Question Paper - Ibps Bank Po.65

2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
rdZ'kfDr ijh{k.k
(12) : fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dks ;ku ls i<+sa rFkk 5.

funsZ'k
fn, mQijh O;oLFkk osQ vkkkj
H ,d fuf'pr
ij
rjhosQ ls]
x, iz'uksa ds mkj nhft,A
'tqykbZ
' ls lacfakr gSA mlh'B',
'twu
' ls lacafkr gS] rks
izdkj
A, B osQ
10 eh- mkj esa gS
B,rFkk
F osQ
12 eh- mkj esa
'_____' mlh izdkj ebZ ls lacafkr gSA
(1) F
(2) G
E, A osQ
15 eh- iwoZ esa gS
D,rFkk
B osQ nf{k.k&iwoZ esa gS rFkk
gSA
(3)
A
(4) D
F osQ lkFk ,d js[kk
15esa
eh- dh nwjh ij gSA
(5) C
1.
E, D osQ lkis{k esa fdl fn'kk esa gSa rFkk muosQ chp dh nwjh
6.
D osQ ckjsfuEu
eas esaD;k
ls lR; gS\
D;k gSa\
(1) osQoy nks O;fDr
D osQ ckbZ vksj cSBs gSA
(1) 15 eh-, iwoZ
(2) 22 eh-, mkj
(2) D ml O;fDr osQ nk;sa ls nwljs LFkku ij cSBk gS tks tqy
(3) 20 eh-, nf{k.k
(4) 25 eh-, iwoZ
esa 'kkfey gksrk gSA
(5) blesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) E rFkk
B, D osQ fudVre iM+kslh gaSA
2.
A, D osQ lkis{k esa fdl fn'kk esa gSa\
(4) D ebZ esa 'kkfey gksrk gSA
(1) mkj&if'pe
(2) nf{k.k
(5) dksbZ lR; ugha gSA
(3) mkj
(4) nf{k.k&iwoZ
7.
fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu twu esa 'kkfey gksrk gS\
(1)
F
(2) E
funsZ'
k(37) : fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dks ;ku ls i<+sa rFkk fn,
(3)
G
(4) D
x, iz'uksa ds mkj nhft,A
(5) C
A, B, C, D, E, F, G rFkk
H ,d lhkh js[kk
vkB O;fDr
(8-12) : fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dks ;ku ls i<+sa rFkk
funsZ'k
esa mkj dh vksj eq[k djosQ cSBs gaSA muesa ls izR;sd
HkrhZ
fn, x,us
iz'uksa
dsijh{kk
mkj nhft,A
mRRkhZ.k dh gS rFkk fofHkUu fnuksa esa dk;kZy;ksa
esa
'kkfey
gksuk
P, Q, R, S,gksxk]
U, V, W rFkk
T fofHkUu cSadksa vFkkZr~ ch
vkB deZpkjh
;Fkk tuojh] iQjojh] ekpZ] vizSy] ebZ] twu] tqykbZ]vks-ch-]
vkSj vxLr]
;wdks] ih-,u-ch-] ,p-Mh-,iQ-lh-] ,l-ch-vkbZ-] vkj-cht:jh ugha blh ozQe esaA
,fDll rFkk vkbZ-lh-vkbZ-lh-vkbZ- osQ lkFk dk;Z dj jgs gSA m
v G ebZ esa 'kkfey gksus okys O;fDr osQ nk;sa ls rhljs LFkku
lHkh ,d o`kkdkj est osQ pkjksa vksj osQanz dh vksj eq[k djosQ
G gksrk
ij cSBk gSA og O;fDr tks vxLr esa 'kkfey
gS]t:jh ugha blh ozQeW
ysfdu
esaA
ih-,u-ch-osQ lkFk dk;Z djrk gS
E ,d
osQ nk;sa ls nwljs LFkkuAijrFkk
cSBk
gSA
nwljs osQrFkkQ vkSj
R osQ chp ugha cSBrk
S mlgSA
O;fDr osQ ck;sa ls nwljas
fudVre iM+kslhAgSA
;k E ;k uk gh ebZ uk rks vxLr
LFkku ij cSBrk gS] tks ih-,u-ch- osQ lkFk dk;ZUdjrk
osQgS rFkk
A ;k
E, G dk fudVre iM+kslh ugha
esa 'kkfey gksrk
gSA
P ;wdks cSd osQ lkFk dk;Z djrk
R gS
foijhr gSA
osQ
vkSj
ck;sa ls pkSFkk
gSSA
gS rFkk ml O;fDrBhd
osQ
ckbZ vksj ugha cSBrk tks ,fDll cSad osQ
v H ml O;fDr osQ nk;sa ls rhljs LFkku ij cSBk gS tksa
lkFk dk;Z djrk gSA og O;fDr tks vkj-ch-vkbZ osQ lkFk dk;Z d
A gSA
tuojh esa 'kkfey gksrk
;k E tuojh esa 'kkfeygS] mu nks O;fDr;ksa osQ chp cSBrk gS tks ozQe'k% ,l-ch-vkbZ
ugha gksrkHgSA
vxLr esa 'kkfey ugha gksrk gSA
QgSA
osQ lkFk dk;Z djrk
,l-ch-vkbZ- osQ lkFk dk;Z djrk gS rFkk ihv E rFkk tqykbZ esa 'kkfey gksus okys O;fDr
osQoyosQ
chposQ lkFk dk;Z djus okys O;fDr osQ rhljs ckbZ vksj gSA
,u-ch
nks O;fDr
cSBk gSA og O;fDr tks iQjojh esa 'kkfey
gksrk
O;fDr
tks ,fDll cSad osQ lkFk dk;ZW
djrk
dhgS]
vksj eq[k djosQ
gS]D osQ rqjar ckbZ vksj cSBk gSA
W ,p-Mh-,iQ-lh- osQ dk;Z djus okys osQ Bhd ckbZ vk
cSBk gS rFkk
B osQ chp
C ebZ esagSA
v E rFkk
osQoy ,d O;fDr
cSBk gSA
og O;fDr tks vkj-ch-vkbZ- osQ lkFk dk;Z djrk gS rFkk ch-vk
G, gSA
'kkfey gksrk EgSA
vizSy osQ ckn 'kkfey gksrk
osQ lkFk dk;Z djus okys O;fDr osQ nk;sa ls rhljs LFkku ij cSB
A osQ ckn 'kkfey gksrk gSA
8.
ch-vks-ch- osQ lkFk dkSu dk;Z djrk gS\
3.
H fuEu esa ls fdl eghus esa dk;kZy; esa 'kkfey gksrk (1)
gS\ P
(2) Q
(1) vizSy
(2) twu
(3) R
(3) tqykbZ
(4) iQjojh
(4) fukkZfjr ugha fd;k tk ldrk
(5) ekpZ
4.
E rFkk
B osQ Bhd chp cSBrk gS\
fuEu esa dkSu
9.
R rFkkQ osQ chp fdrus deZpkjh cSBs gSa\ (;fn ?kM+h o
(1) og O;fDr tks ebZ esa 'kkfey gksrk gSA
foijhr fn'kk esa fxuk tk,)
(2) og O;fDr tks tuojh esa 'kkfey gksrk gSA
(1) nks
(2) rhu
(3) D
(3) pkj
(4) dksbZ ugha
(4) A
(5) og O;fDr tks vxLr esa 'kkfey gksrk gSA
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REASONING
Directions ( 1-2) : Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
A is 10m to the north of B, who is 12m to
the north of F. E is 15m to the east of A and D is
to the south east of B and is in line with F at a
distance of 15m.
1.
E is in which direction with respect to D
and what is the distance between them?
(1) 15m, East
(2) 22m, North
(3) 20m, South
(4) 25m, East
(5) None of these
2.
A is in which direction with respect to D?
(1) North west
(2) South
(3) North
(4) South east
(5) None of these
Directions (3-7) : Study the following
information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
sitting in a straight line facing North. Each one
of them has passed a recruitment exam and
must join the office on different month viz.
January, February, March, April, May, June, July
and August but not necessarily in the same order.
v G sit third to the right of the person who
joins in May. The person who joins in
August sits second to the right of G. A
and E are immediate neighbours of each
other. A or E joins in neither May nor
August. Neither A nor E is an immediate
neighbour of G.
v H sits third to the right of the person who
joins in January. Neither A nor E joins
in January. H joins in August.
v Only two people sit between E and the
person who joins in July. The person who
joins in February sits to the immediate
left of D.
v Only one person sits between E and B.
C joins in the month of May. E joins after
April. G joins after A.
3.
On which of the following months does H
join the office?
(1) April
(2) June
(3) July
(4) February
(5) March
4.
Who amongst the following sits exactly
between E and B?
(1) The person who joins in May
(2) The person who joins in January
(3) D
(4) A
(5) The person who joins in August
5.
'H' is related to 'July' in a certain way based

on the above arrangement. 'B' is related to
'June' following the same pattern. '_____'
is related to 'May' following the same
pattern.
(1) F
(2) G
(3) A
(4) D
(5) C
6.
Which of the following is true regarding D?
(1) Only two people sit to the left of D.
(2) D is sitting second to the right of the
person who joins in July
(3) E and B are immediate neighbours of D
(4) D joins in may
(5) None of true
7.
Who amongst the following joins in June?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) G
(4) D
(5) C
questions.
There are eight employees P, Q, R, S, U, V,
W and T working with banks, viz. BOB, UCO, PNB,
HDFC, SBI, RBI, Axis and ICICI. All of them are
sitting around a circular table and facing the
centre but not necessarily in the same order. W
is working with PNB and doesn't sit between Q
and R. S Sits second to the left of the person who
is working with PNB and opposite U. P works with
the UCO Bank and is fourth to the left of R and
does not sit on the immediate left of the person
who is working with the Axis Bank. The person
who is working with RBI sits between those two
person who are working with SBI and the UCO
Bank respectively. Q works with SBI and is third
to the left of the person who is working with PNB.
The Person working with Axis Bank faces W, who
is on the immediate left of the person who is
working with HDFC. The person working with
RBI sits third to the right of the person working
with BOB.
8.
Who works with BOB?
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) Can't be determined
(5) None of these
9.
How many employees are sitting between
R and Q? (if counted in anticlockwise
direction)
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) None
(5) None of these
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10.
,p-Mh-,iQ-lh- osQ lkFk dkSu dk;Z djrk gS\

(1) U
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) ;k rksV
(18-19) :
;k T
dFku:
lHkh isu fdrkc gSA
lHkh fdrkc ist gSA
oqQN fdrkc dkWyst gSA
:
fu"d"kZ
I. lHkh fdrkc dHkh Hkh dkWyst ugha gks ldrkA
II. dksbZ Hkh fdrkc tks dye gS fuf'pr :i ls ist gSA
:
fu"d"kZ
I. lHkh fdrkcksa osQ dye gksus dh laHkkouk gSA
II. dksbZ dye dkWyst ugha gSA
fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe fuf'pr #i ls lR; gSa\

18.
(1) R-,l-ch-vkbZ(2) V-vkbZ-lh-vkbZ-lh-vkbZ(3) V-,fDll
(4) S-vkj-ch-vkbZ(5) T-,p-Mh-,iQ-lh19.
12. U dk LFkku
P osQ lkis{k esa D;k gS\
(1) nk;sa ls rhl
(2) ck;sa ls rhljk
jk
(3) nk;sa ls pkSFkk (4) nk;sa ls nwljk
(20-21) :
dFku:
(13-17): fuEufyf[kr iz'ukasa esa] dFku esa fofHkUu rRoksa
funsZ'k
osQ chp lacak n'kkZ;k x;k gSA dFku osQ ckn nks fu"d"kZ fn;sdksbZ
x, lqbZ isM+ ugha gSA
oqQN
isM+ kkxs gSaA
gSA mkj nsa&
lHkh kkxs cDls gaSA
(1) ;fn osQoy fu"d"kZ
I lR; gSA
20.
:
fu"d"kZ
(2) ;fn osQoy fu"d"kZ
II lR; gSA
I. dksbZ lqbZ kkxk ugha gSA
(3) ;fn ;k rks fu"d"kZ
I ;k II lR; gSA
II. dksbZ cDlk isM+ ugha gSA
(4) ;fn uk rks fu"d"kZ
I uk ghII lR; gSA
21.
:
fu"d"kZ
(5) ;fn nksuksa fu"d"kZ
I rFkkII lR; gSA
I. lHkh cDls osQ kkxs gksus dh laHkkouk gSA
13. dFku:
II. lHkh isM+ osQ kkxs gksus dh laHkkouk gSA
G > R > K = L, S < T < K
22.
dFku:
:
fu"d"kZ
oqQN f[kykM+h n'kZd gSaA
I. L > S
II. T < R
dksbZ f[kykM+h ukVd ?kj ugha gSA
14. dFku:
:
fu"d"kZ
T>Q>M=S<P<L
I. dksbZ n'kZd ukVd ?kj ugha gSA
:
fu"d"kZ
II. lHkh n'kZd osQ ukVd ?kj gksus dh laHkkouk gSA
I. Q > P
II. L > T
15. dFku:
(23-27) : fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dks ;ku ls i<+sa rFkk
funsZ'k
V = Z > W, C = T > U > V
fn, x, iz'uksa ds mkj nhft,A
:
fu"d"kZ
N% O;fDr flUgk] lSuh] Hkxr] ;kno] xqIrk rFkk feJk N% fofHkU
I. C > Z
II. T > W
LVs'ku ;Fkk] eukyh] oqQYyw] elwjh] f"kosQ'k] f'keyk rFkk
16. dFku:
tkus dh ;kstuk cukrs gSaA os N% fofHkUu eghusa ;Fkk] tuojh
B > C = D > E, B > K = L > M
ebZ] twu] vxLr rFkk fnlEcj esa tkuk pkgrs gaSA buesa ls nks c
:
fu"d"kZ
;k=kk djuk pkgrs gSa rFkk nks jsyxkM+h rFkk nwljs ;k rks dkj ;
I. K > D
II. E < B
ls tkuk pkgrs gSaA fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh Hkh nh xbZ gSA
17. dFku:
I. xqIrk eukyh tkrk gS ysfdu uk rks ok;q;ku ls uk gh cl lsA
M<K=N<L<G=F
II. flUgk cl ls ;k=kk djuk ilUn djrk gS ysfdu uk rks vxLr
:
fu"d"kZ
uk gh ebZ esaA
I. L > M
II. N < F
III.
(Q. 18-22): fn;s x, izR;sd iz'u esa nks@rhu dFku ,oa feJk ;k lSuh uk rks f'keyk uk gh elwjh tkrs gaSA
funsZ'k
IV. f"kosQ'k fnlEcj esa tk;k tkrk gSA
I ,oa II fn;s x, gSA vkidks bu dFkuksa
mlosQ ckn nks fu"d"kZ
V. oqQYyw rFkk f'keyk tkus okys O;fDr ozQe'k% cl rFkk dk
dks lR; ekuuk gS] Hkys gh oks loZKkr
;ksa lsrFfHkUu izrhr gksrs
tkrsdks
gSaA
gSA lHkh fu"d"kks dks i<+s fiQj r; djsa fd lHkh rhu dFkuksa
VI. Hkxr ekpZ esa ok;q;ku }kjk uSuhrky tkrk gS ysfdu feJ
fuEufyf[kr dkSu ls fu"d"kZ rkfdZd :i ls vuqlj.k djrs gSA
fnlEcj esa ;k=kk ugha djrk gSA
(1) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ
I vuqlj.k djrk gSA
23. fuEu esa ls dkSu f'keyk tkrk gS\
(2) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ
II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(1) lSuh
(2) flUgk
(3) ;fn ;k rks fu"d"kZ
I ;k II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(3) feJk
(4) ;kno
(4) ;fn uk rks fu"d"kZ
I vkSj uk gh
II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(5) ;fn nksuksa fu"d"kZ
I ,oa II vuqlj.k djrs gaSA
11.
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09555208888
10.
Who works with HDFC?

(1) U
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) Either V or T
(5) None of these
11. Which of the following pairs is definitely true?
(1) R-SBI
(2) V-ICICI
(3) V-Axis
(4) S-RBI
(5) T-HDFC
12. What is the position of U with respect to P?
(1) Third to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Fourth to the right
(4) Second to the right
(5) None of these
Directions (1317) : In the following questions,
a relationship between different element is
shown in the statement. The statement are
followed by two conclusion. Give answer
(1)
If only conclusion I is true.
(2)
If only conclusion II is true.
(3)
If either conclusion I or II is true.
(4)
If neither conclusion I nor II are true.
(5)
If both conclusion I and II are true.
13. Statements :
G > R > K = L, S < T < K
Conclusions :
I. L > S
II. T < R
14. Statements :
T>Q>M=S<P<L
Conclusions :
I. Q > P
II. L > T
15. Statements :
V = Z > W, C = T > U > V
Conclusions :
I. C > Z
II. T > W
16. Statements :
B > C = D > E, B > K = L > M
Conclusions :
I. K > D
II. E < B
17. Statements :
M<K=N<L<G=F
Conclusions :
I. L > M
II. N < F
Directions (Q. 18-22): In each question below
are given two/three statements followed by two
conclusions numberd I and II. You have to take
the given statement to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statement, disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give Answer :
(1) If only conclusion I follows.
(2) If only conclusion II follows.
(3) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(5) If both conclusions I and II follows.
(18-19) :
Statement :
All pen are books
All books are pages
Some books are colleges
18.
Conclusions :
I. All books can never be colleges.
II. Any book which is a pen must be a page.
19.
Conclusions :
I. All books being pen is a possibility
II. No pen is a college
(20-21) :
Statement :
No needle is a tree
Some trees are threads
All threads are boxes
20.
Conclusions :
I. No needle is a thread
II. No boxes are trees
21.
Conclusions :
I. All boxes being threads is a possibility
II. All trees being threads is a possibility
22.
Statements :
Some players are spectators.
No player is a theatre.
Conclusions :
I. No spectators are theatres
II. All spectators being theatres is a
possibility
Directions (23-27) :Study the following
questions.
Six persons Sinha, Saini, Bhagat, Yadav, Gupta
and Mishra plan to go to six different hill station,
viz Manali, Kullu, Mussoorie, Rishikesh, Shimla
and Nainital. They wish to go in six different
months, viz January, March, May, June, August
and December. Two of them want to travel by bus
and two by rail and other are planning to go either
by car or by flight. Following information is also
given.
I. Gupta goes to Manali but neither by flight
nor by bus.
II. Sinha prefers bus journey but travels
neither in August nor in May.
III. Neither Mishra nor Saini goes either to
shimla or to Mussoorie.
IV. Rishikesh is visited in December.
V. Persons going to Kullu and Shimla go by bus
and car respectively.
VI. Mr Bhagat goes to Nainital in March by
flight but Mishra does not travel in
December.
23. Who among the following visits Shimla?
(1) Saini
(2) Sinha
(3) Mishra
(4) Yadav
(5) None of thesezx
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30. fuEu esa ls fdl eafty ij v:.k jgrk gS\

fuEu esa ls dkSu f"kosQ'k tkrk gS\
(1) flUgk
(2) feJk
(1) rhljh
(2) ikapoh
(3) lSuh
(4) ;kno
(3) igyh
(4) pkSFkh
25. ;kno fdl izdkj ;k=kk djrk gS\
31. vfuy osQ eafty osQ mQij fdru O;fDr jgrs gSa\
(1) cl
(1) dksbZ ugha
(2) ,d
(2) jsyxkM+h
(3) nks
(4) rhu
(4) dkj
32. rhljs eafty ij jgus okys O;fDr osQ ikl dkSu&lh dkj gS\
(1) efganzk
(2) VkVk
26. ;fn xqIrk twu esa ;k=kk djrk gS] rks flUgk dc ;k=kk djsxk\
(3) iQksMZ
(4) fiQ,V
(1) tuojh
(3335) : fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dks ;ku ls i<+sa rFkk
funsZ'k
(2) fnlacj
jkuh rFkk Js"B ,d fookfgr tksMs+ gSa] ftudh nks iqf=k;k es?
(4) vxLr
fnIrh gSA fnIrh vuqjkx ls fookg djrh gS rFkk vuqjkx] xfjek rF
r:.k dk iq=k gSA fufk] vuqjkx dh iq=kh gSA dksey tks vuqjk
27. fuEu esa ls flUgk fdl LFkku ij tkrk gS\
cgu gS] gf"kZr ls fookg djrh gS rFkk mlosQ nks iq=k veu rFkk
(1) uSuhrky
(2) elwjh
gSA izse] xfjek rFkk r:.k iksrk gSA
(3) oqQYyw
(4) eukyh
33. veu rFkk fufk osQ Ckhp D;k lacak gS\
(2832) : fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dks ;ku ls i<+sa rFkk (1) dtu
funsZ'k
(2) ifr -ifRu
vfuy] dj.k] euh"k] jatu] v:.k rFkk fuf[ky ,d leku Hkou osQ (3) firk-iq=kh
-Hkrhth
pkpk
fofHkUu eaftyksa esa jgrs gaSA buesa ls lHkh osQ ikl ,d dkj(4)
gSA
izR;sd
(5) buesa
dksbZ ugha
dkj fofHkUu daiuh] ;Fkk gqaMbZ] efganzk] VkVk] iQksMZ]
ek:frlsrFkk
34.
dksey]
fnIrh
ls dSls lacafkr gS\
fiQ,V] t:jh ugha blh ozQe esaA fupyh eafty la[;k 1] bldh mQijh
(2) flLVj&bu&ykW
eafty la[;k 2 rFkk blh izdkj vkxs lcls mQijh eafty la[;k 6 gSA (1) vkUV
(3) cgu
(4) ek
dj.k ,d le la[;k okys eafty ij jgrk gS rFkk mlosQ ikl
(5)
buesa
ls
dksbZ
ugha
efganzk ;k VkVk dkj ugha gSA osQoy nks O;fDr dj.k rFkk fuf[ky osQ
chp okyh eafty esa jgrs gSA ftl eafty ij efu"k jgrk gS]35.
jatu fuEu esa D;k lR; gS\
(1) r:.k] fnIrh dk ekek gSA
Bhd mlosQ mQij okyh eafty esa jgrk gSA jatu ,d fo"ke la[;k okys
(2) veu] es?kk dk iq=k gSA
eafty ij ugha jgrk gS rFkk ftlosQ ikl ,d gaqMbZ dkj gS mlosQ
(3) xfjek] gf"kZr dh lkl gSA
Bhd uhps jgrk gSA vfuy] v:.k osQ eafty osQ Bhd mQij ;k Bhd
uhps ugha jgrk
SAgvfuy lcls uhpyh eafty ij ugh jgrk gS vFkkZr~](4) fufk] dksey dh dtu gSA
eafty la[;k 1ijA jatu osQ ikl ,d ek:fr dkj gSA vfuy osQ ikl
,d fiQ,V dkj gSA
28. fuEu esa dkSu dj.k rFkk fuf[ky osQ eafty osQ chp jgrk gS\
(1) euh"k] jatu
(2) vfuy] euh"k
(3) jatu] v:.k
(4) vfuy] v:.k
29. fuEu esa ls dkSu eafty la[;k 5 ij jgrk gSa\
(1) vfuy
(2) dj.k
(3) v:.k
(4) fuf[ky
24.
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
24.
Who among the following visits Rishikesh?

(1) Sinha
(2) Mishra
(3) Saini
(4) Yadav
25. Yadav visited by
(1) Bus
(2) Rail
(4) Car
(5) None of these
26. If Gupta travelled in June, Sinha must have
travelled in
(1) January
(2) December
(4) August
(5) None of these
27. Which of the following place did sinha visit?
(1) Nainital
(2) Mussoorie
(3) Kullu
(4) Manali
Directions (2832) : Study the following
questions.
Anil, Karan, Manish, Ranjan, Arun and
Nikhil live on different floor in the same building.
All of them has one car. Each car is of a different
company, viz. Hyundai, Mahindra, Tata, Ford,
Maruti and Fiat (not necessarily in the same
order). The ground floor is numbered 1, floor above
it number 2, and so on, and the topmost floor is
numbered 6.
Karan lives on an even-numbered floor and
does not own Mahindra or Tata car. Only two
people live between the floors on which Karan
and Nikhil live. Ranjan lives on the floor
immediately above the floor on which Manish
lives. Ranjan does not lives on an odd-numbered
floor and lives immediately below that of one who
owns a Hyundai car. Anil does not live on the
floor immediately above or immediately below the
floor on which Arun lives. Anil does not live on
the lower-most floor, i.e floor number 1. Ranjan
has a Maruti car. Anil has a Fiat car.
28. Who amongst the following live on the floors
between on which Karan and Nikhil live?
(1) Manish, Ranjan
(2) Anil, Manish
(3) Ranjan, Arun
(4) Anil, Arun
29. Who amongst the following lives on floor
number 5?
(1) Anil
(2) Karan
(3) Arun
(4) Nikhil
30.
On which of the following floor does Arun

live?
(1) 3rd
(2) 5th
(3) 1st
(4) 4th
31. How many people live on the floor above the
floor on which Anil lives?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
32. Which car is owned by the person who lives
on the 3rd floor?
(1) Mahindra
(2) Tata
(3) Ford
(4) Fiat
questions.
Rani and shreshtha are a married couple
having two daughters, Megha and Deepti. Deepti
is married to Anurag who is the son of Garima
an Tarun. Nidhi is the daughter of Anurag. Komal
who is Anurag's sister, is married to Harshit and
has two son, Aman and Prem. Prem is the
grandson of Garima and Tarun.
33. What is the relationship between Aman
and Nidhi?
(1) Cousins
(2) Husband-wife
(3) Father-Daugher
(4) Uncle-Niece
(5) None of these
34. How is Komal related to Deepti?
(1) Aunt
(2) Sister-in-law
(3) Sister
(4) Mother
(5) None of these
35. Which of the following is true?
(1) Tarun is Deepti's maternal uncle
(2) Aman is the son of Megha
(3) Garima is Harshit's mother-in-law
(4) Nidhi is the cousin of komal
(5) None of these
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
la[;kRed vfHk;ksX;rk
(3640) : fuEufyf[kr iz'uks esa iz'u fpUg
(?) osQ LFkku
43.
funsZ'k
ij yxHkx D;k eku vk,xk\ (vkidks okLrfod eku Kkr ugha
djuk gSA)
36.
5554.999 50.007 = ?
(1) 110
(2) 150
(3) 200
(4) 50
(5) 125
(18.001)3 = ?
(1) 5832
(2) 5500
(3) 6000
(4) 6480
(5) 5240
23.001 18.999 7.998 = ?
(1) 4200
(2) 3000
(3) 3500
(4) 4000
(5) 2500
9999 99 9 = ?
(1) 18
(2) 15
(3) 6
(4) 11
(5) 20
37.
38.
39.
44.
(1) 240%
(3) 200%
(5) 263%
45.
(2) 230%
(4) 250%
1991 ls o"kZ
1996 rd fdldh vk; esa yxkrkj o`f
o"kZ
gqbZ gS\
(1) P
(3) R
(5) T
(2) Q
(4) S
1992 esa O;fDr

P rFkk
1996 esa O;fDr
R osQ }kjk
o"kZ
o"kZ
1995 esa O;fDr
T osQ
oqQy vftZr vk; dks feykdj]
o"kZ
}kjk vftZr vk; dkyxHkxfdruk izfr'kr gS\
(1) 151%
(3) 168%
(2) 155%
(4) 174%
(5) 162%
(4650) : fuEu la[;k J`a[kyk esa iz'u fpUg
(?) osQ
funsZ'k
LFkku ij D;k vk;sxk\
449.999 dk 22.005% = ?
(1) 85
(2) 100
(3) 125
(4) 75
(5) 150
40.
1993 esa O;fDr

Q dh vk; ls] o"kZ
1996 esa O;fDr
S
o"kZ
dh vk; esayxHkxfdrus izfr'kr dh o`f gqbZ gS\
46.
8 10 18 44 124 (?)
(1) 344
(2) 366
(3) 354
(4) 356
(4145) : fuEu rkfydk dk ;kuiwoZd v;;u djsa
funsZ'k
47. 13 25 61 121 205 (?)
rFkk uhps fn;s x, iz'uksa osQ mkj nsaA
(1) 323
(2) 326
fuEu rkfydk fn;s x, o"kksZa esa ikp O;fDr;ksa osQ vk; dks n'kkZrk
(3) 324
(4) 313
gSA
o"kZ
41.
42.
O;fDr
48.
1991
P
2.24
Q
4.33
R
5.64
S
3.73
T
1.69
1992
1993
1994
1.44
4.63
6.65
3.34
2.79
6.63
6.93
7.52
5.83
5.52
5.68
6.74
5.52
4.28
6.83
1995
1996
5.34
7.38
4.50
5.36
5.94
7.84
8.42
9.45
5.53
9.94
49.
50.
1992 esa O;fDr

Q, o"kZ
1994 esa O;fDr
R rFkk
o"kZ
o"kZ
1991 esa O;fDr
T dks feykdj oqQy vkSlr vk; fdruk gS\
(1) ` 3.62 yk[k
(2) ` 2.64 yk[k
51.
(3) ` 3.64 yk[k
(4) ` 10.86 yk[k
(5) buesa lsksbZ
d ugha
1993 esa O;fDr
Q rFkk
1996 esa O;fDr
S osQ vk;
o"kZ
o"kZ
osQ chp vuqikr ozQe'k% D;k gS\
(1) 32 : 107
(3) 29 : 107
(5)
(2) 31 : 105
(4) 32 : 105
buesa ls bZ
dksugha
Ph: 09555108888,

656 352 200 124 86 (?)
(1) 67
(2) 59
(3) 62
(4) 57
454 472 445 463 436 (?)
(1) 436
(2) 456
(3) 454
(4) 434
12 18 36 102 360 (?)
(1) 1364
(2) 1386
(3) 1384
(4) 1376
ukS O;fDr Hkkstu djus osQ fy, ,d gksVy tkrs gSaA mues
` 12
vkB izR;sd vius Hkkstu
ij [kpZ djrs gS rFkk lHkh
` 8[kpZ
ukS O;fDr
;ksa esa ukSok O;fDr vkSlr
vfkd
esa
[kpZ
djrk gSA lHkh osQ }kjk fd;k x;k [kpZ fdruk Fkk\
(1) ` 104
(3) ` 116
(5)
(2) ` 105
(4) ` 117
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
09555208888
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Directions (3640) : What approximate value
will come in place of the question mark (?) in
the following questions ? (You are not expected
to calculate the exact value.)
36. 5554.999 50.007 = ?
(1) 110
(2) 150
(3) 200
(4) 50
(5) 125
37. (18.001)3 = ?
(1) 5832
(2) 5500
(3) 6000
(4) 6480
(5) 5240
38. 23.001 18.999 7.998 = ?
(1) 4200
(2) 3000
(3) 3500
(4) 4000
(5) 2500
39. 9999 99 9 = ?
(1) 18
(2) 15
(3) 6
(4) 11
(5) 20
40. 22.005% of 449.999 = ?
(1) 85
(2) 100
(3) 125
(4) 75
(5) 150
Directions (4145): Study the following table
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Following table shows the income of five
persons in the given years.
1991
P
2.24
Person
Q
R
4.33 5.64
S
3.73
T
1.69
1992
1993
1994
1.44
4.63
6.65
3.34
2.79
6.63
6.93
7.52
5.83
5.52
5.68
6.74
5.52
4.28
6.83
1995
1996
5.34
7.38
4.50
5.36
5.94
7.84
8.42
9.45
5.53
9.94
Year
41.
42.
What is the average income of Person Q in

the year 1992, person R in the year 1994
and Person T in the year 1991 together?
(1) ` 3.62 Lac
(2) ` 2.64 Lac
(3) ` 3.64 Lac
(4) ` 10.86 Lac
(5) None of theseNon
What is the respective ratio between the
income by person Q in the year 1993 and
person S in the year 1996?
(1) 32 : 107
(2) 31:105
(3) 29 : 107
(4) 32 : 105
(5) None of these
43.
What is the approximate per cent increase

in the amount earned by person Q in the
year 1993 to Person S in the year 1996?
(1) 240%
(2) 230%
(3) 200%
(4) 250%
(5) 263%
44.
Whose income increased consistently from

the year 1991 to the year 1996?
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S
(5) T
45. Total amount earned by person P in the year
1992 and Person R in the year 1996 together
was appoximetely what per cent of amount
earned by Person T in the year 1995?
(1) 151%
(2) 155%
(3) 168%
(4) 174%
(5) 162%
Directions (46-50): What will come in place of
the question mark (?) in the following number
series ?
46. 8 10 18 44 124 (?)
(1) 344
(2) 366
(3) 354
(4) 356
(5) None of these
47. 13 25 61 121 205 (?)
(1) 323
(2) 326
(3) 324
(4) 313
(5) None of these
48. 656 352 200 124 86 (?)
(1) 67
(2) 59
(3) 62
(4) 57
(5) None of these
49. 454 472 445 463 436 (?)
(1) 436
(2) 456
(3) 454
(4) 434
(5) None of these
50. 12 18 36 102 360 (?)
(1) 1364
(2) 1386
(3) 1384
(4) 1376
(5) None of these
51. Nine persons went to a hotel for taking
their meals. Eight of them spent ` 12 each
over their meals and the ninth spent ` 8
more than the average expending of all the
nine. How much money was spent by all of
them?
(1) ` 104
(2) ` 105
(3) ` 116
(4) ` 117
(5) None of these
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
52.
56. 'kgj L esa efgykvksa dh oqQy la[;k D;k gSa\

3
,d cksry esa Hkkx nwk rFkk 'ks"k ikuh gSA feJ.k osQ fdruh
(1) 718830
(2) 751170
ek=kk dks fudkydj leku ek=kk esa ty dks feyk fn;k tk,(3) 724085
rkfd feJ.k esa vkkk nwk rFkk vkkk ikuh gks tk,\
(4) 745915
(5) 739026
1
(2) 33 %
3
(1) 25%
57.
(3) 45%
(4) 50%
53.
(1) 47448
(2) 47484
(4) 47848
4% okf"kZd
nks fe=k yDdh rFkk xkSjo
us
pozQo`f C;kt nj (3) 47488
ij ` 81600 la;qDr :i ls dtZ fy;kA2 o"kZ osQ ckn] (5) 47844
yDdh]3 o"kZ osQ ckn xkSjo osQ }kjk izkIr jkf'k osQ
58. leku
Q osQ efgykvksa dh tula[;k]P'kgj
'kgjjkf'k
osQ efgykvksa dh
izkIr djrk gSA xkSjo osQ }kjk fdruh jkf'k fuos'k dh xbZ
Fkh\ dk yxHkxfdruk izfr'kr gS\
tula[;k
(1) ` 40000
(2) ` 30000
(3) ` 45000
(4) ` 38000
54.
'kgj M esa iq:"k rFkk efgykvksa osQ tula[;k osQ chp varj
D;k gS\
(1) 174.8%
(2) 224.5%
(3) 257.5%
(4) 283.5%
,d O;kikjh vafdr ewY; 4%

ij NwV nsrk gS rFkk izR;sd(5) 296%
[kjhns x,15 oLrqvksa osQ lkFk ,d oLrq eqr nsrk gS
fiQjN% 'kgjksa dks feykdj iq:"kksa dh oqQy la[;k D;k
59.rFkk
lHkh
35% dk ykHk izkIr djrk gSA vafdr ewY;] ozQ; ewY; ls
Hkh
(1) 35732740
(2) 3605756
fdruk izfr'kr vfkd gS\
(3) 3614028
(1) 40%
(2) 39%
(3) 20%
(4) 50%
(4) 3625284
buesa ls dksbZ ugha

60. lHkh N% 'kgjksa dks feykdj efgykvksa dh oqQy la[;k] lH
55. ,d o`k dh f=kT;k
196 oxZ lseh- okys oxZ osQ Hkqtk dk nksxquk
N% 'kgjksa dks feykdj oqQy tula[;k
yxHkx
dkfdruk
gSA vk;r dh yackbZ] o`k osQ O;kl dk nksxquk gSAizfr'kr
vk;r dk
gS\
ifjeki D;k gS ;fn bldh pkSM+kbZ vk;r ds yEckbZ dh vkkh
(1) 42.5%
(2) 45%
gS\
(3) 48.5%
(4) 51%
(1) 244 lseh(5) 52.5%
(2) 168 lseh61. ;fn nks vadksa dh la[;k osQ vadksa dks cny fn;k tk, rks izkI
(3) 336 lseh8 ;ksx
la[;k okLrfod la[;k18 vfkd gS rFkk vadksa dk
gS] rks okLrfod la[;k D;k Fkh\
(1) 53
(5660) : fuEu o`k vkjs[k dk ;kuiwoZd v;;u djsa
funsZ'k
(2) 26
rFkk fn;s ,xiz'uksa osQ mkj nsaA
(3) 35
o`k vkjs[k N% fofHkUu 'kgjksa esa tula[;k osQ izfr'kr forj.k
dks n'kkZrk gS rFkk rkfydk mlh 'kgjksa esa iq:"k tula[;k osQ
izfr'kr forj.k dks n'kkZrk gSA
'kgj Q dh oqQy tula[;k= 1526000
62. ;fn ,d fHkUu osQ va'k
350%
300% c<+k fn;k
dks rFkk gj dks
Q
21.8%
P
7.5%
O
15.4%
L
21.0%
M
10.6%
N
23.7%
(5)
'kgj
iq:"k%
L
M
51.10%
53.20%
52.90%
O
P
53.80%
47.90%
49.20%
Ph: 09555108888,
9
22
tk,] rks izkIr fHkUugks tkrk gSA okLrfod fHkUu D;k gS\
5
12
(1)
3
4
(2)
(3)
7
9
(4) 4
11
(5)
buesa ls dksbZ ugha
09555208888
52.
3
of milk and the rest
4
water. How much of the mixture must be
taken away and replaced by an equal
quantity of water so that the mixture has
half milk and half water ?
57.
1
(2) 33 %
3
(4) 50%
(1) 25%
53.
56.
A bottle contains
(3) 45%
(5) None of these
Two friends Lucky and Gaurav jointly lent
out ` 81600 at 4% per annum compound
interest. After 2 years, Lucky gets the same
amount as Gaurav gets after 3 years. The
investment made by Gaurav was
(1) ` 40000
(2) ` 30000
(3) ` 45000
(4) ` 38000
58.
59.
(5) None of these

54.
A tradesman gives 4% discount on the

marked price and 1 article free with every 15
articles bought and still gains 35%. The marked
price is more than the cost price by(1) 40%
(2) 39%
(3) 20%
(4) 50%
60.
(5) None of these

55.
The radius of a circle is twice the side of a

square of area 196 sq.cm. Length of a
rectangle is twice the diameter of the circle.
What is the perimeter of the rectangle if its
breadth is half of the length of the rectangle ?
(1) 244 cm
(2) 168 cm
(3) 336 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (5660): Study the following Pie
chart carefully to answer the given questions.
Pie chart shows the percentage distribution of
population in six different cities and table
shows percentage distribution of male
population of same cities.
Total Population of City Q = 1526000
61.
What is the total number of female in

City L?
(1) 718830
(2) 751170
(3) 724085
(4) 745915
(5) 739026
What is the difference between the male
and the female population of City M?
(1) 47448
(2) 47484
(3) 47488
(4) 47848
(5) 47844
The female population of City Q is
appoximately what percentage of the
female population of City P?
(1) 174.8%
(2) 224.5%
(3) 257.5%
(4) 283.5%
(5) 296%
What is the total number of males in all six
cities together?
(1) 35732740
(2) 3605756
(3) 3614028
(4) 3625284
(5) None of these
The total number of female in all six cities
together is what appoximately percen-tage
of the total population of all six cities
together?
(1) 42.5%
(2) 45%
(3) 48.5%
(4) 51%
(5) 52.5%
If the digits of a two digit number are
interchanged the newly formed number is
more than the original number by 18, and
sum of the digit is 8 then what was the
original number ?
(1) 53
(2) 26
62.
(3) 35
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
If the numerator of a fraction is increased
by 350% and the denominator of the fraction
is increased by 300%, then the resultant
fraction becomes
Q
21.8%
P
7.5%
O
15.4%
L
21.0%
M
10.6%
N
23.7%
City
Male %
L
M
51.10%
53.20%
52.90%
O
P
Q
9
. What is the original
22
fraction ?
5
12
(1)
3
4
(2)
53.80%
47.90%
(3)
7
9
(4) 4
11
49.20%
(5) None of these
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
10
63.
10ls
,d ijh{kk esa ,d Nk=k13
dksiz'uksa esa
dk mkj bl funsZ'k
(6670) : fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa esa nks lehdj.k
I rFkk
II
izdkj nsuk gS rkfd igys ikp iz'uksa esa og de ls de
fn;spkj
x, gSaA lehdj.kksa dks gy djsa rFkk iz'uksa osQ mkj ns
dk p;u dj losQA mlosQ fy, miyCk p;uksa dh la[;k
mkj nsa ;fn
fdruh gS\
(1) x > y
(2) x y
(3) x < y
(4) x y
(1) 140
(2) 196
(3) 280
(4) 346
64.
tkosn1600 v.Ms3.75 izfr ntZu dh nj [kjhnrk gSA og

900 dks` 1 esa
2 dh nj ls rFkk 'ks"k`dks
2 esa
mlesa ls
66.
5 dh nj ls csp nsrk gSA mldk ykHk izfr'kr gS&
(1) 40%
(2) 45%
(3) 42%
(4) 46%
65.
67.
(5) x = y ;k lacak LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk

I. x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
II. y2 + 3y + 2 = 0
2
I. x 10x + 24 = 0 II. y2 9y + 20 = 0
68.
I.
69.
70.
lksuw rFkk114
eksuw
fdeh dh nwjh ,d nwljs dh vksj leku
(x)2 = 961
2
I. x 72 = x
I. x2 463 = 321
II. y =
961
II. y2 = 64
II. y2 421 = 308
8 ?k.Vs
le; esa pyuk izkjaHk djrs gSa
rFkk esa feyrs gSaA ;fn
6 fdeh@?kaVk gS] rks eksuw dh pky D;k gS\
lksuw dh pky
(1) 14.25 fdeh@?kaVk
(2) 7 fdeh@?kaVk
(3) 7
1
1
fdeh@?kaVk(4) 8 fdeh@?kaVk
8
2
(5) 8
1
fdeh@?kaVk
4
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
11
63.
64.
65.
A student is to answer 10 out of 13

questions in an examination such that he
must choose atleast four from the first five
questions. The number of choices available
to him is
(1) 140
(2) 196
(3) 280
(4) 346
(5) None of these
Javed bought 1600 eggs at ` 3.75 per dozen.
He sold 900 of them at 2 for ` 1 and the
remaining at 5 for ` 2. His gain per cent is :
(1) 40%
(2) 45%
(3) 42%
(4) 46%
(5) None of these
Sonu and Monu started towards each other
at the same time from places 114 km apart
and met in 8 hours. If Sonus speed is 6 km/
hour, then what is Monus speed ?
(1) 14.25 km/hr. (2) 7 km./hr
(3) 7
1
km./hr
8
(5) 8
1
km/hr.
4
(4) 8
Directions (6670) : In the following question

two equations I and II are given. Solve the
equations and answer the questions.
Give Answer if
(1) x > y
(2) x y
(3) x < y
(4) x y
(5) x = y or the relationship can't be
established
66. I. x2 + 5x + 6 = 0
II. y2 + 3y + 2 = 0
2
67. I. x 10x + 24 = 0 II. y2 9y + 20 = 0
68.
69.
70.
I. (x)2 = 961
2
I. x 72 = x
I. x2 463 = 321
II. y =
961
II. y2 = 64
II. y2 421 = 308
1
km/hr.
2
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
12
ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION

However, most oil importers will heave a
sigh of relief as they find their oil import bills
decline except for those who bought options to
import oil at prices higher than market prices.
Exporting nations, on the other hand, will see
their economic property slip. Relatively low price
of crude is also bad news for prosperity slip.
Relatively low price of crude is also bad news for
investments in alternative renewable sources
of energy that cannot compete with cheaper and
non-renewable sources of energy.
71. Why are oil-importing countries relieved ?
(1) Price of crude reached $ 147, not $200,
as was predicted.
(2) Discovery of oil reserves within their
own territories
(3) Demand for crude has fallen sharply.
(4) There is no need for them to invest huge
amounts of money in alternat ive
sources of energy.
(5) None of these
72. Which of the following factors is responsible
for rise in speculation in crude oil markets ?
(A) OPEC has not been able to restrict the
oil output and control prices.
(B) The supply of oil has been rising to
match demand.
(C) Existence of large number of oil futures
and oil contracts
(1) Only (A)
(2) Both (A) & (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All (A), (B) & (C)
(5) None of these
73. What does the phrase the price elasticity
of demand for crude oil is very low imply ?
(1) When the price rises the demand for
crude oil falls immediately.
(2) A small change in demand will result
in a sharp change in the price of crude.
(3) Within a short span of time the price of
rude oil has fluctuated sharply.
(4) Speculation in oil does not have much
of an impact on its price.
(5) None of these
74. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the
context of the passage ?
(A) The decline in oil prices has benefited
all countries.
(B) Renewable energy sources are costlier
than non- renewable ones.
(C) Lack of availability of alternative
renewable energy resulted in rise in
demand for crude.
(1) Only (B)
(2) Both (A) & (B)
(3) Both (B) & (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) None of these
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
13
Direcrtions (71-80): Read the Passage carefully

and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been printed m bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Goldman Sachs predicted that crude oil price
would hit $200 and just as it appeared that
alternative renewable energy had a chance of
becoming an economically viable option, the
international price of oil fell by over 70%. After
hitting the all time high of $ 147 a barrel, a month
ago, crude fell to less than $40 a barrel. What
explains this sharp decline in the international
price of oil? There has not been any major new
discovery of a hitherto unknown source of oil or
gas. The short answer is that the demand does
not have to fall by a very sizeable quantity for the
price of crude to respond as it did. In the short
run, the price elasticity of demand for crude oil
is very low. Conversely, in the short run,, even a
relatively big change in the price of oil does not
immediately lower consumption. It takes months,
or years, of high oil price to inculcate habits of
energy conservation. World crude oil price had
remained at over $60 a barrel for most of 200507 without making any major dent in demand.
The long answer is more complex. The
economic slowdown in the US, Europe and Asia
along with dollar depreciation and commodity
speculation have all had some role in the
downward descent in the international price of
oil. In recent years, the supply of oil has been
rising but not enough to catch up with the rising
demand, r esult ing in an almost vertical
escalation in its price. The number of crude oil
futures and options contracts have also increased
manifold, which has led to significant speculation
in the oil market. In comparison, the role of the
Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
(OPEC) in fixing crude price has considerably
weakened. OPEC is often accused of operating as
a cartel restricting output, thus keeping prices
artificially high. It did succeed in setting the price
of crude during the 1970s and the first half of the
80s. But, with increased futures trading and
contracts, the control of crude pricing has moved
from OPEC to banks and markets that deal with
futures trading and contracts. It is true that most
oil exporting regions of the world have remained
politically unstable, fuelling speculation over the
price of crude. But there is little evidence that
the geopolitical uncertainties in west Asia have
improved to weaken the price of oil. Threatened
by the downward slide of oil price, OPEC has, in
fact, announced its decision to curtail output.
75.
What has the impact of the drop in oil prices

been ?
(1) Exploration for natural gas resources
has risen.
(2) The dollar has fallen sharply.
(3) OPEC has decided to restrict its
production of oil.
(4) Economic depression in oil-importing
countries.
(5) Drastic fall in demand for crude oil
Directions (76-78): Choose the wordwhich is
most similar in meaning to the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
76. INCULCATE
(1) modify
(2) construct
(3) initiate
(4) fix
(5) instil
77. FUELLING
(1) incentive
(2) supplying
(3) stimulating
(4) irritating
(5) rescoring
78. DENT
(1) reduction
(2) break
(3) tear
(4) breach
(5) split
Directions (79-80): Choose the word which is
most opposite in meaning of the word printed
in bold as used in the passage.
79. CONVERSELY
(1) compatibly
(2) similarly
(3) likely
(4) aligning
(5) resembling
80. WEAKEN
(1) powerful
(2) nourish
(3) intense
(4) boost
(5) energise
Directions (81-85): Rearrange the following five
sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) m the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then
answer th questions given below them.
A.
For instance, if we measure the room
temperature continuously and plot its graph
with time on the X-axis and temperature
on the Y-axis, we get a continuous
waveform, which is an analog signal. Analog
is always is continuous.
B.
The absence or presence of something can
be used to plot a digital signal.
C.
An analog signal is a continuously varying
signal, simialr to a sinusoidal waveform.
D.
Any signal can be classified into one of the
two types: analog and digital.
E.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
In contrast, a digital signal takes the form

of pulses, where we have something or
nothing
Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Which of the following should be the FIFTH
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Which of the following should be the
FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Which of the following should be the THIRD
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Which of the following should be the
SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (86-90): Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part
is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is
(5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
86. We have recently began (1) / the process of
recruiting (2) / insurance agents for (3) /
our North-Eastern branches. (4) / No error
(5)
87. In spite that organisations are aware (1) /
of the importance of IT (2) / they often do
not know (3) / how to deploy it effectively.
(4) / No error (5)
88. Although interlinking of rivers will (1) / help
tackle drought, the government (2) / has
not paid much (3) / attention to this project.
(4) / No error (5)
89. Keeping in mind that India (1) / is one of
the worlds fastest (2) / growing economies
many international (3) / companies are
invested in India. (4) / No error (5)
90. Despite the merger, (1) / the airline has
reported (2) / sizeable losses and is unable
(3) / to pay their employees. (4) / No error (5)
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
14
Directions (91-95): Which of the phrases (1), (2),
(3) and (4) given below each statement should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If
the sentence is correct as it is given and No
correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
91. An NGO is working towards providing free
education to the girl child so that every girl
can stand on their own feet.
(1) stands on their own
(2) stand on her own
(3) stand in her own
(4) stand on their owns
(5) No correction required
92. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog
which had been with great pain after
having met with an accident.
(1) which had been in
(2) which is being with
(3) who had been in
(4) who has been at
93. In its final decision, the court ruled that all
the allegations levelled for the accused
were false and baseless.
(1) allegation levelled against the
(2) allegations level against that
(3) allegations levelled against the
(4) allegation levelled with that
94. If I leave early from home, I could have
made it on time to the airport.
(1) If I would leave early
(2) Had I leave earlier
(3) If I could left early
(4) Had I left earlier
95. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at
the factory when a fire suddenly broke out
due to a short circuit.
(1) on the factory when
(2) at the factory while
(3) at that factory when
(4) in the factory while
Directions (96-100): Each question below has

two blanks, each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Choose the set
of words for each blank that best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole.
96. Few professions can .......... the sheer variety
and constant ......... of being a doctor.
(1) like, struggle
(2) share, enthusiast
(3) match, challenge
(4) draw, workload
(5) justify, exception
97. Many teachers .. ...... .... t he lack of
professional freedom as the ......... for
leaving the job.
(1) cited, reason
(2) explained, force
(3) claimed, understanding
(4) argued, culprit
(5) believe, ground
98. A public servant who is guilty will not ..........
punishment and no .......... person will be
punished.
(1) be, sincere
(2) flee, guilty
(3) defend, common
(4) avoid, uninformed
(5) escape, innocent
99. Sceptics would not ........... that the earth
actually moves, let alone that it ..........
around the sun.
(1) permit, orbits
(2) accept, revolves
(3) experience, circles (4) assume, went
(5) challenge, spins
100. Unpredictable ............. of the child could not
lead the consultants to any ...........
(1) performance, setting
(2) belief, judgment
(3) operation, purpose
(4) behaviour, conclusion
(5) react, decision
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
15
Ph: 09555108888,
09555208888
16

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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009

(12) : fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh dks ;ku ls i<+sa rFkk 5.

'H' is related to 'July' in a certain way based

,p-Mh-,iQ-lh- osQ lkFk dkSu dk;Z djrk gS\

fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe fuf'pr #i ls lR; gSa\

Who works with HDFC?

30. fuEu esa ls fdl eafty ij v:.k jgrk gS\

Who among the following visits Rishikesh?

On which of the following floor does Arun

1992 esa O;fDr

1993 esa O;fDr

1992 esa O;fDr

(5) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

What is the average income of Person Q in

What is the approximate per cent increase

Whose income increased consistently from

56. 'kgj L esa efgykvksa dh oqQy la[;k D;k gSa\

,d O;kikjh vafdr ewY; 4%

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(5) None of these

A tradesman gives 4% discount on the

(5) None of these

The radius of a circle is twice the side of a

What is the total number of female in

(5) None of these

tkosn1600 v.Ms3.75 izfr ntZu dh nj [kjhnrk gSA og

(5) x = y ;k lacak LFkkfir ugha fd;k tk ldrk

A student is to answer 10 out of 13

Directions (6670) : In the following question

ENGLISH LANGUAGE & COMPREHENSION

Direcrtions (71-80): Read the Passage carefully

What has the impact of the drop in oil prices

In contrast, a digital signal takes the form

Directions (86-90): Read each sentence to find

Directions (96-100): Each question below has

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