4
4

Choice (2)
5.

The animals and plants are in danger of becoming extinct.

Choice (5)

6.

Spiders are members of the arachnid family or they belong to the group of arachnids.
Choice (3)

7.

Novels have a main plot and within this there are many minor stories.

8.

The sentence suggests that now he is not in excellent health. But as far as nine months
ago he was in good health. Hence until is the most appropriate conjunction to be used
here. Before is redundant.
Choice (1)

9.

Assume here means to adopt or put on. The Chinese assume European names so that they
can pretend to be Europeans.
Choice (5)

EXERCISE-A
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

2
5
3
1
2
1
3
4
5
2
2
3
1
5
1
4
1
5
4
1

Choice (2)

10. The reason for body odour is perspiration, or perspiration causes body odour.
Choice (4)
11. Mental talents should be nurtured. If they are buried, they 'tend' to or they are inclined to
deteriorate.
Choice (3)
12. The most appropriate preposition is 'at' as it shows a particular time in his life. 'At' the age
of 15.
Choice (2)
13. One has a 'strong' or 'deep' faith in something. 'Stubborn' collocates with attitude.
Choice (1)
14. Changing winds can cause, 'bring' or produce rain or result in a drought.

SELECTING WORDS
1.

Often which means in many instances is the most appropriate adverb to be used in this
context.
Choice (2)

2.

When people speak they allow others to read their mind because they express their
thoughts.
Choice (4)

3.

Owls can detect and catch their prey in total darkness.

4.

To be well-versed in something is to be knowledgeable or knowing a lot in something.

Aware is generally followed by of and not in, and a person will be noted for something.

Choice (1)

15. He hated school and so he 'dropped' out of school. He was not given a choice (i.e.) to
continue or to drop out and so 'opted' is incorrect. 'Escaped' from school is incorrect. One
can escape from jail or even from hostel but not from school.
Choice (5)
16. The clue is the adverb 'mostly' and hence 'generally' harmless is most appropriate.
Choice (4)
17. Computers cannot 'think' like people is the idea conveyed in this sentence.

Choice (1)

Choice (3)
18. A tarpaulin is a waterproof canvas and so spread is the most appropriate verb as a cloth is
spread to allow people to sit on it.
Choice (5)

19. 'Together' means in close association. Family helps people of a society to come 'together' or
live in close association.
Choice (1)
20. There were good books written once, but now a day it is difficult to find them. To track or
to know them are out of context.
Choice (3)

11. 'Evoke' means inspire. Mascots serve to evoke or inspire enthusiasm in fans.

Choice (3)

12. The option choice 4 is appropriate. The word

'distinguished' shows how 'kookaburra' is differentiated or noticed from other birds.
'Raucous' means harsh sounding, loud and hoarse. The other words do not bring out the
meaning relevantly.
Choice (4)

EXERCISE -A
13. 'Renowned' means famous. 'Adorned' means to add beauty or lusture.
1.

The correct option is 4. 'Retaining' means not lose. When food is cooked in the oven it
helps to retain the vitamins in the food. It also makes cooking faster. The other options are
not appropriate.
Choice (4)

2.

The words 'cause' 'reason' 'dispute' and 'doubt' are inappropriate. The correct option is 1.
Blind beliefs have to be 'erased' or wiped out and there can be no 'denial' about that.
Choice (1)

3.

'Flaunt' is to 'show off. 'Afford' is to have the capacity or be in a position to do something.

The Romans generously sprinkled pepper on their food to slow off their wealth as only the
rich could afford to do it.
Choice (2)

4.

5.

'Robust' means strong and sturdy especially in

physique or construction- The other options are not appropriate.

Choice (3)

On view are works by various artists from different cities. The word 'assorted' fits the
context appropriately.
Choice (4)

6.

'Abide' means to 'act in accordance with rules. All the citizens must abide by the rules
Choice (5)

7.

'Access' means the right or opportunity to reach, use, or visit. 'Relevant' means to have
reference to the matter in hand. The other options are not appropriate.
Choice (1)

14. 'Emphatic' means forcibly expressive. Dr. Yamuna is expressing her opinion on parenting
techniques. So 'emphatic' is appropriate in the context.
Choice (2)
15. Renowm' is famous. 'Profound' is showing great insight. The other options are not
appropriate.
Choice (4)
16. The right option is (5). Calcutta witnessed one of the most turbulent periods of the state's
political history.
Choice (5)
17. 'Exchant' means charm, delight. Queen Victoria was delighted when she read 'Alice in
wonderland'. She wrote a letter appreciating him.
Choice (1)
18. 'Impeccable' means exemplary performance. The highlight of the games was Jesse Owens'
exemplary performance.
Choice (3)
19. 'Voracious' means very eager in some activity. It is an apt word to describe the eagerness
with which the hi-tech industry wants to hire workers. 'Spawned' means to produce in
large quantities. The other options are not appropriate.
Choice (1)
20. 'Impinge' means make an impact or encroach. It is the right option.

8.

9.

Choice (1)

Choice (5)

SENTENCE IDENTIFICATION

'Latent' means dormant. Information technology has the latent ability to transform or
change a teacher from an expert to a co-learner.
Choice (2)

1.

The word 'beneficial' shows that the blank must be fitted with a word which is negative in
context as the sentence draws a comparison among different species of birds. 'Perilous'
which means 'dangerous' is appropriate.
Choice (4)

Everyone of the students has, Students must be plural (since all the students are included)
while the verb must be singular (as we are talking about everyone taken individually)
Choice (2)

2.

With the first person (I) 'shall' gives information about the future action while 'will'
denotes determination. Here no determination is implied. Use of 'may' in choice 4 is wrong
as no permission is being given.
Choice (3)

10. An 'accomplice' is someone who helps in crime or wrongdoing. The other options are not
relevant.
Choice (5)

3.

Aids and cancer are two different diseases. Hence choice (4) is ruled out (Aids of cancer).
Nobody should be followed by singular verb (has). So choice (3) is ruled out. Choice (2) is
incorrect because 'found out' implies finding what exists already
Choice (1)

16. The definite article 'The' is used before names of rivers or mountain ranges. Hence 'The
Himalayas', choice (2) and (4) are wrong in choice (3) barriers is used with (of) which is
incorrect.
Choice (1)

4.

Choices (3) and (4) are semantically wrong. (Harsher punishment will not increase crimes).
Choice (1) is wrong because 'crime' is used in singular where as the sentence implies plural
- a number of crimes.
Choice (2)

17. Since we are talking of each or everyone the verb must be singular - was not were. In
choice (3) 'all' is used which must take the plural verb 'were' not 'was'.
Choice (4)

5.

'Problem' should be singular as 'This' is singular. Choice (4) is wrong. Everyone must be
spaced as one is common to each and every (each one and everyone).
Choice (2)

6.

The word assassinated is used when we are referring to the murder of a political or a
religious leader.
Choice(5)

7.

Scenery is always used only in singular (not sceneries).Hence Choice (4) is wrong. Lots of
kings lived - not merely stayed there. So (3) is wrong. Beauty and scenery are not two
different things. So (2) is wrong.
Choice(1)

18. We are talking about 'The victims ... ' not 'Those victims.. ' (since those implies only some
of them not all). So choice (1) is wrong. They are living 'in the open' not on. So choice (3) is
wrong. Choice (2) is also wrong as it does not have the article before open.
Choice (4)
19. 'Less' is used with reference to quantity and 'fewer' with reference to number. So choice (1)
is wrong. 'no fewer than ....' means at least. It is not 'not fewer than ....' So (3) and (4) are
wrong.
Choice (2)
20. The described his journey' not 'about his journey'.

Choice (5)

SENTENCE CORRECTION

8.

Luxuries is the state of living in comfort so it is not just things.

Choice(2)

9.

He sends themnot to them or for them.

Choice(3)

1.

10. Tell is merely to communicate information whereas ask is to say in order to obtain an
answer or response. Hence asked is a better word here (choice (1) is ruled out) Asked us
not to us (so choice (2) is ruled out) the past continuous rather than the past perfect
continuous.
Choice(3)

In type 3 conditional clause the verb in if clause is in past perfect tense. Hence answer is
choice (4) (of the two 'had') one had refers to past perfect and the other means owned or
possessed.
Choice (4)

2.

The future perfect continuous tense must be used here because the action will have been in
progress for some time.
Choice (3)

11. We are comparing Chinese with other languages and in that the difficulty of learning.
Hence more difficult to learn thanis the correct construction.
Choice(5)

3.

If used as (when had I...) the clause has the structure of an interrogative sentence though, it
is a declarative sentence.
Choice (3)

12. We are comparing two aspects of the same person being a statesman and being a politician.
Hence structure of the comparative degree morethan is right.
Choice(2)

4.

Here again two actions in the past are referred to. So the earlier action must have the past
perfect tense.
Choice (4)

13. We say 'in spite of .... .' but 'despite ....' Despite is not followed by of. So choice (1 )(2) and
(3) are wrong.
Choice (4)

5.

The main clause is in the past tense (He told.) so the subordinate clause must also be in the
past tense. The verb 'hate' is not used in progressive form.
Choice (3)

14. Unanimous in not by. So, choices 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect. Since the jury has a difference of
opinion, a plural verb and a plural pronoun are used.
Choice (1)

6.

The if clause in this sentence must be in simple

present. So to say had fallen (1) will fall (2) has fallen (3) would fall (5) is inappropriate. The
right choice is (4).
Choice (4)

7.

It is incorrect to use 'in' when the sentence refers to 'dumping something'. Option (3) is
incorrect. in options 2, 3 and 4 preposition is used incorrectly (in, of, at). Option (5) is

15. The present perfect continuous 'have been asking' is correct here since the employees have
been asking for some time and are still asking.
Choice (3)

incorrect. The noun sewerage is an uncountable noun. So it is inappropriate to say

'sewerages'.
Choice (1)
8.

When we refer to a scheduled future event, we normally use the present simple tense, not
'going to'.
Choice (3)

9.

When a pointed object is pushed into something it pierces it. To use a preposition with
pierce will be incorrect.
Choice (4)

10. The reflexive pronoun 'myself is needed to complete the sense 'to enjoy what?' to enjoy
myself.
Choice (2)
11. The conjunction 'but' implies that what follows is the opposite of what preceded. This is
expressed by choice (2).
Choice (2)
12. Although implies a contrast or concession between the main clause and' the sub-ordinate
clause. This is provided by choice (2)
Choice (2)
13. The simple present tense - I hope to see you - is used to express a future action \then the
futurity is indicated by the context. The verb 'Hope' is not used in progressive form.
Choice (4)
14. Structurally only (2) is correct.

Choice (2)

15. Unless means 'except when', hence semantically only 1 is correct.

Choice (1)

16. Here two negatives are used to express a positive. The sentence means he was industrious,
so he got a seat.
Choice (3)

2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

4
2
5
4
3
2
1
4
5
2
1
3
4
5
2
3
5
2
3

SPOTTING ERRORS
1.

Since the action has taken place yesterday, the verb must be in the past tense - not present
perfect -yesterday I wrote.
Choice (1)

2.

The conjunction so that is used to join two negatives or two positive. Here it is 'badly' and
'stopped his speech' that are linked by so that. He was stammering so badly that. In the
second sentence the future tense is used in the subordinate clause. In the subordinate clause
of condition and time, the simple present is used instead of the simple future when you pass
the examination.
Choice (3)

17. Conditional clause - a rejected condition - something that could have happened but did not.
Choice (2)
18. In the reported speech the second person is changed to third person.

Choice (4)

3.

Both the sentences are correct.

19. The subject here is 'Not one' (not books)m hence the verb should be singular.

Choice (2)

4.

20. So ... that correlative conjunction.

Choice (3)

'Pity' is a noun. It should be the adjective 'pitiful' as it qualifies children. These pitiful
children. In the second sentence the preposition 'for' normally follows the noun 'pity'. To
feel pity for .
Choice (3)

5.

'Let go' means release or set at liberty so sentences should be.... Let you go to.

JUMBLE WORDS
1.

Choice (4)

Choice (2)

6.

Sentence (1) is correct. In sentence (2), 'I' need not be repeated after 'but' since the subject
is the same. 'I could not see anything but heard some noises.
Choice (2)

7.

Sentence 1 should be 'Scarcely had I opened my book when. Scarcely in followed by when,
correlative conjunction.
Choice (1)

8.

In sentence II 'looking after' means 'taking care of-ego Parents look after their children.
'Looking for means searching which is the meaning intended here.
Choice (2)

9.

In sentence I, it should be brushed aside 'not' brushed away. 'Aside' means 'to one side', 'out
of the way' where as 'away' means 'to a distance'. Sentence II should be 'One mustn't waste
one's time .... 'One must 15e followed by one's, he by his.
Choice (3)

Sentence II, the reflexive pronoun 'himself should be omitted.

Choice (3)

19. Sentence I, the verb must be in the past tense as it is from my childhood - I was interested
in painting from my childhood. Had it been the present 'now' then 'am'
can be used - I am interested in paining now.
Choice (1)
20. Sentence I, One cannot make a success of one's.....or He cannot make a success of his..
Sentence II, the subject 'he' need not be repeated in the subordinate clause as it is the same
as in the main clause - 'In spite of being very tired, he..
Choice (3)

ORDERING OF SENTENCES
1.

B cannot be the opening sentence (as it beings with because) so option 2 is ruled out. C does
not follow A so option 1 is ruled out. In option 3, though B can follow C, D cannot follow
A. B cannot follow D immediately and so option 5 is ruled out. So the correct answer is
option 4, which is logical.
Choice (4)

2.

D cannot follow C logically, so options 1 and 2 are ruled out A cannot follow B so
option 4 is also ruled out. B cannot follow D and so 5 is incorrect.
Choice (3)

3.

A follows Band D follows C so we have to choose between 1 and 2. B follows D (sell them
in order to raise money)
Choice (2)

4.

D cannot start a sentence so choices (1) and (2) are incorrect. B too cannot begin the
sentence. D follows B logically.
Choice (4)

5.

D does not follow A, so options 1, 2 and 4 are ruled out. A follows D (it cannot follow C)
Choice (5)

6.

B cannot begin the sentence, so option 1 is ruled out. D follows C (it cannot precede C) so
options 2 and 5 are ruled out. A must follow B logically, so option 3 is ruled out.
Choice (4)

16. Sentence I, accusations were leveled against him not at him. Sentence II, despite is not
followed by of.
Choice (3)

7.

D is the opening sentence in all the choices. B follows (observation .... that). So the answer
is 3 or 4. A follows B (difficulty in writing ....)
Choice (3)

17. Sentence I: I deem it a privilege not as a privilege.

Sentence II: achieved through practice not with practice.

8.

C cannot be the opening sentence (begins with because) so 4 and 5 are ruled out. Since D is
the opening sentence it can be structurally followed by A or B (less than) but logically it is
A.
Choice (2)

10. In sentence I 'refrained' should be flowed by the preposition from - we all refrained from
telling her. In sentence II most must be preceded by the definite article 'the admired the
most. The is always used before an adjective in superlative degree.
Choice (3)
11. I n sentence I, received from not by - received a standing ovation from the audience. In
sentence to the verb must be in the past tense - Many voluntary organizations came
forward to.
Choice (3)
12. In sentence I, - My friend dropped at my place to spend some time.... Not pass time. In
sentence II, it should be regaled.... With not by The artists regaled the audience with their.
Choice (3)
13. Sentence I, 'we enjoyed ourselves', without the reflexive pronoun, it is incomplete (enjoyed
what?)Sentence II is correct.
Choice (1)
14. Sentence II, congratulate on not for - let me congratulate you on your.

Choice (2)

15. Sentence I, the preposition should be 'of not 'in'. All the participants of the programmed.
Choice (1)

Choice (3)

18. Sentence I, 'She has a great skill for painting. The indefinite article 'a' should be used as
painting is one of the many skills.

9.

C follows D (... carried out while ....) so the answer is 1 or 3. B logically follows C
(something is done so that ....).
Choice (3)

10. B is the opening sentence in all the choices. We find C immediately follows B (young men
.... may feel). So the answer is choice 1 or 2. D follows A. It makes no sense if it proceeds A.
Choice (2)
EXERCISE A
1.

While B or C can be the opening sentence, E does not follow B logically. So 1 and 2 are
ruled out. We find CA in 3, 4 and 5 but D cannot follow A (... this respect in D cannot refer
to anything in C or A).
Choice (5)

2.

D is not the opening sentence (definite article the) So 2 and 5 are ruled out. B is the last
sentence (Thus .... draws the conclusion).
Choice (3)

3.

While B or D can be the opening sentence, B logically follows D. what some say (in D) is
shown as true (in B).This is found in 2.
Choice (2)

4.

D is the opening sentence in all the choices. It cannot be followed by B (... also ....). Hence 3
and 5 are ruled out. So we have DA in the other three choices. This should be followed by C
since E and B go on to say what 'should' be done to save democracy.
Choice (4)

10. ACD go together' (... new awareness in A, its

understanding in C, its result in D). This is found in 2, 4 and 5. However A can't be the
opening sentence (pronoun It).
Choice (5)
EXERCISE-B
1.

B follows 1 logically (1 says mosquitoes art the worst enemies of mankind and B explains
why.. because they spread horrible diseases .... ) while both choice 1 and 4 seem O.K. the
response of the government / organization should precedes that of the individual since it
affects the entire society.
Choice (4)

2.

C follows 1 logically (exact cause.. unknown ..causative factors.. numerous) A follows C

(from numerous factors to mentioning several factors). B comes next (several factors to
specific ones certain foods)
Choice (1)

3.

C follows 1 logically (what was the position to what it is now). A comes next - 'it' refers to
the apparatus (B cannot follow C as there is no antecedent for 'he' in C).D comes next (they
had no money.. the banker provided the finance). B comes next (the 'he' refers to the
banker)
Choice (2)

4.

While AOB can follow 1 (choice (3) C can't be the last of the group (having said inspiration
is rare and we learn by practice, we can't now say inspiration is needed before you begin to
write) S choice (3) is ruled out. C follows 1. A comes next (it says a little more about
inspiration) Then comes B (how much inspiration and how much hard work).D follows
(explaining the second part of B).
Choice (1)

5.

B is the opening sentence in all the choices. D follows E (just started.. milestone .... ).
Similarly A follows C (such misadventure in A refers to .... The danger of In C).
Choice (3)

6.

While D can be the opening sentence, E following it does not make sense (no connection
between characters, money, and position). Hence 1 and 5 are ruled out. In the other three
choices we have CA. E cannot follow A (there has been no mention of money or position so
far) so 3 and 4 are ruled out.
Choice (2)

5.

D follows 1 (women are .... Inclined to. in t-hew? . think as men ... in D) A precedes 6 (Her
mission is not to enhance the masculine .... It is better for women.... ).
Choice (3)

6.

AB follow 1 (link - realists - their belief adjective reality - this reality).

7.

A cannot be the opening sentence (pronoun it). Hence 3 and 5 are ruled out. C is the
opening sentence in the other three choices. B follows C more logically than E. So 4 is ruled
out. D follows E ('they' in D refers to 'scientists and technocrats' in E)
Choice (1)

7.

Only B follows (1) logically (form technology changing the world, we come to India). 'But'
in (C) is a connector. So (C) follows (B).
Choice (2)

8.
8.

A follows D (so far ... in 0 now in A). E follows A (aptitude) so we have DAE going together
which is found only in Choice (4)
Choice (4)

While both Band C can follow 1. A follows B (link - also In A and offer criticism in B). This
IS found only in 2.
Choice (2)

9.

C follows 0 (Elsewhere in C and 'In some laces. in D).This is found in 2.

9.

A follows C (... they too .... In A refers to CBI in C) It also implies (too) that corruption has
already been referred to (B).
Choice (3)

Choice (5)

Choice (2)

10. A follows C (...a special technique in C and that technique in A). Similarly D follows B (..
they. in D refers to ... other countries .. In B).
Choice (5)

SENTENCE SELECTION
1.

.. hire one of them .... voyage ..... or live .. , .. suggests a house boat.

Choice (2)

2.

Since the first sentence talks about polio-affected children and the last time about our cooperation, the blank takes a sentence that shows our co-operation. Hence choice (2).
(choice (1) is not suitable because children don't need help to take the vaccine. We must
ensure that they 'get' the vaccine so we must take them to the hospital).
Choice (2)

3.

The sentence that follows the blank talks about viewers increasing. hence choice (2) which
also talks of viewers fits the blank.
Choice (2)

4.

'This electricity .... .' in the line that follows shows that the word electricity must "come in
the blank. The sentence preceding the blank has mentioned solar panel. hence choice (3)
which mentions converting sunlight into electricity fits the blank.
Choice (3)

5.

The sentence preceding the blank talks of 'one source of pollution'. Obviously the blank
must have 'another source of pollution'. The sentences that follow mention vehicle.
Choice (1)

6.

.... force them to take .... legal action' in the line that follows suggests that the blank refers
to someone who, has the authority to take action.
Choice (3)

7.

Regarding actors as gods'. in the previous sentences suggests that the blank has a sentence
which shows people doing something in excess.
Choice (4)

8.

The blank has a sentence which exemplifies the 'simple truth about the importance of
hygiene.
Choice (2)

9.

The line preceding the blank shows that the monkeys act like human beings. The line that
follows says 'In that case... called monkey man'. So the sentence in the blank must show the
monkeys acting more like humans.
Choice (1)

10. Gandhiji called the down cast people Harijan. The line that follows the blank says 'But now
..... it is a word of insult'. So the blank must have the meaning of Harijan as intended by
Gandhiji.
Choice (3)

2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

MATCHING DEFINITIONS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

1
2
4
3
4
5
3
2
3
2

ODD SENTENCE OUT

1.

1, 2, 3 and 5 are about recreational activity while 4 is about work.

2.

Sentence 3 is manmade disaster. The other sentences are about natural disasters.

Choice (4)

Choice (3)
3.

Chess alone is an indoor game. The other 4 are outdoor games.

Choice (1)

4.

4 is about water. The others are not about beverages.

Choice (4)

5.

While others are about pleasure and enjoyment. 5 is about something good or needed.
Choice (5)

6.

The others are about forms of government. 2 alone is about a union.

SENTENCE ANALOGIES
1.

5
2
2
3
5
2
3
3
4

Choice (2)

7.

7. Carpentry is a craft while others are fine arts.

Choice (4)

8.

An umbrella is a thing; the others are different natural fabrics.

Choice (4)

9.

2 is about meditation while the other 4 are about different systems of medicine.
Choice (2)

10. 3 talks of a two-wheeler while the others talk of precious metals and gems (jewelers)
Choice (3)

VERBAL ANALOGIES
1.

Footpath is on either side of the road and running along its entire length. Similarly the river
bank is on either side of the river and running along its length.
Choice (2)

2.

A carpenter uses chisel. In all the five choices we have people and the things they use. In
the case of the seamstress, the needle is a tool just as the chisel is a tool to work with.
Choice (3)

3.

The flower gives off fragrance just as the sun gives sunlight. In both cases they give
something that they . Posses. (The moon gives moon-light but the light is not inherent. it is
only borrowed).
Choice (4)

10. Colt is a young male horse where as a mare is a fully grown female horse. The same aspect
of age and gender is seen between Prince and Queen.
Choice (4)
11. Cub is the young of a lion just as cygnet is the young of swan.

Choice (3)

12. Flower is part of an inflorescence so also light is part of incandescence.

Choice (1)

13. Pudding is a dessert just a soup is an appetizer. . . .

Choice (2)

14. Memory and amnesia are antithetical just like sleep and insomnia.

Choice (1)

15. A pedagogue teaches just as a counselor advice.

Choice (5)

16. Global means relating to the world just as urban means relating to the city.

Choice (4)

17. A rock is the medium for a sculptor just as a canvas is for the artist.

Choice (3)

18. A troupe is a collection of actors even as a regiment is a collection of soldiers.

Choice (2)

19. An elephant is a pachyderm just as a kangaroo is a marsupial.

Choice (2)

20. The earth is a planet just as the moon is a satellite.

Choice (2)

EXERCISE-A
4.

5.

6.

A thermometer is used to measure temperature. So also a hygrometer is used to measure

humidity (A voltmeter is used to measure electric potential not electricity).
Choice (1)

1.

Grammar is essential for a language, Notes are essential in music, Herbs are essential for
medicine, Numbers are essential in mathematics, Calories add to weight."
Choice (2) (Zoology is the study of plants)

A cycle is used by peddling just as a horse is used by riding. (A car is also used by driving
but this is motorized where as in the case of a horse and bicycle, the physical energy is
used).
Choice (2)

2.

An author is the source of literature. A brain is the source of ideas, Ocean is the source of
clouds and a bank IS the source of money. Movies offer entertainment.
Choice (3) (Earth is a planet)

3.

Hot is a greater degree of warm, Freeze is a greater degree of cold, Weep is a greater degree
of sob, Laugh is a greater degree of smile. Stare is to look for a longer time, the right hand
side words are a higher degree of the left hand side words.
Choice (4) (laugh and cry are opposites)

4.

Newspaper deals with journalism, Economics deals with currency, Geology deals with land,
Bank deals with money. Press deals with printing.
Choice (5) (Butter is a product of milk)

The paise is a fraction of a rupee just as minute is a fraction of an hour. (The drop is also a
part of the ocean but it is not countable I measurable).
Choice (5)

7.

Love and hatred are opposites just as the given words.

Choice (1)

8.

Sphere is the shape of the sun just as cube is the shape of the dice.

Choice (2)

9.

Books have knowledge just as herbs have medicines.

Choice (1)

5.

Practice is needed to avoid mistake, rain to avoid

drought, protect to avoid things becoming extinct, and diligence to avoid error.
Choice (2) (resentment leads to anger)

6.

A secretary works)n an office, a chef in a kitchen, a teacher in a school, an officer in a

department, a salesman in a store.
Choice (2) (a musician uses or works with instruments)

7.

17. Epic deals with heroism just as tragedy deals with sorrow. Comedy deals with humor. satire
with lampoon. a critic with review.
Choice (4)

Work leads to fatigue, thirst leads us to take a drink, poison leads to death and laziness to
failure, hard work leads to success.
Choice (3) (love does not lead to hate)

8.

Pills are to cure just as gum is to stick, brush is to paint, and cake is to eat.

Choice (4)

9.

We sketch a diagram just as we draw a picture, print a book or paint a portrait, dramatize a
play.
Choice (5)

18. Practice leads to perfection just as piety leads to

sainthood, perseverance to success, charity to munificence.

Choice (4)

19. Ornithology is the study of birds just as anthropology is the study of mankind, Botany of
plants, Zoology of animals and numismatist of coins.
Choice (5) (Taxonomy is not about tax)
20. We embroider on cloth paint on canvas, carve on wood and write on paper and chisel on
stone.
Choice (2) (we don't garden on lawn - a lawn is a part of a garden).

CLASSIFICATION
1.

Horse, donkey, monkey, parrot, goat. Choice (4) a parrot is a bird while other are animals.

2.

Friday, February, March, August, April. Choice (1) Friday is the name of a day while others
are of a month.

3.

Yesterday, today, second, tomorrow, Saturday. Choice (3) others refer to days.

4.

Baseball, chess, painting, badminton, cricket. Choice (5) others are names of games.

5.

Engineer, doctor, driver, nurse, teacher. Choice (3) others are educated professionals.

6.

Porter, father, mother, brother, sister. Choice (1) others are members of a family.

14. Terrestrial means relating to earth just as cosmic means relating to the universe, aquatic
means relating to water and arboreal means relating to trees, 'Erudition' is related to
knowledge.
Choice (5) (stars shine)

7.

Dagger, knife, fridge, sword, gun. Choice (3) others are weapons.

8.

Ice cream, pudding, cement, salad, cake. Choice (3) others are eatables.

15. A chef works in a kitchen just as a teacher works in a school, an astronomer in an

observatory, a scientist in a laboratory, a doctor in a hospital.
Choice (4) (deity is in a temple does not work there)

9.

Labor, worker, coolie, manager, miner. Choice (4) the work of others involves physical
effort.

10. Shirt is inside a coat, feet are inside socks, head inside helmet, and kerchief inside pocket
and roots inside the earth.
Choice (4) (coat gives warmth)
11. Permanent and transient are opposites just as boisterous-calm, sombre lively, wildomesticated are opposites, Mirttr and glee are similar.
Choice (1)
12. Diagnosis leads to treatment ailment to medicine, investigation to report, fracture to x-ray.
(Interrogation does not lead to evidence, it could lead to judqrnent or unravelling the
truth). Crime leads to arrest.
Choice (4)
13. The words on the left are the names of the homes of the animals 1 human on the right.
(Only the orib is not the home of a baby)
Choice (3)

10. Kitchen. bedroom, restroom, owner. parlour. Choice (5) others are rooms In a house.
16. A kernel is inside a nut just as a seed is inside a fruit, a grain inside a husk, yolk inside egg,
brain inside the cranium.
Choice (4) (a house is made of bricks not inside it)

11. Cotton, wool, paper. silk. jute. Choice (3) others are natural fibers used to make fabric.

12. Trousers. Tie. Scarf, luggage, shirt. Choice (4) others are articles of clothing.

2.

Credential means qualification or achievement - the pudding is successful if it IS eaten.

Choice 2 which is a common saying restates this.
Choice (2)

3.

The concrete here does not refer to building material but to substantial or definite
achievement 'little concrete has happened' means nothing much has been achieved.
Choice (3)

4.

The ostrich is said to bury its head when it sees danger - what it does not see does not exist
An ostrich like attitude means refusing to face reality.
Choice (4)

17. Valley. lake spring, river. ocean. Choice (1) others are sources of water.

5.

'To pull up one's socks' means to make an effort to improve.

18. Tea. salad, coffee. cocoa. chocolate. Choice (2) others are hot beverages.

6.

'Deter' means to discourage or prevent 'Having failed to deter their entry' means as we were
unable to prevent their entry.
Choice (2)

7.

'Contrary' means 'opposite' to 'usual tendency' is

'normal behavior'. Hence 'Contrary to their usual tendency means differing from their
normal behavior.
Choice (4)

8.

'To make a virtue of necessity' means to derive some credit from an unwelcome obligation' .
....
Choice (5)

9.

The government takes our money by way of taxes. So, if we are keeping the government's
hands off our money, 'it means we are avoiding tax payment.
Choice (2)

13. Gold, silver, copper, wood, diamond. Choice (4) others are metals.
14. Brick, cement. Sand, rope, steel. Choice (4) others are building materials.
15. Apple. flower. peach. pear. banana. Choice (2) others are fruits.
16. Words. phrase, pencil, sentence, verse. Choice (3) others are parts of language.

Choice (1)

19. Sickle, plough, hammer, scythe, reap. Choice (5) others are tools.
20. Father, earth, sun, moon, Venus. Choice (1) others are heavenly bodies.

VERBAL REASONING
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

5
3
4
4
3
3
2
5
2
1

10. 'infra dig' means 'below dignity'.

no longer considered infra dig', therefore, means not
considered to be below dignity (or demeaning). . .
Choice (1)

MATCHING DEFINITION
PHRASES

1.

Legislation refers to laws. Stirrings refer to the feelings or passions of the people. Not by
legislation does not mean that laws are ignored. The sentence means that the passions (the
inner motive forces) are more important than laws (which are enforced externally).
Choice (1)

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.

1
3
5
3
4
3
2
1
5
3
4

12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

2
5
4
3
1
4
1
5
2

7.

The clue is in the words that follow the blank. The effects are __ to anybody who does not
deliberately shut his eyes. So, if you don't deliberately shut your eyes it will be 'obvious'
(easily perceived). It is not palpable (able to be touched or felt) or patent (right given by the
government for making or producing something) or conspicuous (what attracts attention in
a crowd) or shrouded.
Choice (4)

8.

Here again the clue is in what precedes and what follows the blank. No sensible person
would say that a terrorist response is justified. By dictating terms it has given an
opportunity for people like Osama Bin Laden or Saddam Hussain to justifiably oppose it.
Hence, the blank is not inefficacious (not producing the desired effect) or abortive (failing
to produce result) or unsuccessful or rational. It is futile (pointless).
Choice (1)

9.

It is no __ . The blank must take a word that means 'chance' (happening by chance) not
luck or fluke. Serendipity means a lucky chance. From the context we can see that it is not
lucky, hence only coincidence can fit in.
Choice (5)

CLOSET TEST
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Here the clue is in the preceding adjective 'irrational'. Since it is irrational, it cannot be
unintelligible (what cannot be understood) or unjustifiable (what cannot be justified) or unmaintainable (what cannot be maintained) Hence, it is indefensible (what cannot be
defended)
Choice (2)
The previous word is browbeating, that is, intimidating. We cannot browbeat jurisdiction
(the territory or area over which authority exits). It is not browbeating people or politicians
or common man (because it is concerned with encroaching public land) Hence, it is
jurisprudence (the legal system) which should act against encroachers.
Choice (1)
'Religion is being Increasingly __ obviously it is 'used So. it IS not redistributed disposed or
even positioned It 15 not advertised either It is deployed (bring Into effective action).
Choice (4)
The quotation of George Bernard Shaw shows that we don't want religion to be used by
scoundrels. So what do we do? We must ensure (make sure) that it does not happen. We
cannot guarantee or certify or even confirm this. We cannot promote it either.
Choice (3)
We must ensure religion does not suffer a similar __ what? It IS not demotion (there is no
promotion or demotion for religion). Depose means to give evidence. So. It cannot be
deposition. It IS not shaming since shaming means feeling of humiliation (religion cannot
feel) Religion is not a thing to discard. Hence, 'it is degradation (causing severe loss of
dignity or respect, demean).
Choice (5)
'Terms' is a way of expressing oneself. So how has Israel been expressing itself? The clue is
in the words that follow'.. from a position of military strength'. From such a position one
will only order or dictate.
Choice (3)

10. With a common enemy, the people 'have been brought together to oppose. Hence, the
word is rally (bring together for concerted action). Group, band, assemble congregate all
refer to bringing people together but the implication of joint action is implicit only in rally.
Choice (2)
11. The clue lies in the words that follow - 'to financial services'. You need an 'access' (the
means or opportunity to approach) rather than gain admission or entry. Avenue means the
same but does not suit in this context.
Choice (5)
12. The words that follow are 'dignity and position'. The self-help groups have empowered
women and what have they done to their dignity and position? They have definitely not
flattered or decorated nor have they seized, they have enhanced (increased).
Choice (4)
13. It has given women the confidence and power to __ with banks. What do they do with
banks? They negotiate (try to reach an agreement or compromise by discussion). They do
not fulfill anything or orchestrate (direct to produce a desired effect) or contract (as a verb
It means decrease or become shorter as a noun only it means an agreement). Corroborate IS
also inapt.
Choice(3)
14. In all these __ , the reference is to dealing with
banks and local governments. These are not events. Occurrences, places or even courses
(lessons In a subject). They are programmers (a set of related measures or activities with a
long term aim).
Choice (2)

15. The purpose has been to make women __ what?

not energetic (these are not health measures); or
moving (we are not talking of feelings); 'efficacious' and sincere are very formal words and
hence do not fit in this context; effective (producing a desired or intended result) is the
right word here.
Choice (3)

ANALYZING ARGUMENTS
1.

16. The words that follow 'have to play' indicate 'Obligation'. 'Mandatorily' means 'required by
law'. Since the order is issued by the government mandatorily is the right choice.
Choice (1)

The given sentence emphasizes the importance of four Ps. Choice 4 which talks of the
indifference of businessmen to the lot of the common man has nothing to do with the
qualities mentioned and hence cannot complement it.
Choice (4)

2.

17. The words that precede 'this is the sort of .... .. .' and the words that follow 'that makes a
mockery of' _. Indicate that what is done is not done in earnest. It is only a show.
'Tokenism' shows that it is only a symbolic move and hence appropriate.
Choice (5)

The given sentence relates happiness to activity.

Choice 1 is about beggars being idle and has nothing to do with happiness. So, it cannot
complement the given sentence.
Choice (1)

3.

18. We already have 'mockery of nationalism', so it is reduced to a mindless __. Celebration or

procedure cannot be mindless. Protocol is a formal word that does not fit here. Follow up is
not done. Hence, ritual is the answer.
Choice (4)

The given sentence focuses on the responsive governance in Karnataka. Choice 5 talks of
Bangalore being a garden city and is unrelated to the responsiveness and technological
development of the government.
Choice (5)

4.

19. Nationalism is not something to be taught or implanted (inserted) or imbued (filled or

saturated with)or preached. It can only be inculcated (instill by persistent instruction). . . . .
Choice (2)

The given sentence tells about prawn farming

destroying the mangroves in Orissa. The focus is on the destruction caused by it. Choice 3
which eulogises the benefits of mangroves cannot complement it.
Choice (3)

5.

20. 'Betrays' (unintentionally reveal) is better in this context than merely disclose (expose) or
divulge (make known) or blurt out (say suddenly without careful consideration).Enhances
is inapt.
Choice (3)

The focus is on the exaggeration in reporting about hunger related deaths. Choice 4 is also
about sensationalism but of the different kind - buying children and hence cannot
complement the given sentence.
Choice (4)

6.

The given sentence draws our attention to keeping the world healthy - that is
environmental protection. Choice 2 which ~s on third World War does not complement it.
Choice (2)

7.

The importance of information is emphasized. Choice 3 which is about the three sectors
cannot complement it.
Choice (3)

22. __ of our prime ministers. The blank refers to the killing. The killing of political
personalities is called assassination.
Choice (1)

8.

The given sentence is about the dispute regarding Cauvery water. Choice 1 is about its
being sacred and hence cannot complement it.
Choice (1)

23. What is done to a Satellite? It is launched. . . . . . .

9.

The given sentence focuses on the dispute between BCCI and ICC rather than on the World
Cup Match. Choice 5, which talks of the important people who will attend the match, does
not complement it.
Choice (5)

21. The words that follow the blank are-droughts, floods. oil price shocks, and other things
including war. What has been the effect of these? The effect has been destructive but it is
not plunder (forcibly stial) or demolition (deliberately destroy) or wreckages (associated
with natural disaster or accident). Hence. It is ravages.
Choice (4)

Choice (3)

24. The words that follow are poverty, disease, illiteracy, corruption etc: These are all scattered
around. What can they be called? They are not havoc (wide-spread destruction) or mere
fragments (~mall parts, pieces). It can be litter or ebris. Of the two: debris has the implicit
meaning of 'scattered rubbish' (litter only means rubbish or an untidy collection).
Choice (2)

10. Here the focus is on technology. Choice 1 alone does not talk about the technology
involved and hence cannot complement it.
Choice (1)

WORD SUBSTITUTES
1.

2.

3.

'Venom' literally means poison and by extension hatred and bitterness. In this context it can
earn rancor (bitterness) malice (hatred) malevolence (ill-will) and bitterness. It cannot
mean abhorrence which is disgust.
Choice (2)
'Acquittal' means declared not guilty. Hence it can mean vindication (shown to be right or
justified), exoneration (officially absolve from blame), and deliverance (the process of being
set free), and exculpation but not dismissal (order or allow to leave).
Choice (1)
'Presage' means a sign or warning. It also means predict. Hence, in the context it can be
replaced by signaled (indicate a state) or prophesied (predicted) or portended (sign or
warning) or threatened but not supported (bear the weight or give assistance)
Choice (1)

4.

'Unassailable' means not liable to attack hence 'Impregnable', (unconquerable) invincible' or

'secure' or 'inviolable' but not 'invisible' (not seen)
Choice (4)

5.

Abjure' means to solemnly renounce Hence, It can mean renounce, relmquish (give up) or
abnegate (renounce or reject) or abandon but not discontinue (stop) discontinue is a
common word by comparison.
Choice (4)

6.

7.

8.

9.

'Despondent' means being in low spirits from loss of hope or courage. It can mean doleful
(sorrowful). Morose (sullen) or crestfallen (sad and disappointed) dismal, but not defiant
(resistance or disobedient).
Choice (3)
'Fitfully' means occurring intermittently, not regularly. Hence, it means erratically
intermittently, irregularly discontinuously but it does not mean faintly which means 'barely
perceptible'
Choice (1)
'Incredulous' means unwilling to believe. Hence, it can be dubious, cynical meaning,
skeptical (doubtful) and disbelieving but not weary (tired).
Choice (3)
'Misconstrued' means 'interpreted wrongly, hence it can mean miscalculated,
misinterpreted or misunderstood (wrongly understood) or erred (mistaken) but not
confused which mean'; bewildered or lacking order
Choice (4)

10. 'Embellished' means adorned or decorated or studded and hence beautified but not beatified
(sanctified)
Choice (5)

11. 'Paeans' means a song of praise hence it can mean tribute, panegyric (in praise of someone)
accolade (special honor), eulogy (praise someone highly) but not anathema (something that
one vehemently dislikes)
Choice (4)
12. 'Sprightly' means lively, energetic, hence it can mean frisky, vivacious (attractively lively)
Jaunty (lively and self confident manner) perky (cheerful and lively) but not voracious
which means greedy or insatiable.
Choice (1)
13. 'Ubiquitous' means found everywhere, hence it means rife, pervasive (widespread).
Prevalent (widespread or existing) and extensive (covering a large area) but not dominating
'which means have a commanding or controlling influence over.
Choice (2)
14. 'Tyro' means a beginner or novice hence it can mean trainee, beginner novice or neophyte
(a person who is new to a subject) but not veteran (a person who has long experience in a
field) which is the opposite.
Choice (2)
15. 'Variegated' means exhibiting different colors hence colorful, kaleidoscopically (changing
patterns, psychedelic (vivid colors and swirling abstract patterns) and many hued (many
colors) but not diversified (enlarge the range).
Choice (4)
16. 'Zany' means amusingly unconventional or idiosyncratic, hence it can mean peculiar,
bizarre (strange), weird (uncanny), ludicrous (absurd, ridiculous) but not weak (lacking
strength).
Choice (2)
17. Adjunct means additional or supplementary, hence can mean complement, supplement, add
on and accessory (something added) but not compliment (expression of praise). Choice (3)
(Note - complement means a thing that enhances or Improves).
18. Lyrical means imaginative and poetic, songlike and hence can mean pleasant, melodious
(tuneful) rhapsodic (enthusiastic expression of feeling), musical (of relating to, or
accompanied by music) but not sumptuous (splendid and expensive looking).
Choice (5)
19. 'Proscribe' means to forbid, especially by law and hence can mean condemned, forbidden,
prohibited= (forbid by law), disallowed (not allowed) but not discourage (cause a loss of
confidence).
Choice (2)
20. 'Venal' means motivated by susceptibility to bribery and hence includes crooked, corrupt
(act dishonestly in return for money), rapacious (aggressively greedy), avaricious (extreme
greed) but not evil (immoral or malevolent not necessarily bribery or corruption).
Choice (4)

SENTENCE COMPLETION
1.

When we achieve something, we are excited about it and want to share our happiness with
others. Selfish persons may keep this success to themselves. Choice 1 some people may get
carried away by success and think that they have extraordinary skills Choice 3. Choice 2
gives incomplete sense as 'impossible' - to whom? Choice (5) like choice (2) gives
incomplete sense. Choice 4 is apt.
Choice (4)

2.

The given part of the sentence has negative acts, so, the blank takes a negative phrase. We
eliminate choice 4 as it is positive. Choice 1 and 3, take sanity as the subject because of the
conjunction 'and'. Sanity has nothing to do with neglect of values and havoc with nature,
though these are negative. Choice (5) is positive. So it is not appropriate. (Choice 2 is apt.)
Choice (2)

3.

The sentence deals with resolving a dispute by talks and negotiations but the attempt to
forge an agreement l at reaching a solution given in choices 1 and 3 respectively make
sense. The attempt proved abortive (useless) completes the sense. Reject the agreement l
acquire dark shades are negative. So, they cannot go with the given part. Choice (4) is a
rhetoric statement. Choice (3) is correct.
Choice (3)

4.

Action is defined positively, so it saves man from some negative effect I condition. So, the
choice should have negative words. 'Use of faculties, prerequisites' in choices 1 and 4 are
positive. The sorrow of fellow- beings does not put a man in danger. Hence, choice 3 is
irrelevant. Activity keeps a man happy and agile. Choice (5) like (1) and (4) has a positive
note. So is incorrect.
Choice (2)

5.

'So highly priced' should be followed by an impossible activity. The ordinary sports-persons
cannot buy the banned substances due to their exorbitant price; neither will the coaches
encourage them to do that. So, we eliminate choices 2 and 4. Price cannot be the reason for
making sportsmen guinea pigs. The impossible activity IS given In choice 1, which
completes the meaning of the sentence. Choice (5) is illogical. If the substance IS so highly
priced it will not be unhesitatingly used.
Choice (1)

6.

7.

In order to generate incomes at a high rate, initial investment requirements such as

network facilities should be substantial. This is given in choice 5, which is apt. 'Slow and
steady progress' given In choice 1, 'willingness to do' and 'expensive and arduous packages'
given in choices 2 and 4 do not lead to profitable conditions.
Choice (5)
One should be either famous or notorious to be in the news. Advocating for the joy of
ignorance or flooding the people with false information or benefit--from a deal are trivial
issues to be in the news. Stirring up controversies surely puts you in the news. Hence, this

goes into the blank.

Choice (2)

8.

The passions and pathos, real or imaginative literature or the talent of writing, which are
lifeless I abstract cannot be drawn towards the beauties of the universe. Hence, choices 2, 3
and 4 are irrelevant. Choice (5) poetry is not meant to drive away negative thoughts. The
lethargic i.e., lazy and uninterested people can be impressed by the beauty.
Choice (1)

9.

When we are in difficulty, we should get motivated by the successful people. 'Learning a
lesson', 'take an example' or 'perseverance' from others do not help one in overcoming the
difficulty. Only choice 3 is relevant.
Choice (3)

10. The immediate and sure result of acquiring knowledge realizing how little we know. More
knowledge may not lead to more wealth or opportunities. Wisdom is the right use of
knowledge. A person with good knowledge may not be wise. Mere knowledge may not lead
to more skill.
Choice (4)

MISSING PART
1.

The sentence compares other metals to aluminium and finds the latter to be superior. Since
the given part of the question begins with 'as aluminium', the structure has to be 'No other
metal is as .. .' Since the subject is singular the verb is 'takes' (not take - rules out 1 and 3). In
choice (4) and (5) obliging is wrong - it is the adverb 'obligingly'
Choice (2)

2.

The subject of the missing phrase is 'the wrist joints' choice (1) makes the sentence
incomplete. In choice (2)'enabling the hands to permit' is meaningless. In choice (4) the
tenses are mixed up. Choice (5) is meaningless.
Choice (3)

3.

The words 'almost left' make choice (2) wrong 'almost' does not qualify the word left but 'as many delusions' Since 'left' itself IS In the past
tense. The earlier past must be In the past perfect - had had. The singular 'had' makes
choice (3) and (4) wrong.
Choice (1)

4.

The words in the blank must elaborate on 'the new kind of war". The words that follow the
blank'. That we had ignored' qualifies' debits and dangers. Hence these words must be at the
end of the words in the blank. In choice (1) 'while' makes the sentence Incomplete.
Choice (4)

5.

5. The words that follow the blank'. But because, too .. suggest that the structure we have
here is 'not only but also' type. So we look at choices (3) and (4).Choice (4) does not make

much sense.

Choice (3)

6.

Since the subject in the blank is 'a vast network', the verb is 'lies' not 'lie' (rules out choices
(1) and (4). Choice (3) has mistakes in prepositions. In Choice (5) the word 'idea is used in
singular. This distorts the subject/verb agreement.
Choice (2)

7.

Since we recognize that natural properties are of vital importance to the planet, human
rights on these are limited by their use - they must comply with their natural function. This
is expressed clearly in choice (1). In choice (2) the prepositions are wrong. In choices (3),
(4)/(5) the meaning conveyed is wrong.
Choice (1)

8.

9.

The blank ends with a semi colon and the words that follow are a restatement of what has
gone in the blank. Only choice (5) is a statement of what follows. Some things are more
important than their things ('than other' and 'to other' make choices (1), (2) and (3) wrong).
Choice (4) omits more. It is grammatically incorrect.
Choice (5)

5.

Band C are grammatically incorrect sentences. In B the error is in the positioning of the
word 'both'. The right position is 'waste of both time and emotional energy'. The error in 'C'
is in the usage of the word 'imaginative fears' The correction is 'imaginary fears'.
Choice (3)

6.

Statements A and C are incorrect. In 'A' the error is in the usage of the preposition. It is
incorrect to say 'shortcut over', the correction is 'shortcut through'. The correction in C is
'came across' 'came to' makes no sense.
Choice (4)

7.

The statements Band 0 are incorrect. The error in B IS 'if it. .. .' The appropriate conjunction
is 'although it was ....' In 0 the error IS 'holding in', the correction IS 'holding at'.
Choice (2)

8.

B and D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The correction in B is 'the best possible'.
The whole paragraph is in past tense. Hence 'will visit' in 0 makes it grammatically
inconsistent. The correction is "visited them...
Choice (1)

9.

The error in C is in the preposition 'to'. The correction is 'for opportunities'.

Only choice (4) is grammatically correct and conveys the meaning appropriately.
Choice (4)

Choice (2)

10. Something is stated in the given part of the sentence which is compared to something else
in the blank. Hence 'just as' is correct. Between (1) and (4) only the former is correct as
'sparkle by thought' is wrong. Choice (5) 'conflicted' is in correct.
Choice (1)

10. Band D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The correction in 'B' is 'transmuted into; it
does not take 'for' The correction in 0 is 'properties' because they are 'diverse'.
Choice (2)

SPOTTING ERRORS

THEME DETECTION

1.

Band D are grammatically incorrect. The correction in B is 'make a favorable impression'. In

D the error is in the usage of 'as'. The correction is 'according to'.
Choice (2)

2.

Statement A is incorrect. It is incorrect to say 'leap and bound; the correction is 'leaps and
bounds'. C is erroneous because it is not 'its' but 'it's'; which means 'it is'. D is erroneous
because 'hang off the cliff' is the appropriate expression.
Choice (5)

1.

2.
3.

4.

A, C and D are grammatically incorrect. The correction in A is 'thought to be'. The

correction in C is 'also a rich source'. The error in D is 'essential to', the correction is
'essential for'.
Choice (3)
B. C and D are grammatically incorrect sentences. The error in 'B' is in the usage of the
preposition 'to'. The correction is 'through'. The correction in C is 'the wild' because the
reference is to the forest. In 'D' the word 'calf' makes no sense. The appropriate word is
'cub'.
Choice (1)

3.

The text contains the following key ideas.

a. Small investors now have wider choice.
The new transaction tax.
b. The Finance Minister's decision.
Only 'B' captures all these elements

Choice (2)

The text contains the following key ideas.

a. ING Vysya Bank incurred losses in the first quarter.
b. The main reason for incurring losses is its high expenses.
Only 'E' captures all these elements.

Choice (5)

The text contains the following key ideas.

a. The Union Coal and Mines Minister is absconding after being accused of murder.
b. The police have raided his house.
c. The police have pasted an arrest warrant which his supporters have removed.

Only 'D' captures all these elements.

4.

5.

The text contains the following key ideas.

a. There is a unique virus, which actually seeks permission before it spreads.
b. Ratter, the producer of Cabis virus has produced this virus for mobiles as well.
Only choice 'C' captures these points.
Choice (3)
The text contains the following key ideas.
a. Priyamvada Birla's will has raised several questions on charitable trusts, quity shares
and evasion of income tax. Only choice 'C' captures this point.
Choice (3)

WORDS USAGE
1.

Choice (2) should read 'It is best' and not 'It is the best

2.

'To break in somebody' means to 'train somebody'. Hence choice (1) is correct Choice (4)
should read 'broke down' and not 'broke out'.
Choice (4)

3.

Choice (3) should read 'off guard', which means 'unawares'.

4.

Choice (4) should read 'root and branch' and not 'roots and branches' (i.e., completely).
Choice (4)

5.

'Gone on a visit' is the correction in choice (4)

6.

Choice (2) should read 'got wind of (i.e. some Indication) and not 'got a wind of.

PARAGRAPH FORMATION

Choice (4)

1.

Sentence E is the best sentence to follow A because it traces the beginnings of movie
making. The 'beyond that' in B refers to making propaga", 9.a films and (links sentence B to
E). DC are linked try the chronological order. Also, C reiterates what has been said in A and
winds up the paragraph. Hence EBDC.
Choice (2)

2.

Sentence 0 follows A since it continues the line of thought - 'they' refers to the materials. B
and C illustrate why material should be chosen with care. Option 2 can be ruled out
because 'thus' in sentence (E) indicates that it is a concluding sentence. Hence DBCE.
Choice (5)

3.

C follows sentence A 'the presumption' in C explaining why Nano may be regarded as a sign
of favouring green esthetic. D and E are a pair - E explaining what is stated in D and B with
the word 'therefore' sums up the paragraph. Hence CDEB.
Choice (4)

4.

The para begins with the statement that while other businesses are struggling Sun Pharma
registered a growth in the September quarter. D follows, saying such a growth will continue
despite the current meltdown. B gives an illustration of how growth can continue in Sun
Pharma. EC are a pair because the plans cited by Obama in E are elaborated in C. Hence
DBEC.
Choice (2)

5.

The statement 'He is entrenched In their collective consciousness' in A is exemplified in

Band D. Since books precede movies, B precedes D. E and C are a pair. The riddle
mentioned in E is spelt out in C. Hence BDEC.
Choice (5)

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

Choice (4)

EXERCISE-A
Choice (2)

7.

Choice (1) should read 'come to grips with' (i.e., to come to terms with a problem or
situation).
Choice (1)

8.

Choice (3) should read 'gave the lie to ....' (i.e... to expose something as false).

9.

'To pick at food' means to eat slowly because of a lack of appetite. Hence choice (4) is a
contradictory statement and hence is incorrect.
Choice (4)

1.

The correct option is 5 and order is DCEB. Option D follows A as A gives the reason for the
decline of drama '!(1d option D continues with 'aside from this (reason). Option E is a
continuation of C, this is because option C says that people wanted to see something of their
times to be reflected on the stage and option E gives the reason for this as there were no
papers or magazines available at that time. Option B concludes the para as it says
Shakespeare fulfilled their (above mentioned) desire. Hence the correct option is 5 and the
appropriate order is DCEB.
Choice (5)

2.

The correct option is 4. The correct order is BCED. Option B carries the idea of 'towers'
forward hence is the continuation of option' A. Now, option C talks 'about heating crude oil
till it becomes vapor and option E talks about these vapors rising according to their boiling
point. Hence E follows C. The idea of 'higher the vapor goes, the cooler it becomes' is
carried forward in option D which concludes the para, hence the appropriate order is

Choice (3)

10. 'Playing with fire' and not 'playing with the fire' is the standard idiomatic expression.
Choice (5)

BCED.
3.

Choice (4)

The correct option is 4. The correct order is DBCE. Here an option D talk about Aristotles
statement and option B reinforces this. Option C is a continuation of this idea especially th~
continuation of option B as 'they' refers to 'learned men' of Galileo's time, hence option C
follows B. Option E is the continuation. to be precise appropriate link between the first
statement, through all the options up to the final statement and forms the appropriate
conclusion for the paragraph. The appropriate option is 4.
Choice (4)

4.

The correct option is 1. The correct order is BEDC. The first sentence (A) talks about a
society where man seldom exchanges his goods. Option B is the continuation of this. Option
E in turn is a continuation of B. Option D follows E as the idea of produce by a man in a
society which believes in division of labor is carried forward in option D. Hence the correct
order is BEDC.
Choice (1)

5.

The correct option is 4. The correct order is CBDE. Option C is a continuation of A as 'It'
refers to the 'culture' mentioned in option A. Now 'such things' mentioned in option D
refer to the 'products of mental activity' mentioned in option B. Hence option D should
follow B. 'This mental activity' in option B refers to the culture, hence B should follow C. E
forms the concluding statement. The correct order is CBDE.
Choice (4)

Boot means to kick or start (as in computers). Boost means cause something to improve
or increase and suits the context. Hence B.
Sign is a signal. It can also refer to signature but here signature is appropriate. Hence B.
The answer is BBABB
Choice (3)
3.

Quizzical means puzzling and collocates with looks. Quixotic on the other hand refers to
something strange or odd. Hence A.
Moribund refers to something that is close to death while morbid refers to an interest in
unpleasant things. Hence B.
Clip the wings is the correct expression. Hence A.
Thatched is used with roof and refers to one made of grass, hay or leaves. Hatch is to plan.
Hence A.
To blow ones trumpet is the correct expression and it means make much of ones own
achievements. Hence A.
The answer is ABAAA
Choice (1)

4.

Lunge is to move suddenly in a particular direction. Plunge is used to show movement in a

particular direction, especially into water. Hence A.
Hail is to call someone loudly. It can also mean small balls of ice that fall like rain. Hale and
hearty is to be in good health. Hence B.
Causality refers to the cause and effect of something. Casualty refers to people who are
injured or killed. Hence A.
Proxy means allowing someone for you. Proximity refers to nearness and suits the context.
Hence A.
Alley is a narrow line or a passage while allay means to set aside or stop and suits the
context. Hence A.
The answer is ABAAA
Choice (4)

5.

Sever means to cut off while Severe means an excess of something. The former suits the
context. Hence A
Suit is a two or three piece clothing that is worn on formal occasions. Suite refers to a set
of rooms in a hotel. Hence B.
Exhort is to persuade or to enthuse while extort means to get by fore blackmail or by
other means. Hence A.
Exterminate is to kill while Extenuating means circumstances or factors that excuse the
commission of a particular act. Hence B.
Pear is a fruit like an apple while pare means to cut down. Hence A.
The answer is ABABA
Choice (1)

SENTENCE FORMATION
1.

2.

Precocious refers to adult behavior or talk that a child indulges in. Precarious means
dangerous which suits the context. Hence A.
To be pretentious is to try to be more important and significant than one is. To have
pretentions to something is to claim to be or to do that thing which suits the context. Hence
B.
Minor means not very serious. Miner is a person who works in mines. Hence A.
Emergent means emerging or growing. Emigrant is a person who leaves his country to
settle in another country. Hence A.
Behold means to view or see. Be hove means it is right, necessary or useful to do
something. Hence A.
The answer is ABAAA
Choice (4)
Whos is sort for who is while those is a personal pronoun and suits the context. Hence B.
Ran foul of is an expression which means do something which gets into trouble. Fowl
refers to poultry. Hence B.
Passed up means lets go or lose. Past refers to time gone by. Hence A.

EXERCISE-A

1.

In part C the preposition 'to' is faulty and should be replaced by 'with'. In part E again
'beyond' should be replaced by against, parts A, Band D are correct.
Choice (3)

2.

In part A there should be no apostrophe after 1960, hence it is faulty. In part B the noun in
apposition V.S. Naipaul should have comma before and after it, therefore it is incorrect
parts C, D and E are correct.
Choice (1)

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

MATCHING DEFINITIONS
1.

The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'H'. 'BE' is the right combination 'F' matches 'C',
thus, '4' is the answer.
Choice (4)

2.

The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'F'. All choices begin with 'F'.'BG' is the right
combination. Thus, choices '3' '4' and '5' can be ruled out 'H' matches 'C'. Thus, '1' is the
answer.
Choice (1)

3.

The meaning implied in 'A' is stated in 'G'. Thus, options '1' and '2' and '5' can be ruled out.
'BE' is the right combination. 'F' matches 'C'. Thus '4' is the answer.
Choice (4)

4.

The meaning implied in 'A' IS stated in E. Thus, options '1' and '4' and '5' can be ruled out.
'H' matches 'B' 'CF' is the right combination. Thus, '3' is the answer.
Choice (3)

Parts A, Band E are correct. In part C it should be a plural noun 'advocates', since it is
always one of the many In part D the definite article 'the' is missing before worlds,
therefore it is faulty.
Choice (5)
In part A the verb should be in the 'singular in order to agree with its singular subject. It
should therefore be subjects. In part B immanent is wrongly spelt. In part E 'to' infinitive is
appropriate. It should be 'to extend'. Parts C and D are correct
Choice (5)
In part A the correct spelling should be dictum, hence it is faulty. In part C the past perfect
tense 'had done' should be used. In part E 'make' is correct as they 'were going to make
history' moves only part D is correct.
Choice (2)

READING COMPREHENSION
EXERCISE-1

In part A the apostrophe should be befores' in

Shelley's. In part E the definite article 'the' is missing before vanity. Parts B, C and D are
correct.
Choice (2)

1.

Choice 3 is characteristic of submarine canyons but not of land canyons. Refer to the last
sentence of para1.
Choice (3)

Parts A, C, D and E are correct. In part B the indefinite article a is missing before
newspaper.
Choice (4)

2.

Refer to Para 3. Both choices 1 and 2 are true.

Choice (4)

3.

Refer to the last sentence of Para 3.

Choice (1)

4.

Active means dynamic

marine means ocean
processes are forces.

Choice (4)

In part A 'economical' as an adjective means using the minimum amount of time, effort that
is necessary, which is not suitable is this context. The adjective 'economic', concerned with
the organization of money, industry and trade, is more appropriate. Hence part A is faulty.
In part B the conjunction 'but' cannot be used as the Ideas are not contrasted 'And' should
be used instead. In part D the preposition 'up' is Incorrect. Parts C and E are correct."
Choice (5)
Parts A, Band E are correct. In part C it should be 'organizational ability' as it pertains or
relates to the way events are planned and arranged. In option D 'grandest' is already a
superlative, hence 'most' is incorrect.
Choice (4)

10. In part A instead of 'in' it should be 'on' hence A is faulty. In part E the definite article 'the'
is missing before 'coming'. Therefore E is faulty. Parts B, C and D are correct.
Choice (3)

5.

The verb shoaling means creating a shallow, although shoal (noun) means a swarm of
fish.
Choice (2)

6.

Refer to Para 3, lines 4-8.

Choice (5)

7.

Refer to the last sentence of para 4.

Choice (1)

8.

Refer to para 2, line 2.

Choice (3)

9.

Refer to Para 2, line 10.

Choice (2)

submarine levees sandstone deposits, gravel and sand are all mentioned. The first sentence
of the para negates 4 since turbidities have never been directly observed.
Choice (4)

EXERCISE-2

28. Refer to the secorid point (lines 11 - 12) in the fourth para.

Choice (5)

29. Refer to para 4, point 4, line 29

Choice (4)

30. The passage explains choices 2, 3, 4 and 5. Only 1 is not explained.

Choice (1)

10. Refer to para 2, line 5.

Choice (3)

11. Refer to para 7 - choice 2 is not a right inference.

Choice (2)

12. Refer to para 1, line 8.

Choice (1)

13. Refer to para 1, lines 7 - 8.

Choice (2)

14. Refer to para 3.

Choice (4)

31. Statement 1 is true - para 3, lines 1 - 2. Statement II is true - para 1, line 3.

15. Refer to para 2.

Choice (5)

32. Choice 3 is incorrect - it was not 84 but 64 soldiers (refer to para 7 penultimate line).
Choice (3)

16. Refer to para 8, lines 4 - 6.

Choice (1)

17. Refer to the last sentence of para 8.

Choice (2)

18. Refer to para 9.

Choice (5)

19. Refer to para 10, lines 1 - 3.

Choice (3)

20. Choice 4 is the odd man since it is negative statement about a food while all the others are
positive statements about different foods.
Choice (4)

EXERCISE-3
21. Refer to para 1, line 4 (because it is' warmer and less saline)

Choice (1)

22. Refer to para 2, lines 4 - 5.

Choice (3)

23. Refer to para 3, lines 1 - 2.

Choice (5)

24. Refer to lines 5 - 4 from the end of para 2.

Choice (4)

25. Refer to para 2, lines 9 - 10.

Choice (2)

26. Refer to para 4, lines 6 - 7.

Choice (3)

EXERCISE-4

33. Refer to the last para, lines 4 - 7.

Choice (1)

34. Refer to para 5, lines 1 - 3.

Choice (4)

35. Refer to para 7, line 7.

Choice (2)

36. Refer to para 4, last sentence.

Choice (2)

37. Refer to the penultimate para, choice 1 and 2 are true.

Choice (4)

38. None of the choices 1, 2 and 3 can be inferred from the passage.

Choice (5)

EXERCISE-5
39. Refer to the last four lines of para 4.

27. Refer to para 4 where the evidences supporting turbidities are cited Telegraph cables,

Choice (2)

Choice (3)

40. Refer to the first four lines of para 5 which make statement I true. Statement II is not true Smith was ready to allow protectionism and tariffs, in certain cases (line 1 of penultimate
para).
Choice (1)
41. Statement I is negated by the last sentence of the passage. Statement II is negated by the first
sentence of the last para. Statement III negates everything that Adam Smith stands for (para
2, line 1). Hence all the three statement are false.
Choice (5)

42. Refer to para 1.

Choice (2)

43. The first sentence in para 3 shows statement I to be true. The end of para 2 show statement
II to be true. The last 2 sentences of para 5 show statement III to be true.
Choice (4)
44. Refer to para 5, line 1-3. The right policies of the government are essential to ensure low
prices and good supplies.
Choice (3)
45. Refer to the last line of para 6 the mechanism by which cell phones affect living tissue is
not known. Hence for the case against cell phones to be proved the connection will have to
be established.
Choice (2)
46. Statement I is true para 7 last line.
Statement II is false para 6.
Statement III is true para 7.

Choice (4)

47. Statement 3 is false refer to para 6.

Choice (3)

48. Larry King is a prominent personality on a T.V. channel refer to para 4 the Larry King
show.
Choice (1)
49. Refer to the first 4 paras.

Choice (5)

50. Refer to the first line of the penultimate para.

Choice (2)