REVIEW QUESTIONS 14.

As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find

out that the materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a required materials?
structural concrete? Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
Answer: concrete cylinder sample 15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6%
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete? respectively
Answer: Slump test
16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test? Answer: 80% maximum
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh pavement?
concrete? Answer: Blown Asphalt
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets? Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
Answer:3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads? Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
Answer: Reflectorized paint
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200,
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being & 201?
a dark brown to black cementitious material in which the Answer: by Field Density Test
predominating substance is bitumen?
Answer: asphalt 21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat
be left undisturbed? 22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Answer: 24 hours Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test,
Mechanical Analysis
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m 23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is
2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt? maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade Answer: 101.86%

11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test? 24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer
Answer: concrete beam sample concrete pavement?
Answer: 5 holes/km/lane
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201
(Aggregate Base Course)? 25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD weight of 162.5 grams and an oven dried weight of 138.2
grams?
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected Answer: 17.58%
borrow topping (Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests 26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Answer: the soil is clayey

1

27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the
sample placed in the oven is already oven dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be
maintained?
Answer: 110 5C
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is
advisable?
Answer: because it can affect its weight
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content
from natural moisture content?
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the
moisture content of an air dried sample while NATURAL
MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of the
original sample from thefield.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample
represents?
Answer: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for
Quality Test?
Answer: 2 pcs 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture
for heavily reinforced concrete structure using a pump Crete to
pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?
Answer: Super plasticizer
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Answer: as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration
grade asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion Compression
Test be soaked in water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50C
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?
Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on
Ignition
38. Paint is composed of _____
Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete
sample?
Answer: 16 mm and 610 mm long with hemispherical
tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample
after its initial curing?
Answer: 23C 1.7C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature
between 63F to 85F are permitted for a period not to exceed
_____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture is
maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times.
Answer: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed
after initial curing of _____ hours and should be cured to the
standard curing temperature of 73.4 F 3F
Answer: Twenty four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Answer: high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should
pass to what sieve?
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for
Moisture Density Relation Test (MDR) is T 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
46. A bean mold measuring 6 x 6 x 20 is to be used for sampling
concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?
Answer: 60 blows/layer
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate
weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Answer: Cut back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly
spread over the surface at the rate of approximately _____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
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50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your
answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of asphalt
content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what
is the degree of compaction for this kind of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class A is 9
bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class B?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of
the_____?
Answer: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling
and testing aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class P is
5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive strength for
concrete Class C?
Answer: 3,000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the
mixers nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on the
manufacturers standard plate on the mixer, except that an
overload up to _____ percent above the mixers nominal
capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for
strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory,
and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of
any core taken from pavement is deficient in thickness by more
than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the
centerline in each direction from the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration
grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate higher penetration
grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any
construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?
Answer: consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to
determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each
full days operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how
many measurements?
Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how
many measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it
represents is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger
mixer, which of the following amount of water is most likely
required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.
Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat
wall enamel paint are to be used in the project?
Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and
to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall
be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve
analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons
of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201
having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
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 Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone
Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with
sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe
Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with
sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the
technician must have a program on how many samples for each
item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing
requirements. What program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for
test, what is the alternative way of reducing sample for testing
size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite
sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens
molded and cured have attained the minimum strength
requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the
specified age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until
_____ days after the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know
how many sample has been submitted and tested and how
many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must
refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the
balance and on file quality test of the construction materials
being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be
molded without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8 (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to
25 blows.
Answer: Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a
slump cone with base and tamping rod. After the test, the
height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of
the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion
Machine used for testing the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch
weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse
aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual
batch weights for 1 cu.m Class A concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates;
1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass
% of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item
201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every
_____?
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the
construction materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per
horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete
masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3
samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name
of the project, the quantity represented, kind of sample, original
source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled
and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that
tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
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90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers,
how many layers should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course
is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to
the number of days of a quality test that takes place. Since not
all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a
week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality
test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be
soaked for how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil
Classification, what test that its result be used in field density
test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation
Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field
density test, are you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and
can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt
content of asphalt mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an
erosion control measures and also to improve the stability of
the slope.
Answer: Berm
100. In soil and sub surface explorations for flood control design
of foundation condition, a soil sample was taken for field and
laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg
Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage
conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of
70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50
kgs.
Answer: Class B
103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of
25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20
kgs.
Answer: Class A
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of
100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80
kgs.
Answer: Class C
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum
of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than
1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm
107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.
Answer: 1 inch
108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
Answer: 35%
109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
Answer: 4% to 9%
110. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
Answer: void ratio
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids
Answer: moisture content
113. Significance of grading test are, except
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 Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability,
capillarity, measures the potential cohesion of soil
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the
clay fraction of a binder material, measures the shearing
resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will
determine the economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
Answer: Liquidity Index
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for
centering under girders, beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor
slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength 70%)
Answer: Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily
reinforced substructures. The important parts of the structure
included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box
culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced
footings.
Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier
shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a
small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-
cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in pre stressed concrete structures
and members.
Answer: Class P
131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit
Answer: 1.50 m
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings
Answer: Item 612

121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls. 133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength 70%) 300
Answer: + 15 mm and 5 mm
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for
columns. 134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength 70%) _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of
beams and all other vertical surfaces. 135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength 70%) Answer: plain bars

124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a
group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to support the
imposed load
Answer: Pile cap
125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm
126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third Point Method
shall have a flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150
mm, the aggregate sub base shall spread and compacted in
____
` Answer: two or more layers

6
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item
201.
Answer: 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate
US standard
Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum
density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of
concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15%
Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there
is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in the concreting
operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the
straight edge between contacts with the surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the
completion of the final rolling, the surface will be treated with
bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m.
The required number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway
subgrade material
Answer: Group Index
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate
200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how many sets of concrete
beam samples shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m,
width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and
plastic limit exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
Answer: 95%
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
160. At least how many in situ density tests should be carried out
for each 500 m2 of each layer of compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)

148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except 161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the Answer: 12%
potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape of grain,
Atterberg limits 162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200
Answer: 35%
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the
ff., except 163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4 Answer: 2

7
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course 177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B
is determined in accordance with Answer: 1 inch
Answer: AASHTO T 96
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed
165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200 of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper proportion, road mixed
Answer: 50% and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item
166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200 203)
Answer: 30%
179. The required plasticity index for Item 203
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is Answer: 4% to 10%
determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193 180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on
Item 203
168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of Answer: 50%
aggregate sub-base course
Answer: 100% 181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and
B
169. In place density determination of aggregate sub-base course Answer: 2
material shall be made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191 182. Item number for water?
Answer: Item 714
170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials
are scarce or non available, the use _____ allowable percent 183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to
weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or be added to the soil aggregate?
gravel. Answer: 3% to 12%
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under Answer: 100%
grading B
Answer: 1 inch 185. Required percent compaction for Item 203
Answer: 100%
172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202
Answer: 45% 186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1)
fractured face of Item 202 187. Equipment to be used for final rolling
Answer: 50% Answer: 3 wheel tandem type steel wheel roller

174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202 188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in
Answer: 80% an open cup and passing a small test flame
Answer: flash point
175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A
Answer:1 inch 189. It is a manually operated device for deriving a measurement
of roughness from the surface profile which may be expressed
176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A in terms of International Roughness Index.
Answer: 2 Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device

8
190. It is used for the rapid in situ measurement of the structural cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other
properties of existing pavement with unbound granular imperfections.
properties. Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
199. Soil stabilizing agent
191. What is the thinnest cut back asphalt? Answer: Lime for silty and clayey soil
Answer: MC 3000 Cement fro sandy soil

192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method
used to determine the casting length of the regular piles?
Answer: Test Piling
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential state.
deflection between joints of a concrete pavement, to determine
the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an
overlay, and to determine the remaining life of existing
pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits,
pipes, nails and other metals embedded in concrete before
cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for
surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as he
concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix
has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming _____
radioactive material which is commonly used in the compaction
control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the
measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi solid to plastic
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining
slabs together are called _____
Answer: tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in
a 3 m straight edge. The concrete in the area represented
by these high spots _____
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high
spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding 12
mm, it shall be ground down only.
205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted
Answer: Once a year
206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes

197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections
resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results of the elastic
deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural condition
of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening
measures and road capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality
of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is
a non destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110
mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the
determination of concrete strength (either in situ or pre
207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the
bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability
under the Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the
maximum load resistance that a specimen will develop at
_____
Answer: 60

9
 222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement of
at each end for a heavy traffic design under the Marshall fraction thereof placed each day?
Stability Method? Answer: 1 set
Answer: 75 blows
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade be moved?
of the asphalt? Answer: 80% of the designed 28 day compressive
Answer: 85 100 strength

212. In case of scarcity or non availability of Type I Portland 224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 20 mm
cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used? reinforcing steel.
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P Answer: 6d (20 mm 25 mm = 8d: 28 mm and above
= 10d)
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of
Item 311 when tested by the midpoint method. 225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.
Answer: 4.50 MPa Answer: 4 to 6 rpm

214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____ 226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?
Answer: Steel forms of an approved section Answer: 10 to 20 cm

215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at 227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate
_____ base course preparatory to the construction of a bituminous
Answer: Within 24 hours surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat
216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement
Answer: 24 hours 228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?
Answer: Item 304
217. The required slump of concrete using slip form method of
paving is _____ 229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job
Answer: 1 inches mix formula for Item 310?
Answer: 0.4%
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no
payment of contract price allowed is _____ 230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with
Answer: 25% or more or without the application of aggregate on existing bituminous
surface?
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic Answer: Seal Coat
lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m 231. Job mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item
310.
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane Answer: 10C
are poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m 232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full
days operation?
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample? Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm
233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when
placed?

10
 Answer: 107C 245. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and
larger sieve.
234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310. Answer: 7
Answer: 5 kph
246. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to
235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack. No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: faulting Answer: 4

236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall 247. .Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200
have a diameter of at least ______ sieve.
Answer: 100 mm Answer: 2

237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall 248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from
be _____ imposed load.
Answer: 1.0 mass % Answer: stability

238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using 249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of
Class D stones for riprap. air, water, temperature and traffic.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A 300 mm; Class B 500 mm; Answer: durability
Class C 600 mm)
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing caused by the passage of wheel loads.
bituminous or cement concrete surface with bituminous Answer: fatigue resistance
materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous
surface course. 251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking
Answer: Tack Coat and to conform to gradual settlements and moments of the
base and subgrade.
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using Answer: flexibility
asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2 252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.
Answer: 92% to 95%
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using
cut back asphalt? 253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2 water on the cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion Compression Test
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface
of Item 310 from the testing edge of the straight edge 254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most
between any two contacts with the surface? commonly used grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 6 mm Answer: 60 70 and 85 100

243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310? 255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion
Answer: 1.40 MPa Compression Test is performed.
Answer: stability
244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310
when tested by AASHTO T 65? 256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in
Answer: 70% minimum Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease

11
 257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what
apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer
258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
Answer: highly organic soils
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub base or base
course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency
of the equipment used and the construction method.
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved
asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content
261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit
262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to
_____
Answer: determine the trend of its strength
development
263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in
a three edge bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be
continuous without shock at a constant rate within the range
of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 175
psi/second (flexural)
265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time
and that there is already doubt as to its quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it
more suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from
each other, third test is taken. What will be this test?
Answer: referee test
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete
pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to
determine the strength. What is the required compressive
strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of
asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky
270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____
Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel
271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____
Answer: weak subgrade
272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered
_____
Answer: very stable
273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories
is considered ___
Answer: normal
274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil
275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil.
It is also a control test in embankment construction to
ensure adequate compaction.
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the
accuracy of the result. True or false?
Answer: true
277. How to prepare or to come up with an air dried sample?
Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun
278. If it is impossible to air dry the sample under the heat of the
sun, what alternative should be used?
Answer: oven dry the sample @ 60C
279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D use sample passing inch
280. What is the difference between T 99 and T 180 compaction
test method?
12
 Answer: T 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12
drop while T 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an
18 drop.
281. What is particle size analysis?
Answer: It is the determination of particle size
distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined
analysis
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if
it deals with chemicals?
Answer: distilled water
283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop
sharply on the base through a height of _____?
Answer: 10 mm
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit
be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what will the soil thread begin
to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8)
286. What is specific gravity?
Answer; It is used in a gravimetric volumetric
relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt. in
air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature)
287. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m
288. What Item of work is embankment?
Answer: Item 104
289. What kind of material for Item 200?
Answer: Aggregate sub base course
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for
toppings under Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3
openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass 0.075
mm. (AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and
201?
Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the
moisture density relation test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum
moisture content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field
density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free flowing, uncemented sand
passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve
294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand
cone?
Answer: inch (12.7 mm)
295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate,
moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven
with temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic
bags and labeling materials (tag name)
296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific
gravity and absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated
dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for
surface moisture. If the molded shape of fine aggregate
slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface
dry condition
298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?
Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity,
absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate =
grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an
d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request
299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast iron
spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm and each weighing
between 390 455 grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of
coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams 25 grams
13
301. What is significance of abrasion test? 310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of
aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as the bar as well as its elongation and is used to classify
determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also the bars into grade.
determines whether the aggregates will have
degradation during traffic or rolling. 311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm) 312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for
flexural test? 313. SS l or SS lh is what kind of asphalt?
Answer: 14 days Answer: slow setting emulsified asphalt

304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam 314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat
sample tested at third point? be left undisturbed?
Answer: R = PL Answer: 24 hours
bd2
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam Answer: cut back asphalt
sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL 316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for
2bd2 every how many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm and 610 mm long with the tamping 317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt
end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same as the pavement?
rod. Answer: thickness and density of pavement

307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many 318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment,
samples are required? daily activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a _____
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 Answer: Materials logbook
units)
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in situ test that
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete measures what?
masonry units? Answer: depth of soil layer
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum 320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) concrete is called _____
minimum Answer: segregation

309. What is the strength requirement for non load bearing 321. A one lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and
concrete masonry units? shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement was
Answer: designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.54 MPa (600 psi) mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase
minimum courses shall be carried out in _____?

14
 Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a
_____ rate of loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory produced RCCP may be best established
through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of
subgrade preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the
project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that
you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the
construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded
in a 6 x 6 x 21 beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it
begins to produce excessive _______ or _______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of
the mixture
TAR is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of
coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT are the products of the
distillation of crude oil.
332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut back asphalt, emulsified
asphalt
333. What are the solvents of cut back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE for rapid curing type
KEROSENE for medium curing type
DIESEL for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION works better with wet
aggregates and in cold weather. It is a positively charge
electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates
which have positive charge. It is a negatively charge
electron.
335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement

327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less 336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?
than ____ Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt
Answer: 29C
337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs Answer: climatic condition
RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets 338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the
contractor shall submit the job mix formula?
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how Answer: three (3) weeks
many pipes shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP 339. Who will approve the job mix formula?
Answer: DPWH PE and ME
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order
to increase its workability (provided concrete does not excced 340. The job mix formula contains provisions the following:
specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of Answer:
mixing does adding water be permitted? a. grading of aggregates
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water b. percentage and type of asphalt
cement ratio is not exceeded. c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used of compaction
in the bituminous mixture?
Answer:

15
 341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture
shall be placed?
Answer: 66C to 107C
342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the
required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable
343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of
passes that would attain the required density?
Answer: trial section
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and
compaction and is of great significance in the strength of the
resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed
longitudinally parallel towards the center line, each trip
overlapping one half the rollers width.
346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
Answer: degree of compaction
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or
greater than _____
Answer: 97% of the laboratory compacted density
348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?
Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric
temperature
349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?
Answer: by the use of core drill or saw
350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not
vibrated?
Answer: 40 mm 75 mm
351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if
vibrated?
Answer: 10 mm 40 mm
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the
time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90
seconds
353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the
time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited
in place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non
agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in truck
mixers or agitators
354. How is concrete consolidated?
Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete
vertically
355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a
form of a keyway is used?
Answer: longitudinal construction joint
356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in
the preceding problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars
357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with
a concrete saw?
Answer: not less than 50 mm
358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____
Answer: not less than 6 mm
359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior
to the time of sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted
360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
Answer: asphalt or other materials
361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device
held in a position parallel to the surface and center line of the
slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel
362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in
concrete, it shall be coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen
363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of
_____
Answer: brooming
16
 364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the Answer: No. 200
surface of the pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm 374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____
Answer: pothole patching
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set
shall be cured for a period of _____ 375. VMA means
Answer: 72 hours Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates

366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the 376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous
following: mixture specimen
Answer: Answer: 124C
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated
with water 377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement Answer: 163C
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately 378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is
after finishing of the surface Answer: 121C - 188C

367. When is the right time to seal the joints? 379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to Answer: 177C - 191C
traffic
380. The maximum absorption content of CHB
368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 Answer: 240 kg/m3
(bluebook 95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the 381. The maximum moisture content of CHB
ratio of cement and fine sand Answer: 45%

369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of
the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is
_____
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid
damages in transit, accompanied by a sample card
filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or
rejection of construction materials for use in the project
based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and
hardness.
Answer: asphaltene
373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is
passing sieve?
382. SPT means
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample
Answer: Shelby tube
384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample
Answer: wax
385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
Answer: split spoon sampler
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical
results which can be used to estimate shear strength and
bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring
Answer: diamond bit
388. CQCA means

17
 Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance c. base course materials
(submitted weekly)
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast
389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from iron spheres or steel spheres.
Answer: 1.01 1.04 Answer:
GRADING A 12 spheres
390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified GRADING B 11 spheres
asphalt? GRADING C 8 spheres
Answer: cationic GRADING D 6 spheres

391. How many group of three in situ densities are required if the 401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all
compacted volume of embankment laid was estimated to be ingredients including water is in the drum is
1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer? Answer: 100 rpm
Answer: fifteen (15)
402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing,
392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing lay down and finishing when this method is used (Item 206)
steel is Answer: two (2) hours
Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in
393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has set.
deformed and plain billet steel bar is Answer: 40 kph
Answer: 0.06%
404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation
394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars? Answer: 90 minutes
Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD 405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct
POINT method that should be followed is
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the
GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa previously placed concrete.
GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you
395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent are the ME of your firm, what will you recommend?
Answer: clay content Answer: conduct recoring

396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory 407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the
compaction test is material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly appears in
Answer: air dried condition which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt
397. The method in the determination of density of soil in place
Answer: Sand cone method 408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
398. Air dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200 409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25 th blow is
projected in order to determine the liquid limit of the soil.
399. Which of the following items does not need CBR? Answer: Flow curve
Answer:
a. subbase materials 410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____
b. surfacing materials Answer: abrasion loss
18

411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in
the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____
Answer: 2.75
413. The standard packaging weight of cement
Answer: 40 kg/bag
414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement
before its initial setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water
from the mix.
Answer: curing compound
415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes
and parking spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and
weather conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night
time.
Answer: glass beads
417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.
Answer: Latex
418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating
test.
Answer: Triple spot test
419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest
coating.
Answer: Single spot test
420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special
type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel
421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20
under average conditions of good drainage and adequate
compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may
be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group
index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material
422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the
beginning of the work on each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips
423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a
compact mass in its fina position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm
424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 2.15
425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 102.5C
426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 10 minutes
427. The rate of application of traffic paint.
Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.
Answer: 15 30 minutes
429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint.
Answer: 10 kg
430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of
compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the
degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous
mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens.
432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.
Answer: gasoline
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
Answer: mass of dry aggregates
434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate
extracted from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer
19
436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of
asphalt to oil. 450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium
Answer: Distillation sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %
437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
Answer: Softening point 451. Additives used in concrete mixing.
Answer: admixtures
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the
formula 452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100% disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or
magnesium sulfate.
439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310. Answer: Soundness test
Answer: 200F to 225F
453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based
440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked? on
Answer: yellowish brown Answer: Absolute Design Method

441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous 454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
pavement are there in the blue book? Answer: 45 minutes
Answer: seven (7)
455. The final setting time of Portland cement
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous Answer: 10 hours
pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: two (2) 456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of
Portland cement
443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at Answer: Ottawa sand
Answer: approximately quarter points
457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland
444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes cement by air permeability
Answer: bleeding Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus

445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler? 458. A mixture of cement and water is
Answer: not greater than 4 Answer: cement paste

446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging 459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting
of aggregate particle. of Portland cement in the laboratory.
Answer: raveling Answer: Gillmore needle

447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks 460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7
resembling an alligators skin or chicken wire. days is
Answer: alligator cracking Answer: 19.3 MPa

448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities 461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which
and specifies the kind and number of test of each item of work. fails to meet the autoclave?
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements Answer: crumbled
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of
sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed 462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
Answer: 12 mass % Answer: first seven (7) days

20
 f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as
463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall determined by the engineer
sue every precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature
and condition of the materials which they represent. 473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading
Answer: sampling A for aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 12%
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by
reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain 474. The rate of application of special curing agent
sieves. Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
Answer: disturbed samples
475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples the river channel.
suitable laboratory tests of structural properties. Answer: sounding
Answer: thin walled tube sampling
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non plastic, what Atterberg
467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in limit test can be performed?
an accredited laboratory. Answer: Liquid limit test
Answer: government
477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance surface of timber is
by using any drilling equipment that provides clean hole before Answer: 20mm
insertion of thin walled tubes that is, both the natural density
and moisture content are preserved as much as practicable. 478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the
Answer: undisturbed samples treating process of timber.
Answer: 10 days
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh
concrete. 479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum
Answer: retarder clear opening.
Answer: 2mm
470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early
compressive strength of concrete. 480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury
Answer: accelerator using gravity hammer.
Answer: 2.5m 3.5 (concrete)
471. The best enemy of construction. 4.5m (timber)
Answer: water
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any
472. The following are considered unsuitable materials: size, shape and gradation.
Answer: Answer: Compaction
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of
organic materials such as grass, roots and 482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are
sewage poor as engineering materials.
b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck Answer: liquid limit of fines
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL
exceeding 55% 483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay
d. Soils with a natural moisture content depending on the expected traffic and the modulus of the
exceeding 100% cracked and seated pavement section.
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3 Answer: 3 to 5

21
484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the Answer: base course
mean deflection is ____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14, greater than 0.002 495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.
Answer: 40 times bar
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and
increase the 24 hour strength by _____. 496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70% structures except pavements conforming to the lines, grade
and dimension.
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas Answer: Structural concrete
that have previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal
_____ air pressure. 497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)

487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount
of air on the form moist in concrete during mixing without
significantly altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of
concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures
488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against
actual and by speed task to make up for the past or future
loss of time.
Answer: Delivery control
498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the
roadway structure.
Answer: transom
499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split
spoon sampler and the depth needed is _____.
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m
500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?
Answer: 50mm

489. Bowl shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement 501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling.
surface. Answer: 1.50m length
` Answer: potholes
502. The initial diameter of bore hole.
490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface Answer: 76mm
waves) across the pavement.
Answer: corrugation 503. What is the core bit diameter?
Answer: 67mm
491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of
the pavement. 504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads
Answer: shoving for 300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)
492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
Answer: rutting 505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads
for less than 300 VPD traffic.
492. It is the chief load bearing of gravel road? Answer: 500m (along centerline)
Answer: base or subbase course
506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point road on swampy or marshy ground.
of deposit by pneumatic means. Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)
Answer: 3 meters
507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project
494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic Answer:
in the subbase and subgrade. 1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)

22
 1 boring for each pier for multi span (3m into 520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.
the bed rocks) Answer: 244 kg/m2

508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over
foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along
centerline
Depth = times base width
509. For ports and harbors projects:
Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m
minimum for piers & wharves)
510. For buildings (large area greater than 930 m2):
Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and
one on the interior (9m below lowest foundation)
511. For buildings less than 930 m2
Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners
512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base
area of 180mm x 140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.
Answer: 1,033.50 KPa
522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on
concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m
523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the
splice below ground line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters
524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or
esteros and other bodies of water.
Answer: dredging
525. The slope of batter piles
Answer: 1:6
526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____
Answer: 0.12%

513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is 527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design
delayed. Answer: 20%
Answer: shrinkage cracking
528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building
514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in outline has been established on the ground.
design? Answer: Minor excavation
Answer: consistency
529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing
515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations. capacity.
Answer: 4mm Answer: footing

516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible 530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and
evidence of termite infestation. above.
Answer: Cordoning Answer: Boring test

517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation. 531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor
Answer: Drenching structure on the ground.
Answer: 700mm
518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 22% 532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.
Answer: 100mm
519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 14% 533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually
provided to support a column.

23
 Answer: Spread footing 542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing
moisture content of 10% higher than the optimum moisture
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of content?
the manufactured state. Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the
Answer: 3% required thickness and compact

535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained 543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt
on the subgrade indicates that pavement thickness
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the Answer: - 5mm
compaction specs and needs additional compaction
536. Liquid limit is usually 544. Geosynthetics may be used for
Answer: greater than plastic limit Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion
control
537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted
at least 545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture
Answer: 100% modified proctor content?
Answer:
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the a. beam balance
delivered materials are different from the on tested passed. If b. oven
you are in doubt, what will you do? c. moisture can
Answer: conduct immediate re testing for verification d. extruder

539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the 546. Steel bars are considered undersize if
Materials Engineer? Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper
Answer: doesnt meet the manufactured size
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material 547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for
c. scheduling of delivery of materials quality the requirements
d. design of concrete mix except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure
shall be 548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: volume Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength

541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which 549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering
of the ff statement is true? properties?
Answer: Answer: organic
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly
high maximum density at low optimum 550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of
moisture content energy and addition of water as lubricant?
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, Answer: Moisture Density relation test
well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities 551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete
than uniform soil at OMC pavement is
d. none of the above Answer: No. 10

552. What is the volume of the mold using 6 for AASHTO T 180
D method in compaction test?

24
 Answer: 0.002124 m3
553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or
crushing of rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be
retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand
554. What is ASTM?
Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials
555. What is AASHTO?
Answer: American Association of State Highway &
Transportation Officials
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a
revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with
the latest methods as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
557. What is the category of contractor that are required by
DPWH to have laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre
bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: of the thickness
559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?
Answer: colloids
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____
above the specimen
Answer: 25mm
561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of
stone, gravel or sand and containing silt clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi rounded with an
average dimension between 75mm 305mm
Answer: boulders
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the
roadside to make them denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning
564. The road near or abutting a bridge.
Answer: Approach
565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
Answer: before the construction work
566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
Answer: sand and gravel
567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a
maximum interval of
Answer: 20 meters
568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the
subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method
569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted
which showed a lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with
irregularity
570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction
involves
Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of
not more than 225mm depth, loose materials and
extending to the full width of the embankment
571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not
cured immediately after final placement especially during the
first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?
Answer: Liquid membrane forming
573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?
Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at
the specified date
574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?
Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each
side have reached the specified strength
575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay,
organic deposit or loose sand having high void rather and
usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade
25
576. What is Twelve Inch Layer Method Embankment? 584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates
Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in a shiny, glass like reflecting surface that usually becomes
layers not more than 300 mm in depth (12) loose quite sticky
measure, parallel to the finished grade and extending Answer: bleeding
to the full width of the embankment
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by
577. What is Rock Embankment Method? excessive expansion of the slabs during hot weather
Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and Answer: buckling
push over the end of the fill by means of bulldozer.
This method is only applicable to fill 1.2 m in depth. 586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete
It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade pavement
Answer: crushing
578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow 587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the
locations and shall be deposited so as to form the free haul distance
grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly Answer: Overhaul
compacted
588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry
579. What is the principal factor used in determining the ratio?
thickness of the pavement? Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to
frustration move also be considered) 589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil
aggregates in Item 204?
580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Answer: 6 10 mass % of the dry soil
Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the 590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?
embankment correctivework consists of placing a Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
surcharge constructed to the full width of the road
bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the 591. What is quality?
embankment has reached stability or the required Answer: It the degree of excellence
settlement
592. What is control?
581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment? Answer: Is to regulate
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the
embankment to accelerate consideration 593. What is quality control?
Answer: It is conformance to requirements
582. Mixture of fine grained aggregates, bituminous binder and
water for surface sealing 594. What is assurance?
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry) Answer: it the degree of certainty

583. What is the formula for percentage of wear? 595. What are the two kinds of control activities?
Answer: Answer: Inspection and Testing
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. wt. retained
@ sieve # 12) x 100 596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade
original wt. level?
Answer: 4 5 feet

26
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable
properties to produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and 608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag
clay? Cement?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization Answer: Type 1S

598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the
moisture content of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It
is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of
evaporation of moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt
599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content
increases. Granular material becomes unstable if it has
dried
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction
aside from asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating
costs and from convenience in road mixing or
priming
609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?
Answer: Type 1P
610. Type I is for general use such as
Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges
and tanks & water pipes
611. Type III cement is used for
Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength
612. Type IV is used for
Answer: massive structures such as dams
613. Type V cement is used for
Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very
high

601. The theory of concrete design mix is to
Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes
properties of cement mortar
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to
depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and water
content
603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?
Answer: Type I
614. The inventor of Portland cement was
Answer: Joseph Aspdin
615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials
containing
Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica
616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part
clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1 pinch
of gypsum added to clinker

604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant 617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called
Portland Cement? Answer: volcanic earth
Answer: Type II
618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is
605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland composed of
Cement? Answer: C3S and C2S
Answer: Type III
619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by
606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement? Answer: C3A and C4AF
Answer: Type IV
620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is
607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland developed
Cement? Answer: hydration
Answer: Type V

27
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (CSH) and lime [Ca(OH) 2] are
developed when _____ is added to Portland cement
Answer: water
622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means
Answer: the setting time is larger
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with
water takes care of the concretes
Answer: alkalinity
624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from
Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel
633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be
considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is
equal to or at least _____ of the specified strength, fc and no
single core is less than _____
Answer: 85% of fc, 75% of fc
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for
organic impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test
635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:
Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake
cement and it comes from a discarded or used bag

625. The water required for concrete mix should be 636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates
Answer: fresh water Answer: fineness modulus

626.Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture 637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates
is added because it contains Answer: free water
Answer: chloride
638. What do you mean by SSD?
627. The entrapped air in concrete is Answer: Saturated Surface Dry
Answer: accidental and unwanted
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with
628. The entrained air in concrete is respect to its fluidity
Answer: deliberate and desirable Answer: consistency

629. We use aggregate in concrete as 640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is
Answer: filler materials in concrete Answer: objectionable

630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly 641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as
influence: Answer: Water reducing admixture
Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion
and its economy 642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many
equal segments?
631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to Answer: five (5)
concrete?
Answer: 643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement
a. calcium occur leading to failure
b. chloride Answer: bearing capacity
c. coal
d. sulphate 644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay
Answer: 2
632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water
to be workable, but making it so will only result to 645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the
sacrifice in beam balance should be sensitive up to
Answer: strength Answer: 0.1g

28
646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time
after being removed from the oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator
647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many
hours to dry ay constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours
648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be
weighed after it has been removed from the oven within
Answer: 1 hour
649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at
a prescribe temperature; the drying time depends on the kind
of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy
material will be dried in about
Answer: 2 hours
650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
Answer: Boring Test
651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
Answer: calcium tri chloride
652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is
Answer: low
653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement
Answer: hot mix asphalt
654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk
Answer: 1.5 m
655. The limit of water cement ratio of concrete
Answer: 0.50 0.60
656. A cement which has a cementitious effect
Answer: Portland cement
657. A concrete where compression is induced before the
application of working load so that tension under these loads
is reduced
Answer: Pre stressing
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus
content of steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material
that will cause brittleness or cold shortness when its content
goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed
concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m
661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do
you it?
Answer:
10 mm slump = 2 kg/m3 from (water)
air entrapment = 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)
662. In non entrained concrete, what is the range of % air
entrained?
Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small bigger aggregates)
663. In air entrained concrete, what is the range of air entrained?
Answer: 8% - 3% (small bigger aggregates)
664. For a constant water cement ratio, what will happen if air
content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
665. What will happen if you lower the water cement ratio and
maintaining other values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength
666. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T 90 seconds
667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch
made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 hours
668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and
stockpiled before batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled
or binned for draining
669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon
cement has due added
29
 15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32C
temperature is present

670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be

discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or
Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of
concrete

671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the

maximum size of pipe that is negligible in the volume
computation?
Answer: pipes with of 4 or less

30