Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Module 11A
TURBINE AEROPLANE
AERODYNAMICS,
STRUCTURES AND
SYSTEMS
ensure the boundary layer does not separate from the wing surface too soon
ailerons
elevators
rudder
Balance tab
Servo tab
Anti-balance tab
6. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder to correct?
To the right
To the centre
To the left
7. A plain flap
when extended provides a slot between the wing and the flap
when extended rotates on a simple hinge as if to bend the trailing edge of the wing down
8. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab to correct?
Up
Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
Down
9. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
11. A wing has a span of 50 feet and an area of 200 square feet. Its mean chord would be
7.5 feet
10 feet
4 feet
12. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?
The up-going and down-going ailerons both deflect to the same angle
The up-going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down-going aileron
The down-going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up-going aileron
13. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load
14. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit
would be
16. On a swept back wing, in which of the following locations would Krueger Flaps be fitted?
17. An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different
altitudes: (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility
effects)
18. Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)
19. What pitching moment will be generated when Fowler flaps are deployed on an aircraft with a high
mounted (T-tail) tailplane?
The nose up pitching moment will be balanced by the nose down pitching moment
the tip of the wing has more angle of attack than the root
the tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer
25. Winglets
28. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly
nose up
30. As altitude increases, the equivalent airspeed at which an aeroplane stalls in a particular configuration
will
not be affected
lower
rise
32. When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift
as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be
59%
130%
77%
33. To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be
reduced
increased
34. Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the
35. In straight and level flight, if airspeed ... the angle of attack ... and the incidence angle...
36. What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a constant IAS in straight and
level flight?
Remain constant
Decrease
Increase
37. If VS is 100 kt in straight and level flight, during a 45 bank turn VS will be
119 kts
100 kts
140 kts
38. What is the effect on TAS if altitude is increased to 35,000 ft while flying at a constant Mach number?
Decrease
39. If IAS is doubled, by which of the following factors should the original CL be multiplied to maintain level
flight?
4.0
0.5
0.25
40. When an aircraft is in a steady climb, how will the wing stalling angle be affected?
when the angle of attack is smaller than the stalling angle of attack
weight
lift
45. An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level
turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is
122 kt
141 kt
82 kt
decreased in a turn
unaffected by a turn
increased in a turn
Deep stall
49. A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall
can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
Shock stall
Accelerated stall
Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
52. How are the wing stalling angle and the lift coefficient affected when altitude increases and EAS is held
constant?
The lift coefficient remains constant and the wing stalling angle will reduce
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both decrease
The lift coefficient and the wing stalling angle both remain constant
55. The most common stall sensing devices are normally located
56. If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift coefficient ... and the stagnation
point moves...
decreases; rearward
increases; rearward
decreases; forward
remains unchanged
decreases
increases
58. As the angle of attack of a wing is increased, the centre of pressure will reach its most forward position on
the wing
59. Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface?
No difference
60. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it is stalling characteristics. At the stall
wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
61. Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
T-tail
62. The stall speed in a 60 banked turn increases by the following factor
1.41
2.00
63. The speed range between high and low speed buffet
a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity, due to friction
65. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors?
May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will
increase when the c.g. moves forward
Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft.
Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn
66. The pitch-up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
67. When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and high angle of attack, the normal
axis is
nearly vertical
vertica
68. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6.850 lbs. What is the stall speed when the
weight is 5.000 lbs?
67 KCAS
91 KCAS
78 KCAS
Spanwise flow
The ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
The ratio of a specified load to the mass of the aircraft, the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
The ratio of a specified load to the mass or the aircraft the former being expressed in terms of
aerodynamic and inertia forces
71. When all other factors of importance are constant, the stall speed increases when
weight decreases
72. Which of the following is the correct order of configuration to give an increasing critical angle of attack?
73. What is the percentage increase in stall speed in a 45o bank turn
19%
10%
45%
a wing which is not swept back will stall from the root and the CP will move forwards
a swept back wing will stall from the tip and the CP will move forward
a swept back wing will stall from the root and the CP will move aft
76. Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data is: A: W=1500 kg Bank=
20 TAS= 130 kt, B: W= 1500 kg Bank= 20 TAS= 200 kt. Which of the following statements is correct?
77. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
Decreasing weight
78. The purpose of a fixed spoiler on the leading edge of a wing at the root is to
ensure that the root of the wing stalls before the tip does
79. In a level turn with 60 lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by
10 %
50 %
40 %
81. An aeroplane has been loaded in such a manner that the centre of gravity is located behind the aft centre
of gravity limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this aeroplane would be
83. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an
engine located forward of the wing
Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location
84. With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be
The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer
87. Stalling speed in a 15 bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45 bank level turn will be
60 kts
70 kts
50 kts
It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects
It remains constant
89. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?
90. As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall becomes progressively
91. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer
The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer
94. Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will
95. Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be
triggered is
greater than VS
VS
less than VS
97. If the straight and level stall speed is 100 kt, what will be the stall speed in a 1.5g turn?
81 kts
122 kts
150 kts
99. When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
100. After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer
101. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as
the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs
103. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
Deep stall
Shock stall
104. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer?
increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer
Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to decrease
Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide distance also reduces
Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the
minimum descent angle
108. When the angle of attack of an aircraft is progressively increased, the wing centre of pressure will reach
its most forward position
Split flap
Fowler flap
110. An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible
efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is
111. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct?
Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap does not
Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not
Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not
transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer
113. When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found
114. During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to: (all other factors
of importance being constant)
bank
sink suddenly.
climb
116. An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0, 15, 30 and 45. Slats can be selected too. Which of the
above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio?
Flaps from 0 to 15
Flaps from 30 to 45
Flaps from 15 to 30
118. When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually
increase
decrease
120. When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position to fully down position, one will
experience
Ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the ground position
122. Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack?
123. Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack?
124. If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level flight
increase camber, increase suction peak on main wing, increase effective angle of attack and move
CLmax to higher angle of attack
increase boundary layer energy, increase suction peak on main wing section, move CLmax to a higher
angle of attack
increase boundary layer energy, move suction peak on to slat and increase CLmax angle of attack
decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude
near and at stalling speed
decrease CLmax
decrease drag
128. During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight
flaps
slats
130. Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps down configuration
is
unchanged
larger
smaller
131. Compared with the flap down configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps up configuration
is
smaller
larger
unchanged
132. How is the pitching moment affected if flaps are deployed in straight and level flight?
Pitch up
Pitch down
133. What is the effect of lowering leading edge and trailing edge flaps in flight?
Cl increases, Cd remains the same and the stalling angle of attack increases.
134. Lowering the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of Pressure
to move forward
135. Slats
re-energise the boundary layer thereby increasing the stalling angle of attack
re-energise the boundary layer thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack
de-energise the boundary layer, thereby decreasing the stalling angle of attack
increases
decreases
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing
decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing
139. It is possible to reduce the span wise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by
wing fences
increased anhedral
140. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why?
Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED
Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
141. In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted,
the angle of attack will
remain constant
decrease
increase
142. If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will
eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
increase
decrease
144. One of the main purposes of using flaps during approach and landing is to
145. The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because
148. The optimum angle of attack for a typical aerofoil is about______________, and the actual angle of
attack will be close to this optimum angle during________________________
4, cruise
4, a stall
16, a stall
150. If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will
increase
not be affected
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decrease
152. Why are vortex generators often fitted on aircraft with straight wings?
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing root on the intrados
To reduce span wise airflow towards the wing tips on the extrados
a layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free stream velocity to zero velocity
a thin layer of air over the surface where the air is stationary
154. The transition point located on the wing is the point where
156. The advantage of a turbulent boundary layer over a laminar boundary layer is
thinner
decreases energy
157. A laminar boundary layer is_______________ and has______________drag than a turbulent layer.
thicker; more
thinner; less
thicker; less
158. When pulling out of a dive (e.g. looping) the angle of attack
increases
decreases
C of P moves back
longitudinal plane
lateral plane
directional plane
163. Slats
164. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled descent without reduction of airspeed
166. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator trim tab?
Up to move elevator up
flap
elevator
spoiler
170. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more
Both wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more
Slot
Split
Fowler
172. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is
high
high or low
low
173. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by
175. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will
sink
pitch nose up
180. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation to the rest of the
airflow, is known as
camber layer
boundary layer
181. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes place?
Aspect ratio
Fineness ratio
will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change
be unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack
190. A wing flap which has 'dropped' or partially extended on one wing in flight will lead to
191. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing
decreases
increases
has no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing
193. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane
may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load
194. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to maintain the lift constant it
would be necessary to
195. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?
Flap
Slat
36,000 ft.
30,000 ft.
18,000 ft.
197. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is
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198. If an aircraft is yawing left, to correct, the trim tab on the rudder would need to be positioned
to the centre
is longitudinal stability
is lateral stability
is dutch roll
increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down
compressible
incompressible
3. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its Mach. No. will
not change
increase
decrease
an electric Motor
pressure
temperature
velocity
6. For a wing of low thickness-chord ratio the critical mach number will be
airflow being detached by shock wave and flow striking the tail
9. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0. A shock wave will form
on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber
supersonic
subsonic
stationary
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag
A stall due to exceeding the critical angle of attack at high speed during a manoeuvre
14. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?
Sea level
10,000 ft
20,000 ft
15. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?
16. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure tends to
move forward
move rearward
17. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and
18. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is
stationary
supersonic
19. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing
decreases
increases
22. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals
25. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight and level flight, what would
be the most probable cause?
Atmospheric conditions
switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range
30. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to
that free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic
all subsonic
mixed airflow
all supersonic
subsonic
supersonic
decrease sweepback
decreasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
increasing the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section
decreasing the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at sea level
the ratio of the aircraft's IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
the Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound
the Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge
the aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft
40. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will
start to increase
start to decrease
41. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be
42. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience
an oscillation in pitch
a nose up pitch
trim tabs
mach trim
aileron reversal
Aileron reversal
Flapback effect
Shock stall
46. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the troposphere
decreases
remains constant
increases
subsonic
sonic
supersonic
pressure
altitude
temperature
supersonic
subsonic
raises Mcrit
decreases stability
54. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
decrease
increase
55. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through the transonic region, fuel is
pumped
backwards
forwards
sideways
57. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
increase
decrease
decrease
remain constant
increase
altitude to airspeed
decrease drag
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increase Mcrit
decrease Mcrit
62. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially
engine
right wing
left wing
vertical stabiliser
primary
integral
essential
4. The method used on a work card to indicate the approximate location of a component is
stations
datum
zones
metal fatigue
age hardening
fail safe
vertical stabiliser
central fuselage
horizontal stabiliser
7. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
0.005ohms
1/50 ohms
50 milliohms
ice build-up
lightning strike
accidental damage
longitudinal movement
torsional movement
lateral movement
11. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?
Earthing Strap
Bonding Strip
Special paint
elongating or stretch
crush or compression
twisting
special paint
copper wire
aluminium wire
upper fuselage
lower fuselage
left-hand wing
22 AWG
0.5 in wide
Tension
conductive paint
bonding strips
Longeron
Stringer
Spar
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance
22. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of
400
800
600
Wings
Pressure cabin
Control surfaces
compressing forces
pulling forces
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing
245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing
Special paint
Diverter strips
28. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge
read?
Centre scale
Zero
strain
shear
bending
not bonded
bonded
18 AWG
wing line
horizontal line
vertical line
34. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by
earthing
bonding
static wicks
35. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than
22 SWG x 0.5
22 SWG x 0.25
Landings
Flying Hours
Pressure Cycles
flying hours
landings
pressurization cycle
40. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lightning strikes, partially by
conductive paint
non-conductive paint
bonding
beam
strut
cable
42. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage construction?
Semi-monocoque
Truss type
Monocoque
Bending
Tensile
Torsion
yellow
green
red
Stringer
Frame
Skin
47. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in
inches
feet
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft
These parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss
of life
These are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.
failsafe
double safe
safe life
50. Stress
51. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or years,
regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?
Fail-safe
Safe-life
Condition monitored
52. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either Primary or Secondary, what action should
you adopt?
Grade it as secondary
Upgrade it to primary
53. Safe-life is
the maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs
the minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs
Notice 65
Notice 89
Notice 79
maintenance engineer
manufacturer
operator
59. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike to a composite aircraft,
electricity is discharged through
strut
tie
web
fail-safe design
monocoque design
safe-life design
62. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates
sagging
shedding
hogging
fatigued
safe-life
failsafe
on-condition structure
a safe-life structure
a failsafe structure
65. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from bottom of
the fuselage is
water line
fuselage station
butt line
66. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?
67. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as
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primary
secondary
tertiary
shear
tension
bending
The zero datum from which all lateral locations are measured
centreline
left wing-tip
nose
ANO 25
CS 25
JAR 25
72. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat. It is put
through a series of crash tests. This is to
to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.
test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity
to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to
measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC)
1. When applying a doubler plate, what else could you use for extra strength?
Thicker material
A waffle plate
A tripler plate
3. Stringers
4. Contact between titanium and phosphate ester fluid should be avoided because
there is no effect
between 65oF and 75oF with less than 75% relative humidity
between 65oC and 75oC with more than 75% relative humidity
between 60oF and 77oF with less than 75% relative humidity
None is required
Fire-proof grommets
Soft rubber
acid etch
alkaline etch
solvent etch
frames
bulkheads
stringers
7075
2024
5056
13. Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?
PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once
PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints
Stringers
Bulkheads
Frames
15. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?
Stringers
Skin
Longerons
Zinc plating
Nickel plating
Cadmium plating
Alluminium alloys
Magnesium alloys
Ferros alloys
18. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of measurement is normally used?
horizontally
vertically
chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch
drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove the
shank with a metal punch
drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove
the shank with a metal punch
to prevent corrosion
according to SB instructions
26. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a
jury strut
tear stopper
shear tie
Middle of repair
To add strength
32. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of fastener would you use?
Hi lock bolt
Pop rivet
Blind rivet
they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft
struts
cleats
stringers
asphalt
cellulose
acrylics
is easier to manufacture
40. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the
skin
frames
longerons
42. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as
secondary joints
failsafe joints
43. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
aluminium alloy
plastic
stainless steel
if the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location
if they are located in the middle third of the length of the member
if they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member
toxic gases
humidity
temperature
1 in 400
1 in 200
1 in 600
bulkheads
stringers
longerons
Torsional only
Glass
Acrylic
Acrylic/glass laminate
tungsten
titanium
steel
maximum loadings
maximum dimensions
no hazardous cargo
class B
class E
class A
8. Windscreen delamination is
50C to 70C
30C to 50C
50F to 70F
10. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?
104F
125F
40F
11. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?
By door stops
12. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Under normal flight
conditions which pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?
Inner
Answer now changed in club,before it was outer and now Both. The inner panel has a
Both
small hole in it to let the pressure through to the outer panel
Outer
By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.
By both front and back legs The back legs are secured as
they have the upward load
By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle
during a sudden stop.
14. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is
soft rubber
aluminium
PTFE
15. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for
Acetone
MEK
Kerosene
17. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure can be taken by
monolithic Nomex
Kevlar
are unpressurised
are pressurized
spars
frames
longerons
bulkhead
cleat
frame
26. When inspecting stowage doors, special attention should be given to the
catches
light microswitches
trim
27. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in
tracks
stanchions
rails
31. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is
not locked
locked
32. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails, it may be operated
by alternate actuators
manually by winding
33. After installation of an acrylic window panel, protective paper and adhesive remaining on the panel may
be removed by use of soap and water and
Cellulose thinners
Methylated spirits
MEK
34. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to withstand impact will
increase
decrease
Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 11
58
not change
35. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame, provision must be made for the relative
movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of
the lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame
the higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame
Paraffin
C.T.C.
Acetone
are open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well drained
to equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door
39. On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling. What action is required?
42. Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins. The source of this air is usually
rubber strips
spring pressure
always closed
always open
45. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning
and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a
'U' section
'I' section
'Z' section
longerons
stringers
frames
aircraft structure
shear
bending
tension
7. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and
slots
8. A spar web is
a rib/spar joint
slat track
front spar
11. On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?
Ribs
Milled stringers
swept-back wing
torsion
bending
shear
interfay
fillet
B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811, the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks
brush coat leak are termed as fillet, injection and prepack. Fillet seal is the first coat
main spar
skin
spar cap
struts
ribs
spars
7118
2024
7075
1. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane incidence changes
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times
move rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly during
cruise
3. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence tailplane, the incidence of
the tailplane would be
a gearbox
Shear
Bending
Tension
operated independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied
pitch
roll
yaw
6. Aerodynamic balance
will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability
7. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to
make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder
9. A horn balance is
a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line
a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end
a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached
11. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of pressure
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Elevator
Rudder
Aileron
allow the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow
increase stability
17. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly
mass balancing
servo tabs
a horn balance
longitudinal axis
lateral axis
horizontal stabilizer
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load
empennage
engine
centre section
54
55
53
torsionally
aluminium castings
Turbo fan
Turbo brake
Turbo compressor
maintain a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude
ensure that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude
5. In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the cabin is
variable, depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector
10 cubic feet/minute
10 lbs/minute
maintain a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes
ensure the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes
12. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by
spill valves
air flow
air temperature
trim air
2. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded, the temperature of the air at the outlet of the ACM
compressor will
rise
fall
Pack outlet temperature is determined by bypassing engine
remain the same
bleed air around the ACM (trim air). The ACM is unaffected
3. Cockpit ventilation is required to be
5. An advantage of using air cycle system over the vapour cycle system in aircraft is
6. What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft
compartment?
7. The first component that the charged air enters from the IP compressor is
the pre-cooler
the evaporator
the compressor
the condenser
Vapour cycle
Pneumatic pump
downstream of turbine
11. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed
16. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM CAIP AL/3-24 para 4.2.2
mentions pre-cooled air is
will have decreased pressure and temperature compressed by action of
compressor impeller and
no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor
diffuser assembly. Hence
will have increased pressure and temperature increase in pressure. Pressure
laws says Temperature is
17. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor? proportional to Pressure.
19. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?
At low altitudes
At high altitudes
20. In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the
TCV and mixer valve b737-400 amm ref 21-00-00 para 5b mentions TCV is located before
distribution for pack temperature control for amount of hot air bypassing
TCV the Air Cycle Machine. b737-300 name the same valve as mixer valve
21. In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in the proportions
25. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil leak will
reducing pressure
30. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is directed around inside
the muffler, this is an
thermal heater
exhaust heater
combustion heater
31. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is
moisture removed
oxygen added
Undercarriage switches
Throttle switches
34. When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use
The ground pressure test is typically known as confidence check
a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination
of airplane ability to maintain cabin pressure in flight on single
ground trolley and clean air pack operation for boeing term. The test involve both left and
right engine. Ref AMM 21-00-05 page 201
the aircraft engines because you can test the whole system
35. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of
60 percent
30 percent
20 percent
36. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is from
gas turbine compressor bleed air B737 has the config where the air-conditioning air supply
Raju Poulose Kuwait
is taken fromAirways
the pneumatic system which draw air from Module 11
the 5th or 9th compressor stage of the gas turbine engine.
Ref AMM 21-00-00 page 8
74
37. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at
20C to 24C B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11, the selectable range of temperature
is between 18 and 29 deg C. For alternate operation when all selectors to
18C to 24C
OFF, the Left Pack operate at 24deg C and Right Pack at 18deg C.
12C to 18C
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger
compressed then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine
flush the system with a solvent CAIP AL/3-24 para 9.7(b) says, 'before charging a newly
installed system, or recharging a system which has been
apply suction to remove air and moisture
partly disconnected, all air should be evacuated IAW MM.
42. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than
25 ft/min.
300 ft/min.
200 ft/min.
ensure that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus increasing
the fatigue life of the fuselage
ensure that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in
order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression
44. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air by
45. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system
flows to the
fan 'Fan' is sometimes used to describe the compressor. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2
turbine
temperature only
triangles
rectangles
dots
on the ground
at high altitudes
at low altitudes
51. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will
air/ground microswitches
throttle microswitches
flap microswitches
fan inducement
gas expansion
ram air
at atmospheric pressure
air discharge
climb or decent
air supply
7. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must
increase
decrease
8. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
the cabin pressure to increase The discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. If line
leaks , valve will close, and cabin pressure will increase.
9. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant
11. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the
differential capsule in the pressure controller will
14. On touch-down of aircraft B737 Pressurization system senses the air-ground sw and the
toggle sw FLT-GRD in the cockpit control. Before touch down, at
the outflow valve will be shut GRD position, controller commands signal to close the discharge
valve to 200ft below landing field elevation. Upon touch down,
the cabin pressure will be zero controller drives discharge fully open. Purpose to prevent rapid
pressure bump
the outflow valve will be fully open
15. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
all open
removed
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all closed
set QFE
aircraft altitude
sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure
20. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-down
warning lights
a special instrument
pressure altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions
altitude corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft
27. When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the system allows for
28. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is achieved by a
cabin altimeter
cabin V.S.I
31. 'Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be
cross connected
connected
disconnected
32. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the
33. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the
34. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?
Yes
Occasionally
No
35. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure test?
36. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is
whilst the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude
cabin altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude
38. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained
the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced
40. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground with squat switches
overridden, then the outflow valve will normally
not operate
remain closed
open
increases Oxygen content increases as mass per unit volume, but NOT as a percentage
of the other gases in air. Your interpretation of the question may differ.
remains constant
decreases
45. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and provided maximum cabin
pressure differential is not exceeded
sea level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet
8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level
46. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show
zero, provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits
a rate of climb
a rate of descent
47. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system 'ON'
the pressurization system does not control pressure until 10,000 ft is reached
the atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure
automatic
49. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI at cruising altitude. If the ambient pressure is
2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be
8.5 PSI
11.4 PSI
5.6 PSI
the height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height
51. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the pressurization system, the
cabin pressure would
the noise from the high speed of airflow within the system
53. To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly
during descent
during ascent
the cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached
56. When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the pressurization control panel may
be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent
on a specific indicator
as being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a gauge being used
Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Safety and warning devices
1. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not exceeding
0.16 p.s.i.
1.2 p.s.i.
0.5 p.s.i.
spill valves
a spill valve
4. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat, how is
the heater reset?
after an aircraft has landed, to restore ground level conditions is the cabin
increase ventilation
10. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the pressure hull of an
aircraft is not subjected to
11. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by fitting
altitude sensor
Open
Both position
Closed
16. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of
-0.5 PSI
Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 11
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+0.5 PSI
+9.25 PSI
VSI
Machmeter
ASI
a vertical gyro
an earth gyro
a space gyro
reduce reflections
position pick-offs
spring actuators
torque sensors
5. A standby compass has a pair of magnets for adjustment. They are initially placed
6. Component P affects
coefficient B
coefficient A
coefficient C
yaw only
a directional gyro
a vertical gyro
a rate gyro
relative amplitude
phons
db
checking the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures
checking the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures
Isolate the component and perform a systematic check, starting from the instrument
Pressurize the system and use the soap bubble detection method
13. Following replacement of a separately mounted compass corrector box, a compass calibration swing will
be required
without exception
onlyif the correctors are not matched to the ones being removed
square law
gyro topple
gimbal lock
pitch overshoot
an AC servo motor
20. An altimeter in a pressurised aircraft at altitude has a case leak. The altimeter will
over read
not be affected
under read
21. Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
Never
10,000 RPM
5,000 RPM
20,000 RPM
26. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived from
28. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the
Altitude Module
Mach Module
30. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from
31. The Tx and Rx rotors of a control synchro are 90 degrees shifted. The output is
zero
high
low
32. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, True Air Speed (TAS) is derived from the Mach information
and
34. On the HSI, the heading is 'valid' when the HDG flag is
in view
green
out of view
no power is required
10,000 ft
2,500 ft
500 ft
28 V applied
115 V applied
Static blocked
Pitot blocked
compass Amplifier
H.S.I.
41. On a turn and slip indicator, the needle points to the right, and the ball is to the left. The aircraft is
radar altitude
temperature only
increase
decrease
Coefficiant B
Coefficiant P
The Lubber line is the vertical white line painted on the front of the compass. If
Index error
there is an error in that, there is an error in the compass mounting position.
46. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-
Pitot pressure
Ambient pressure
Barometric pressure
48. The maximum deviation on a standby magnetic compass must not be more than
1 year
5 years
2 years
50. The aircraft heading is 270. The magnetic compass deviation is -1. The pilot should fly
271
270
269
51. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a
pitot-static leak check?
Altimeter
52. The operation of the Angle of Attack indicator is used to detect airflow direction relative to
QFU
QDM
QDR
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sin of latitude
cos of latitude
tan of latitude
above 10,000 ft
always
ADI
EICAS
HSI
move probe up Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner
Accelerometer
IRS
Angle of attack
Inner gimbal
Rotating vane
Outer gimbal
fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux
valve was removed from
align the aircraft onto its 'A' coefficient so that no error is induced
61. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
1013.25
QFE
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QNH
63. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from
64. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to
in the instrument
66. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?
by kinetic heating
electrically
69. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?
70. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________ ________________ when close to stall.
thrust levers
flap position
fast/slow switch
71. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick release
disconnect connection is disturbed
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
72. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be
aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised
75. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees. The coefficient C is
+2 degrees
0 degrees
-2 degrees
76. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is
1 degrees
3 degrees
5 degrees
77. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 11
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spirit level
an inclinometer
micrometer
Displacement
Tied down
Space
dependant on longitude
drift
toppling
erection
83. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of influence
84. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge reads just above 1.
Transmitter is unserviceable
This is normal
at 360 degrees
at 270 degrees
on any heading
86. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system
87. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?
20 inches
24 inches
Lower
Upper
Both
Present status
Warning
Cautionary info
ECAM
ADI
HSI
91. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?
INS
EICAS
2.5
10
96. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?
As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of
an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the
ground directly below the aircraft
97. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is it
normally fitted?
an azimuth gyro
no other sources
300 ft.
200 ft.
500 ft
DME hold
VOR hold
ILS approach
slower
same speed
faster
compressor outlet
compressor inlet
reservoir
Earths rotation
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule
108. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings
110. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will
oscillate
be sluggish
go hard over
113. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is correct?
114. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To fly a heading of 180 degrees the pilot must steer
181 degrees
180 degrees
179 degrees
Servomotor
A measuring device
Torque synchro
Hair spring
Square-Law compensation
117. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
No effect
121. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of
122. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial horizon is kept erect in pitch
by a
mercury switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer
gimbal rings
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the
fore and aft axis
torque motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in the
athwartships axis
123. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is disconnected
during turns
to prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn
125. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after switching on
because
bearing friction
128. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the gimbal ring moves would
be increased if the
an azimuth gyro
a vertical gyro
a rate gyro
130. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be
131. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?
133. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately
2,400 rpm
22,500 rpm
4,200 rpm
15 sine longitude
15 cosine latitude
15 sine latitude
faster
slower
15,000 rpm
4,200 rpm
22,000 rpm
vacuum
static pressure
pitot pressure
143. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates
144. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is recommended that, to
allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument
145. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to
cancel errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws
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horizontal to left
vertically up
vertically down
149. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level flight, cause
the instrument to indicate
zero
a rate of descent
a rate of climb
150. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will continue until
1 inch Hg
14.7 PSI
100 millibar
atmospheric temperature
pressure altitude
barometric pressure
knots (kts)
158. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from
a pitot head
a venturi
160. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and Slip) is
less accurate
more accurate
more instantaneous
balance weight
162. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is
in level flight
climbing
descending
blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply
164. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel connection, application of
pressure to the pitot head would cause the
165. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause
rate 2 turn
rate 1 turn
rate 3 turn
168. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is
32C
15C
14.69C
the angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
173. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is
by a control synchro
by a differential synchro
by a torque synchro
equal variation
different variation
zero variation
179. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb. This will give
no scale deflection
180. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring of a vertical gyro will
cause the
is direct current
183. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the atmospheric pressure at airfield
level (QFE)
indicates that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A.
standards
184. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to the
atmosphere by
venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set
removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes
Vertical
Horizontal
differential pressure
gauge pressure
absolute pressure
inner gimbal
rotor
instrument case
192. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
increases
decreases
directional gyro
rate gyro
vertical gyro
is sodium-bicarbonate
is silica-gel
is anti-freeze oil
195. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
No effect
one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source
Boyle's Law
Charle's Law
anti-freeze oil
kerosene
castor-oil
201. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as
a rate gyro
a tied gyro
an earth gyro
weight or mass
203. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?
To reduce 'backlash'
204. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's
directional gyros
vertical gyros
2 miles
208. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal to
209. The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to
an ILS station
a VOR station
an ADF station
210. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i. In terms of absolute
pressure, this represents
1,014.7 p.s.i.
1,000 p.s.i.
985.3 p.s.i.
212. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the altimeter, the altimeter will read
off scale
zero
the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale
the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale
compass system
217. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is
accelerating
climbing
decelerating
218. The deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is proportional to
219. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be
220. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its ground speed is
450 knots
350 knots
400 knots
10 to 1 gearing is used
one coil
three coils
two coils
224. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for leaks in the
instrument case
pressure chamber
capsule stack
225. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the
altimeter should read
positive altitude
zero feet
226. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120 and 'TO'. After passing over the
station, on the same course, the indications will be
300 and TO
true horizon
228. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass located in the vicinity
The attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window
precautions should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt
precautions must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type
229. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is
using fluid
locking
different variation
equal variation
zero variation
233. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?
662 knots
550 knots
278 knots True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level
234. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?
293 knots
296 knots
304 knots
an orifice
a capillary
237. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's
lateral axis
longitudinal axis
the ADI
239. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the resultant correction is
known as
correct heading
residual deviation
magnetic heading
242. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C is
-2 degrees
0 degrees
+2 degrees
altitude information
selection of altitude
244. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is
static
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pitot
reflected signal from aircraft's own radar ATC is ground use, but the Wxr and
TCAS are also 'primary radar'
for ground use only
maintenance base
other aircraft
4. SELCAL is used to
23 - 30 kHz
3-30 MHz
lightning strike
precipitation static
frequency of returns
at specific frequencies
Atomic
Quartz
12. With Control Wheel Steering (CWS), if the flight path is disturbed by the pilot, the course will be corrected
by the
autopilot panel
receiver
aerial
15. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the
EHSI
EADI
1 Month
2 Months
3 Months
Atomic
Quartz
Battery
To relieve the flight crew of their duties during long haul flights
a sense antenna
a loop antenna
400 m
200 m
800 m
to actuate on
to actuate off
5 - 5.1 KHz
5 - 5.1 GHz
5 - 5.1 MHz
Light aircraft ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47, prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft.
However, no direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found
Aerial work aircraft
121.5 MHz
123.5 MHz
125.5 MHz
rate feedback
position feedback
ILS
VHF
VOR
UHF
ILS
VOR 112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS.
31. When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
Heading Hold
VOR
ALT Hold
32. Priority messages in an aircraft centralised warning system, go in order of (lowest to highest):
Polyurethane
Not cellulose
Cellulose only
34. Full scale deflection of the glideslope pointer from the centreline is
0.5o
2.5 o
3o
VHF
VOR
ILS
phased-array L-band
directional antenna
6000-6100 MHz
5050-6050 MHz
5000-6000 MHz
39. Which colour on the weather radar screen does the pilot avoid fly-through in order not to encounter
strong thunderstorm and heavy rain?
Magenta
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Yellow
Blue
40. GPWS is
W-band
L-band
X-band
43. Which 30Hz signal from a VOR ground station is frequency modulated?
44. How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?
45. How many times does the INS (inertial navigation system) integrate the acceleration signal it receives
from the accelerometers to get the distance the aircraft has flown?
Twice
Three times
Once
1200 MHz
2300 MHz
4000 MHz
the Alert height is based on ILS equipment and Decision height is based on the RVR
the Decision height is based on ILS equipment and Alert height is based on the RVR
the Alert height is based on aircraft characteristics and Decision height is based on the airport facilities
Pulse pairs
unidirectional
Three
Four
Two
Display alters
Switches antennas
printer
FMS
voice
Hijack
Emergency
Radio Failure
360
720
760
56. In VHF comms, with 8.33 kHz spacing, how many channels are used?
720
350
2280
an accelerometer
a laser gyro
GPS
FMC
Flight Director
59. Inertia is
the property that resists any force that tends to change the plane of rotation of a gyro
Roll channel
Pitch channel
Yaw channel
a VOR frequency
a HF frequency
an ILS frequency
energised on
energised off
121.5 MHz
121.5 kHZ
122.5 MHz
100 ft.
2000 ft.
2500 ft.
a VOR frequency
an ADF frequency
an ILS frequency
Low Frequency
High Frequency
VOR
DME
private aircraft
5 cm
3 cm
10 m
HF radiation
lightning strikes
both ends
1030 MHz
1090 MHz
1000 MHz
1200 ft
10,000 ft
1000 ft
Ailerons
THS
Elevators
80. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will
not adjust the THS angle of incidence, it will remains the same
moves in pitch
ILS
LORAN C
VOR
On landing
After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency
84. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause
800 m
200 m
400 m CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m
One current
cruise
take off
approach
Integration of accelerometers
Localizer
Glideslope
VOR
pitch
yaw
roll
92. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at
low current levels If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers, the static
discharge occurs at lower current and more frequently'.
all voltage levels
94. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters
VOR, ILS
3 cm
17 m
Land based
50 MHz
75 MHz
100 MHz
automatically
glideslope
RMI
a PCU
an electric motor
White
Blue
Amber
103. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it
in any order
VHF
HF
UHF
marker beacons
HF communications
weather radar
111. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. What happens to
autothrottle?
Advances throttles
UHF
VHF
HF
in the air by the pilot FMC has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan
115. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give
amber warning
lateral steering
vertical steering
distance checks
118. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will show
fly left
fly right
the flag
500 ft.
1000 ft.
750 ft.
glideslope
VOR
ADF
121. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in
take off
cruise
approach
location Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack
mounted side. The purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is
magnetic orientation serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side! The unit is universal for all
aircraft type
BITE
Radio altimeter Of the three, GPWS has only connection to the RA.
It does use barometric vertical speed however.
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Pressure altimeter
all gimbals
inner gimbal
outer gimbal
126. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly
down
up
128. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?
129. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other
aircraft?
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal
130. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator
(DDRMI)?
VHF
HF
132. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?
133. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather
radar?
To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display
134. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System
(GPWS)
Flaps/undercarriage
Rudder/ailerons
Autothrottle
135. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it
operate?
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP
and DOWN
every 28 days
daily
three strap down accelerometers Assuming they mean a strapdown system. (Note: it is
the system which is strapdown, not the accelerometers,
an azimuth gyro system azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved).
138. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass
142. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a
hi tone chime
horn
first officer
flightdeck
captain
HF
VHF
UHF
from a beacon
to a VOR
on a compass
loop aerial
sense aerial
Mode 2
Mode 6
Mode 3
149. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be
Mode C
Mode A
Mode S
150. GPS
151. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches
rate gyro
displaced gyro
displacement gyro
RA
either RA or TA
TA
Fail resistant
Fail Passive
Fail Operable
elevator is inhibited
It is not possible
HF
LF
VHF
161. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight
the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby
it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
Stall warning
Resolution Advisories
75 MHz
50 MHz
100 MHz
164. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to
the RMI
parabolic antenna
a Doppler antenna
166. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of
3 satellites
6 satellites
167. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt. system?
GPWS
TCAS
altitude alert
Altitude
Interrogation
go to idle
At decision height
173. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS
175. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by a
constant force
non-linear force
linear force
10-6 g
10-3 g
10-2 g
gyro wander
platform misalignment
a single integration
linear spring
pendulous suspension
orthogonally
rate gyro
displacement gyro
azimuth gimbal
pitch gimbal
roll gimbal
three gimbals
four gimbals
a pitch gimbal
188. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum
84.4 seconds
8.4 minutes
84.4 minutes
Doppler system
airdata computer
satellites
191. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash
attitude indicators
altimeters
90 to each other
120 apart
3 axis accelerometer
rhumb line
197. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?
Waypoints
E.T.A.
Present position
198. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made
standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase
difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track
difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track
the earth's rotational rate (15/hour) times the sine of the longitude
the earth's rotational rate (15/hour) times the cosine of the latitude
the earth's rotational rate (15/hour) times the sine of the latitude
an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error
the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis
takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment
takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment
207. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the
the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered
entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power
own
latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU
optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together
209. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the
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210. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode
is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading
is the difference between the desired course and the actual course
211. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the
DME system
90 Hz
150 Hz
90 KHZ
214. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line, as seen from the localiser
transmitter, is
90 Hz
90 KHz
150 Hz
215. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180, when the aircraft heading is 150 is
turn left
straight ahead
turn right
216. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the
90 Hz modulation sector
equi-signal sector
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217. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of
are fixed and common to all runways therefore frequency selection is not necessary
distance to touchdown
VHF band
UHF band
HF band
HF band
VHF band
UHF band
223. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing
infinite
360
114.3 MHz All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95 MHz (High Power VORs) and
all odd frequencies between 108.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal VORs)
127.2 MHz
103.9 MHz
water
not bonded
bonded
228. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable
signals will be
in phase
dashes
dots
3000 Hz
400 Hz
1300 Hz
231. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is
7 miles
3 miles
3500 ft.
aurally
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visually
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion
ILS
VOR
237. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would show
to
from
no indication
238. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?
241. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning
242. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have
no decision height
mandatory
2210 MHz
1090 MHz
4133 MHz
248. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon is;
the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to
beacon
the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and
beacon
None of above
250. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by
7 ft
700 ft
70 ft
251. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?
252. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?
253. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely
resistive
capacitive
inductive
not bonded
bonded
Amber
White
Blue
no rotating parts
moving parts
a spinning rotor
magnetic north
true north
aircraft structure
fail passive
fail soft
fail operational
261. ACARS is
a navigation system
The altimeter
Pitch
Yaw
Roll
Approach
Cruise
Take-off
268. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use
VHF
VLF
HF
269. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?
Electrical Power
SG reaches 1.180
voltage
power
current
5. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators, phase A must be
is unimportant
8. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown, output voltage at the load is 200V. What is the
voltage across the shunt winding?
The 100 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the 0.04 ohm are the field
windings.
The generator output is split between the 0.06 ohm and the
100 ohm load, but only by 0.06/100 x 200V = 0.12V (across
the 0.06 ohm).
So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200V
than the other two answers
206V
200V
212V
13. On a direct current twin generator system, the paralleling relay contacts close when the oncoming
generators voltage is
An AC generator
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A DC generator
A DC alternator
15. Calculate the battery terminal voltage of a NiCad battery with 15 cells
18 V 15 x 1.2V = 18V
15 V
30 V
1.55 V
1.8 V
1.2 V
20. On a split bus electrical system, the bus tie breakers are
all generators
immediately
a 3-phase transformer
Terminals shorted
Volts
Power
Current
RAT
PMG
Battery
series
All loads on an aircraft are
parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption wired in parallel
30. In a merz-price protection system of a single phase, if, when a fault occurs, only one relay contactor
opens,
only the relay on the side which has the fault will energise
then it is probable that one of the relays has failed short circuit
then it is probable that one of the coils has failed open circuit
33. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others
is unimportant
must be BCA
34. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected by
35. In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased by
E and F
A and B
C and D
generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage
the swashplate
at any time
underfrequency
undervoltage
overcurrent
Boric acid
Distilled water
Bicarbonate of soda
52. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent
54. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for
overload protection
58. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
59. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain generator
outputs at the same voltage
to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more generators
an IDG
a CSD
66. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of
PVC
Teflon
Nomex
70. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
time delay circuit Inverse time delay - could also be considered correct
amplitude of voltage
ID unit
CSD unit
swashplate
74. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will
increase
decrease Since volume increases, but mass remains constant, with temperature, density decreases
75. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
On the GCU
by IDG
by CSU
a GCU
B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's.
a BPCU
The BPCU controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding.'
an IRS
79. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its secondary.
What is the current drawn from the source?
3A
Find current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A.
1.2 A
Next find current in Primary = 4 x 3/10 = 12/10 = 1.2A
0.3 A
80. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial
high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current
there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines
is permitted
is not allowed
82. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.
It is defective
It must be replaced
It needs topping up
83. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the battery be
expected to power essential equipment?
60 minutes
Forever
30 minute
84. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for
subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell
AC generators in parallel
DC generators in parallel
should only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done
102 Amps
101 Amps
100 Amps
AC
AC or DC
DC
Chapter 24 Section 21
Chapter 31 Section 21
Chapter 24 Section 31
in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
144 degrees C
71 degrees F
144 degrees F
constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage
constant current
constant voltage
stationary
fluctuating
current coil
voltage coil
decreases frequency
short circuits
103. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
rotating at idle
stationary
rotating at Nsync
106. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the
107. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output
voltage will
series
parallel
Ground or earth
Airstream
Compressor
Fan
Ampere hours
Watts
Joules
112. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the
coil due to induction as the relay switches off
116. Eddy currents are
circulating currents
neutral
negative
positive
121. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for
differential protection
load monitoring
rectification
less current to the busbar Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant).
Variable AC
A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field (pulse
Pulse width modulated DC width modulated on a transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar
(constant voltage but variable current depending on load).
Slightly variable DC
126. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is power
maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?
127. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the
generator exciter?
kVAR
kVA
kW
Under-current
Under-frequency
Under-volt
131. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?
Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields
Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives
Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by
adjustment of generator fields
132. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger
switched off automatically?
When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting
134. When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset
after the fault has been cleared Boeing opps manual states that you are allowed to
attempt to reset the field after checking all
on the ground only parameters are now normal, as it may have been a
transient fault Boe 747 classic 10.20.02
by cycling the generator switch
BPCU
ELCU
GCU
charge
electrolyte temperature
electrolyte level
remain constant
sodium bicarbonate
citric acid
borax powder
each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation
restores magnetism
increases resistance
decreases resistance
148. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?
Battery charge
Electrolyte temperature
Ambient temperature
when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench
during flight
155. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?
Evaporation
Undercharging current
157. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment, which procedure should be
followed?
Apply sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse
158. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage battery electrolyte is true?
The hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the
electrolyte temperature
The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is
60F
A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte
temperature is above 20C
159. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the following resultant
action in the voltage regulator:-
The volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile
The volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field
The volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation
have current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower
have current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled
161. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached because
the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution
162. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a
constant voltage source?
164. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium battery
cells that have been in service for time is an indication of
excessive gassing
normal operation
165. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is
likely to result in
166. If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less than that drawn from
No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator
in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator
167. On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect the generator drive and
168. In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the
voltage regulator
generator speed
170. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is
being charged
in a discharged condition
171. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because
the
measure the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed
By measuring discharge
174. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?
The cell temperature will run too low for proper output
176. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only
178. In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the
voltage regulator
generator speed
overspeeding of AC motors
overheating of inductive devices Inductive devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency
sulphuric acid
nitric acid
hydrochloric acid
181. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be carried out
minute
second
revolution
90 degrees apart
184. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery charging
electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added
has 24 cells
has 6 cells
has 12 cells
186. The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps. Ammeter reading will be
5 amps Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle in this case
7 amps
3.4 amps
188. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under
varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
189. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
remain constant and the amperage output will decrease Assuming no voltage regulator is considered,
otherwise 'remain constant and the
decrease and the amperage output will increase
amperage output will increase' is the answer
190. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery
one cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same
only the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals
192. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?
Hydraulic pump
Standby compass
Windscreen heating
194. Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft
the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour
engine speed
field current
armature current
196. A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of
37.5 kW
24 kW
30 kW
remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid
contained in the electrolyte
changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge
remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state
of charge
198. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at the 10
hour rate will deliver
60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases
201. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the generator output voltage
will
decrease
increase
remain constant
202. For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be
AC at 50 c.p.s.
DC
AC at 400 c.p.s
203. When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery charging
thermal runaway
slip rings
the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed
209. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it should be stored
210. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is
211. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close due to
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery
214. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-
DC to AC
AC to a higher frequency AC
AC to DC
216. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator voltage is carried out by
hygrometer
hydrometer
hypsometer
90%
80%
50%
219. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the
positive earth
positive
negative
the fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's
discharging at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state
measuring the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn
discharging while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking the
time to be discharged
223. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary to
deicing loads
36V 40Ah
12V 120Ah
36V 120Ah
36V 120Ah
12V 120Ah
12V 40Ah
a DC motor
an AC motor
either an AC or DC motor
6000
8000 400/3 x 60
4000
232. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
power rating
efficiency
power factor
Volt Amps
Kilovolts
Watts
234. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery output?
24V
22V
20V
voltage
speed
current
is unimportant
must be synchronized
238. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts per cell) furnishes 10
amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this instance is
5.0 ohms
OCV = 2.1 x 12 = 25.2 CCV = 10 x 2 = 20. Internal voltage drop = 5.2 V.
0.52 ohms
Internal R=V/I = 5.2/10 = 0.52
2.52 ohms
242. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the same
resistive circuits
inductive circuits
capacitive circuits
output voltage
246. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system, before full output is available
from the voltage regulator?
A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator on
line
Excitation from the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence
249. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage frequency and phase
relationship is
the same
250. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. They will be synchronised when
251. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and frequency
can be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel
can be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator
cannot be checked
crash engagement
used during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails
dry condition
direct current to AC
deicing loads
fluorescent lights
instruments
262. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid battery?
Prevent bounce
9g
15g
12g
compressed air
CO2
nitrogen
that gives a warning light in the cockpit and an aural warning in the main cabin
4. If seat belt stitching is worn, where are the replacement stitches placed?
Diagonally
Airworthiness Notice 79
Nitrogen
air
CO2
be rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts
8. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under
Class B
Class C
Class D
With MEK
Every 12 months
4.5g
9g
0.5g
BCARs
ANO
AWN 99
14. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then:
1 megaphone is required
JARs
any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground Testing of the cartridges is the
same procedure as testing fire
one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time bottle cartridges.
all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body
17. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20 or more is
15 inches
24 inches
helium
oxygen
manually
electrically
5 inches
4 inches
3 inches
10 inches
7 inches
5 inches
a controlled item
an uncontrolled item
neither, as it is removable
No Naked Flame
No Smoking
No Cigarettes
4. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit (PSU). To reset the light
5. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above
45C
65C
55C
captain
first officer
7. What is the EASA regulation of the minimum separation between a seat and another seat or
structure?
10 inches
7 inches
8. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?
26 inches
24 inches
28 inches
you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP)
CAAIPs
AWN 58
the CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances
the weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances
5 inches
7 inches
3 inches
polypropylene
hessian
Cargo nets are made from nylon or polyester
nylon (not polypropylene).
14. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating
rope
netting
18. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called
controlled equipment
uncontrolled equipment
minimum equipment
not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour
BCAR Section L
Airworthiness Notice 99
CAAIPS
stays on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off line
goes off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line
goes off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and generator goes off
reacting with the oxygen in the air or the flame, rendering it inert
3. A fire test is carried out and the test button is released, but the light remains on. This is because
there is a fire
4. A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing
it is separated by steel
600psi +/- 25
8. After a fire detection system test, the red light remains ON. This indicates
high resistance
a fire
a short circuit
fluorine atoms
chlorine atoms
carbon atoms
10. What type of gas is used as a propellant for a high rate of discharge extinguishing system?
Carbon dioxide
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation
12. Which areas of a civil transport aircraft would have smoke detectors fitted?
false alarm
14. In which of the following would you expect to find a smoke detector?
undercarriage bay
APU bay
Battery bay
1250 psi
600 psi
1500 psi
17. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a
class B compartment
class D compartment
class A compartment
there is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory
there is a short to earth, the system will work but not test satisfactory
19. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when
20. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out
the signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning
a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning
the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder
Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged The temperature
sensitive strip changes
Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways color from white to Module 11
black at the indicated
temp. B737 MM 26-24-
00 pg1
197
detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the
condition is no longer present
helium gas
oxygen gas
nitrogen gas
to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat
Aural
Red light
AC or DC
DC
AC
continuity check
calibration check
function check
cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power
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cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers
31. What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron Donner fire detection system?
Integrity comparator
Volts drop
Dirty contacts
every 5 years
every 2 years
A continuity check
34. In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?
Capacitance increase
Pressure
Continuity
AWN 83
CAAIPs
AWN 80
37. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class
40. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous firewire loop?
The firewire
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off
42. An indicator pin is protruding from a portable fire extinguisher. What does it indicate?
Bottle is empty
Bottle is full
base of container
head
support bracket
on base of body
on bracket
on head fitting
3. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 passengers?
4. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?
4 Methyl Bromide
3 BCF
4 Fire Extinguishers
6. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?
Weighed
Bi-annually
Every 5 years
Annually
engines only
every 24 months
every 5 years
1. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground locks to the
main control surface
is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by
the wind
proportional controls
3. If aerodynamic balancing is increased, what is the effect on the centre of pressure of the control surface?
It moves forward
It is not effected
It moves back
all frequencies
electrical signals
10. A static friction check is carried out during control surface rigging using
a spring balance to ensure there is a minimum amount of feel when the controls are moved
is approaching a stall
goes supersonic
13. Automatic trim systems on some aircraft installations are actuated with two speeds of operation.
Operation at high speed is used during
flaps down
mach trim
only operate in flight Flight spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. However
Ground spoilers can ONLY be used on the ground.
only operate on the ground
15. Considering an aileron to rudder crossfeed, in a left wing down turn, the
at stall
after stall
before stall
differential ailerons
azimuth instability
lateral instability
longitudinal instability
a plain bearing
a roller bearing
21. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
22. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of
pulley misalignment
cable misalignment
23. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.
can only be carried out during flight A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot
requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls
25. What is an aileron balance cable for?
26. The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the
stagnation point
centre of pressure
27. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of the elevator is restricted
for 'up' travel movement Use of trim reduces the associated control movement direction
neither up nor down, as movement of the trim tab would make no difference to the movement
15
VS
1.2 VS
1.05 VS
the aircraft has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category
32. In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
move up
move down
33. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will initially
VS1G + 15kts
1.05VS1G
1.2VS1G
35. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will
remain stationary
both move up
to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack
38. Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall
characteristics include:
39. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the
transition region
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centre of lift
stagnation point
40. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with
42. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the
control surface and the balance tabs
43. The two switches for pitch trim are located The 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay
to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to engage
on the control column acting like an 'AND' switch the clutch. The other switch half is to supply the
power to the motor. Both must be operated
on the control column acting like an 'OR' switch
together, to operate the trim.
on the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer.
44. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be
bearing seized
45. Speed brakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft
to prevent aquaplaning
46. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by
altitude
airspeed
flap position
49. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?
Droop The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass
easily from one side of actuator piston to the other. This is to
Remain in last position prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. Surfaces
Go to neutral behave like manually controlled surfaces.
fitting a tachogenerator
51. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
7%
10.321%
4%
60. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground
and
continued pitch input If the elevator is deflected over a long time, the AFCS trims the
horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the elevator deflection load
pitch of aircraft in cruise
C of G movement
ELAC
SEC
66. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?
balance panels
trim tabs
mass balance
68. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
Fast/Slow indication
73. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in
Mach/Speed Trim
Pitch Trim
Electric Trim
an R.V.D.T.
a S.C.M.
a microswitch
minimise flutter
To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn
85. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual reversion is that
it must be
87. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by
elevator
rudder
ailerons
elevator
rudder
ailerons
to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot's control in cockpit
rudder
elevator
ailerons
together only
the stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability
the stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high
the stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability
hydraulically
by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
97. When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by
operating the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops
98. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag than the low wing, this
may be compensated for by
operating the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached
99. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a
split flap
plain flap
Fowler flap
100. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?
Fowler flap
Slotted flap
Split flap
Tailplane
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Elevator
Rudder
102. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction
to the control surface is called a
trim tab
servo tab
103. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe
turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the 'Never Exceed Limit'?
Wheel brakes
Lift dumpers
Air brakes
rudder
ailerons
elevators
105. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?
Balance tabs
Trim tabs
Spring tabs
106. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to zero, the flying control
surfaces
droop
stay at neutral
109. In a power assisted flight control system, the feel required is normally supplied by
air loads on the control surfaces Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback.
Power 'operated' controls use a Q feel system
stretching springs
'Q' feel
nulling of the servo valve Nulling the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock.
117. If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler system, the spoiler panels
go to full up
pitch changes
yawing
rolling
121. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads
equal aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement
123. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left
the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down
moves the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll
is an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column
127. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by
128. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing low, an
aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up
move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree
move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral
129. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the direction of travel of
the trim tab?
The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down
brass
stainless steel
131. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft is used primarily to
133. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to the aircraft's
roll frequency
pitch Frequency
134. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to stall
fast/slow switch
throttle lever
flap position
135. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the
increasing the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity
aft to fwd
right to left
fwd to aft
AC
Battery
DC
capacitance increases
capacitance decreases
having baffles within the tank and supports on the outside to resist fuel surge
8. When carrying out an insulation check on a fuel probe, what is the Maximum voltage to use
500 V
30 V
The fuel probe excitation is 115V AC. As a rule of thumb,
250 V use an insulation tester 2x the normal operating voltage.
9. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated
by air
by the fuel
by internal cooling
115 V AC
battery
28 V DC bus
no airspace
no change
decreases
increases
the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full
red dots
green sludge
contact adhesive
bolts
17. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with
18. After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
tank outlet
engine inlet
20. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to
hard reversion
soft reversion
mechanical reversion
20 PSI
15 PSI
40 PSI
tank to tank
26. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vapour ignition?
A nozzle
A corona device
An anti-corona device
27. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?
Depends on altitude
Increases
Decreases
28. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should
be full
be empty
require no cooling
to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination
31. In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates
pump failure
35. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a
NACA duct
float valve
36. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up
37. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show
38. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the following is most prone to
leaks?
Rigid
Flexible
Integral
39. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the boost pump canister, this
could be caused by
the seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced
43. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would
44. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is classified as a
stain
seep
run
45. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be
wetted with
Water
Methylated Spirit
Kerosene
are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight
a parallel system
2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize
2. What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion?
A hydraulic pump
An actuating cylinder
An accumulator
3. What is the unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into rotary motion?
A hydraulic motor
An actuating cylinder
A hydraulic pump
4. Which device allows the free flow of fluid in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?
Shutoff valve
Metering piston
Check valve
is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions
is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator charged
with fluid
7. An hydraulic accumulator has low air/nitrogen pressure. What will be the indications?
10. What type of valve prevents pressure from building up until a demand is placed in an open-center
hydraulic system?
An unloading valve
A selector valve
A bypass valve
continuously
in parallel
in series
White
Green
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Yellow
Fluid loss
Increase alkalinity
Increase viscosity
Increase acidity Hi acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis
18. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?
By pressurising
natural rubber
synthetic rubber
alkalinity
acidity
viscosity
24. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being
used?
ACOV
restriction valve
angle of swashplate
IDG
1800 PSI
3000 PSI
300 PSI
do a bonding check
Vent to atmosphere
gears
servo pressure
maximum stroke
minimum stroke
overpressure
pump cavitation
reverse flow
a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring
When selected on
37. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts:
most of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit
pump cavitation
relieve excess pressure Thermal relief valves relieve the pressure build-up
due to excessive temperature
prevent a leak back of pressure
44. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a service is selected is
selector
accumulator
safety switches
50. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial nitrogen pressure of 1000 PSI . When the hydraulic system
pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the nitrogen pressure is
4000 PSI
3000 PSI
1000 PSI
52. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the
relief valve
is not important
must be at maximum
the pilot
a striker pin
60. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are an
methylated spirits
Butyl Rubber
Natural Rubber
Synthetic Rubber
double acting
low pressure
single acting
69. To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different pressures
pressure x stroke
area x pressure
area x volume
72. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a flexible hose under pressure
have a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator
be completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck
have a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck
by speed of pump
heater mat
overshoe
spraymat
Isopropyl alcohol
DC
AC or DC
AC
9. Ice formed on the object or surface will change its shape, this changes is more detrimental and vulnerable
to a
large object
small object
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10. In which ice detection method, the activation of warning system is through accumulation of ice on a probe
projected into the airstream?
Inferential method
Impingement method
natural rubber
synthetic rubber
rubberised fabric
Remote container
14. What is the correct way of measuring the windshield wiper force prior to adjustment?
7F at 100 PSI
70F at 10 PSI
18. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is
increase in drag
increase in weight
reduction in CLmax
more efficient
one system for both sides but with the same power source
21. In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most
critical?
22. Prior to securing a cemented leading edge de-icing boot you must
23. Prior to securing a screw-fastened leading edge de-icing boot you must
suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing
26. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck
sealed window
use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen
step up voltage
34. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is dense,
tough and sticks closely to the surface is called
rime Ice
hoar Frost
glaze Ice
they must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability
they should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings
they can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe
increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in
the cockpit
decreased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light in
the cockpit
ice formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the cockpit
38. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck without selection being
made. The most probable cause would be
normal
a short circuit
an open circuit
engine compressors
a combustion heater
nylon
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stainless steel
Monel
Gleam ice
Glaze ice
Rime ice
Remove tyre, reposition the opposite way round to prevent more creep
external leakage
internal leakage
brake drum
wheel hub
wheel flange
The aircraft must have an exact load onboard and air charge to give an exact leg extension
The leg extension can vary with aircraft load. The leg pressure and extension should be checked against
a chart in the AMM
The leg must be serviced to give an exact extension regardless of aircraft load
leak in reservoir
prevent a leak
is a 3-option system
11. The operational hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel steering system of large aircraft normally comes
from
12. When removing the wheel with a multiple disks brake, the wheel brake should be
disconnected first
set ON (applied)
14. Twin contact tread tyres are fitted to the nose wheel to assist in
preventing aquaplaning
15. Whilst taxiing at low speed, a wheel skids. What is the likely cause?
applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly
5-10 mph
10-15 mph
15-20 mph
18. The landing gear is in the down and locked position but the red light is still on. The most probable fault is
vertically
at 15 to 20 P.S.I.
15% by volume
5% by pressure
5% by volume
23. A tyre specification 32 x 10.75 - 14. What does the 10.75 refer to?
Section Width
Overall diameter
Bead diameter
24. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?
permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension
30. After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes are
shorted sensor
wiring problem
32. These markings are found on a tyre, 32 x 10.45 R 14. What does the number 32 mean?
Inner diameter
width
Outer diameter
breather points
military reference
a lock ring
a retainer plate
bolts
to provide strength
37. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is
normal
military reference
breather points
39. On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
a faulty actuator
have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures
have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures
43. When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be
tubeless tyres
tubed tyres
250C
200C
150C
lowering slats
an anti-skid device
increased flaring
loss of pressure/leakage
Tyre inflation
Skid control
54. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is descending to land. The most
likely reason for this warning is
55. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is positioned in the
return line from the landing gear selector The restrictor is placed in the retraction line
to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack
landing gear up line
on extension, to slow the rate of extension.
56. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems
to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment
brakes seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures
rudder pedals
excessive toe-in
over-inflation
under-inflation
prevent skidding
65. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a
snubber is used
66. On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with
nitrogen
non-return valve
anti-skid units
is pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure
is not pressurized
70. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is of which type
Direct Acting
Hydro Mechanical
Articulated
horizontally, up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points
74. When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows
no indication
green light
red light
excessive wear
under pressure
overpressure
77. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem
a plain tread
twin contact
horizontally
vertically
80. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will
81. When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with
balance indicator
heavy spot
light spot
using a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate
measuring the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released
White
Green
Red
20
15
20 candela
50 candela
240 candela
of at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern
8. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
15%
25%
20%
20
15
11
110
11
140
125
180
110
battery bus
green
white
red
DC handling bus
AC handling bus
15. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?
20% obscured
15% obscured
10% obscured
None
25%
10%
40
60
50
28 V AC
28 V DC
115 V AC
21. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during flight?
Armed
OFF
ON
22. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation of
the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is
10%
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15%
25%
50 candelas
100 candelas
20 candelas
The linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground.
It cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced
26. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid electrical shock
or burning. That time period is at least
1 minute
2 minutes
5 minutes
27. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through an inclusive angle of
are instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted
30. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on
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individually
together
amber
red
green
Duct overheat
Fire warning
Halon
Freon
Xenon
35. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be spaced
at 70 inch intervals
at 60 inch intervals
at 40 inch intervals
landing Light
strobe light
37. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and its light colour is what?
38. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system
Single circuit
Individual circuits
Dual circuit
completely empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times
completely empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times
completely empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times
2. Oxygen bottles should not be left with less that 500 psi pressure because
it can damage the diluter demand regulator and would require maintenance
altitude selection
It is green
6. When charging an oxygen cylinder, the pressure goes to zero. Where is the likely fault?
In the mask
7. How many turns of teflon tape are you allowed on oxygen threads and how many threads should have no
tape?
8. Anoxia is due to
lack of oxygen
litmus paper
a glass plate
12. O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?
Supernumerator regular
Breathing regulator
Temperature compensator
13. If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?
Raju Poulose Kuwait
Breathing masks areAirways
the most common cause of leaks. O2 Module 11
systems being turned on during pilot pre flight checks.
258
Breathing mask
Loose connection
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel
the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit
temperature gauge
when breathing
an overpressure indicator
a demand regulator
Freon
N2
O2
Sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air
1800 PSI
300 PSI
3000 PSI
turned on by crew
turned off
an hydraulic system
a fuel system
an oxygen system
24. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down
passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
25. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?
Line valve
Charging connection
Shut-off valve
100% is selected
additional flightcrew
changes in altitude
Audible warning
4 years
10 years
2 years
a change in colour
a protruding pin
15 minutes
5 minutes
30 minutes
10,000ft
4,000 ft
8,000ft
4,000 ft
25,000 ft
38,000 ft
36. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude must be
40. In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in
aluminium
alloy steel
stainless steel
1,800 p.s.i.
2,000 p.s.i.
1,200 p.s.i.
pounds/minute
litres/minute
litres/pounds
every 4 years
every 6 years
every 3 years
80 - 2250 litres
is relieved by a thermostat
50. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?
by colour coding
by an arrow
by visual inspection
carbon fibres
sintered bronze
steel wool
pressure indicators
flow indicators
lack of Anoxia
rectangles
dots
diamonds
black
soapy water
58. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is
passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down
59. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to avoid leaving
magnesium particles
purity
pressure
temperature
applied to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape
applied to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape
applied to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
stainless steel
aluminium alloy
titanium
WD40
Teflon tape
hellerene
a hygrometer is used
PRVs
butterfly pump
spur gear
reciprocating pump
centrifugal Compressor
butterfly pump
reciprocating pump
6. On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods
of time, the system would
essential equipment
all equipment
non-essential equipment
8. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain
It must be filtered
piston type
centrifugal type
electrical pump
pneumatic pressure
gravity
water cooling
thermal protection
are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only
induction heater
ribbon heater
AWN 80
AWN 83
AWN 79
potable water
racasan
a CRT screen
an LED display
In Fault
In Test
In Fault History
Warning computer
FMC
CMC
7. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in
volatile memory
non-volatile memory
9. A MCDU is
the tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased
TEST 1
90 Hz
90 KHZ
150 Hz
a hygrometer is used
5.How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?
By door stops
6.To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a
snubber is used
7.A fire detection system can pass through one zone to another providing
it is separated by steel
Annually
Every 5 years
Bi-annually
40 PSI
20 PSI
15 PSI
10.For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
decreases
increases
The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer
13.Extending the flaps while maintaining a constant angle of attack (all other factors constant)
use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight
are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel
16.To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
induced drag, wave drag, form drag, skin friction drag and interference drag
18.When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem
19.Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
longerons
bulkheads
stringers
roll
yaw
pitch
29.On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?
Milled stringers
Ribs
piston type
centrifugal type
1090 MHz
1030 MHz
1000 MHz
35.To enable a hydraulic system to operate two components with different pressures, a
spar cap
main spar
skin
As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground
directly below the aircraft
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an
evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer
39.Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a turbo-fan cold air system
flows to the
fan
turbine
interfay
brush coat
fillet
41.Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
Autothrottle
Flaps/undercarriage
Rudder/ailerons
42.When turbulence mode is selected, which other mode will not be available?
VOR
Heading Hold
ALT Hold
43.Stalling speed in a 15 bank level turn is 60kt. The stalling speed in a 45 bank level turn will be
70 kts
60 kts
50 kts
44.If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift-to-drag ratio will
not be affected
increase
decrease
45.When entering a stall, the CG of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept wing will (ii)
have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures
weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures
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have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures
AWN 80
AWN 79
AWN 83
2024
7075
5056
49.A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite direction to
the control surface is called a
servo tab
trim tab
the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion
55.If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
stainless steel
aluminium alloy
plastic
57.What is the maximum allowable concentration (by volume) of carbon monoxide in occupied aircraft
compartment?
revolution
minute
second
resistive circuits
capacitive circuits
inductive circuits
Under-frequency
Under-current
Under-volt
63.When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
all closed
all open
removed
do a bonding check
65.How is the the glideslope frequency chosen on the navigation control panel?
67.The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same service area is
likely to result in
a rate gyro
an azimuth gyro
a vertical gyro
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off
red warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on
71.After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
tank outlet
engine inlet
black
75.On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
a faulty actuator
is easier to manufacture
both ends
designed to withstand vibration & mechanical loads sustained during normal operation
84.When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the height is maintained
the pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced
85.In a pulsed width modulating type voltage regulator, the generator output voltage is increased by
86.If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to
gears
regulators
servo pressure
White
Amber
Blue
5 - 5.1 MHz
5 - 5.1 GHz
5 - 5.1 KHz
Fire warning
Duct overheat
TA
either RA or TA
RA
unidirectional
95.A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
96.In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the
voltage regulator
generator speed
98.Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
amplitude of voltage
Ampere hours
Joules
Watts
ANO 25
JAR 25
CS 25
1800 PSI
300 PSI
3000 PSI
105.How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other
aircraft?
By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal
One current
to ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment
to stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped
vertical gyros
directional gyros
vertical stabiliser
112.From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator
(DDRMI)?
113.Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the linen bag should be
wetted with
Kerosene
Water
Methylated Spirit
is permitted
is not allowed
a safe-life structure
on-condition structure
a failsafe structure
spill valves
120.On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown on the
EADI
EHSI
121.Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a
pitot-static leak check?
Altimeter
123.On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with
nitrogen
8.4 minutes
84.4 minutes
84.4 seconds
127.Voltage is controlled by
the swashplate
the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure
sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load