REVALIDA PHARMACOLOGY

1. Scopolamine ____________ Transdermal drug delivery system (skin patch)

for a patient who will be __ very susceptible to _______ what comorbidity
would _______ it is most likely to adverse effects of truly contraindicated????
a. angle closure glaucoma
b. bradycardia
c. allergy to uncooked shellfish
d. resting BP of 110/70
e. hypothyroidism (mild)

2. A patient with alzheimers disease is taking acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

specifically approved for that ... and so enters the CNS well. What drug is this
patient most likely receiving? a. ? b. Levodopa c. Neostimine d.
Pyridostigimine e. Tacrine

3. A variety of ophthalmic drugs working by several forms mechanism of

action are useful for managing chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which one
reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing the formulation of aqueous
humor __ __ by changing the size of the pupil?
a. timolol b. echothiophate c. isoflurophate d. neostigmine e.
pilocarpine

4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease eg. Emphysema,

chronic bronchitis, is receiving an orally inhaled muscarinic receptor blocking
drug to maintain bronchodilation. What drug belongs to that class?

a. albuterol b. diphenhydramine c. ipratropium d. pancuronium

e. pilocarpine

5. A 10 year old boy is diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

(ADHD). Which drug is most likely to prove effective for relieving the boys
main symptoms?
a. dobutamine b. methylphenidate c. pancuronium d. prazosin
e. pilocarpine

6. The record shows that propofol was given for induction. What would be the
most likely adverse responses associated with he administration of the
widely used drug?
a. hypotension & respiratory ventilatory depression b.
laryngospasm
c. long-term memory loss d. malignant hyperthermia e.
seizures

7. A physician considers placing a patient on long-term (months, years)

Phenobarbital for control of relatively common medical condition. For most of
these indications, newer and arguably efficacious drugs that participate in
fewer drug interactions are available and preferred. For which one of the
following uses, nonetheless, is the barbiturate still considered reasonable
and appropriate?
a. alcohol withdrawal signs/symptoms b. anxiety management c.
certain epilepsies
d. endogenous depression (adjunct to SSRIs) e. sleep disorders such
as insomnia

8. A patient with Parkinson disease has signs and symptoms that can be
considered moderate now, but they are worsening and not responding well
to current drug therapy. The physician decides to empirically assess and
antiparkinson drug that is a selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase type B
(MAO-B). Which of the ffg drugs would that be?
a. bromocriptine b. carbidopa c. phenelzine d. selegiline e.
tranylcypromine

9. Meperidine is similar to morphine in many ways. However, with very high

blood levels or with true overdoses, meperidine can cause significant
adverse responses that simply aren't seen with morphine or most other
opioidanalgesics. Which of the following best identifies that rather unique
effect of meperidine?
a. constipation leading to paralytic ileum
b. heightened response to pain (paradoxical hyperalgesia)
c. intense biliary tract spasm
d. psychotic-like state possibly seizures
e. respiratory depression, apnea, ventilatory arrest

10. Package inserts for a drug caution against administering the medication
concurrent with any other drug that can raise or lower serum sodium
concentrations. The risks are inadequate or excessive effects of the drug,
depending on the direction in which serum sodium concentrations change.
This, of course, requires cautious use or avoidance (if possible) of the
common diuretics. To which of the following drugs does this caution or
warning most likely apply?
a. cholestyramineb. lithium c. nifedipine d. phenylephrine
e. stain-type cholesterol lowering drugs

11. A 42 year old woman with a long history of anxiety that has been treated
with diazepam decided to triple her daily dose because of increasing
fearfulness about global warning. Two days after her attempt at self
prescribing, she is found extremely lethargic and non responsive with
markedly obtunded reflexes and reactions to painful stimuli. Respirations are
8/min and shallow. What drug would you give to manage these drug-induced
signs and symptoms?
a. dextroamphetamine b. flumazenil c. naltrexone d. physostigmine
e. pralidoxime

12. A patient with undiagnosed coronary artery disease is given a

medication. Shortly thereafter, she develops intense tightness and crushing
discomfort of her chest. An ECG reveals ST-segment changes indicative of
acute myocardial schema in tissue supplied by the left anterior descending
coronary artery & distal vessels. Which drug most likely caused this reaction?
a. clozapine b. pentazocine c. phenytoin d. sumatriptan
e. zolpidem

13. Nitrous oxide is a common component in the technique of balanced

anesthesia. It is used in conjunction with such other drugs as a halogenated
hydrocarbon volatile liquid anesthetic, and usually included as 80% of the
total inspired gas mixture. Which of the following best summarizes why
nitrous oxide cannot be used alone for general anesthesia?
a. Almost total lack of analgesic activity, regardless of concentration
b. Inspired concentrations > 10% tend to profound cardiac negative inotropic
effects
c. MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) is > 100%
d. Methemoglobinemia occurs even with low inspired concentrations
e. Such great solubility in blood that its effects take an extraordinarily long
time to developf. Very high frequency of bronchospasm

14. A patient in the neurology unit at your hospital develops status

epilepticus. Which of the following is the best first IV drug to give?
a. Carbamazepine b. Lorazepam c. Phenobarbital d.
Phenytoin e. Valproic acid

15. A patient has had a documented severe allergic reaction to ester-type

local anesthetics. Which one of the following is also a member of the ester
class, and so would be the most likely to provoke an allergic or anaphylactic
reaction if this patient received it?
a. Bupivicaine b. Lidocaine c. Mepivacaine d. Prilocaine
e. Tetracaine

16. Many legal jurisdictions have imposed various restrictions on over the-
counter sale of products that contain pseudoephedrine, for example, various
oral decongestant products. That is because pseudoephedrine can be rather
easily used to synthesize which of the following highly psychoactiveand
abuse-prone drug?
a. Methamphetamine b. Morphine c. Oxycodoned. Pentazocinee.
Phencyclidine ("PCP")

17. A 26-year-old woman with depression has been on antidepressant

therapy for several months. Today she complains of missing her period and
having galactorrhea, and your careful assessment suggests she has
developed some dyskinesias not unlike those you would typically associate
with a phenothiazine or butyrophenone (e.g., haloperidol) antipsychotic drug.
Pregnancy tests are negative. Which of the following is most likely to have
caused these findings?
a. Amoxapine b. Citalopram c. Fluoxetine d.
Sertraline e. Tranylcypromine

18. A 33-year-old woman patient treated with haloperidol is seen in the

emergency department (ED). Her husband describes complaints of rapidly
worsening fever, muscle stiffness, and tremor. Her level of consciousness is
diminishing. Her temperature is 104F, and her serum creatine kinase (CK)
level is elevated. Which of the following is the best explanation for these
findings?
a. Allergic response to her medication
b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
c. Overdose
d. Parkinsonism
e. Tardive dyskinesia

19. Nearly all the drugs used as a primary therapy or as adjuncts for the
treatment of Parkinson disease or drug-induced parkinsonism exert their
desired effects directly in the brains striatum. Which one exerts its main
effects in the gut, not in the brain?
a. amantadine c. bromocriptine d. carbidopa
b. benztropine e. selegiline

20. One approach to managing hyperprolactinemia is to administer a drug

that has relative selectivity, as an agonist for central dopamine D2 receptors.
What drug works in this manner?
a. bromocriptine c. fluphenazine d. haloperidol

b. chlorpromazine e. promethazine

Case: A 35-kg child with heart disease requires immediate treatment with
the antiarrythmic drug procainamide. The textbook lists the following
pharmacokinetic values for procainamide in a 70-kg person: Vd = 130 L, C/36
L/h, oral availability 10% and therapeutic concentrations 5 mg/L
21. What constant intravenous infusion rate should be used to maintain the
therapeutic concentration of 5 mg/L?
a. 90 mg/hb. 108 mg/h c. 180 mg/hd. 217 mg/h e. 650
mg/h

22. Which of the following need not be accomplished before a drug can be
tested to humans?
a. acute toxicity testing in animals
 b. reproductive toxicity testing in animals
c. approval of an Investigational New Drug (IND) exemption application
d. approval of a New Drug Application (NDA)

Case: A teenager presented at his local dentist for extraction of an impacted

molar. He had never had a dental procedure and was so nervous that the
dentist was unable to administer the local anesthetic. The dentist therefore
administered a sedative drug intravenously, which had an immediate
calming effect. He was then able to give the anesthetic and carry out the
extraction. There were no complications and bleeding was minimal. When
the patient was asked to return to the waiting room, he fainted upon
standing. He immediately regained consciousness, but had a marked
tachycardia whenever he tried to stand. After 30 minutes of rest his
orthostatic symptoms resolved and he was able to leave.
23. Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for oral use in
patients who faint frequently when standing up?
a. epinephrine b. isoproterenol c. atropine d. ephedrine e.
prazosin

Case: A farm worker is brought to the emergency department following

exposure to an organophosphate insecticide in the fields. He is wheezing and
shows signs of severe bronchospasm
24. Which of the following would not be expected as a sign of cholinesterase
inhibitor insecticide poisoning?
a. mydriasis c. increased bowel sounds d.
urinary urgency
b. increased salivation e. skeletal muscle spasms followed by
paralysis

25. Which of the following combinations of drugs should be used in the

treatment of this farm worker?
a. atropine and epinephrine
b. _____ and isoproterenol
c. norepinephrine and propranolol
d. atropine and pralidoxime
e. pralidoxime and propranolol

Case: A patient with no apparent comorbid condition exhibits symptoms of a

community acquired pneumonia with liver, chest pain, rales on auscultation
and purulent sputum. There was no extrapulmonary manifestations. A chest
xray visualizes the presence of infiltrates. Samples for blood and sputum are
sent for microbiological analysis.
29. ____ about the possibility that the infection in the patient may be caused
by drug-resistant pneumococcus. Consequently, empiric treatment should
involve the administration of which of the following?
a. Amoxicillin b. Erythromycin c. Levofloxacin d. metronidazole
 e. Penicillin G

Case: A 22 year old male presents with ___ ___ And milky penile discharge

30. Azithromycin provides ___ for nongonoccocal pathogen that are often
associated with gonococcal urethritis, but the drug has no activity against
which of the following?
a. any of the following organism b. chlamydial species c.
mycoplasmal species
d. irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase e. cause
vasodilation

31. Mr. Cruz has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. You are
considering different therapies for his disease. Pyridostigmine and
neostigmine may cause which one of the following?
a. bronchodilation
b. cycloplegia
c. diarrhea
d. irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
e. reduced gastric acid secretion

32. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation and a slow infusion of bethanechol

will each:
a. increase bladder tone d. cause skeletal muscle end plate
depolarization
b. cause ganglion cell depolarization
c. increase heart rate e. cause vasodilation

33. Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic and cholinoceptor agonist include
which one of the following?
a. Bronchodilation (asthma)
b. Cyclopegia, improve aqueous humor drainage (glaucoma)
c. Increase gastrointestinal motility (abdominal surgery)
d. Decreased neuromuscular transmission and relaxation of skeletal muscle
(surgical anesthesia)

34. Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is much less toxic in
mammals than in insects?
a. malathion b. nicotine c. parathion d. physostigmine e.
pilocarpine

35. Which of the ff. is a direct-acting cholinomimetic used for its mode-
elevating action and as an insecticide?
a. bethanechol b. neostigmine c. nicotine d. physostigmine e.
pilocarpine
36. An indirect-acting cholinomimetic that readily enters the CNS is
a. bethanechol b. muscarine c. neostigmine d. physostigmine
e. pilocarpine

37. The primary second messenger process involved in the contraction of the
ciliary muscle when focusing on near objects involves?
a. cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate) d. IP3 (Inositol
1,4,5-triphosphate)
b. DAG (Diacylglycerol) e. NO (Nitric oxide)
c. depolarizing influx of sodium ions via a channel

38. Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following?

a. gastrointestinal smooth muscle cramping
b. increased cardiac rate d. papillary constriction
c. increased gastric secretion e. urinary frequency

39. Which of the following pair of drugs and properties is most correct?
a. atropine poorly absorbed after oral administration
b. benztropine quaternary ___, poor CNS penetration
c. cycloperoxidase will be absorbed from conjunctival sac into
the eye
d. ipratropium will be absorbed long elimination half-life
e. scopolamine, short duration of action when used as anti-motion
sickness agent

40. Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine?

a. decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium
b. increased blood pressure caused by nicotine
c. increased skeletal muscle strength caused by neostigmine
d. tachycardia caused by exercise
e. tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

41. Which of the ff. does NOT cause cycloplegia (paralysis of

accommodation) when used topically in the eye
a. atropine b. cycloperoxidase c. physostigmine d. scopolamine
e. tropicamide

42. A friend has a very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor
wishes to prescribe. Her physician explained that this drug is associated with
tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair
growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your
friend has described?
a. captopril b. guanethidine c. minoxidil d. prasozin e.propanolol
43. A pregnant patient is admitted to the hematology service with
moderately severe hemolytic anemia. After a thorough work-up the only
positive finding is a history of treatment with an antihypertensive drug since
2 months after beginning the pregnancy. The most likely cause of the
patients blood disorder is
a. atenolol b. captopril c. hydralazine d. methyldopa
e. minoxidil

44. Comparison of prazosin with propranolol shows that

a. both decrease cardiac output d. both increase sympathetic
outflow from the CNS
b. both decrease rennin secretion e. both produce orthostatic
hypotension
c. both increase heart rate

45. Verapamil is associated with which one of the following?

a. constipation c. hypoglycemia d. tachycardia
b. decreased PR interval e. thyrotoxicosis

46. A drug that can cause renal damage in the fetus if given during
pregnancy
a. captopril b. diazoxide c. fenoldopam d.
guanethidine e. hydralazine

47. The drugs that have been found to be least useful in heart failure are the
a. Na+/K+ ATPase inhibition
b. calcium channel blockers
c. beta-adrenoceptor agonists
d. beta-adrenoceptor antagonists
e. ACE inhibitors

48. The mechanism of action of digitalis glycosides is associated with

a. a decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. an increase in AFP synthesis
c. a modification of the action molecule
d. an increase in systolic cytoplasmic calcium levels
e. __block of cardiac adrenoceptors

49. Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to the

arrythmogenic effect of digoxin?
a. increased vagal discharge d. increased extracellular
magnesium
b. increased intracellular calcium e. increased
extracellular pottasium
c. decreased sympathetic discharge
50. Which one of the following drugs does NOT reduce mortality in chronic
congestive heart failure?
a. captopril b. carvedilol c. digoxin d. enalapril e. spironolactone

51. When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, lidocaine typically

a. increases action potential duration
b. increases contractility d. reduces abnormal
automaticity
c. increases PR interval e. reduces resting potential

52. Which of the following drugs is NOT suitable for chronic oral therapy of
arrhythmias?
a. amiodarone b. disopyramide c. esmolol d. quinidine e.
verapamil

53. A patient is admitted to the emergency department for evaluation of an

abnormal ECG. Overdose of an antiarrhythmic drug is considered. Which of
the following drugs is correctly paired with its ECG effects?
a. quinidine increased PR interval and decreased QT intervals
b. flecainide increased PR, QRS, and QT intervals
c. verapamil increased PR interval
d. lidocaine decreased QRS and PR interval
e. metoprolol increased QRS duration

54. Which of the ff. drugs does NOT consistently reduce the potassium (Ix)
repolarizing current and thereby prolong the action potential duration?
a. amiodarone b. ibutilide c. lidocaine d. quinidine e.
sotalol

55. A drug that hyperpolarizes and prevents conduction of impulses in the AV

node is:
a. adenosine b. digoxin c. lidocaine d. quinidine e.
verapamil

56. A 50-year old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with
high-calcium renal stones. The most useful diuretic agent in the treatment of
recurrent calcium stones is
a. acetazolamide c. hydrochlorothiazide d. mannitol
b. furosemide e. spironolactone

57. A 60-year old patient complains of paresthesias and occasional nausea

associated with one of her drugs. She is found to have hyperchloremic
metabolic acidosis. She is probably taking
a. acetazolamide for glaucoma
b. amiloride for edema associated with aldosteronism
c. furosemide for severe hypertension and heart failure
 d. hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension
e. mannitol for cerebral edema

58. A 70 year old woman is admitted to the emergency department because

of a fainting spell at home. She appears to have suffered no trauma from
her fall, but her blood pressure is 110/60 when lying down and 60/40 when
he sits up. Neurologic examination and an ECG are within normal limits when
she is lying down. History reveals that she is taking water pills (diuretics)
for a heart condition. Which of the following drugs the most likely cause of
her fainting spell?

a.putolsya b.amiloride c.furosemide d.hydrochlorothiazide

e.spironolactone

59. A patient with severe with posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic

for another condition. Two days ..... What drug most likely to cause coma in a
patient with cirrhosis?

a. putol b. putol c. furosemide d. hydrochlorothiazide e.

spironolactone

60. Patient was hospitalized 5 times between the ages 7 and 9. He is now....
And reduced the frequency of severe attacks. Which of the following...... over
long periods for severe asthma? (sorry guys putol talaga)

a. ---b. ---c. ---d. ---e. prednisone by mouth (Baka ito kasi controller sya) f.
theophylline in long-acting oral form

61. Patient D is 28 year old bi sexual who just recently tested positive for HIV.
Prophylaxis for pneumocystosis was considered, and the following drugs can
be used except:

A. Cotrimoxazole B. Pentamidine C. Clindamycin D.

Pyrimethamine

62. Metronidazole except:

A. Amoebiasis B. Giardiasis C. Trichomoniasis D. P.

Carinii

63. This anti helminthic blocks GABA mediated neurotransmitter causing

paralysis to the helminthes thus making them susceptible to destruction by
the host cell.

A. Pyranteri Pamoate B. Bithionol C. Niclosamide D.

Piperazine

64. Mazzoti reaction is a hypersensitivity reaction characterize by

lymphadenopathy, dermatologic manifestations due to Ag-Ab reaction
against the dying microfilariae and is seen with the use of this antihelminthic
agent.

A. Metronidazole B. Bithionol C. Diethyl Carbamazine D. Emetine

65. G6PD status of the patient is always assess before administering this anti
malarial agent.

A. Halofantrine B. Quinine C. Primaquine D. Atovaquone

66. This anti leprosy agent is useful in multi bacillary leprosy, it possess anti
inflammatory effects thus it is use in erythema nodosum leprosy.

A. Dapsone B. Rifampicin C. Clofazimine D. Ciprofloxacin

67. One of this combination is not correct:

A. Isoniazid: Active against multiplying organism

B. Rifampin: Active against dormant or non dividing micro bacterium

C. Ethambutol: Slow down bacterial resistance in drug combination

D. Streptomycin: Active against mycobacterium intracellularly in acidic

environment pyrazinamide dapat

68. Patient C is on her second trimester of pregnancy when she developed

low grade fever and malaise, she sought consult when she cough out blood
streak sputum that alarmed her. The sputum exam was done and revealed
with positive acid fast bacilli, her husband has been diagnosed with far
advanced TB 2 months ago and is currently taking anti Koch medication for 2
weeks. How would you manage her case?

A. Request for chest x ray

B. Start treatment with RIPE

C. Administer streptomycin IM monthly

D. Delay treatment until after delivery

69. Use as sterilizing agent should the TB isolate prove resistant to anti TB
agents.

A. Isoniazid B. Rifampicin C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol

70. Amikacin can be given to the following except:

A. M. Kansasi B. M. Marinarum C. M. Avium D. M. Fortuitum

71. indication for the use of corticosteroids except:

A. Peptic ulcer B. Bronchial asthma C. hypersensitivity reaction D. Nephritic

syndrome

72. special precaution with patients receiving steroids:

A. hypoglycemia B. Hypotension C. Hyperkalemia D. Mycotic infection

73. Supplemental measures when using corticosteroids include the following,

except:

A. alendronate- to prevent osteoporosisB. Omeprazole- to prevent

peptic ulcer diseaseC. High sodium diet- to prevent hyponatremiaD. High
caloric diet to prevent muscle wasting

74. effect of glucocorticoid include all of the following, except:

A. increase skin protein synthesisB. inhibition of leukotriene synthesisC.

altered fat depositionD. reduce circulating lymphocytes

75.An anti fungal imidazole derivative that is also a potent and rather non
selective inhibitor of adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis:

A. Trilostane B. Mifepristone C. aminoglutetimide D.ketoconazole

76. the end product of coagulation targeted to be dissolve by plasmin:

A. fibrinogen B. Fibrin C. prothrombin D. Thrombin

77. an 18 year old patient came in because his routine urinalysis revealed
glycosuria and an RBS of 250 mg/dl. History revealed that patient
experienced weight loss, polydiipsia, fatigue, and 3 episodes of vaginal yeast
infection in the past 3 months. The family is negative for DM, and patient is
not taking any medications. PE: weight: 48 kg, ht:52. Lab results- 280 mg/dl
FBS, and strongly positive urine glucose and ketones. To achieve control of
the diabetes and probable ketoacidosis in the diabetic patient, the
appropriate antidiabetic agent to be use is:
A. crystalline zinc insulin B. tolbutamide C. glyburide D. ultra
lente insulin

78. The following are features of loop diuretics, EXCEPT

a. very potent, produce the greatest volume of diuresis
b. act mainly on the ascending loop of Henle to increase sodium,
chloride & water secretion
c. has a high risk of adverse reactions
d. are used for long term treatment of hypertension

79. The following are features of potassium-sparing diuretics, EXCEPT

a. has relatively weak diuretic and antihypertensive effects
b. act directly on distal tubule of the kidney to increase excretion of
sodium, water, chloride, calcium ions
c. increased excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions
d. increase serum potassium level

80. Which of the following ACEIs pharmacokinetics is false?

a. all are eliminated primarily by the kidneys except fosinopril
& moexipril
b. food may reduce absorption of ACEI except perindopril, enalapril &
Lisinopril
c. converted to active agent by hydrolysis in the liver
d. most of ACEI are prodrug

81. Have a particular role in treating patients with chronic kidney because
they diminish proteinuria & stabilize renal function
a. ARB b. ACEI c. diuretics d. betablockers

82. NSAID drugs used in arthritis may impair the hypotensive effects of ACEI
by
a. blocking the enzyme peptidyldipeptidase
b. stimulating COX
c. blocking the bradykinin-mediated vasodilation
d. stimulating influx of potassium

83. Drug A has T of 6 hrs. Drug A was administered at a dose of 500 mg at

6am. 12 hours later, how much would be the amount of drug A in the
plasma?
a. 500 mg b. 125 mg c. 250 mg d. 0 mg

84. If a drug is said to have a therapeutic index (TI) of 1, it means that

a. the drug has a wide margin of safety c. the drug is highly
protein bound
 b. the drug is unsafe for human use d. the drug can be given
orally

85. Phase II in clinical drug evaluation aims to determine

a. a drugs absorption, distribution, metabolism & excretion
b. if a drug works for a patients disease
c. if a drug works double blind (healthy vs. disease subjects)
d. post marketing surveillance

86. A portion of a drug that is pharmacologically active

a. protein-bound c. displaced
b. unbound d. bound to inactive site

87. True statement about receptors, EXCEPT

a. receptors largely determine the quantitative relations between drug
dose & effect
b. receptors are responsible for selectivity of drug action
c. receptors mediate the actions of pharmacologic antagonists
d. all enzymes act as receptors

88. A 67-year old patient on anti-arrhythmic drug for recurrent ventricular

tachycardia develops joint & muscle pains, fatigue and skin rash. The drug
being taken by the patient is most probably
a. esmolol b. procainamide c. lidocaine e.
verapamil

89. A patient taking an anti-arrhythmic drug for atrial fibrillation noted

development of cough and difficulty of breathing with grayish-blue
discoloration of his skin & photodermatitis. CXR showed pulmonary fibrosis.
The possible cause of this condition is
a. Amiodarone b. Adenosine c. Digitalis d. Sotalol
e. Bepridil

90. Naturally occurring metabolites given by IV administration, this

antiarrhythmic agent slows conduction through the AV node, with a half life
of 10 seconds
a. esmolol b. adenosine c. lidocaine d. procainamide e.
bretylium

91. The following are partial agonist estrogen inhibitors, EXCEPT

a. Tamoxifen b. Raloxifene c. Toremifine
d. Mifepristone

92. This is an antiandrogen which is an inhibitor of 5-alpha reductase

a. Finasteride b. Ketoconazole c. Cyproterone d.
Anastrozole
93. An effective anti-androgen that inhibit the action of androgens at the
target organ and used for prostatic carcinoma
a. Cyproterone b. Flutamide c. Spironolactone d.
Finasteride

94. The mini pill contains this/these hormone/s at a constant dose

a. estrogen only b. progesterone only c. estrogen &
progesterone

96. A patient complaining of chest pain even at rest had consulted a

cardiologist, which of the following agent would likely be prescribed to relieve
the pain?
a. Nifedipine b. atropine c. epinephrine d. Na
nitroprusside

97. Anti-anginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to all of the following

a. Block exercise induce tachycardia c. increased EDV is
beneficial
b. Reduced resting heart rate d. A & B e. B & C

98. This combination is useful in severe vasospastic or particularly in patient

with exertional angina with CHF and sick sinus syndrome
a. Nitratesb. blockers c. Ca channel blockers d. A & B
e. A & C

99. Nitrates cause vascular smooth muscle relaxation by

a. releasing nitric oxide that activates guanylyl cyclase c. decrease
cGMP
b. inactivating guanylyl cyclase d. phosphorylating
myosin light chain

100. The ff. condition are contraindicated with the use of Ca channel
blockers
a. cardiogenic shock c. congestive heart failure
b. recent myocardial infarction d. A & B e. all of the
above

101. This agent can block the bradycardia associated with anticholinesterase
agent
a. metacholine b. atropine c. physostigmine d. pilocarpine

102. Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic

nervous system is incorrect
a. the actions of the parasympathetic division usually oppose the
effects of the sympathetic division
 b. the parasympathetic system often discharge as a single
functional system
c. the parasympathetic division is involved in accommodation of near
vision
d. A & C e. B & C

103. A 60-year old male diagnosed with Parkinsons disease maintained on

levodopa for 2 years later developed end of dose akinesia & fluctuations in
response. This is secondary to:
a. failure of drug attachment to active neuronal receptors
b. extracerebral metabolism of the drug
c. progressive loss of dopaminergic nigostriatal neurons
d. neuronal receptors developing resistance

104. The patient has an existing bladder outlet obstruction, use of this drug
is contraindicated:
a. amantadine b. pergolide c. selegeline d.
trihexyphenidyl

105. The following are the main goals in the treatment of parkinsons
disease, EXCEPT:
a. increase dopamine concentration c. increase ACH
activity
b. slow the loss of dopamine d. decrease ACH
activity

106. Which of the following would increase absorption of levodopa:

a. should be taken after a fatty meal c. should be taken after
a high protein meal
b. should be taken 30 minutes before meals d. should be
taken in full stomach

114. Epinephrine, a direct acting adrenergic agonist is clinically indicated for

the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a. anaphylactic shock c. hypertension e. status
asthmaticus
b. cardiac arrest d. glaucoma

115. Receptors found at the sympathetic & para sympathetic autonomic

ganglion:
a. adrenoceptors c. nicotinic receptors e. all of the
above
b. muscarinic receptors d. dopaminergic receptors
116. Mr. Yan has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. You are
considering different therapies for his disease. Pyridostigmine and
neostigmine may cause all of the following
a. bronchoconstriction c. reversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
b. constipation d. A & B e. A & C

117. When a dose response study of atropine is carried out in young adults,
which of the following effects may be observed
a. tachycardia c. constipation
b. blurred vision d. A & B e. all of the above

118. Overdose of this drug may lead to severe bradycardia

a. Neostigmine b. Atropine c. Scopolamine d. Ephedrine

119. The drug thiopental is a/an

a. Isopropylphenol b. Eugenol c. Butyrophenone d. Barbiturate

120. If the anesthetic agent is poorly soluble, little will be required to be

dissolved in the blood to raise the partial pressure:
a. True b. False

121. The drug diazepam is

a. An anxiolytic c. an anticonvulsant
b. a muscle relaxant d. all of the above

122. Indication for ampicillin use EXCEPT

a. L. monocytogenes c. Shigellosis
b. H. influenza d. Uncomplicated salmonella
gastroenteritis

123. With good penetration to the CSF

a. Cefaclor b. Cefuroxime c. cefotetan d.
cefoperazone

124. The following agent do not cross the BBB

a. Ceftriaxone b. ceftazidime c. ceftizoxime
d. cefoperazone

125. Used to treat tuberculosis resistant to the first line agents, inhibits
alanine racemase
a. Vancomycin b. Bacitracin c. Cycloserine
d. Fosfomycin

126. Useful in BZ poisoning, a short acting BZ antagonist:

a. flurazepam b. 5 fluorouracil c. flumazenil
d. fluconazole
127. Effects of benzodiazepam on sleep:
a. prolong REM sleep c. prolong stage 2 NREM sleep
b. prolong stage 3 & 4 NREM sleep d. prolong stage 1 NREM sleep or
sleep latency

128. This ultra short acting barbiturate is useful as an IV anesthetic

a. Phenobarbital c. pentobarbital
b. amobarbital d. thiopental

129. This drug can cause anterograde amnesia, useful prior to diagnostic
procedures or operation
a. diazepam b. phenobarbital c. buspirone d.
zolpidem

130. A 24-year old was taking diazepam for almost 2 months. She was noted
to be sleeping more heavily and longer period of time this last few days. She
was taking also another drug. Most possibly the drug that she is taking at the
same time with diazepam is:
a. rifampin b. cimetidine c. valproic acid d.
acetaminophen

131. A 7-year old boy was brought to the emergency room because of an
ongoing seizures which has lasted for more than 5 minutes already. The best
drug to give at once is:
a. diazepam b. phenytoin c. lorazepam
d. phenobarbital

132. A 25-year old female taking an anticonvulsant drugs for almost 2 years
developed diplopia, ataxia, severe anaphylactic reaction, and aplastic
anemia. Most probably the patient is taking this drug:
a. phenytoin b. carbamazepine c. lamotrigine
d. valproic acid

133. May cause hepatotoxicity and cause spina bifida in babies with mothers
taking the drug:
a. phenytoin b. phenobarbital c. diazepam d.
valproic acid

134. This drug will have an increase concentration in acute alcoholism and
decrease concentration in chronic alcoholism
a. phenytoin b. phenobarbital c. diazepam
d. valproic acid

135. A spindle poison, this plant alkaloid which comes from periwinkle plant,
is a neurotoxic and of lesser bone suppression effect:
 a. vincristine b. vinblastine c.irinotecan d.
paclitaxel

136. Common acute adverse effect/s associated with cytotoxic agents:

a. nausea & vomiting c. bone marrow suppression
b. cardiotoxicity d. hepatotoxicity

137.

138. A 60-year old is being treated for his lung cancer with procarbazine.
This should not be given to the patient with
a. alcohol b. cytarabine c. amoxicillin d.
vinblastine

139. A 30-year old male was diagnosed to have brain tumor, this lipid soluble
nitrosurea drug is _____:
a. carmustine b. cyclophosphamide c. daunorubicin
d. busulfan

140. This 30 S inihibitor should not be taken with food, antacids, and iron
supplements
a. gentamicin b. tetracyclines c. erythromycin d.
levofloxacin

141. Fluoroquinolones should not be taken by children below 12 years of age

because it can cause:
a. optic neuritis c. arthropathy
b. yellowish discoloration of the teeth d. not affordable

142. Aminoglycosides are available

a. orally b. parenterally c. both oral & parenteral
d. no choice

143. Cholestatic jaundice has been reported with the use of the drug
a. Chloramphenicol b. Tetracycline c. Amikacin d.
Erythromycin

144. This kills both vegetative cells and spores when applied to materials for
appropriate times and temperature
a. sterilants b. antiseptics c. astringents
d. disinfectants

145. A hallucinogen, not classified as banned but sold legally as a general

anesthetic for human use
 a. LSD b. mescaline c. phencyclidine d.
ketamine

146. An inhalant general anesthetic popularly known as a laughing gas

a. chloroform b. ether c. halothane d.
nitrous oxide

147. This agent works mainly on the serotonergic system, decreasing the
activity of the neurotransmitter and its metabolite 5 hydroxy indole acetic
acid and produces a state of hyperarousal to the CNS
a. Diazepam b. GHB c. LSD d. Cocaine

148. A strong opioid narcotic analgesic useful for anesthesiologist for

intraspinal injection to minimize post-operative pain
a. heroin b. morphine c. nalbuphine (Nubain) d.
codeine

149. A non-addicting opioid sold as over the counter anti-diarrheal

a. Phentermine b. Diphenoxylate c. fentanyl d. codeine

150. Oral use of this agent is effective only when the fungi is within the
lumen of GIT & not for systemic infection
a. amphotericin B b. flucytosine c. ketoconazole d.
fluconazole

151. True regarding the antifungal activity of amphotericin B EXCEPT:

a. binds with ergosterol in the fungal cell wall c. increase cell
permeability
b. leakage of intracellular ions d. inhibits fungal cell
growth

152. Drug that potentiates the synthesis, release & prevents reuptake of
dopamine:
a. levodopa b. MAO inhibitor c. amantadine d.
dopamine agonist

153. The sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous

system are divisions of which of the following?
a. Somatic nervous system division of peripheral nervous system
b. Somatic nervous system division of central nervous system
c. Autonomic nervous system division of peripheral nervous
system
d. Autonomic nervous system division of central nervous system

154. A 54-year old female complained of headache and nape pain. Vital signs
taken include a BP of 180/110 mmHg. Alpha 2-agonists work by decreasing
sympathetic tone and increasing vagal tone. Which of the following is NOT a
selective alpha 2-agonist?
a. Clonidine b. Methyldopa c. Guanabenz d.
Epinephrine

155. A 25-year old female took 15 tablets of Diazepam after knowing that
her boyfriend had eloped with another woman. She was rushed to the
emergency room having lost consciousness. The drug that should be given
immediately is:
a. flurazepam b. flumazenil c. fluorouracil
d. fluoxetine

156. A 60-year old male was diagnosed to have a brain tumor. This lipid
soluble alkylating agent was given to the patient as chemotherapy
a. anastrazole b. tamoxifen c. methotrexate d.
carmustine

157. A 60-year old female has an uncontrolled hypertension maintained on

metroprolol 100 mg BID. What is the diuretic best used as a combination
therapy:
a. flurosemide b. acetazolamide c. mannitol d.
thiazides

158. A 4-year old boy was diagnosed to have petit mal or absence seizures.
The treatment of choice is:
a. Phenobarbital b. phenytoin c. ethoxusimided.
carbamazepine

159. Carbamazepine can be used for the following conditions, EXCEPT:

a. petit mal seizures c. grand mal seizures
b. partial seizures d. trigeminal neuralgias

160. A 28-year old female has been taking this drug for more than 3 years.
She complained of motor incoordination, hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia.
She is possibly taking this drug:
a. phenobarbital b. phenytoin c. carbamazepine d. valproic
acid