Auditing Theory Test Bank
An auditor's working papers will generally be least likely to
Select the best answer for each of the following
questions.
1. Broadly defined, the subject matter of any audit consists of
a)Financial statements
b) Economic data
c) Assertions
d) Operating data
2. The third standard of field work states that sufficient
competent evidential matter may in part be obtained
through the following methods except
a) Inspection
b) Observation
c) Confirmation
d) Reconciliation
3. If an auditor believes that material error or fraud exist, the
auditor should
a) Consider the implications and discuss the matter with
appropriate levels of management
b) Make the investigation necessary to determine whether
errors or fraud have in fact occurred
c) Request that management investigate whether errors or
fraud have in fact occurred
d) Consider whether errors or fraud where the result of
employee's failure to comply with specific controls
4. Which of the following is not normally performed in the
pre-planning or pre-engagement phase?
a) Deciding whether to accept or reject an audit engagement
b) Inquiring from predecessor auditor
c) Preparing an engagement letter
d) Making a preliminary estimate of materiality
5. On the basis of the audit evidence gathered and
evaluated, an auditor decides to increase the assessed level
of control risk from that originally planned. To achieve an
overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as the
planned audit risk level, the auditor would
a) Decrease substantive testing
b) Increase inherent risk
c) Decrease detection risk
d) Increase materiality levels
6. An effective internal control
a) Cannot be circumvented by management
b) Can reduce the cost of an external audit
c) Can prevent collusion among employees
d) Eliminates risks and potential loss to the organization
7. In auditing through a computer, the test data method is
used by auditors to test the
a) Accuracy of input data
b) Validity of the output
c) Procedures contained within the program
d) Normalcy of distribution of test data
8.
include documentation showing how the
a) Client's schedules were prepared
b) Engagement had been planned
c) Client's system of internal control had been reviewed and
evaluated
d) Unusual matters were resolved
9. Which of the following sampling methods would be most
appropriate in performing tests of controls over
authorization of cash disbursements
a) Attributes
b) Variables
c) Ratio
d) Stratified
10. Analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of
an audit generally include
a) Considering unusual or unexpected account balances
that were not previously identified
b) Performing test of transactions to corroborate
management's financial statement assertions
c) Gathering evidence concerning account balances that
have not changed from the prior year
d) Re-testing control procedures that appeared to be
ineffective during the assessment of control risk
11. Results of the financial statement audit are
communicated to users through
a) Financial statement
b) Written management assertion
c) Audit report
d) None of the above
12. What is the primary difference between financial
reporting risk and audit risk?
a) The application of accounting principles
b) Responsibilities of the respective parties involved
c) Demands of users of financial statements
d) Risks of being sued by third parties
13. Relationship between control risk and detection risk is
ordinarily
a) Parallel
b) Inverse
c) Direct
d) Equal
14. A representation letter issued by a client
a) Is essential for the preparation of the audit program
b) Is a substitute for testing
c) Does not reduce the auditor's responsibility
d) Reduces the auditor's responsibility only to the extent that
it is relied upon
15. The recruitment of senior management for an assurance
client, such as those in a position to affect the subject of the
assurance engagement may least likely create
a) Self-interest threat
b) Advocacy threat
c) Intimidation threat
d) Familiarity threat
16. In reviewing the audit work performed, the engagement
partner
a) Must review all audit documentation
b) Need not review all audit documentation, but may do
so
c) Need not review all audit documentation
d) Must ask the staff performing the audit work to sign the
audit report
17. The independent auditor lends credibility to clients
financial statements by
a) Maintaining a clear-cut distinction between managements
representations and the auditors representation
b) Testifying under oath about clients financial statements
c) Stating in the auditors management letter that the
examination was made in accordance with generally
accepted auditing standards
d) Attaching an auditors opinion to the clients financial
statements
18. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect is fraud
based on
a) The over-recording of transactions
b) The non-recording of transactions
c) Recorded transactions in subsidiaries
d) Related party receivables
19. Assuming a recurring audit, in which of the following
situations would the auditor be unlikely to send a new
engagement letter to the client?
a) A recent change in partner and/or staff involved in
the audit engagement
b) A change in the terms of engagement
c) A recent change of client management
d) A significant change in the nature or size of the client's
business
20. When an auditor expresses an adverse opinion
he/sheshould disclose the substantive reasons for such
anopinion in an explanatory paragraph
a) Within the notes to the financial statements
b) Preceding the opinion paragraph
c) Following the opinion paragraph
d) Preceding the introductory paragraph
21. Tolerable error means
a) An error that arises from an isolated event that has not
recurred other than on specifically identifiable occasions and
is therefore not representative of errors in the population
b) An error that the auditor expects to be present in the
population
c) The maximum error in a population that the auditor is
willing to accept
d) The possibility that the auditor's conclusion, based on a
sample may be different from the conclusion reached if the
entire population were subjected to the same audit
procedure
22. Examples of events or conditions, which individually or
collectively, may cast significant doubt about the going
concern assumption include the following except
a) Net liability or net current liability position
b) Change from credit to cash-on-delivery transactions with
suppliers
c) Labor difficulties or shortages of important supplies
d) Compliance with capital or other statutory
requirements
23. Which of the following procedures is not included in a
review engagement on a nonpublic entity
a) Inquiries of management
b) Inquiries regarding events subsequent to the balance
sheet date
c) Any procedures designed to identify relationships among
data that appear to be unusual
d) A study and evaluation of internal control structure
24. In planning the audit engagement, the auditor should
consider each of the following except
a) The kind of opinion that will likely be given
b) Matters relating to the entitys business and the industry
in which it operates
c) The entitys accounting policies and procedures
d) Anticipated levels of control risk and materiality
25. What assurance is provided by the practitioner in an
agreed-upon procedures engagement?
a) Reasonable
b) Absolute
c) Moderate
d) No assurance
26. To test for unsupported entries in the journal, the
direction of audit testing should be from the
a) Journal entries
b) Ledger entries
c) Original source documents
d) Externally generated documents
27. For good internal control, the purchasing department
should not be responsible for
a) Authorizing the acquisition of goods
b) Finding the lowest cost vendor
c) Reviewing the vendors catalog descriptions and prices for
standardized items
d) Designing the purchase order form
28. Involves tracing a few transactions through the
accounting system
a) Test of controls
b) Walk-through test
c) Analytical procedures
d) Substantive procedures
29. This exists, when other information, not related to
matters appearing in the financial statements, is incorrectly
stated or presented
a) Material inconsistency
b) Material misstatement
c) Material misstatement of fact
d) Material error affecting the other information
30. Who appoints the members of the Board of Accountancy
a) The chairman of BOA
b) The president of the Philippines
c) The chairman of the PRC
d) The president of PICPA
31. An auditor is required to obtain an understanding of the
entity's business, including business cycles and reasons for
business fluctuations. What is the audit purpose most
directly served by obtaining this understanding?
a) To enable the auditor to accurately identify significant
deficiencies in internal control
b) To assist the auditor in accurately interpreting
information obtained during an audit
c) To allow the auditor to more accurately perform tests of
controls
d) To decide whether it will be necessary to perform
analytical procedures
32. Which of the following is not true about the report
release date?
a) It is defined as the date after which existing
documentation must not be deleted, and additions to
the documentation file must be documented as such
b) It is often the date on which the report is delivered to the
client
c) It is the date on which the auditor grants the client
permission to use the report
d) It is used to define the beginning of the retention period
33. An auditor should not issue a report on
a) Quarterly financial information
b) Internal control
c) Management performance
d) The achievability of forecasts
34. Which of the following procedures would an auditor
most likely perform to obtain evidence about the occurrence
of subsequent events?
a) Confirming a sample of material accounts receivable
established after year-end
b) Comparing the financial statements being reported on
with those of the prior period
c) Investigating personnel changes in the accounting
department occurring after year-end
d) Inquiring as to whether any unusual adjustments were
made after year-end
35. To which of the following matters would materiality
limits not apply when obtaining written client
representations?
a) Violations of state labor regulations
b) Disclosure of line-of-credit arrangements
c) Information about related party transactions
d) Instances of fraud involving management
36. Who ultimately determines the scope of the audit?
a) The auditor
b) The client
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
37. Financial statements prepared in accordance with a
financial reporting framework designed to meet the financial
information needs of specific users are referred to as
a) Special purpose financial statements
b) Special purpose framework
c) General purpose financial statements
d) Specific purpose financial statements
38. An auditor plans to apply substantive tests to the details
of asset and liability accounts as of an interim date rather
than as of the balance sheet date. The auditor should be
aware that this practice
a) Eliminates the use of certain statistical sampling methods
that would otherwise be available
b) Presumes that the auditor will reperform the tests of the
balance sheet date
c) Should be especially considered when there are rapidly
changing economic conditions
d) Potentially increases the risk that errors that exist at
the balance sheet date will not be detected
39. Close family include the following, except
a) Parent
b) Sibling
c) Non-dependent child
d) Spouse
40. A computer-assisted audit technique that is most likely
to be effective in a continuous auditing environment is
a) Parallel simulation
b) Controlled reprocessing
c) Embedded audit modules
d) Transaction tripping
41. Which of the following is not prohibited by the Code of
Professional Ethics for CPAs?
a) Advertising and solicitation of clients
b) Payment of commissions to obtain a client
c) Receiving a contingent fee on a tax case before the
Bureau of Internal Revenue
d) Offering employment to a staff member of another CPA
without first informing the CPA
42. The management's assessment of the entity's ability to
continue as a going concern covers a period of
a) Not longer than 12 months from balance sheet date
b) At least 12 months from the balance sheet date
c) Not longer than 12 months from the date of audit report
d) At least 12 months from the date of audit report
43. To obtain evidential matter about control risk, an auditor
selects tests from a variety of techniques including
a) Inquiry
b) Analytical procedures
c) Calculation
d) Confirmation
44. The need for independent audits of financial statements
can be attributed to all of the following conditions except
a) Remoteness
b) Consequence
c) Complexity of subject matter
d) Validity
45. After issuing a report an auditor includes that an auditing
procedure considered necessary at the time of the
examination was omitted from the examination. The auditor
should first
a) Undertake to apply the omitted procedure or alternative
procedures that would provide a satisfactory basis for the
auditor's opinion
b) Assess the importance of the omitted procedure to
the auditor's ability to support the opinion expressed on
the financial statements taken as a whole
c) Notify the audit committee or the board of directors that
the auditor's opinion can no longer be relied upon
d) Review the results of other procedures that were applied
to compensate for the one omitted or to make its omission
less important
46. This quality control element requires a CPA firm to
establish policies and procedures to provide it with
reasonable assurance that engagements are performed in
accordance with professional standards and regulatory and
legal requirements, and that the firm or the engagement
partner issue reports that are appropriate in the
circumstances
a) Ethical requirements
b) Engagement performance
c) Monitoring
d) Human resources
47. Communication with a predecessor auditor is initiated by
a) Management
b) The successor auditor
c) The audit committee of the board of directors
d) The chair of the board of directors
48. In which of the following may confidential information
not be disclosed?
a) To comply with the quality review of a member body or
professional body
b) To submit evidence in the course of legal proceedings
c) Acquiring information in the course performing
professional services and use that information for
personal advantages
d) When consent to disclose information is given by the
client
49. The auditor should perform the following risk assessment
procedures to obtain an understanding of the entity and its
environment, including its internal control, except
a) Inquiries of management and others within the entity
b) Reperformance
c) Analytical procedures
d) Observation and inspection
50. The auditor should determine overall responses to
address the risks of material misstatement at the financial
statement level. Such responses most likely include
a) Assigning less experienced staff
b) Performing predictable further audit procedures
c) Performing substantive procedures at an interim date
instead of at period end
d) Emphasizing to the audit team the need to maintain
professional skepticism in gathering and evaluating
audit evidence
51. The need for assurance services arises for all of the
following reason except
a) Potential bias in providing information
b) Closeness between a user and the organization
c) Complexity of the processing systems
d) Remoteness between a user and the organization
52. Which one of the following is not a key attribute needed
to perform assurance?
a) Subject matter knowledge
b) Independence
c) Established criteria or standards
d) Accounting skills
53. Which one of the following is not part of the attest
process?
a) Providing the accuracy of the books and records
b) Gathering evidence about assertions
c) Evaluating evidence against objective criteria
d) Communicating the conclusions reached
54. Users of the audit report can reasonably expect the
audited financial statements to be
a) Complete and contain many of the important financial
disclosures
b) Presented fairly according to the substance of GAAP
c) Free from all errors
d) All of the above
55. Which of the following services is the broadest and most
inclusive
a) Audit
b) Attestation
c) Assurance
d) Compliance
56. One reason why an auditor makes an analytical review of
the clients operations is to identify
a) Improper separation of accounting and other financial
duties
b) Weakness of a material nature in the system of internal
accounting control
c) Unusual transactions
d) Non-compliance with prescribed control procedures
57. Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should
focus on identifying
a) Material weaknesses in the internal control structure
b) The predictability of financial data from individual
transactions
c) The various assertions that are embodied in the financial
statements
d) Areas that may represent specific risk relevant to
audit
58. An integrated test facility (ITF) would be appropriate
when the auditor needs to
a) Trace a complex logic path through an application system
b) Verify processing accuracy concurrently with
processing
c) Monitor transactions in an application system
continuously
d) Verify load module integrity for production programs
59. The rotation of senior accounting personnel can be
regarded as a safeguard
a) Created by the profession
b) Within the clients systems and procedures
c) In the work environment
d) Created within the business community
60. If certain forms are not consecutively numbered
a) Systematic sampling may be appropriate
b) Selection of a random sample probably is not possible
c) Stratified sampling should be used
d) Random number tables cannot be used
61. A cash shortage may be concealed by transporting funds
from one location to another or by converting negotiable
assets to cash. Because of this, which of the following is
vital?
a) Simultaneous confirmations
b) Simultaneous bank reconciliations
c) Simultaneous verification
d) Simultaneous surprise cash count
62. Which of the following is most likely to indicate a
significant deficiency relating to a client's anti-fraud
programs?
a) A broad scope of internal audit activities
b) A "whistle-blower" program that encourages anonymous
submissions
c) Audit committee passivity when conducting oversight
functions
d) Lack of performance of criminal background
investigations for likely customers
63. Which of the following is not an attestation standard?
a) Sufficient evidence shall be obtained to provide a
reasonable basis for the conclusion that is expressed in the
report
b) The report shall identify the subject matter on the
assertion being reported on and state the character of the
engagement
c) The work shall be adequately planned and assistants, if
any, shall be properly supervised
d) A sufficient understanding of internal control shall be
obtained to plan the engagement
64. Proper segregation of functional responsibilities calls for
separation of the functions of
a) Authorization, execution, and payment
b) Authorization, recording, and custody
c) Custody, execution, and reporting
d) Authorization, payment, and recording
65. Control risk should be assessed in terms of
a) Specific controls
b) Types of potential fraud
c) Financial statement assertions
d) Control environment factors
66. Which of the following is not a step in an auditor's
assessment of control risk?
a) Evaluate the effectiveness of internal control with tests of
controls
b) Obtain an understanding of the entity's information
system and control environment
c) Perform tests of details of transactions to detect
material misstatements in the financial statements
d) Consider whether controls can have a pervasive effect on
financial statement assertions
67. Which of the following procedures would an auditor
ordinarily perform first in evaluating management's
accounting estimates for reasonableness?
a) Develop independent expectations of management's
estimates
b) Consider the appropriateness of the key factors or
assumptions used in preparing the estimates
c) Test the calculations used by management in developing
the estimates
d) Obtain an understanding of how management
developed its estimates
68. An entity's income statements were misstated due to the
recording of journal entries that involved debits and credits
to an unusual combination of expense and revenue
accounts. The auditor most likely could have detected this
fraudulent financial reporting by
a) Tracing a sample of journal entries to the general ledger
b) Evaluating the effectiveness of internal control
c) Investigating the reconciliations between controlling
accounts and subsidiary records
d) Performing analytical procedures designed to disclose
differences from expectations
69. Which of the following is most likely to be unique to the
audit work of CPAs as compared to work performed by
practitioners of other professions?
a) Due professional care
b) Competence
c) Independence
d) Complex body of knowledge
70. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use
in determining the auditor's preliminary judgment about
materiality?
a) The anticipated sample size of the planned substantive
tests
b) The entity's annualized interim financial statements
c) The results of the internal control questionnaire
d) The contents of the management representation letter
71. Which of the following conditions identified during
fieldwork of an audit is most likely to affect the auditor's
assessment of the risk of misstatement due to fraud?
a) Checks for significant amounts outstanding at year-end
b) Computer generated documents
c) Missing documents
d) Year-end adjusting journal entries.
72. An auditor ordinarily uses a working trial balance
resembling the financial statements without footnotes, but
containing columns for
a) Cash flow increases and decreases
b) Audit objectives and assertions
c) Reclassifications and adjustments
d) Reconciliations and tick marks
73. The risk that an auditor will conclude, based on
substantive tests, that a material misstatement does not exist
in an account balance when in fact such misstatement does
exist is referred to as
a) Detection risk
b) Sampling risk
c) Non-sampling risk
d) Inherent risk
74. The usefulness of the standard bank confirmation request
may be limited because the bank employee who completes
the form may
a) Be unaware of all the financial relationships that the
bank has with the client
b) Not believe that the bank is obligated to verify
confidential information to a third party
c) Sign and return the form without inspecting the accuracy
of the client's bank reconciliation
d) Not have access to the client's cutoff bank statement
75. A material weakness is a significant deficiency (or
combination of significant deficiencies) that results in a
reasonable possibility that a misstatement of at least 'what
amount will not be prevented or detected?
a) An amount greater than zero
b) An amount greater than zero, but at least inconsequential
c) An amount greater than inconsequential
d) A material amount

76. The existence of audit risk is recognized by the statement
in the auditor's standard report that the auditor
a) Obtains reasonable assurance about whether the
financial statements are free of material misstatement.
b) Assesses the accounting principles used and also
evaluates the overall financial statement presentation.
c) Realizes some matters either individually or in the
aggregate, are important while other matters are not
important.
d) Is responsible for expressing an opinion on the financial
statements, which arc the responsibility of management.
77. Which of the following services would be most likely to
be structured as an attest engagement?
a) Advocating a client's position in tax matter.
b) A consulting engagement to develop a new database
system for the revenue cycle.
c) An engagement to issue a report addressing an
entity's compliance with requirements of specified laws.
d) The compilation of a client's forecast information.
78. Which of the following is ordinarily considered to be a
fraud risk factor?
a) The company's financial statements include a number
of last minute material adjustments.
b) Management regularly informs investors of forecast
information.
c) The company has experienced increasing earnings over
the previous five years.
d) The company's president is included as a member of the
board of directors.
79. Which is least likely to be a question asked of client
personnel during a walk-through in an audit of the internal
control of an issuer (public) company?
a) What do you do when you find an error'?
b) Who is most likely to commit fraud among your
coworkers?
c) What kind of errors have you found?
d) Have you ever been asked to override the process or
controls?
80. An auditor who uses the work of a specialist may refer to
and identify the specialist ill the auditor's report if the
a) Specialist is also considered to be a related party.
b) Auditor indicates a division of responsibility related to the
work of the specialist.
c) Specialist's work provides the auditor greater assurance of
reliability.
d) Auditor expresses an "except for" qualified opinion or
an adverse opinion related to the work of the specialist.
81. Which of the following statements concerning evidential
matter is correct?
a) Appropriate evidence supporting management's
assertions should be convincing rather than merely
persuasive.
b) Effective internal control contributes little to the reliability
of the evidence created within the entity.
c) The cost of obtaining evidence is not an important
consideration to an auditor in deciding what evidence
should be obtained.
d) A client's accounting data cannot be considered
sufficient audit evidence to support the financial
statements.
82. Confirmations of accounts receivable address which
assertion most directly?
a) Completeness
b) Existence
c) Valuation
d) Classification
83. When performing a review of an issuer company, which is
least likely to be included in the CPA's inquires of
management members with responsibility for financial and
accounting matters?
a) Subsequent events
b) Significant journal entries and other adjustments
c) Communications with related parties
d) Unusual or complex situations affecting the financial
statements
84. The adverse effects of events causing an auditor to
believe there is substantial doubt about an entity's ability to
continue as a going concern would most likely be mitigated
by evidence relating to the
a) Ability to expand operations into new product lines in the
future.
b) Feasibility of plans to purchase leased equipment at Jess
than market value.
c) Marketability of assets that management plans to sell.
d) Committed arrangements to convert preferred stock to
long-term debt.
85. One reason that an auditor only obtains reasonable, and
not absolute, assurance that financial statements are free
from material misstatement is
a) Comprehensive basis reporting
b) Employee collusion
c) Material misstatements
d) Professional skepticism
86. When an auditor concludes there is substantial doubt
about a continuing audit client's ability to continue as a
going concern for a reasonable period of time, the auditor's
responsibility is to
a) Issue a qualified or adverse opinion, depending upon
materiality, due to the possible effects on the financial
statements.
b) Consider the adequacy of disclosure about the client's
possible inability to continue as a going concern.
c) Report to the client's audit committee that management's
accounting estimates may need to be adjusted.
d) Reissue the prior year's auditors report and add an
explanatory paragraph that specifically refers to "substantial
doubt" and "going concern."
87. The accountant who is not independent may perform
which of the following types of engagements?
a) Audit
b) Agreed-upon procedures
c) Compilation
d) Review
88. Which of the following should an auditor obtain from the
predecessor auditor prior to accepting an audit
engagement?
a) Analysis of balance sheet accounts
b) Analysis of income statement accounts
c) All matters of continuing accounting significance
d) Facts that might bear on the integrity of management

89. Which is least likely to be a response when an auditor
has obtained evidence indicating a risk of material
misstatement in the area of inventory?
a) Request inventory counts at the end of each month.
b) Discuss questions of inventory valuation with any other
auditors involved with the audit.
c) Make oral inquiries of major suppliers in addition to
written confirmations.
d) Perform inventory observations on an unannounced basis.
90. The independent auditor selects several transactions in
each functional area and traces them through the entire
system, paying special attention to evidence about whether
or not the controls are in operation. This is an example of
a(n)
a) Application test
b) Test of controls
c) Substantive test
d) Test of a function
91. Accounting control procedures within computer
processing may leave no visible evidence indicating that the
procedures were performed. In such instances, the auditor
should test these controls by
a) Making corroborative inquiries.
b) Observing the separation of duties of personnel.
c) Reviewing transactions submitted for processing and
comparing them to related output.
d) Reviewing the run manual.
92. If information is for management's use only, which of the
following forms of CPA association with financial information
is most likely to result in no report being issued?
a) An agreed-upon procedures engagement
b) An audit
c) A compilation
d) A review
93. In obtaining an understanding of a manufacturing
entity's internal control over inventory balances, an auditor
most likely would
a) Review the entity's descriptions of inventory policies
and procedures.
b) Perform test counts of inventory during the entity's
physical count.
c) Analyze inventory turnover statistics-to identify slow-
moving and obsolete items.
d) Analyze monthly production reports to identify variances
and unusual transactions.
94. When auditing merchandise inventory at year-end, the
auditor performs a purchase cutoff test to obtain evidence
that
a) All goods owned at year-end are included in the
inventory balance.
b) All goods purchased before year-end are received before
the physical inventory count.
c) No goods held on consignment for customers are
included in the inventory balance.
d) No goods observed during the physical count are pledged
or sold.
95. A company has changed its method of inventory
valuation from an unacceptable one toone in conformity
with generally accepted accounting principles. The auditor's
report on the financial statements of the year of the change
should include
a) No reference to consistency.
b) A reference to a prior period adjustment in the opinion
paragraph.
c) An explanatory paragraph explaining the change.
d) A justification for making the change and the impact of
the change on reported net income.
96. An abnormal fluctuation in gross profit that might
suggest the need for extended audit procedures for sales
and inventories would most likely be identified in the
planning phase of the audit by the use of
a) Tests of transactions and balances
b) A preliminary review of internal control
c) Specialized audit programs
d) Analytical procedures
97. Which of the following statements best describes the
ethical standard of the profession pertaining to advertising
and solicitation?
a) All forms of advertising and solicitation are prohibited.
b) There are no prohibitions regarding the manner in which
CPAs may solicit new business.
c) A CPA may advertise in any manner that is not false,
misleading, or deceptive.
d) A CPA may only solicit new clients through mass mailings.
98. A note to the financial statements of a bank indicates
that all of the records relating to its business operations are
stored on magnetic disks; and that there are no emergency
back-up systems or duplicate disks stored since the bank
and their auditors consider the occurrence of a catastrophe
to be remote. Based upon this, one would expect the
auditor's report to express
a) An adverse opinion
b) An "except for" opinion
c) An unqualified opinion
d) A qualified opinion
99. Which of the following is not typically performed when
accountants are performing a review of the financial
statements of a nonissuer?
a) Analytical procedures applied to financial data
b) Inquiries about significant subsequent events
c) Inquiries of the client's attorney about legal matters
d) Obtaining an understanding of the accounting principles
followed by the client's industry
100. Which of the following is least likely to be a restricted
use report?
a) A report on financial statements prepared following a
comprehensive basis of accounting other than generally
accepted accounting principles.
b) A report on internal control significant deficiencies noted
in an audit.
c) A required communication with the audit committee.
d) A report on compliance with aspects of contractual
agreements.