Test-4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Time : 3 Hrs. TEST - 4 MM : 600

[ SCIENCE]
Choose the correct answer :
1. An object is placed in front of a plane mirror at a 6. O I
distance of 10 m. If the object is displaced 10 m l
away from the mirror, then the ratio of initial 30
separation to the final separation between object and m1
image is d
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 4 60
2. Choose incorrect statement for a diffused reflection: Man
(1) It follows the laws of reflection Can the man see the image of object in mirror m1,
as shown in figure [if d > l]?
(2) It does not give rise to image formation
(1) May be (2) Yes
(3) It does not follow laws of reflection (3) No (4) Cannot be determined
(4) It occurs due to irregularities present on the 7. A man is standing in between two plane mirrors
reflecting surface inclined at some angle to each other. If he can see
his nine images, then the angle between the mirrors
is
t
ligh
(1) 40 (2) 80
7
ite
6 Wh (3) 60 (4) 10
t 5
igh
el
3. 4 8. Which of the following group of letters will appear
it
Wh
3
2 same after their reflection from plane mirror?
1
(1) A, O, P, T, I (2) A, O, I, T, Y
(3) A, O, Z, T, I (4) A, O, T, I, L
9. Peter Parker can see a proper motion movie only if
For the two similar prisms, in the above figure, the
the frames in the movie are moving at a rate of
colour of 5th ray marked is
(1) 10 frames per second
(1) Orange (2) Yellow (2) 8 frames per second
(3) Green (4) Indigo (3) 11 frames per second
(4) 24 frames per second
4. The cells in human eye which are sensitive towards
M2
bright and dim light respectively are
(1) Rods and cones (2) Cones and rods C A

(3) Cones only (4) Rods only

10.
5. The phenomenon which is responsible for the visibility i
of objects which are non-luminous is
55
O M1
B
(1) Reflection In the shown figure the angle of incidence for which
(2) Refraction the incident ray (AB) retraces its path after reflection
from the mirror (M2) is
(3) Dispersion
(1) 35 (2) 55
(4) Refraction and dispersion both (3) 45 (4) 75

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-4 (Code A)
11. Which of the following mirrors form virtual, erect and 18. Select odd one out
laterally inverted image of same size as that of (1) Fire
object?
(2) Glowing fluorescent lamp
(1) Concave mirror
(3) Sun
(2) Convex mirror
(4) Moon
(3) Plane mirror
(4) Both concave and convex mirror 19. Time of image persistance on retina for normal
human being is
12. The minimum possible angle between the incident
and reflected ray is th th
4 16
(1) 0 (2) 45 (1) of a second (2) of a second
16 4
(3) 55 (4) 90
13. Which of the following is correct mirror image of an th th
4 64
analog wall clock showing time as 5 : 05 as shown (3) of a second (4) of a second
64 4
in figure below?
20.
I
O

Plane mirror
(1) 5 : 35 (2) 6 : 55 The nature of image in the above figure is
(3) 1 : 55 (4) 7 : 55 (1) Virtual and erect (2) Real and erect
14. A man met with an accident and was left with (3) Virtual and inverted (4) Real and inverted
completely damaged optic nerve, then which 21. Which of the following statements is/are correct
amongst the following is true in this case? about natural gas?
(1) He can see near objects (i) It is a gaseous fossil fuel
(2) He can see far objects (ii) It is an exhaustible natural resource
(3) He cannot see any objects (iii) It is found beneath the sea-water and its origin
(4) He can see the object as normal eye does is same as that of coke
15. The green colour of eyes of a person is due to the (iv) It is generally found associated with oil fields
colour of Now, choose the correct option
(1) Iris (2) Pupil (1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) Only (i) and (ii)
(3) Sclera (4) Retina
(3) Only (ii) and (iii) (4) Only (iii) and (iv)
16. If an object is placed in between two parallel mirrors,
22. X is the main constituent of natural gas and is
then the total number of reflection of rays
highly inflammable. It is also a very efficient fuel.
perpendicular to the mirrors will be X is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) CH4 (2) C2H4
(3) 3 (4) Infinity
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H5
17. If a boy A of height 5 feet is standing at a distance
23. CNG is the abbreviation of
of 5 m in front of plane mirror, then the distance of
image of another boy B of height 10 feet standing at (1) Confined natural gas
the same place of A from the mirror will be (2) Controlled natural gas
(1) 5 meter from mirror (2) 10 meter from mirror (3) Compressed natural gas
(3) 15 meter from boy (4) 2 meter from mirror (4) Coal natural gas

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Test-4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
24. Consider the given statements 30. Which among the following represents the Alternate
source of energy?
Statement-1: Natural gas is used as a fuel for gas
turbines and steam boilers. (i) Solar energy
(ii) Geothermal energy
Statement-2: Natural gas is obtained during
fractional distillation of petroleum. (iii) Wind energy
Now, choose the correct option (iv) Nuclear energy
(1) Only (i) (2) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
(3) Both (i) and (ii) (4) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(2) Only statement-2 is correct
31. Consider the given equation
(3) Both the statements are incorrect
Process-'X'
Substance + O2
CO2 + Heat + Light
(4) Both the statements are correct
(Air)
25. CNG is preferred over other fossil fuels because
Process X is
(1) It is a liquid fuel (1) Reduction (2) Combustion
(2) It is a cleaner and less polluting fuel (3) Combination (4) Conservation
(3) It is an incompressible fuel 32. Match the following :
(4) It is widely used in power generation Column-I Column-II
a. Petroleum (i) Oxidation
26. Which of the following is not an advantage of natural
gas? b. Cow dung cake (ii) Non-combustible
c. Combustion (iii) Crude oil
(1) Being a complete fuel in itself, it can be directly
used for heating purposes d. Ceramics (iv) Solid fuel
Choose the correct option
(2) It can be used directly from gas wells through
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
pipelines to homes and factories
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) It is a cleaner and less polluting fuel
33. Which of the following is not an essential condition
(4) It is not used in the manufacture of various required for combustion?
chemicals (1) Presence of combustible matter
27. Natural gas is used as a source of a substance P (2) Presence of oxygen in excess
needed to manufacture urea. P is (3) Ignition temperature
(1) Carbon (2) Hydrogen (4) Presence of CO2 in excess
(3) Methane (4) Nitrogen 34. Substance Nature
28. X is a clean fuel used to run spaceships and some Kerosene Combustible
cars. Fuel X is Glass 'A'
(1) Hydrogen (2) Petrol Coal B
(3) Kerosene (4) Diesel Metal Non- combustible
29. Conservation of natural resources include(s) Complete the table by identifying A and B
(i) Rational use of resources (1) A Non-combustible
(ii) Inequitable use of resources B Combustible
(iii) Judicious use of resources (2) A Combustible
B Non-combustible
(iv) Overuse of resources
(3) A Combustible
Choose the correct option.
B Combustible
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) A Non-combustible
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (iii) and (iv) only B Non-combustible

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
35. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Rate of combustion depends on the light
available in the surroundings
(2) Rate of combustion does not depend on the
presence of supporter of combustion.
(3) Rate of combustion does not depend on ignition
temperature
(4) Rate of combustion is inversely related to
ignition temperature
36. Paper cup containing water doesnot start burning
even on continuous heating because the heat
supplied to the paper cup is transferred to water by
(1) Convection (2) Conduction
(3) Radiation (4) Ignition
37. The combustion in which a substance burns very
rapidly with the evolution of large amount of heat,
light and sound energy is called
(1) Explosion
(2) Spontaneous combustion
(3) Rapid combustion
(4) Combustibility
38. Which of the following is an example of spontaneous
combustion?
(1) Burning of crackers
(2) Burning of paper
(3) Burning of petrol in automobiles
(4) Burning of potassium when exposed to air
39. If the ignition temperature of X, Y and Z follows
X < Y < Z order then rate of combustion is highest
for
(1) Z (2) X
(3) Y (4) X and Z
40. PCRA advises people how to save petrol/diesel while
driving and gave following tips except
(1) Ensure regular check-up of vehicles
(2) Drive at very high speed, while roads are traffic
free
(3) Ensure correct tyre pressure
(4) Switch off the engine at traffic signals or at
places where you have to wait
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Test-4 (Code A)
41. The secretions of glands X and Y increase during
puberty because of which young girls and boys
develop acne and pimples. Identify X and Y.
(1) X Pituitary gland and Y Thyroid gland
(2) X Sweat glands and Y Sebaceous glands
(3) X Ovaries and Y Testes
(4) X Thyroid gland and Y Adrenal gland
42. Select the incorrect statements from the following.
(i) The height and body pattern of an individual
depends on the genes inherited from parents
(ii) Adolescence is a transition period between
childhood and old age
(iii) Adolescence in boys begins one or two years
earlier than in girls
(iv) The most conspicuous change during puberty is
the sudden increase in height
(v) The changes that occur during adolescence are
fast and mark the beginning of adulthood
(vi) Balanced diet during puberty is very essential
(1) (i), (iv) & (v) (2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) & (v) (4) (iii), (iv) & (v)
43. In boys, at puberty vocal cords become __(i)__ and
___(ii)___ due to the effect of ___(iii)___ hormone
because of which the voice becomes ___(iv)___.
(1) (i) Thick, (ii) Long, (iii) Testosterone, (iv) Heavy
(2) (i) Thin, (ii) Long, (iii) Testosterone, (iv) Deep
(3) (i) Thin, (ii) Short, (iii) Androgen, (iv) High
(4) (i) Thick, (ii) Short, (iii) Growth, (iv) Low pitched
44. A 10 years old girl is 127 cm tall. How much more
height would she gain to attain the full height?
[% of full height at this age is 84%]
(1) 50 cm (2) 24 cm
(3) 10 cm (4) 75 cm
45. Due to industrial waste discharge, a pond became
deficient in iodine. Which of the following would be
observed in this pond?
(1) The frogs would not lay eggs
(2) The eggs would not hatch
(3) The frogs would not be able to respire
(4) The tadpoles would not become adults
Test-4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

46. Pituitary gland 49. Select the correct set of words which can be used
to replace the underlined words (wherever necessary)
Secretes
to make them correct.
P
(i) Endocrine glands release their secretions
Testes Ovaries
through ducts.

Q R (ii) The first menstrual flow which begins at puberty

is known as menopause.

Released in blood stream (iii) Adam's apple is the enlarged larynx, which can
and reach target site be seen as a protruding part of throat in
adolescent boys.
Stimulate changes in the body (iv) At puberty, in girls, the ovaries start releasing
at the onset of puberty mature egg periodically.
Identify P, Q, R in the given flow chart.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) P Growth hormone, Q Male sex hormone,
(1) Exocrine Menopause Voice box Oviducts
R Female sex hormone
(2) Exocrine Menarche Larynx Ovaries
(2) P Gonadotropic hormone, Q Testosterone,
(3) Endocrine Menarche Voice box Ovaries
R Estrogen
(4) Endocrine Menopause Larynx Uterus
(3) P Thyroid stimulating hormone, Q Estrogen,
R Testosterone
50. Which of the following hormones controls
(4) P ACTH, Q Testosterone, R Progesterone metamorphosis in insects?
47. Statement-1: Chromosomes are present inside the (1) Ecdysone (2) Thyroxine
nucleus of every cell of an organism.
(3) Adrenaline (4) Growth hormone
Statement-2: The instruction for determining the sex
of the baby is present in the cytoplasm of zygote. 51. HIV does not spread from an infected person to a
healthy person by
Statement-3: The body cells of every human being,
whether male or female, possess 23 pairs of (1) Sharing syringes
chromosomes. (2) Sharing utensils and food
(1) Only statement-2 is incorrect (3) Blood transfusion
(2) Statements-2 & 3 are correct
(4) Unprotected sexual contact
(3) Only statement-3 is correct
52. Parents: XX (I)
(4) All the statements are correct
Gametes : X (II) & (III)
48. How many of the following events are included in
Zygote : (IV) XY
menstrual cycle?
Offsprings : Female Male
(i) Maturation of egg
(ii) Formation of yolk in eggs Identify I, II, III and IV in the given diagram.

(iii) Thickening of uterine wall (I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) XX Y X XY
(iv) Release of mature egg
(2) XY X X XX
(v) Growth of fertilized egg
(3) XX Y Y XY
(1) Two (2) Five
(4) XY X Y XX
(3) Three (4) Four

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
53. The given Venn diagram shows the secondary
sexual characteristics of boys, girls and common to
both boys and girls
Test-4 (Code A)
56. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. hormones
secreted by endocrine glands.
(1) They are poured directly into the blood stream

S (2) They are secreted in large quantity

D B
C Mb H
(3) They regulate the growth of the body
Bm G M (4) They co-ordinate all the activities of the body

Boys Girls 57. L is situated posterior to M. It secretes N which

regulates the phosphate and calcium levels of the
The characteristics are represented by the following
blood. L, M and N respectively, are
symbols.
Deep and heavy voice D (1) Thyroid gland, parathyroid gland and thyroxine
Development of breasts B (2) Parathyroid gland, thyroid gland and parathyroid
Menstruation starts M hormone

Shoulders broaden S (3) Adrenal gland, kidney and adrenaline

Muscular body Mb
Beard and moustaches Bm
Growth of hair in pubic region G
High pitched voice H
Growth of hair on chest C
How many characteristics are incorrectly placed in
the given Venn diagram?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Five
54. Select the correct set of words to complete the given
statements.
(i) Mammary glands develop inside the ________in
females.
(ii) The _______ gland is attached to the base of
the brain by a thin stalk.
(iii) In _______ the region below the waist becomes
wider at puberty.
(1) (i) Chest, (ii) Thyroid (iii) Girls
(2) (i) Breasts, (ii) Hypothalamus, (iii) Boys
(3) (i) Breasts, (ii) Pituitary, (iii) Girls
(4) (i) Chest, (ii) Pituitary, (iii) Boys
55. Which of the following will happen if the emergency
hormone is released into the blood stream?
(i) Less blood supply to body cells
(4) Pancreas, liver and insulin
58. Sanju's mother felt that he is not growing properly
according to his age and therefore took him to a
doctor. The doctor suggested him to take a balanced
diet and especially protein and iron rich food. Which
of the following food items should he include in his
diet?
(i) Jaggery, (ii) Milk, (iii) Meat, (iv) Butter, (v) Oats,
(vi) Leafy vegetables, (vii) Pulses
(1) (i), (iii) & (v) (2) (iii), (iv) & (vii)
(3) (i), (ii), (v) & (vii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii), (vi) & (vii)
59. Which of the following age groups is also referred as
teenager?
(1) 13 - 19 years (2) 12 - 20 years
(3) 10 - 15 years (4) 15 - 25 years
60. How many autosomes are present in a body cell of
humans?
(1) 23 pairs (2) 46 pairs
(3) 23 (4) 22 pairs
61. A 45 years old lady was suggested by the doctor to
take insulin injections as she was suffering from
diabetes. Which of the following glands is not
working properly in her body?

(ii) Faster heart beat (1) Liver (2) Pancreas

(iii) Increased muscle contraction (3) Thyroid gland (4) Adrenal gland
(iv) Shallow breathing 62. All of the following hormones are secreted by the
(v) More oxygen supply to muscle cells master gland, except
(1) (ii), (iii) & (v) (2) (i), (iii) & (iv) (1) GTH (2) TSH
(3) (ii) & (iv) only (4) (i), (ii) & (iii) (3) ACTH (4) PTH

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Test-4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
63. Which of the following hormones is responsible for 68. Which of the following is an exocrine gland?
changes that appear in boys during puberty? (1) Thyroid gland (2) Sweat gland
(1) Growth hormone (2) Testosterone (3) Pituitary gland (4) Adrenal gland
(3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone 69. Which of the following hormones is/are secreted by
64. The periodic shedding of inner uterine wall and the glands situated on the kidneys?
released egg, along with blood every month is called (i) Adrenaline, (ii) Insulin, (iii) Thyroxine,
(1) Menstruation (2) Pregnancy (iv) Estrogen (v) Corticoids, (vi) Progesterone
(1) (ii) only (2) (i) & (v)
(3) Puberty (4) Menopause
(3) (iv) & (vi) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
65. Y
100 70. In an examination students were asked to name the
respective hormones that have the following functions.
95
Percentage of full height

90 (i) It stimulates the gonads to secrete sex

hormones.
85
80 (ii) Responsible for development of breasts in
females.
75
70 (iii) Regulates the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates
and proteins.
65 X
Age (in years) Different students gave different answers.
Amit Ashima
Umang :(i) Gonadotropic hormone
The given graph shows the percentage of full height
of Amit and Ashima with their ages. What must be (ii) Estrogen
their ages when they have reached the 100% of their (iii) Thyroxine
height?
Parakh: (i) Adrenaline
(1) 20 years (2) 25 years
(ii) Progesterone
(3) 18 years (4) 10 years (iii) Thyroxine
66. In females, the reproductive phase of life begins at Anu : (i) Corticoids
___(i)___ of age and generally lasts till approximately
___(ii)___ of age. (ii) Progesterone
(iii) Growth hormone
(1) (i) 20 - 25 years and (ii) 55 - 60 years
Lakhan: (i) GTH
(2) (i) 15 - 25 years and (ii) 35 - 40 years
(ii) Estrogen
(3) (i) 10 - 13 years and (ii) 45 - 50 years
(iii) Adrenaline
(4) (i) 16 - 20 years and (ii) 65 - 70 years
Sana : (i) Insulin
67. A couple gave birth to a baby girl. The baby girl must
(ii) Estrogen
have inherited
(iii) Adrenaline
(1) A X-chromosome from the father and a
X-chromosome from the mother Kartik : (i) Thyroxine

(2) A Y-chromosome from the mother and a (ii) ACTH

Y-chromosome from the father (iii) Progesterone
(3) A Y-chromosome from the father and a How many students gave at least two correct
X-chromosome from the mother answers?
(4) A Y-chromosome from the mother and a (1) Two (2) Three
X-chromosome from the father (3) Four (4) Five

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
71. Statement-1 : The reproductive phase in humans
starts when the gonads mature and begin to produce
gametes.
Statement-2: In males, the capacity to produce
sperms lasts for a much longer time as compared to
females.
(1) Only statement-1 is correct
Test-4 (Code A)
76. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) Sex of the child will be determined by what they
inherit from their mother
(2) Menstrual cycle is controlled by increasing or
decreasing concentration of hormones like
estrogen

(2) Only statement-2 is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
72. During puberty, which of the following changes in
body shape are observed in boys?
(i) Region below the waist becomes wider
(ii) Chest and shoulder become wide and broad
(3) During adolescence the brain has the greatest
capacity to observe and learn
(4) The period of adolescence is marked by mental
and intellectual development
77. Water and electrolyte balance in the body are
regulated by
(1) Insulin (2) Adrenaline

(iii) Prominent growth in the muscles of the body (3) Parathyroid hormone (4) Corticoids
(iv) Curves in certain body parts 78. How many of the following should not be included in
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii) the daily diet by children?
(3) (iii) & (iv) (4) (i) & (iv) Meat, Milk, Chips, Burger, Pulses, Cold drinks,
73. Attachment of fertilized egg to the walls of uterus Canned food, Nuts, Green vegetables.
results into
(1) Four (2) Five
(1) Pregnancy (2) Menstruation
(3) Menopause (4) Menarche (3) Three (4) Six

74. Which of the following is advisable for a person 79. Ankit's parents were worried as his height was not
suffering from goitre? increasing according to his age. Deficiency of which
(1) Taking iodine rich diet of the following hormones is responsible for this?

(2) Taking only protein rich diet (1) Adrenaline (2) Growth hormone
(3) Taking fruits having high water content (3) Insulin (4) Progesterone
(4) Avoiding iodine in the diet 80. In which of the following conditions the thyroid gland
75. Which of the following is a balanced food in itself? becomes very large and bulges out?
(1) Jaggery (2) Meat (1) Dwarfism (2) Diabetes
(3) Milk (4) Nuts (3) Goitre (4) Malnutrition

[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. Which of the following is a hexahedron? 82. The ratio of the areas of two squares, one having its
diagonal four times that of the other can be
(1) 2 : 15 (2) 4 : 1
(1) (2)
(3) 1 : 16 (4) 3 : 4
83. The third proportional to 11 and 22 is

(1) 11 2 (2) 40
(3) (4)
(3) 22 2 (4) 44

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Test-4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

84. The unit digit of the number of edges of a pentagonal 92. The distance travelled by a freely falling body is
pyramid is directly proportional to the square of the time taken.
If a body covers 150 m in 5 seconds, then the
(1) 5 (2) 0
distance that the body covers in the 6th second is
(3) 2 (4) 8
(1) 52 m (2) 66 m
85. The area of a trapezium is 95 cm2 and its height is
5 cm. If one of the parallel sides is longer than the (3) 90 m (4) 98 m
other by 2 cm, then the sum of the digits of the 93. The area of the metal used in making an open
length of one of the parallel sides is cuboidal box opened at the top of dimensions
(1) 7 (2) 8 4 cm 3 cm 2 cm is

(3) 6 (4) 9 (1) 24 cm2 (2) 28 cm2

86. If p varies directly as q3 + 6 and p = 3 when q = 2, (3) 40 cm2 (4) 52 cm2

then the value of p when q = 1 is
94. If l, m and n are distinct non-zero numbers and are
(1) 2.8 (2) 3 in continued proportion, then which of the following
(3) 1.5 (4) 4.5 is not equal to l : n?

87. The faces of a regular octahedron are ____ triangles. (1) (m2 + l2) : (m2 + n2) (2) (m2 l2) : (n2 m2)

(1) Obtuse angled (2) Equilateral (3) l2 : m2 (4) m2 : (n + l)

(3) Scalene (4) Acute angled 95. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of
height 14 m is 2464 m2. The radius of the cylinder
88. There is a rectangular plot of dimensions
is
40 m 20 m. Two trenches of width 4 m and depth
2 m are dug, one along the entire length and the (1) 12 m (2) 28 m
other along the entire breadth. The mud dug out is (3) 20 m (4) 36 m
spread uniformly on the remaining plot. The increase
in the height of the remaining plot is 96. The total number of diagonals connecting two
vertices that do not lie on the same face of a
(1) 1.2 m (2) 5 m rectangular prism is

7 1 (1) 4 (2) 6
(3) m (4) m
9 2 (3) 2 (4) 1
89. Both m and n vary inversely with each other. When 97. In the given figure, EW = SI and WI = ES. If
m is 16, n is 5. Which of the following is not a EI = 13 cm and SA = 4 cm, then the area of the
possible pair of corresponding values of m and n? quadrilateral WISE is
(1) 1.25 and 64 (2) 32 and 2.5 W I
(3) 200 and 0.4 (4) 4.5 and 17 A
90. The sum of the number of vertices and the number
of faces of a square prism is
(1) 6 (2) 14 E S
(1) 26 cm2 (2) 52 cm2
(3) 8 (4) 12
91. If the length, breadth and the longest diagonal of a (3) 48 cm2 (4) 36 cm2
cuboid are 12 cm, 3 cm and 13 cm respectively, 98. Sunaina can cover a certain distance in 2 hours 16
then the total surface area of the cuboid is not minutes by covering two-fifth of the distance at
divisible by 3 km/h and the rest at 4 km/h. The total distance is
(1) 64 (2) 24 (1) 8 km (2) 4 km
(3) 32 (4) 18 (3) 6 km (4) 10 km

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
99. The front view of the given figure is
Test-4 (Code A)
103. A deposit of ` 2060 earns a simple interest of ` 515
in 4 years. Let the deposit of ` 36512 earns an
interest of ` I in 4 years with the same rate of
simple interest. If x is the difference of first two digits
and the last two digits of I, then the tens digit of x
is ______ times its units digit.

(1) Three (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Five

104. If 1 cu. cm of cast iron weighs 20 grams, then the

weight of a cast iron pipe of length 1 m with a bore
of 5 cm and in which the thickness of the metal is
2 cm, is

(1) 28.4 kg (2) 52 kg

(1) (2) (3) 88 kg (4) 90.8 kg

105. For the given table, which of the following satisfies

the Euler's formula?

Faces (F) 12 (ii) 17 15

Vertices (V) (i) 10 13 (iv)

(3) (4) Edges (E) 19 31 (iii) 23

(1) (i) 9, (ii) 23, (iii) 28, (iv) 9

100. An ink pen with a cylindrical barrel of diameter 3 cm (2) (i) 9, (ii) 23, (iii) 28, (iv) 10
and height 14 cm can write 2970 words. How many
words can be written using a 400 ml bottle? (3) (i) 9, (ii) 24, (iii) 10, (iv) 28

(1) 12000 (4) (i) 9, (ii) 23, (iii) 10, (iv) 28

(2) 18000 106. The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the

pressure when the temperature is constant and
(3) 24368 directly proportional to the temperature when the
(4) 16789 pressure is constant. When the temperature is 50 K
and the pressure is 74 atm., then the volume is
101. The cost of a stone varies directly as the square root 300 L. The pressure when the temperature and the
of its weight. The stone broke into three pieces volume are 60 K and 600 L respectively is
whose weights are in the ratio 9 : 16 : 144. As a
result, its value went up by ` 24000. Its initial value (1) 52 atm. (2) 48 atm.
is (3) 44.4 atm. (4) 32.6 atm.
(1) ` 28000 (2) ` 48000 107. The length, breadth and height of a cuboidal block
are 10 m, 8 m and 14 m respectively. A cylindrical
(3) ` 52000 (4) ` 16000
hole of radius 3.5 m is drilled across the height of
102. If each edge of a cube is increased by 75%, then the block. The total surface area of the solid thus
the percentage increase in its surface area is formed is

(1) 125% (2) 206.25% (1) 618 m2 (2) 784 m2

(3) 200% (4) 180.75% (3) 712 m2 (4) 895 m2

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Test-4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
108. In a camp, there is food provision for 240 cadets for 113. In the given rectangle SURE, A and B are the
120 days. When 210 more persons join the camp, mid-points of the sides SE and ER respectively. Let
then the food lasts for x days. If 4n = x, then the the ratio of the area of UAB to the area of SAU
value of n + 1 is
(1) 4 (2) 3 p2 q 2
be p : q. Then, is equal to (p q)
(3) 5 (4) 2 p2 q 2
109. If for an object, the following three views are shown,
S U
then the object will be

E B R
13 9
Side view Top view Front view (1) (2)
5 5
7 5
(3) (4)
3 3
(1) (2)
114. If x, y, z and t are non-zero numbers such that

1 1 m2
2
2
and t2 + y2 = m2x2, then which of
x z y2
the following are in proportion?
(3) (4)
(1) x2, t, z and y2 (2) x2, t2, z2, and y2

110. Which of the following operations done to 53, 424, (3) x, t2, z2 and y2 (4) x, t, z2 and y2
42 and 334 will make the result in proportion? 115. The volume of a cuboid is 11520 cm3 and the length
(1) Adding 2 to 334 of the cuboid is 32 cm. If the ratio of its breadth and
(2) Adding 2 to 424 its height is 2 : 5, then the height of the cuboid is
(3) Adding 1 to 42 (1) 12 cm (2) 14 cm
(4) Adding 2 to 53 (3) 16 cm (4) 30 cm
111. The sum of the radius of the base and the height of
116. Which of the following is incorrect?
a cylinder is 48 cm. If the total surface area of the
cylinder is 2112 cm2, then the volume of the cylinder (1) A prism is called a regular prism if its ends are
is regular polygons
(1) 2310 cm3 (2) 12628 cm3 (2) There are five platonic solids
(3) 7392 cm3 (4) 6314 cm3
(3) Quadrilateral pyramid has 6 faces
112. The net of a cube such that the opposite faces have
a sum of 7 is (4) Solid shapes bounded by polygons are called
polyhedrons
2 3 117. A certain number of men can do a work in 25 days
2 1 5 4 working 10 hours a day. If the number of men is
(1) 3 5 4 1 (2)
6 1
6 decreased by , then in how many days can thrice
3
1 3 the previous work be completed by the remaining
men working 5 hours a day?
(3) 2 3 5 4 (4) 5 1 2 4
(1) 225 (2) 75
6 6 (3) 150 (4) 200

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-4 (Code A)

118. The volume of a cuboid is 256 cm3. The length, 119. If p, q, r and s are non-zero numbers which are in
breadth and height have integral values greater than 3 p 5s
continued proportion, then equals (5p 6s)
1 cm. The minimum possible lateral surface area of 5 p 6s
the cuboid (in cm2), if its breadth is not less than its
27 p3 125q 3 3 p3 5q 3
height is (1) 3 3 (2)
5 p 6q 5 p3 6q 3
(1) 160 cm2 p3 q 3 p3 q 3
(3) (4)
9 p3 25q 3 25 p3 6q 3
(2) 128 cm2 120. The ratio of the volume of two cubes is 9261 : 24389.
If the ratio (in its lowest terms) of their lateral
(3) 96 cm2 surface areas is m : n, then the value of m + n is
(1) 1202 (2) 1802
(4) 92 cm2
(3) 1282 (4) 2042

[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
Direction (Q.121 to Q.124): Find the next term in the
following patterns.
?
121. 786, 809, 832, 855, 878, 901, ?
126.
(1) 925 (2) 924
(3) 945 (4) 930
122. 25, 49, 81, 121, 169,?
(1) (2)
(1) 179 (2) 289
(3) 225 (4) 256
123. 17, 21, 30, 46, 71, ? (3) (4)
(1) 100 (2) 105
(3) 102 (4) 107 ?
124. 1782, 2071, 2361, 2652, 2944,?
127.
(1) 3237 (2) 3347
(3) 3327 (4) 3657
Direction (Q.125 to Q.127): In the following questions (1) (2)
choose a correct option to complete the given figure.

(3) (4)

128. 2 : 6 :: 4 : 10 :: 7 : 16 :: 9 : ?
125.
? (1) 20 (2) 17
(3) 22 (4) 18

(1) (2) 129. Bank is related to Money in the same way as

Transport is related to
(1) Goods (2) Road
(3) (4)
(3) Terrace (4) Floor

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Test-4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
130. AZB : BYC :: CXD : ? 135. How many smaller cubes are painted on more than
(1) DEF (2) DFG one surfaces?
(3) DWE (4) DMN (1) 28 (2) 36
Direction :(Q.131 & Q.132) Choose from the options, (3) 32 (4) 44
the dice that will be formed when figure (X) is folded.
Direction :( Q.136 to Q.138): Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around
@
the round table facing towards the centre but not
% necessarily in order. H is sitting opposite to G and right
of C. E is sitting opposite to the D, who is sitting right of
131. B. F is sitting opposite to C, who is sittings right of D.
&
136. Who is sitting opposite to B?
(X) (1) C (2) A
& @ (3) F (4) D
(1) %@ (2)
137. Who is sitting left of G?
(1) D (2) B
%
(3) C (4) F
(3) & % (4)
138. Starting from A on moving clockwise the position of
G is

132. (1) 6th (2) 7th

(3) 4th (4) 5th
(X)
Direction :(Q.139 to Q.141): Read the given information
carefully and answer the following questions.
(1) (2) Sams house is 21 km away in the south of Trishlas
house. Jimmys house 21 2 km away in north-east
direction of Sams house. Reshus house is 28 km away

(3) (4) in the north of Jimmys house.

139. The distance between Trishla and Jimmys house is
133. Make the following equation correct by interchanging
(1) 25 km (2) 28 km
two signs:
35 + 14 2 25 5 = 12 (3) 20 km (4) 21 km

(1) + and (2) and + 140. The position of Reshus house with respect to the
Sams house is
(3) and + (4) and
(1) South
Direction :(Q.134 & Q.135): A cube is painted
blue on its all faces and then cut into 125 small (2) North-east
cubes of equal size. Now answer the following (3) East
questions. (4) South-east
134. How many smaller cubes are painted on three
141. The distance between Reshu and Trishlas house is
surfaces?
(1) 8 (2) 16 (1) 35 km (2) 28 km

(3) 14 (4) 22 (3) 25 km (4) 21 km

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-4 (Code A)

Directions (Q.142 to Q.145): Find the mirror image in the Direction (Q.146 to Q.148): Find the missing character
following questions. in the following number puzzles.

2 3 5
146. 4 8 6 27 8 125
142. 64 216 ?

(1) 343 (2) 512

(3) 521 (4) 522
(1) (2)
3 6 4 8 5 9
147.

81 144 ?
(3) (4)
(1) 196 (2) 189
(3) 225 (4) 289
143. TIME TABLE
35 189 ?
(1) (2)
148. 2 3 4 5 3 6
(3) (4)
(1) 434 (2) 343
144. 9212387116 (3) 143 (4) 243
149. If GLANCE = ALGECN, then FLOWER =?
(1) (2)
(1) LOFRWE (2) FOLWRE
(3) (4) (3) OLFREW (4) OLWREF
150. In a certain code COURAGE is written as
145. @#$%^&*+/
SGADUOQ, then how would LANTERN be written in
the same code?
(1) (2)
(1) JUHQBHD (2) HUJBQHD
(3) (4) (3) JUHBQHD (4) JUHBQDH

  

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Test-4 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

Test Date : 20-12-2015 TEST - 4

ANSWERS
1. (3) 31. (2) 61. (2) 91. (4) 121. (2)
2. (3) 32. (3) 62. (4) 92. (2) 122. (3)
3. (2) 33. (4) 63. (2) 93. (3) 123. (4)
4. (2) 34. (1) 64. (1) 94. (4) 124. (1)
5. (1) 35. (4) 65. (3) 95. (2) 125. (2)
6. (3) 36. (2) 66. (3) 96. (1) 126. (4)
7. (1) 37. (1) 67. (1) 97. (2) 127. (3)
8. (2) 38. (4) 68. (2) 98. (1) 128. (1)
9. (4) 39. (2) 69. (2) 99. (3) 129. (1)
10. (2) 40. (2) 70. (1) 100. (1) 130. (3)
11. (3) 41. (2) 71. (3) 101. (3) 131. (4)
12. (1) 42. (3) 72. (2) 102. (2) 132. (2)
13. (2) 43. (1) 73. (1) 103. (2) 133. (3)
14. (3) 44. (2) 74. (1) 104. (3) 134. (1)
15. (1) 45. (4) 75. (3) 105. (2) 135. (4)
16. (4) 46. (2) 76. (1) 106. (3) 136. (2)
17. (1) 47. (3) 77. (4) 107. (4) 137. (4)
18. (4) 48. (3) 78. (1) 108. (1) 138. (1)
19. (3) 49. (2) 79. (2) 109. (4) 139. (4)
20. (1) 50. (1) 80. (3) 110. (1) 140. (2)
21. (1) 51. (2) 81. (1) 111. (4) 141. (1)
22. (1) 52. (4) 82. (3) 112. (3) 142. (4)
23. (3) 53. (2) 83. (4) 113. (1) 143. (2)
24. (1) 54. (3) 84. (2) 114. (2) 144. (3)
25. (2) 55. (1) 85. (4) 115. (4) 145. (1)
26. (4) 56. (2) 86. (3) 116. (3) 146. (2)
27. (2) 57. (2) 87. (2) 117. (1) 147. (1)
28. (1) 58. (4) 88. (3) 118. (3) 148. (4)
29. (3) 59. (1) 89. (4) 119. (2) 149. (3)
30. (2) 60. (4) 90. (2) 120. (3) 150. (4)

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-4 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]
1. Answer (3) 10. Answer (2)
M2
Initial separation between the object and image
= 10 + 10 = 20 cm C N A

Finally the separation between object and image =

20 + 20 = 40 m
i
55 35
20 1 O M1
Hence, the ratio = B
40 2
For the reflection on mirror M1,
2. Answer (3) In COB
3. Answer (2) CBO = 180 (90 + 55)
= 35
For the dispersion of white light through the prism
the order of rays: VIBGYOR. The fifth ray is yellow. NBC = 90 35

4. Answer (2) i = 55
11. Answer (3)
5. Answer (1)
12. Answer (1)
6. Answer (3)
13. Answer (2)
As the reflected ray from the mirror does not reach 14. Answer (3)
to the eye. So man cannot see the object.
15. Answer (1)
16. Answer (4)
O I 17. Answer (1)
18. Answer (4)
30
30 19. Answer (3)
d 20. Answer (1)
21. Answer (1)
22. Answer (1)
23. Answer (3)
24. Answer (1)
25. Answer (2)
7. Answer (1) 26. Answer (4)

360 27. Answer (2)

No of image = 9
28. Answer (1)
29. Answer (3)
360
40 30. Answer (2)
9
31. Answer (2)
8. Answer (2) 32. Answer (3)
9. Answer (4) 33. Answer (4)

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Test-4 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
34. Answer (1) 54. Answer (3)
35. Answer (4) 55. Answer (1)

36. Answer (2) Adrenaline is the emergency hormone.

56. Answer (2)
37. Answer (1)
Hormones are secreted in small quantity.
38. Answer (4)
57. Answer (2)
39. Answer (2)
L Parathyroid gland, M Thyroid gland and
40. Answer (2) N Parathyroid hormone.
41. Answer (2) 58. Answer (4)
X Sweat glands and Y Sebaceous glands 59. Answer (1)
60. Answer (4)
42. Answer (3)
A pair of sex chromosomes is present in a body cell
43. Answer (1)
of humans.
Vocal cords become thick and long at puberty in 61. Answer (2)
males.
Insulin is secreted by pancreas.
44. Answer (2)
62. Answer (4)
Formula to calculate full height is PTH is parathyroid hormone.

Present height (cm) 63. Answer (2)

100
% of full height at this age 64. Answer (1)
65. Answer (3)
127 By about 18 years of age both boys and girls
100 = 151 cm
84 achieve their maximum height.

151 127 = 24 cm 66. Answer (3)

67. Answer (1)
45. Answer (4)
68. Answer (2)
Metamorphosis in frogs is controlled by thyroxine
which requires iodine in water. Exocrine glands release their secretions through
ducts.
46. Answer (2)
69. Answer (2)
P Gonadotropic hormone (GTH), Q Testosterone Adrenal glands are situated on the kidneys.
and, R Estrogen
70. Answer (1)
47. Answer (3)
71. Answer (3)
48. Answer (3) 72. Answer (2)
The menstrual cycle includes maturation of egg, 73. Answer (1)
release of mature egg, thickening of uterine wall to
74. Answer (1)
receive the fertilized egg and its breakdown if
pregnancy does not occur. Goitre is caused by deficiency of thyroxine.

49. Answer (2) 75. Answer (3)

76. Answer (1)
50. Answer (1)
The father is responsible for the sex of the child.
51. Answer (2)
77. Answer (4)
HIV causes AIDS.
78. Answer (1)
52. Answer (4) 79. Answer (2)
53. Answer (2) 80. Answer (3)

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-4 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)

[ MATHEMATICS ]

81. Answer (1) Now, 192 = 26 3

82. Answer (3) = 64 3
83. Answer (4) = 24 23
84. Answer (2) = 32 6
Out of the given options, only 18 does not
85. Answer (4)
divide 192.
86. Answer (3) 92. Answer (2)
87. Answer (2) Distance travelled (d) by a freely falling body is directly
88. Answer (3) proportional to the square of the time taken (t).
Area of the rectangular plot = 40 20 = 800 m2
d1 d2

Surface area of the trench t12 t 22
= (20 4) + (40 4) (4 4) 150 d2
2

= 80 + 160 16 (5) (6)2
= 224 m2 150 (6)2
d2 =
Area of the remaining portion of the plot = 800 224 (5)2
= 576 m2 = 216
Volume of the mud dug out = 224 2 = 448 m3 Distance travelled in the 6th second
Rise in the level of the remaining plot = 216 150 = 66 m
Volume of the mud dug out 93. Answer (3)
= 94. Answer (4)
Area of the remaining plot
As l, m and n are in continued proportion.
448
=
576 l m

m n
7 m2 = ln (i)
= m
9
m2 l 2 ln l 2
89. Answer (4) Now, [Using (i)]
m2 n 2 ln n 2
90. Answer (2)
l (l n )
91. Answer (4) =
n(l n )
Length of the longest diagonal of the cuboid is 13 cm.
l
=
2 2 2
l b h 13 n
m2 l 2 ln l 2
2 2 2
(12) (3) h 13 [Using (i)]
n 2 m2 n 2 ln
144 9 h2 13 l (n l )
=
n(n l )
153 h 2 169
l
h2 = 16 =
n
h = 4 cm
l2 l2 l
The total surface area of the cuboid
= 2(lb + bh + hl) m2 ln n
= 2(12 3 + 3 4 + 4 12) m2 ln l

= 192 cm2 n 1 n 1 n

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Test-4 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
95. Answer (2) 104. Answer (3)

96. Answer (1) 5

Inner radius = = 2.5 cm
2
97. Answer (2)
Outer radius = 4.5 cm
98. Answer (1)
Volume of iron
99. Answer (3) = (4.5)2 100 (2.5)2 100

100. Answer (1) 22

= 100 (4.5)2 (2.5)2
7
22 3 3
Volume of the barrel = 14 22
7 2 2 = 100 14
7
= 99 cm3
= 4400 cm3
Number of words written using 99 cm3 of ink is
20
2970. Weight of the pipe = 4400 kg
1000
Number of words written with 400 ml i.e., 400 cm3
= 88 kg
2970
bottle is 400 12000 105. Answer (2)
99
106. Answer (3)
101. Answer (3) 1
V , when T is constant
The cost (C) of the stone varies directly as the P
square root of its weight(W). Also, V T, when P is constant

C = K W , where K is a proportionality T
V
constant P

Let the weights of the pieces be 9x, 16x and 144x PV

1 1 PV
2 2
respectively. T1 T2

Gain = k ( 9 x 16 x 144 x 9 x 16 x 144 x ) 74 300 P2 600

50 60
= k (3 x 4 x 12 x 13 x ) P2 = 44.4 atm.
107. Answer (4)
= 6k x Total surface area of the solid thus formed is
= 2(lb + bh + hl) 2r2 + 2rh, where l = 10 m,
According to the question,
b = 8 m, h = 14 m, r = 3.5 m and h = 14 m.

6k x 24000 Total surface area of the solid thus formed

22 35 35
= 2(10 8 + 8 14 + 14 10) 2 +
k x 4000 7 10 10
22 35
2 14
13k x 52000 7 10
= 2(332) 77 + 308
102. Answer (2)
= 895 m2
103. Answer (2) 108. Answer (1)

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All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII) Test-4 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)
109. Answer (4) 115. Answer (4)
110. Answer (1) 116. Answer (3)
111. Answer (4)
117. Answer (1)
112. Answer (3)
118. Answer (3)
113. Answer (1)
S 2x U Volume of the cuboid = 256 cm3
y = 28 cm3
A 2y According to the given conditions, there are only
y
three possibilities of l, b and h:
E B R
x x 8 cm, 8 cm, 4 cm; 16 cm, 8 cm, 2 cm; 32 cm,
Area of UAB = Area of rectangle SURE Area of 4 cm, 2 cm.
triangle USA Area of triangle AEB Area of The minimum possible lateral surface area of the
triangle URB cuboid (in cm2), if its breadth in not less than its
height is possible when l = 16 cm, b = 8 cm and
= (2x 2y) 1 2 x y 1 y x 1 2y x
2 2 2 h = 2 cm

xy Now, 2(l + b)h = 2(16 + 8)2

= 4xy xy xy
2 = 96 cm2
xy
= 2xy 119. Answer (2)
2
3 xy p, q, r and s are in continued proportion,
= sq. units
2 p q r

3 q r s
xy
p 2 3
Now,
q xy 2 q2
r (i)
2 p
p 9
2

q 4 qr
and s (ii)
p
p2 q 2 9 4 13
2 2

p q 94 5 5qr
3p
114. Answer (2) 3 p 5s p
[Using (ii)]
5 p 6s 6qr
1 1 m 2 5p
p
2 2
x z y2
2 2 2
3 p2 5qr
z x m =
5 p2 6qr
x 2 z2 y2
z2y2 + x2y2 = m2x2z2 5q.q 2
3 p2
z2y2 + x2y2 = (t2 + y2)z2 [ m2x2 = t2 + y2] p
= [Using (i)]
6q.q 2
z2y2 + x2y2 = t2z2 + y2z2 5 p2
p
x2y2 = t2z2

x2 z2 3 p3 5q 3
=
5 p3 6q 3
t2 y2
x2, t2, z2 and y2 are in proportion. 120. Answer (3)

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Test-4 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
121. Answer (2) 135. Answer (4)
786 + 23 = 809, 809 + 23 = 832 Two surface painted = 12 (n 2)
832 + 23 = 855, 855 + 23 = 878 = 12 3 = 36
878 + 23 = 901, 901 + 23 = 924 (When n is cube root of number of smaller cubes)
122. Answer (3) Three surface painted = 8
52, 72, 92, 112, 132, 152 136. Answer (2)
123. Answer (4) H
17 + 22 = 21, 21 + 32 = 30, 30 + 42 = 46, A C
46 + 52 = 71, 71 + 62 = 107
E D
124. Answer (1)
1782 + 289 = 2071, 2071 + 290 = 2361,
F B
2361 + 291 = 2652, 2652 + 292 = 2944, G
2944 + 293 = 3237 137. Answer (4)
125. Answer (2) 138. Answer (1)
126. Answer (4) 139. Answer (4)
127. Answer (3) Reshu's House
128. Answer (1)
km

28 km
a : 2a + 2 35
129. Answer (1) Trishla's House Jimmy's House
21 km
21 km

130. Answer (3)

21 2 km
+1 1
Sam's House
A Z B : B Y C 140. Answer (2)
141. Answer (1)
+1
142. Answer (4)
1 143. Answer (2)
144. Answer (3)
C X D : D W E
145. Answer (1)

+1 +1 146. Answer (2)

131. Answer (4) 147. Answer (1)

132. Answer (2) 148. Answer (4)
133. Answer (3) 32 + 63 = 243
On charging sign, we get 149. Answer (3)
35 14 2 + 25 5 150. Answer (4)
= 35 28 + 5 COURAGE
= 12 SGADIAQ
134. Answer (1) Position sum is 22
  

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