Upkar Mechanical and Electrical MCQ PDF

Mechanical Engineering
1 THERMODYNAMICS
01. For isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the (B) Temperature

P (C) Energy
value of is equal to
P (D) Number of moles
V V 07. A Carnot engine works between a hot reser-
(A) 1/2 (B)
V V voir at temperature T 1 and a cold reservoir at
V temperature T2. To increase the efficiency
(C) (D) None of these
V (A) T1 and T 2 both should be increased
PV (B) T1 and T 2 both should be decreased
02. The gas law = constant is true for
T (C) T1 should be decreased and T 2 increased
(A) Isothermal changes only
(D) T1 should be increased and T2 decreased
(B) Adiabatic changes only
(C) Both isothermal and adiabatic changes 08. Which of the following is an intensive pro-
perty of a thermodynamic system ?
(D) Neither isothermal nor adiabatic changes
(A) Volume (B) Temperature
03. Air in a cylinder is suddenly compressed by a
piston with the passage of time (C) Mass (D) Energy
(A) The pressure decreases 09. Which of the following is the extensive
(B) The pressure increases property of a thermodynamic system ?
(C) The pressure may remain constant (A) Pressure (B) Volume
(D) The pressure may increase or decrease (C) Temperature (D) Density
depending upon the nature of gas 10. The temperature at which the volume of a gas
04. The work done in an adiabatic change on a becomes zero is called
particular gas depends upon only (A) Absolute scale temperature
(A) Change in value (B) Absolute zero temperature
(B) Change in pressure (C) Absolute temperature
(C) Change in temperature (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above
11. The unit of energy in SI system is
05. The work done in an isothermal expansion of (A) Joule (J) (B) Joule metre (Jm)
a gas depends upon
(C) Watt (W) (D) Joule/metre (J/m)
(A) Temperature
(B) Expansion ratio only 12. One watt is equal to
(C) Both temperature and expansion ratio (A) 1 Nm (B) 1 N/min
(D) Neither temperature nor expansion ratio (C) 10 N/S (D) 1000 Nm/S
06. The first law of thermodynamics is concerned 13. One joule (J) is equal to
with the conservation of (A) 1 Nm (B) K Nm
(A) Number of molecules (C) 10 Nm/S (D) 10 K Nm/S
Mechanical | 3
14. The heating and expanding of a gas is 22. For any reversible process, the change in
called entropy of the system and surrounding is
(A) Thermodynamic system (A) Zero (B) Unity
(B) Thermodynamic cycle (C) Negative (D) Positive
(C) Thermodynamic process 23. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with
(D) Thermodynamic law (A) Conservation of energy
15. Which of the following statement is correct ? (B) Conservation of heat
(A) The slope of vaporisation curve is always (C) Conservation of mass
negative (D) Conservation of heat into work
(B) The slope of vaporisation curve is always
24. The property of a working substance which
positive
increases or decreases as the heat is supplied
(C) The slope of sublimation curve is or removed in a reversible manner is known
negative for all pure substances as
(D) The slope of fusion curve is positive for (A) Enthalpy
all pure substances
(B) Internal energy
16. The specific volume of water when heated at (C) Entropy
0C (D) External energy
(A) First increases and then decreases
25. The entropy may be expressed as a function
(B) First decreases and then increases
of
(C) Increases steadily
(A) Pressure and Temperature
(D) Decreases steadily
(B) Temperature and Volume
17. Internal energy of a perfect gas depends on (C) Heat and work
(A) Temperature, specific heat and pressure (D) All of the above
(B) Temperature, specific heat and enthalpy
26. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed
(C) Temperature, specific heat and entropy by the gas is
(D) Temperature only (A) Positive
18. In reversible polytropic process (B) Negative
(A) True heat transfer occurs (C) Positive and negative
(B) The entropy remains constant (D) None of the above
(C) The enthalpy remains constant 27. Gibbs function is expressed as
(D) The internal energy remains constant (A) (u + PV TS)
19. An isentropic process is always (B) (u + PV + Tds)
(C) (u + PdV Tds)
(A) Irreversible and adiabatic
(D) (u + PV SdT)
(B) Reversible and isothermal
(C) Frictionless 28. Availability function is expressed as
(A) a = (u + P0V T0S)
(D) Reversible and adiabatic
(B) a = (u + P0 dV T0ds)
20. Second law of thermodynamics defines
(C) a = (du + P0 dV T0ds)
(A) Heat (B) Work
(D) a = (u + P0 V + T0 S)
(C) Enthalpy (D) Entropy
29. For each mole of oxygen, number of moles of
21. For any reversible adiabatic process, the nitrogen required for complete combustion of
change in entropy is carbon are
(A) Zero (B) Minimum (A) 20/21 (B) 2/21
(C) Maximum (D) Infinite (C) 77/21 (D) 79/21
4 | Mechanical
30. The most important solid fuel is 39. Gases have could have an infinite, number of
(A) Wood (B) Charcoal specific heats but only specific heats are
(C) Coal (D) All of the above defined.
(A) One (B) Two
31. A chemical fuel is a substance which releases
on combustion. (C) Three (D) Four
(A) Chemical energy 40. Alcohol is a liquid fuel obtained from
(B) Heat energy (A) Vegetable matter (B) Crude oil
(C) Sound energy (C) Coal (D) None of these
(D) Magnetic energy 41. Which one of the following processes or
32. The smallest particle which can take part in a systems does not involve heat ?
chemical change is called ? (A) Steady processes
(A) Atom (B) Molecules (B) Isothermal processes
(C) Electron (D) Compound (C) Adiabatic processes
33. The relative humidity during cooling and (D) Thermal processes
dehumidification of moist air 42. For storing a gas which one of the following
(A) Increases types of compression will be ideal ?
(B) Decreases (A) Constant volume
(C) Can increase or decrease (B) Polytropic
(D) Remains constant (C) Adiabatic
(D) Isothermal
34. The relative humidity, during sensible heat-
ing 43. Which one of the following gases obeys
(A) Can increase or decrease kinetic theory perfectly ?
(B) Increase (A) Perfect gas
(B) Pure gas
(C) Decrease
(C) Monoatomic gas
(D) Remains constant
(D) Diatomic gas
35. An air washer can work as a 44. is not a property of the system.
(A) Filter only (A) Pressure (B) Temperature
(B) Humidifier only (C) Heat (D) Specific volume
(C) Dehumidifier only 45. Exhaust gases from an engine possess which
(D) All of the above of the following enrgies ?
36. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam (A) Chemical energy
power plant may be in the range of (B) Potential energy
(A) 15 to 20% (B) 35 to 45% (C) Solar energy
(C) 70 to 80% (D) 90 to 95% (D) Kinetic energy
37. In case of hyperbolic expansion of a gas, the 46. Diffusion is
heat supplied is the work done. (A) Mixing of unlike fluids
(A) Equal to (B) More than (B) Mixing of two portions of fluid
(C) Less than (D) None of these (C) Mixing of a gas in two containers at
38. The reversible engines are different pressure
(A) Least efficient (D) Mixing of two portions of a fluid at
(B) Most efficient different temperature
(C) Having same efficiency as reversible 47. First law of thermodynamics gives relation-
engines ship between which of the following ?
(D) None of the above (A) Heat and internal energy
Mechanical | 5
(B) Heat and work 56. is the unit of entropy.

(C) Heat, work and properties of the system (A) J/kg (B) J/kg K
(D) None of the above (C) J/K (D) J/kgs
48. The temperature in a process in which work is 57. The thermodynamics primarily deals in
done by expanding a gas under adiabatic change of state from
condition will (A) Electrical energy to useful work done
(A) Decrease (B) Wind power to useful work
(B) Increase
(C) Heat to work
(C) First decrease then increase
(D) Remain unaltered
49. Theoretically, a petrol engine operates on 58. In engineering thermodynamics the approach
cycle. towards matter is
(A) Constant entropy (A) Macroscopic
(B) Constant pressure (B) Microscopic
(C) Constant volume (C) Macroscopic and microscopic
(D) Constant temperature (D) None of above
50. cycle has the maximum efficiency. 59. A system is a specific space surrounded by a
(A) Brayton (B) Carnot boundary. A thermodynamics analysis is
(C) Rankine (D) Stirling concerned with
(A) Enery transfer only
51. Carnot cycle is a cycle.
(B) Mass transfer only
(A) Quasi-static (B) Semi-reversible
M (C) Energy and mass transfer only
(C) Reversible (D) Irreversible
52. is an irreversible cycle.
60. In a closed system
(A) Stirling cycle (B) Ericsson cycle
(A) Energy transfers from surrounding to
(C) Carnot cycle (D) None of the above system
53. To which of the following are Maxwells (B) Energy transfers from system to
thermodynamics relations applicable ? surrounding
(A) Thermodynamic processes (C) Energy transfers from system to
(B) Mechanical System in equilibrium surrounding and vice versa
(C) Chemical System in equilibrium (D) Energy as well as mass cross the
(D) Reversible process boundaries
54. A frictionless heat engine can be 100 per cent 61. Which one of the property geven below is an
efficient if its exhaust temperature is intensive property of the system ?
(A) 0C (A) Volume (B) Temperature
(B) 0K (C) Kinetic energy (D) Potential energy
(C) Equal to internal temperature 62. Which one of the property given below is an
(D) None of the above extensive property of the system ?
55. Water contained in a beaker can be made to (A) Pressure
boil by passing steam through it (B) Temperature
(A) At a pressure below the atmospheric (C) Potential energy
pressure (D) Viscosity
(B) At atmospheric process 63. Internal energy of a perfect gas is a function
(C) At a pressure greater than atmospheric of
pressure (A) Temperature only
(D) Any of the above (B) Temperature and pressure
6 | Mechanical
(C) Pressure only 72. The absolute temperature on centigrade scale

(D) Volume only at which volume of gas becomes zero is
(A) 460C (B) 273C
64. The mechanical equivalent of heat 'J' is equal
to (C) + 80C (D) + 100C
(A) 41868 kg/K.cal. 73. Molar volume is equal to
(B) 418 KJ/K.cal. (A) 2241 m3 at N.T.P.
(C) 41868 KJ/K.cal (B) 2241 m3 at N.T.P.
(D) None of the above (C) 2927 m3 at N.T.P.
65. According to first law of thermodynamics (D) 103 m3 at N.T.P.
(A) dW = J dQ (B) dW < J dQ 74. General energy equation for steam boiler is
given by
(C) dW > J dQ (D) None of the above (A) Q = H2 H1
66. Centrifugal pump is an example of (B) Q = H1 + H2
(A) Isolated system (C) Q = H2 H1 + Work done
(B) Closed system (D) Q = H2 H1 + Kinetic energy
(C) Steady flow system Where Q = Heat supplied
(D) None of the above and H2 H1 is change in enthalpy
67. Flow energy is due to 75. According to law of conservation of energy
(A) Transfer of mass across the boundaries (A) dQ = dW (B) dQ = dU
of the system (C) dQ = dW dU (D) dQ = dW + dU
(B) Change of temperature
76. Enthalpy (H) is equal to
(C) Height above the earth surface
PV PV
(D) None of the above (A) U + (B) U
J J
68. Bomb calorimeter is an example of R
(A) Open system (C) U + =1 (D) V + JPV
JPV
(B) Closed system 77. In a throttling process the
(C) Steady flow system (A) Volume remains constant
(D) Isolated system (B) Pressure remains constant
69. Liquids have (C) Temperature remains constant
(A) Two distinct values of specific heat (D) All the three remains constant
(B) Only one value of specific heat 78. Work done will be zero in case of
(C) Different values of specific heat at same (A) Isothermal process
temperature (B) Adiabatic process
(D) No specific heat (C) Free expansion
70. For any gas
79. Constant volume process is also known as
(A) C p = Cv (B) C p < Cv
(A) Isotropic process
(C) C p > Cv (D) None of these (B) Hyperbolic process
71. Which is correct ? (C) Isometric process
(A) C p C v = R J (D) Polytropic process
(B) C p C v = R/J 80. When a gas is heated according to the P V =
Constant the expansion is called
(C) C p C v = J / R (A) Hyperbolic (B) Polytropic
(D) C p C v = R J (C) Free expansion (D) None of these
Mechanical | 7
81. If H 1 and H2 are initial and final enthalpy of a 91. Coke is prepared from
given fluid, then in throttling process (A) Peat (B) Wood
(A) H1 > H2 (B) H1 < H2 (C) Bituminous (D) Producer gas
(C) H1 = H2 (D) None of these 92. Which fuel in the present form the percentage
82. A refrigeration system works on of carbon is maximum ?
(A) Second law of thermodynamics (A) Wood (B) Coke
(B) First law of thermodynamics (C) Lignite (D) Coal
(C) Zeroth law of thermodynamics 93. The solid fuel having the highest calorific
(D) None of the above value is
83. Which of the following cycle has the highest (A) Wood (B) Lignite
efficiency ? (C) Coke (D) Anthracite
(A) Otto cycle (B) Carnot cycle 94. For complete combustion of 1 kg of carbon
(C) Stirling cycle (D) Joule cycle require
84. Gas turbine works on (A) 8 kg of oxygen
(A) Constant volume cycle (B) 8/3 kg of oxygen
(B) Otto cycle (C) 3/8 kg of oxygen
(C) Ericsson cycle (D) None of the above
(D) Joule cycle 95. 100 kg of air contains
85. Thermal power plant works on (A) 21 kg of oxygen
(A) Rankine cycle (B) 35 kg of oxygen
(B) Otto cycle (C) 23 kg of oxygen
(C) Joule cycle (D) 73 kg of oxygen
(D) Constant pressure cycle Answers
86. Petrol engine works on 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C)
(A) Constant pressure cycle
6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
(B) Constant volume cycle
(C) Joule cycle 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A)
(D) Rankine cycle 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (D)
87. Constant volume cycle is also known as 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (A)
(A) Otto cycle (B) Rankine cycle 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (C)
(C) Joule cycle (D) Atkinson cycle 31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D)
88. Joule cycle is also known as 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (A)
(A) Bell Coleman cycle 41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (D)
(B) Otto cycle 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (B)
(C) Carnot cycle
51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (C)
(D) Brayton cycle
56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (C)
89. Reverse Joule cycle is also known as
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (C) 65. (A)
(A) Ericsson cycle
(B) Atkinson cycle 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (C)
(C) Bell Coleman cycle 71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (D)
(D) Otto cycle 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (A)
90. Which one is natural solid fuel ? 81. (C) 82. (A) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (A)
(A) Charcoal (B) Coke 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (D) 90. (C)
(C) Peat (D) None of these 91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (B) 95. (C)
2 NUCLEAR POWER PLANT
01. Electron was discovered by (C) Becquerel

(A) Faraday (B) Rutherford (D) Hahn and Strassmann
(C) Thomson (D) Kongen 11. Sun releases enormous amount of energy by
02. The ratio of specific charge of an electron to the process known as
that of an -particle is (A) Fusion (B) Fission
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 (C) Combustion (D) Impulsion
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1 12. Which of the following helps in knowing
03. When an electron moves in a transverse about the stability of nucleus ?
magnetic field, its path becomes (A) Binding energy
(A) Straight line (B) Circular (B) Binding energy per nucleon
(C) Parabola (D) Elliptical (C) Both
04. The size of an electron is of the order of (D) None of these
(A) Fermi (B) Angstrom 13. The commercial sources of energy are
(C) Micron (D) Nanometer (A) Solar, wind, biomass
05. Cathode rays consists of a beam of (B) Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear
(A) Proton (B) Positive ions energy
(C) Electron (D) None of these (C) Wood, animal wastes and agriculture
wastes
06. The radius of the nucleus is of the order of (D) None of the above
(A) 10-15 m (B) 10-18 m
-14
14. Non-commercial sources of energy are
(C) 10 m (D) 10-16 m
(A) Wood, animal wastes and agricultural
07. The ratio of the size of an atom to that of wastes
nucleus is equal to (B) Solar, wind, biomass
(A) 10 4 (B) 10 5 (C) Fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear
(C) 10 3 (D) 108 power
08. The nucleus of an atom consists of (D) None of the above
(A) Protons 15. The primary sources of energy are
(B) Protons and electrons (A) Coal, oil and uranium
(C) Protons and neutrons (B) Hydrogen, oxygen and water
(D) None of the above (C) Wind, biomass and geothermal
09. The binding energy of hydrogen atom is (D) None of the above
(A) 1 eV (B) Infinite 16. The secondary sources of energy are
(C) 136 eV (D) Zero (A) Solar, wind and water
10. Nuclear fission was discovered by (B) Coal, oil and uranium
(A) Rutherford (C) Both
(B) Curie (D) None of the above
Mechanical | 9
17. In India largest thermal power station is (B) Its technology is simple
located at (C) Abundance of thorium deposits are
(A) Kota (B) Sarni available in India
(C) Chandrapur (D) Neyveli (D) None of the above
18. The percentage of O 2 by weight in atmo- 27. Rankine cycle is a
spheric air is (A) Reversible cycle
(A) 18% (B) 23% (B) Irreversible cycle
(C) 77% (D) 79% z (C) Constant volume cycle
19. The percentage of O2 by volume in atmo- (D) None of the above
spheric air is 28. A steam power station requires space
(A) 21% (B) 23% (A) Equal to diesel power station
(C) 77% (D) 79% (B) More than diesel power station
20. The proper indication of incomplete combus- (C) Both
tion is (D) None of the above
(A) High CO content in fuel gases at exit 29. Economiser is used to heat
(B) High CO2 content in fuel gases at exit (A) Air (B) Feed water
(C) High temperature of fuel gases (C) Fuel gases (D) All above
(D) The smoking exhaust from chimney
30. The modern steam turbines are
21. The main source of production of biogas is (A) Impulse turbines
(A) Human waste (B) Reaction turbines
(B) Wet cow dung (C) Impulse-reaction turbines
(C) Wet livestock waste (D) None of the above
(D) All the above
31. The draught-which a chimney produces is
22. India's first nuclear power plant was installed called
at (A) Induced draught
(A) Tarapur (B) Kota (B) Natural draught
(C) Kalpakkam (D) None of the above (C) Forced draught
23. In fuel cell, the energy is converted into (D) Balanced draught
electrical energy. 32. The draught produced by steel chimney as
(A) Mechanical (B) Chemical compared to that produced by brick chimney
(C) Heat (D) Sound for the same height is
24. Solar thermal power generation can be (A) Less
achieved by (B) More
(A) Using focussing collector or heliostales (C) Same
(B) Using flat plate collectors (D) May be more or less
(C) Using a solar pond 33. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as
(D) Anyone of the above system compared to diesel engine plant is
25. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny (A) Higher (B) Lower
day is approximately (C) Same (D) None of the above
(A) 700 W/m2 (B) 800 W/m2 34. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as
(C) 1 KW/m2 (D) 2 KW/m2 compared to internal combustion recipro-
26. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable cating engine is
for India because (A) Higher (B) Lower
(A) These develop more power (C) Same (D) None of the above
10 | Mechanical
35. For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in 45. Critical mass of fuel is the amount required to
the range make the multiplication factor unity.
(A) 2 to 3 (B) 3 to 5 (A) Equal to (B) Less than
(C) 16 to 18 (D) 18 to 22 (C) More than (D) None of the above
36. A closed cycle gas turbine works on 46. The nuclear energy is measured in
(A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle (A) MeV (B) MW
(C) Joule cycle (D) Atkinson cycle (C) Curie (D) None of the above
37. Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine 47. Fission chain reaction is possible when
plant increases by (A) Fission produces the same number of
(A) Reheating (B) Intercooling neutrons which are absorbed
(C) Regenerator (D) All of the above (B) Fission produces more neutrons than are
absorbed
38. The average thermal efficiency of a modern
nuclear power plant is about (C) Fission produces less neutrons than are
absorbed
(A) 30% (B) 40%
(C) 60% (D) 80%
48. In nuclear chain fission reaction, each neutron
39. Reflector of a nuclear reactor are made up
which causes fission produces
of
(A) No new neutron
(A) Boron (B) Cast iron
(B) One new neutron
(C) Beryllium (D) Steel
(C) More than one new neutron
40. The function of a moderator in a nuclear (D) None of the above
reactor is
(A) To slow down the fast moving electrons 49. is the most commonly used moderator.
(B) To speed up the slow moving electrons (A) Graphite (B) Sodium
(C) To start the chain reaction (C) Deuterium (D) Any of the above
(D) None of the above 50. Which of the following are fertile materials ?
41. When a nuclear reactor is operating at (A) U238 and Th 239 (B) U238 and Th 232
constant power the multiplication factor is (C) U233 and Pu239 (D) U238 and Pu239
(A) Less than unity
51. In a nuclear reactor the function of a reflector
(B) Greater than unity is to
(C) Equal to unity (A) Reduce the speed of the neutrons
(D) None of the above (B) Stop the chain reaction
42. The conversion ratio of a breeder reactor is (C) Reflect the escaping neutrons back into
(A) Equal to unity (B) More than unity the core
(C) Less than unity (D) None of the above (D) All the above
43. In the nuclear fission reactions isotope 52. In a Gas Cooled Reactor (GCR) are
of uranium is used. used as moderator and coolant respectively.
(A) U235 (B) U234 (A) Heavy water and CO2
(C) U 238 (D) None of the above (B) Graphite and air
44. Tarapur nuclear power plant has (C) Graphite and CO2
(A) Pressurised water reactors (D) None of the above
(B) Boiling water reactors 53. A CANDU reactor uses
(C) CANDU type reactors (A) Only fertile material
(D) None of the above (B) Highly enriched uranium (85% U235)
Mechanical | 11
(C) Natural uranium as fuel and heavy water (C) Direct as well as diffuse radiation
as moderator and coolant (D) None of the above
62. Sun tracking is needed in the case of
54. Fission of U235 releases energy. collector.
(A) 200 MeV (B) 238 MeV (A) Flate plate
(C) 431 MeV (D) None of the above (B) Cylindrical parabolic and paraboloid
55. Fast breeder reactors are best suited for India (C) Both of them
because (D) None of the above
(A) Of large thorium deposits 63. The nucleus of an atom consists of
(B) Of large uranium deposits (A) Protons and electrons
(C) Of large plutonium deposits (B) Protons and neutrons
(D) None of the above (C) Neutrons and electrons
56. India's first nuclear power plant was started (D) None of the above
at 64. Each protons carries a single unit
(A) Narora (U.P.) (A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge
(B) Tarapur (Mumbai) (C) Neutral charge (D) Unpredictable
(C) Kota (Rajasthan)
65. Each neutron carries a single unit
(D) Kalpakkam (Chennai)
(A) Negative charge (B) Positive charge
57. The function of a solar collector is to (C) Neutral charge (D) None of the above
convert
(A) Solar energy into electricity 66. Each electron carries a single unit
(B) Solar energy into radiation (A) Negative charge (B) Positive charge
(C) Solar energy into thermal energy (C) Neutral charge (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 67. If A = mass number, Z = atomic number then
number of neutrons in the nucleus are equal
58. Most of the solar radiation received on earth
to
surface lies within the range of
(A) A + Z (B) A Z
(A) 02 to 04 microns
(C) A Z (D) A / Z
(B) 038 to 078 microns
(C) 0 to 038 microns 68. The method of identifying the element is
(D) None of the above (A) ZXA (B) XAZ
(C) AXZ (D) XA/Z
59. Flat plate collector absorbs
(A) Direct radiation only 69. The lithium element is represented as 3 Li7 .
(B) Diffuse radiation only The sum of protons and electrons is equal
(C) Direct and diffuse both to
(D) None of the above (A) 10 (B) 3
(C) 7 (D) 4
60. Temperature attained by a flat-plate collector
is of the 70. If carbon is represented as 6 C 12 , then the
(A) Order of above 90C number of electrons are equal to
(B) Range of 100C to 150C (A) 6 (B) 12
(C) Above 15C (C) 18 (D) 2
(D) None of the above 71. If Beryllium is represented as 5 Be9 then the
61. A Pyranometer is used for measurement of number of neutrons are equal to
(A) Direct radiation only (A) 9 (B) 5
(B) Diffuse radiation only (C) 14 (D) 4
12 | Mechanical
72. The compound nucleus has 82. The readily fissionable material is
(A) Kinetic energy (A) Uranium-234 (B) Uranium-235
(B) Binding energy of bombarding particles (C) Uranium-238 (D) All the above
(C) Both K.E. and B.E. of bombarding 83. The material used for reactor vessel is
particles (A) Cast iron (B) Stainless steel
(D) None of the above (C) Mild steel (D) Copper
73. Isotopes of the element has 84. The coolant used in a nuclear power plant
(A) Same number of neutrons is
(B) Different number of neutrons (A) Heavy water (B) Freon
(C) Same atomic weight (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Sulphur dioxide
85. In sodium graphite reactor the coolant used
74. The radiation emitted are of is
(A) Two type (B) Three type (A) Water (B) Graphite
(C) Four type (D) None of the above (C) Heavy water (D) Liquid-sodium
75. Which one of the following is most harmful 86. The term PWR stands for
for the human body ? (A) Power Water Reactor
(A) Alpha particles (B) Pressurized Water Reactor
(B) Beta particles (C) Power Welding Rod
(C) Gamma particles (D) Power Work Reaction
87. The gas which is used as a coolant in a
76. Pick up the correct equation in which alpha nuclear power plant is
particles are emitted (A) Freon (B) Ammonia
(A) 92U238 2 He 4 + 90Th234 (C) Helium (D) Chlorine
(B) 92U238 2 H4 + 92Th238 88. Select the moderator used in a nuclear power
(C) 92U238 4 H2 + 90Th234 plant
(D) 92U238 2 H4 + 94Th142 (A) Uranium (B) Plutonium
(C) Hydrogen (D) Oxygen
77. The division of heavy nucleus into smaller
ones is called 89. In a sodium graphite reactor, the moderator
(A) Fusion (B) Fission used is
(C) Vaporization (D) None of the above (A) Heavy water (B) Light water
(C) Graphite (D) None of the above
78. Combining of light nuclei to form a single
heavy nucleus is called 90. Which one of the followings have a better
(A) Fusion (B) Fission heat transfer property ?
(C) Solidification (D) Atomization (A) Light water (B) Heavy water
(C) Sodium (D) Dowtherm
79. Natural uranium is principally a mixture of
(A) Two isotopes (B) Three isotopes 91. The material used for shielding a core is
(C) Four isotopes (D) None of the above (A) Concrete
80. The uranium isotope of atomic weight 233 (B) Thick galvanized sheets
(U 233 ) can be produced from (C) Copper sheets
(A) U235 (B) Pu 239 (D) Aluminium sheets
(C) Th 232 (D) None of the above 92. Concrete shield for acceptable level of radia-
81. Which one is fertile material ? tion should be minimum
(A) U 235 (B) U 239 (A) 5 metre thick (B) 2 metre thick
(C) U 233 (D) U 238 (C) 1 metre thick (D) 1/2 metre thick
Mechanical | 13
93. The scarm control rods are used to 99. In a heterogeneous reactor metallic uranium
(A) Control the chain reaction in the reactor rods are used with
(B) Prevent radiation from the reactor (A) Aluminium (B) Zirconium
(C) Stainless steel (D) All the above
(C) Both
(D) None of the above 100. In boiling water reactor steam is generated
(A) In the reactor vessel
94. The moderator used in fast breeding reactor
(B) In the boiler
is
(C) In the heat exchanger
(A) Graphite
(B) Liquid sodium
(C) Heavy water Answers
(D) None of the above 1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C)
95. The fuel used in a pressurized water reactor 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
is 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
(A) Enriched uranium 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
(B) Radium 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
(C) Thorium 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(D) Lead 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B)
96. The pressurized water uses light water reactor 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (A)
as 41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (C)
(A) Coolant (B) Moderator 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) Both (D) None of the above 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (A)
56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (A)
97. In a homogeneous reactor the fuel used is
61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (A) 65. (C)
(A) Uranium
66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (A)
(B) Lead
71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C)
(C) Thorium
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (C)
(D) Uranyl sulphate in heavy water
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (D)
98. Which of the element is natural radioactive ? 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C)
(A) Radium (B) Thorium 91. (A) 92. (A) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (A)
(C) Uranium (D) All the above 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (D) 100. (A)
3 APPLIED MECHANICS
01. Which of the following is a scalar ? 08. Stress is

(A) Force (A) Vector (B) Scalar
(B) Electromotive force (C) Tensor (D) None of the above
(C) Torque 09. Tensor of rank zero is called
(D) None of the above (A) Scalar (B) Vector
02. Which of the following is a scalar ? (C) Numeral (D) None of the above
(A) Linear momentum 10. Geometrical method of addition of two
(B) Electric current vectors is called
(C) Weight (A) Triangle method
(D) None of the above (B) Parallelogram method
03. Which of the following is not a polar vector ? (C) Both
(A) Force (D) None of the above
(B) Angular velocity
11. If a a = a2 , then a a will be
(C) Weight
(A) Zero (B)
2a
(C) a2 sin (D) None of the above
04. Which of the following is a Psuedo vector ?
12. A jet engine works on the principle of
(A) Force
conservation of
(B) Gravitational field intensity
(A) Mass
(C) Torque
(B) Energy
(C) Linear momentum
05. Which of the following is a vector ? (D) Angular momentum
(A) Gravitational potential
13. A uniformly accelerating body experiences
(B) Potential difference force
(C) Time (A) In opposite direction
(D) None of the above (B) In the same direction of motion
06. Which of the following are vector quantities ? (C) r to the direction of motion
(A) Number of students in class (D) None of the above
(B) Velocity of a thrown base ball 14. Newtons first law of motion provides the
(C) Mass of car concept of
(D) None of the above (A) Energy (B) Work
07. Pressure of an ideal gas is a (C) Inertia (D) None of the above
(A) Scalar 15. If the bucket is lowered with acceleration of
(B) Vector 18 m/s2 the reaction at the bottom will be
(C) Neither scalar nor vector (A) 160 N (B) 360 N
(D) Numerals (C) 170 N (D) None of the above
Mechanical | 15
16. Which of the following concept is indepen- 24. When milk is churned at high speed cream
dent of acceleration due to gravity ? collects
(A) Surface tension (A) Near the axis
(B) Viscosity (B) Away from the axis
(C) Archimedes principle (C) At the bottom of the vessel
(D) Both A and B (D) None of the above
17. A hole is drilled through the earth along a 25. In above problem the cream separates due
diameter and a stone is dropped into it. When to
the stone is at the centre of earth it has only (A) Centripetal force
(A) Mass (B) Weight (B) Centrifugal force
(C) Acceleration (D) None of the above (C) Gravitational force
18. The law of conservation of linear momentum (D) None of the above
can be derived from 26. A bottle filled with soda water is grasped by
(A) Newtons first law the neck and swing priskly in a vertical circle.
(B) Newtons second law The bubbles will collect near the
(C) Newtons third law (A) Neck (B) Bottom
(D) None of the above (C) In the middle (D) None of the above
27. The angular speed of minute hand of watch
19. A soda water bottle falls under gravity. The
is
gas bubble will

(A) Move upward (A) rad/sec (B) rad/sec
1800 60
(B) Move downward
(C) Remain stationary (C) rad/sec (D) None of the above
3600
28. In an amusing device Rotor, the weight of the
20. A spring balance is pulled at its both ends person is supported by
with a force of 10 kg weight. The reading of (A) Centripetal force
the balance will be (B) Centrifugal force
(A) 10 kg wt (B) Zero (C) Frictional force
(C) 20 kg wt (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
21. A body moves through a distance of 8 metres 29. When a cyclist moves on a curved path he
under the action of a force of 10 Newton. The (A) Remains vertical
gain in kinetic energy is (B) Bends inward
(A) 80 J (B) 40 J (C) Bends outward
(C) 120 J (D) None of the above (D) Becomes horizontal
22. If a body moves on a circular path with 30. A piece of stone is thrown with velocity v at
uniform speed, the acceleration of the body an angle of 60 with the horizontal. The
velocity at the highest point is
(A) Remains constant
v
(B) Changes (A) (B) v
2
(C) Acts away from the centre
(C) 2v (D) None of the above
(D) Is zero
31. The ratio of K.E. at the highest point to the
23. Which of the following is a Psuedo force ? initial K.E. in above problem is
(A) Electromagnetic force 1 1
(B) Cohesive force (A) (B)
2 4
(C) Centripetal force 1
(D) Centrifugal force (C) (D) None of the above
3
16 | Mechanical
32. A man can throw a ball upto a maximum 40. In an inelastic collision the quantity that
height of x metres. The maximum distance he remains conserved is
can throw the ball on the horizontal plane is (A) Linear momentum
(A) 2x metres (B) x metres (B) Kinetic energy
(C) 3x metres (D) None of the above (C) Density
33. A man can throw a ball up to a maximum (D) None of the above
distance x metres on a horizontal plane. The 41. Two bodies of the same mass and speed
maximum height upto which he can throw the travelling in opposite direction collide and
ball is stick together. The velocity of compound
x body is
(A) metres (B) x metres
2 (A) (B) Zero
(C) 2x metres (D) None of the above (C) 2v (D) None of the above
34. The maximum horizontal range of projectile 42. In a perfectly elastic collision
is 4 km. If the projectile is thrown at an angle
(A) Linear momentum and K.E. both are
of 15 to the horizontal, its range will be
conserved
(A) 2 km (B) 1 km
(B) Only momentum is conserved
1
(C) km (D) None of the above (C) Only K.E. is conserved
2
35. Laws of limiting friction were first of all
discovered by 43. For perfectly inelastic collision
(A) Leonardo da Vinci (A) e = 0 (B) e = 1
(B) Newton (C) e < 1 (D) None of the above
(C) Laplace 44. For inelastic collision
(D) None of the above (A) e = 0 (B) e < 1
36. The static frictional force between two objects (C) e = 1 (D) None of the above
at rest w.r.t. one another is always 45. For super elastic collision
(A) Less than maximum value (A) e > 1 (B) e = 1
(B) Smaller than maximum value (C) e < 1 (D) None of the above
(C) Equal to maximum value 46. When the physical and chemical nature of the
(D) None of the above bodies is changed by the collision, the event
37. A person runs over ground. The nature of is known as
friction between his shoes and the ground (A) Reaction (B) Diffraction
is (C) Polarization (D) None of the above
(A) Static (B) Kinetic 47. When two bodies come together and interact
(C) Rolling (D) None of the above strongly for a short time, the event is known
38. If the normal force is doubled, the coefficient as
of friction is (A) Collision (B) Reaction
(A) Not changed (B) Halved (C) Regelation (D) None of the above
(C) Doubled (D) Triple 48. If there is no change in momentum of a body
39. The limiting friction between two bodies in then impulse of a force is
contact is independent of (A) Zero (B) Infinite
(A) Nature of the surface in contact (C) Constant (D) None of the above
(B) The area of surface in contact 49. For perfectly elastic collision
(C) Normal reaction between the surface (A) e = 1 (B) e < 1
(D) None of the above (C) e = 0 (D) None of the above
Mechanical | 17
50. In explosive collision 59. Which one of the following has the property
(A) K.E. increases (B) K.E. decreases of ductibility ?
(C) K.E. constant (D) None of the above (A) Gold (B) Glass
(C) Air (D) Water
51. Collision in two dimension is also known
as 60. Which one of the following has the property
(A) Oblique collision of maleability ?
(B) Straight collision (A) Copper (B) Glass
(C) Head on collision (C) Oxygen (D) NaCl
(D) None of the above 61. Which of the following is brittle ?
52. The stress required to cause actual fracture of (A) NaCl (B) Rubber
a material is called the (C) Copper (D) Steel
(A) Tangential stress 62. A perfectly rigid body has value of Youngs
(B) Normal stress modulus
(C) Ultimate strength (A) Zero (B) 1
(D) None of the above (C) Infinite (D) None of the above
53. The shear modulus has a significance 63. Modulus of rigidity of glass is
(A) For solid material (A) Zero (B) Infinite
(B) For liquids only (C) 1 (D) None of the above
(C) For gases only 64. Poissons ratio of real bodies is always
(D) None of the above (A) Zero (B) Negative
54. Compressibility of air is (C) Positive (D) None of the above
(A) Greater than that of water 65. In a pure bending the nature of strain produce
(B) Less than water is
(C) Equal to water (A) Volume (B) Tensile
(D) None of the above (C) Shear (D) None of the above
55. Which one of the following is more elastic ? 66. In S.H.M. the amplitude of a vibrating
(A) Rubber (B) Steel particle is determined by
(C) Aluminium (D) Glass (A) Frequency (B) Velocity
56. The P.E. per unit volume of stretched wire (C) Energy (D) Wavelength
is 67. In S.H.M. acceleration in particle doing
1 Stress S.H.M. is given by f = 2 y. Here is
(A) Stress Strain (B)
2 Strain known as
(C) Stress Strain (D) None of the above (A) Angular velocity
57. The change in the shape of a regular body is (B) Pulsatance
due to (C) Angular speed
(A) Longitudinal strain (D) None of the above
(B) Shearing strain 3T
(C) Volume strain 68. At velocity of particle doing S.H.M.
4
(D) None of the above (T being period of motion) is
58. The ratio of the adiabatic elasticity to the (A) Minimum
isothermal elasticity is (B) Maximum
(A) C p /Cv (B) C v C p (C) Infinite
(C) C p C v (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
18 | Mechanical
69. In S.H.M. if maximum velocity and maximum 78. The motion in which time period (T) is
acceleration of a particle is equal, the period independent of amplitude is called
of oscillation is (A) Isochronous
(A) 314 sec. (B) 628 sec (B) Rotatory
(C) Relative
(C) sec (D) None of the above
2 (D) None of the above
T
70. At the acceleration of particle in SHM 79. A man jumps 2 metre on the surface of earth.
4 How high he will jump on a planet whose
(T being period) is radius is 64 km and mean density same as that
a of the earth ?
(A) 2 a (B) 2
2 (A) 200 metre (B) 400 metre
(C) 0 (D) None of the above (C) 1 metre (D) None of the above
71. In S.H.M. 80. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit around
(A) Phase and epoch both varies the earth. It moves with
(B) Phase is constant and epoch remains (A) Constant speed
constant (B) Constant acceleration
(C) Epoch varies and phase remain constant (C) No force acting on it
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
72. The phase difference between force and velo- 81. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit
city in S.H.M. is around a planet is independent of

(A) 0 (B) (A) The mass of the planet
2
(B) The radius of the planet
(C) (D) None of the above
(C) The mass of the satellite
73. The phase difference between force and dis-
placement is (D) All these parameters
82. Weightlessness in a space is due to
(A) 0 (B)
2 (A) Inertia
(C) (D) None of the above (B) Zero gravity
74. Energy in S.H.M. is directly proportional to (C) Zero acceleration
(A) Square of amplitude (D) Centre of gravity
(B) Amplitude 83. The Torque exerted by suns gravitational
(C) Cube of amplitude force on a planet moving around it is
(D) None of the above (A) Zero (B) Infinite
75. P.E. curve in S.H.M. is (C) 2 R (D) None of the above
(A) Straight line (B) Parabola 1
(C) Ellipse (D) Circle 84. The height at which g will be th of its value
4
76. Energy of an oscillation is proportional to at the earth surface is
(A) Mass (B) (Frequency)2 R
(A) h = R (B) h =
(C) (Amplitude) 2 (D) All the above 2
(C) h = 2R (D) None of the above
77. The value of T (time period) will increase
if 85. A closed bottle filled with water at 0C is
(A) The inertia factor increases taken to the suface of moon. If the bottle is
(B) The elasticity factor decreases opened, the water will
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) Cool down (B) Boil
(D) None of the above (C) No change (D) None of the above
Mechanical | 19
86. T1 is the time period of geostationary satellite 94. A liquid which wets a solid surface has angle
and T2 is the time period of rotation of the of contact
earth around its own axis. Then (A) Acute angle (B) Obtuse angle
(A) T1 > T2 (B) T1 = T2 (C) Straight angle (D) None of the above
(C) T1 < T2 (D) T1 = 2T2 95. Addition of detergent to liquid
(A) Lowers the S.T. (B) Increase the S.T.
87. A body of mass m is taken from the surface of
the earth (radius R) to the height equal to R. (C) No effect (D) None of the above
The change in P.E. 96. Cohesion is maximum in
mgR (A) Solids (B) Liquids
(A) (B) mgR
2 (C) Gases (D) Same in all states
1 97. If water is electrified its surface tension
4 mgR (A) Increases (B) Decreases
88. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit (C) Unchanged (D) None of the above
of radius R is T. The time period of an other 98. If inorganic salt is mixed in water, its surface
satellite moving in a orbit of radius 4R is tension
(A) 4T (B) 8T (A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) 2T (D) None of the above (C) Unchanged (D) None of the above
89. The tail of a comet is away from the sun due 99. If organic salt is mixed in water its S.T.
to (A) Increases (B) Decreases
(A) Radiation pressure of the sun (C) Unchanged (D) None of the above
(B) Perihelion of the sun 100. The Molecular range is of the order of
(C) Nuclear fusion (A) 10 8 m (B) 10 9 m
(D) None of the above (C) 10 7 cm (D) None of the above
90. The force responsible for surface tension is Answers
(A) Gravitational force
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
(B) Nuclear force
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)
(C) Vander waal force
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
91. Water falls in capillary tube instead of rising 21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (A)
in capillary tube of which of the following 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (A)
material ?
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (A)
(A) Glass (B) Copper
36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (A)
(C) Silver (D) Parafin wax
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (A)
92. The angle of contact for glass / mercury is 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (A)
(A) 90 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (B)
(B) Less than 90 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)
(C) Greater than 90 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B)
(D) Zero 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (C)
93. A liquid which does not wet solid surface has 71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (B)
angle of contact 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (A) 80. (A)
(A) Obtuse angle 81. (C) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (B)
(B) Acute angle 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(C) Straight angle 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (A)
(D) None of the above 96. (B) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (B)
4 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
01. The combined effect of external forces acting 09. If l and l are the length and change in length
on a body is called resp. the strain is equal to
(A) Stress (B) Strain l l
(A) (B)
(C) Load (D) None of the above l l
02. load is one which is considered to act at (C) l l (D) None of the above
a point. 10. The maximum stress in a ring under tension
(A) Triangular occurs
(B) Uniformly distributed (A) Along the line of action of load
(C) Point (B) Perpendicular to the line of action of
(D) None of the above load
03. The internal resistance which the body offers (C) At 45 with the line of action of load
to meet with the load or external force is (D) None of the above
called 11. Which of the following statement is correct
(A) Stress (B) Strain with reference to the curved beam theory ?
(C) Pressure (D) None the above (A) Shear stress is zero
04. The unit of stress in S.I. unit is (B) Hoop stress is zero
(A) MN/m 2 (B) KN/mm2 (C) Radial stress is zero
(C) N/mm 2 (D) All the above (D) Rending stress is zero
05. represents the resistance developed by a 12. The nature of stress at the inside surface of a
unit area of cross-section. crane hook is
(A) Unit stress (A) Shear (B) Tensile
(B) Total stress (C) Compressive (D) None of the above
(C) Either the above 13. For a crane hook the most suitable section
(D) None of the above is
06. Total stress is expressed in (A) Triangular (B) Trapezoidal
(A) N (B) KN (C) Circular (D) Rectangular
(C) MN (D) All the above 14. The neutral axis in curved beams
07. Simple stress is often called (A) Lies at the top of the beam
(A) Direct stress (B) Transverse stress (B) Lies at the bottom of the beam
(C) Total stress (D) None of the above (C) Coincides with the geometric axis
(D) Does not coincide
08. The deformation per unit length called
(A) Strain 15. In curved beams the distribution of bending
(B) Tensile stress stress is
(C) Compressive stress (A) Linear (B) Parabolic
(D) Shear stress (C) Uniform (D) Hyperbolic
Mechanical | 21
16. A thin flat ring is rotating at a speed v. The 25. riveting is used in structional units.
circumferential stress induced is given by (A) Chain (B) Zig-zag
(A) v2 (B) v2 (C) Diamond (D) None of the above
1 1
(C) v2 (D) v3 26. The distance between the centre lines of two
2 2 rows of rivets is called
17. Maximum principal stress theory was postu- (A) Pitch (B) Back pitch
lated by (C) Gauge distance (D) None of the above
(A) St. Venant (B) Rankine 27. The diameter of the cold rivet measured
(C) Mohr (D) Tresca before driving is referred as
18. Maximum shear stress theory was postulated (A) Nominal diameter
by (B) Gross diameter
(A) St. Venant (B) Mohr (C) Either of the above
(C) Rankine (D) Tresca (D) None of the above
19. Which of the following theories is suitable for 28. In a thin shell circumferential stress ( c) is
ductile material ? given by
(A) Maximum principal stress theory Pd Pd
(B) Maximum principal strain theory (A) c = (B) c =
2tnl 2 tnc
(C) Maximum shear stress theory Pd Pd 2
(D) None of the above (C) c = (D) c =
tnl tnc
20. theory is suitable for brittle material. 29. Longitudinal stresses act to the longi-
(A) Maximum strain energy tudinal axis of the shell.
(B) Maximum shear stress theory (A) Parallel
(C) Maximum principal stress theory (B) Perpendicular
(D) Distortion energy theory (C) Either of the above
21. Efficiency of the welded joint is than (D) None of the above
that of the riveted joint. 30. Thin cylinder are frequently required to
(A) Less (B) More operate under pressures up to
(C) Both (D) None of the above (A) 5 MN/m2 (B) 15 MN/m2
(C) 30 MN/m 2 (D) 250 MN/m2
22. As compared to a riveted joint a welded joint
has strength. 31. Which of the following is usually considered
(A) Lesser as thin cylinder ?
(B) Greater (A) Boilers (B) Tanks
(C) Either of the above (C) Steam pipes (D) All the above
32. A shell with wall thickness small compared to
23. is a process of joining two pieces of
metal by fusion.
(A) Riveting
internal diameter ( d
t )
20 is called
(A) Thin shell

(B) Welding
(C) Either of the above (B) Thick shell
(D) None of the above (C) Either of the above
24. The diameter of the rivet (d) and thickness of
the plate (t) follow the relation 33. Vessels used for storing fluid under pressure
are called
(A) d = 3
t (B) d = 4
t (A) Cylinders (B) Spheres
(C) d = 5
t (D) d = 6
t (C) Shells (D) None of the above
22 | Mechanical
34. Chemical vessels are made of which of the 42. The strength of the beam mainly depends on
following materials ? (A) Bending moment
(A) Non-ferrous materials (B) C. g., of the section
(B) Sheet metal (C) Section modulus
(C) Cast iron (D) Its weight
(D) Special material 43. A continuous beam is one which has
35. Pressure vessels are made of (A) Less than two supports
(A) Cast iron (B) Two supports only
(B) Sheet steel (C) More than two supports
(C) Non-ferrous materials (D) None of the above
(D) Any of the above 44. In which of the following beam the supports
36. Where are the steel bars in a concrete beam are not situated at the ends ?
embedded ? (A) Cantilever beam
(A) In the centre (B) Simply supported beam
(B) Near top section (C) Over hanging beam
(C) Near bottom section (D) None of the above
(D) Uniformaly 45. A cantilever is a beam whose
37. Stress in a beam and the section modulus (A) One end is fixed and other free
(A) Have curvilinear relation (B) Both ends are fixed
(B) Are inversely proportional (C) Both ends are free
(C) Are directly proportionaly (D) None of the above
(D) Have unpredictable relationship 46. The moment of inertia of a rectangle about its
38. When a beam is loaded the horizontal or XX-axis is given by
longitudinal shear should be accounted for bd3 db3
materials like (A) (B)
12 12
(A) Concrete (B) Wood d3 b bd3
(C) Cast iron (D) Lead (C) (D)
6 6
39. Neutral plane of a beam 47. The moment of inertia of a semicircle about
(A) Passes through the c.g. its XX-axis is
(B) Lies at bottom most fibre (A) 022 r3 (B) 011 r4
(C) Is one whose length remains unchanged (C) 014 r4 (D) 02 r4
during the deformation 48. The moment of inertia of a quadrant about its
(D) None of the above XX-axis is given by
40. When a rectangular beam is loaded trans- (A) 0055 r4 (B) 004 r4
versely, the maximum compressive stress (C) 006 r 4 (D) r4
develops on
49. The moment of inertia about a principal axis
(A) Neutral axis (B) Top fibre is called
(C) Bottom fibre (D) Middle fibre (A) Mass moment of inertia
41. In case of a circular section the section (B) Second moment of inertia
modulus is given on (C) Principal moment of inertia
d 2 d 3 (D) Any of the above
(A) (B)
16 16 50. The impact strength of a material is an index
d 3 d 4 of its
(C) (D)
32 64 (A) Resistance to corrosion
Mechanical | 23
(B) Hardness (C) Become one-fourth

(C) Toughness (D) Remain unafected
(D) None of the above 60. The material having same elastic properties in
51. When mild steel is subjected to tensile all directions are called material.
loading, its fracture will conform to ........ (A) Elastic (B) Isotropic
shape. (C) Ideal (D) Uniform
(A) Granular (B) Cup and cone
61. strain is the deformation of the bar per
(C) Star (D) None of the above unit length in the direction of the force.
52. The limiting load beyond which the material (A) Volumetric (B) Shear
does not behave elastically is known as (C) Lateral (D) Linear
(A) Upper yield point
62. The temperature strain in a bar is .................
(B) Maximum stress point proportional to the change in temperature.
(C) Proportional limit (A) Directly (B) Indirectly
(D) Elastic limit (C) (A) or (B) (D) None of the above
53. In which of the following terms stiffness is 63. Poissons ratio for aluminium is
expressed ?
(A) 013 (B) 023
(A) Impact strength
(C) 033 (D) 043
(B) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Hardness number 64. The ratio of lateral strain to linear strain is
known as
(D) Mass density
(A) Modulus of elasticity
54. During tensile test, what does percentage (B) Modulus of rigidity
elongation indicate ?
(C) Poissons ratio
(A) Malleability (B) Fatigue strength
(D) Elastic limit
(C) Ductility (D) Creep
65. To measure .... strain rosetters are used.
55. The value of Poisson's ratio depends upon
(A) Linear (B) Shear
(A) Cross section
(C) Volumetric (D) None of the above
(B) Magnitude of load
(C) Material of test specimen 66. When two equal and opposite forces applied
to a body, tend to elongate it, the body is said
(D) None of the above to be in
56. has the highest value of Poisson's ratio. (A) Compression (B) Tension
(A) Concrete (B) Wood (C) Shear (D) Unpredictable
(C) Steel (D) Rubber 67. The strain produced due to shear force is
57. If a part is constrained to move and heated it known as
will develop stress. (A) Tensile strain (B) Compressive strain
(A) Shear (B) Tensile (C) Shear strain (D) Volumetric strain
(C) Principal (D) Compressive
68. Working stress is always
58. The impact strength of a material is an index (A) Less than ultimate stress
of its
(B) More than ultimate stress
(A) Hardness (B) Tensile strength
(C) Toughness (D) None of the above (C) Equal to ultimate stress
59. If the radius of a wire stretched by a load is
doubled, then its Young's modulus will be 69. A measure of the strength economy of a
(A) Halved material is the ratio between
(B) Doubled (A) Working strength and density
24 | Mechanical
(B) Ultimate strength and density (C) Reaction normal to the direction of
(C) Ultimate strength and safety motion
70. The thermal stress in a bar is directly propor- 78. In S.I. system the unit of torque is
tional to (A) Kg.m (B) Kg/cm2
(A) Its cross sectional area (C) Newton metre (D) Dynes
(B) Its volume 79. The type of stresses set up in a rotating shaft
(C) The change in temperature due to torsion are
(D) None of the above (A) Shear (B) Compressive
71. The stress produced by a suddenly applied (C) Bending (D) All the above
load as compared to that produced by the same 80. The intensity of shear stress in a shaft
load when applied gradually is subjected to torsion is maximum at
(A) Double (B) Equal (A) Its axis (B) Its out layer
(C) Half (D) Four times (C) Any layer (D) None of the above
72. The value of Poissons ratio depends on the 81. The most economical section of the shaft
(A) Size of meterial subjected to torsion is
(B) Type of material (A) Square section (B) Elliptical section
(C) Magnitude of load (C) Solid circular (D) Hollow circular
(D) Nature of load 82. The critical load of column is defined as the
73. The principal stress are load at which columns is in
(A) Parallel to the principal planes (A) Stable equilibrium
(B) Normal to the principal planes (B) Neutral equilibrium
(C) Inclined to the principal planes (C) Unstable equilibrium
74. The point in a beam where the shear force is 83. When a long column is subjected to a load
zero, the value of bending moment at that more than critical, the column becomes
point is (A) Unstable (B) Stable
(A) Maximum (B) Zero (C) Neutral (D) None of the above
(C) Minimum (D) Infinite 84. The ratio of length of strut and least radius of
75. The point of contraflexure occurs in gyration is known as
(A) Simply supported beams (A) Poissons ratio (B) Slenderness ratio
(B) Over hanging beam (C) Factor of safety (D) None of the above
(C) Cantilevers 85. The buckling load in case of struts is given by
(D) All the above the relation
2 E I 4 2 E I
76. In case of over hanging beam the point of (A) 2 (B)
lc lc2
contraflexure
2 EI2 EI
2
(A) Always lies within the supports (C) (D)
lc2 4lc2
(B) Always lies in the overhanging portion
86. The method of reducing the hoop stresses in
(C) Both
cylinders is
(D) None of the above (A) To make its ends flat
77. A roller support has (B) To shrink one cylinder over the other
(A) Reaction in two directions (C) Both
(B) Inclined reaction (D) None of the above
Mechanical | 25
87. The loop stresses are acting across the 96. In a welded butt joint the throat thickness as
(A) Circumferential section compared to the plates thickness is
(B) Longitudinal section (A) Equal (B) Less
(C) Radial section (C) More (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 97. The property of material to withstand defor-
88. The thickness of cylindrical shell is designed mation without fracture is known as
on the basis of (A) Plasticity (B) Toughness
(A) Diameter of the shell (C) Brittleness (D) Ductility
(B) Length of the shell 98. The property of material which allows it to
(C) Loop stress deform without fracture is known as
(D) None (A) Brittleness (B) Toughness
89. Thick cylinders are used to resist the pressure (C) Elasticity (D) Plasticity
above 99. The shape of specimen in a compression test
(A) 100 Kg/cm2 (B) 1000 Kg/cm2 is
(C) 2500 Kg/cm 2 (D) None of the above (A) Cubical (B) Cylindrical
90. The strength of welded joint is equal to (C) Spherical (D) Conical
(A) 05 af. (B) 09 af. 100. The behaviour of metals under the action of
(C) 07 af. (D) 00007 af. cyclic stresses is termed as
(A) Creep (B) Fatigue
91. The shearing strength of a rivet in double
shear as compared to rivet in single shear is (C) Endurance (D) None of the above
(A) 15 times (B) 18 times Answers
(C) Double (D) 12 times
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A)
92. The diameter of a hole drilled in a plate as 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
compared to shank diameter of a rivet is 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D)
(A) Less (B) More 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
(C) Equal (D) None of the above 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
93. A rivet joint may fail due to 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)
(A) Tearing of the plate 31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(B) Shearing of rivets 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)
(C) Crushing of rivets 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A)
(D) Any one of the above 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (C)
94. The efficiency of a single riveted lap joint 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (C)
is 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (A)
(A) 30% (B) 40% 61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
(C) 55% (D) 80% 66. (B) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (C)
95. In a welded lap joint the throat thickness is 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (A) 75. (B)
equal to 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (B)
(A) 04 Size of the weld 81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (A)
(B) 05 Size of the weld 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (C) 90. (C)
(C) 07 Size of the weld 91. (B) 92. (B) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (C)
(D) None of the above 96. (A) 97. (B) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)
5 FLUID MECHANICS
01. The branch of engineering science, which 08. Fluids which do not follow the linear
deals with water at rest or in motion is relationship between shear stress and rate of
called deformation are termed as fluids.
(A) Hydraulics (A) Newtonian (B) Non-Newtonian
(B) Fluid mechanics (C) Dialent (D) Ideal
(C) Applied mechanics 09. The printers ink is an example of
(D) Kinematics (A) Newtonian fluid
02. A solid can resist which of the following (B) Non-Newtonian fluid
stresses ? (C) Thyxotropic substance
(A) Tensile (B) Compressive (D) Elastic solid
(C) Shear (D) All the above 10. The viscosity of liquids with increase in
03. possesses no definite volume and is temperature.
compressible. (A) Decreases
(A) Solid (B) Liquid (B) Increases
(C) Gas (D) Vapour (C) Both
04. A real practical fluid possesses which of the (D) None of the above
following ? 11. Surface tension is caused by the force of
(A) Viscosity (B) Surface tension at the free surface.
(C) Density (D) All the above (A) Cohesion (B) Adhesion
05. The ratio of the specific weight of the liquid (C) Both (D) None of the above
to the specific weight of a standard fluid is 12. Which of the following is an example of
known as phenomenon of surface tension ?
(A) Specific volume (B) Weight density
(A) Rain drops
(C) Specific gravity (D) Viscosity
(B) Rise of sap in a tree
06. The property of a fluid which determines its (C) Break up of liquid jets
resistance to shearing stresses is called (D) All the above
(A) Viscosity
(B) Surface tension 13. Surface tension is expressed in
(C) Compressibility (A) N/m (B) N/m2
2
(C) N /m (D) N/m3
07. Newton's law viscosity is given by the 14. Pressure inside a water droplet is given by the
relation relation
du du 4 3
(A) = 2 (B) =
dy (A) P = (B) P =
dy d d
du du 8 16
(C) = (D) = 3/2 (C) P = (D) P =
dy dy d d
Mechanical | 27
15. is a phenomenon by which a liquid rises (C) Parallel to the surface

into a thin glass tube above or below its (D) None of the above
general level.
24. Poise is a unit of
(A) Surface tension (B) Capillarity
(A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
(C) Cohesion (D) Adhesion (C) Specific weight (D) Pressure
16. The capillary rise of water in the glass tube is 25. The intensity of pressure at a depth h is equal
given by to
2 3 (A) Specific weight Depth
(A) h = (B) h =
wd wd (B) Specific volume Depth
4 6 (C) Density Depth
(C) h = (D) h =
wd wd (D) Force Depth
17. The force per unit area is called 26. The resultant pressure (P) of the liquid on a
(A) Pressure (B) Strain immersed surface will act at
(C) Surface tension (D) None of the above (A) A point of centre of gravity
18. The pressure of a liquid on a surface will (B) The lower edge of the surface
always act to the surface. (C) The upper edge of the surface
(A) Parallel (B) Normal (D) None of the above
(C) 45 (D) 60 27. The depth of centre of pressure (h) is given by
19. The pressure as the depth of the liquid relation
increases. I
(A) h = I0 Ax (B) h = 0
(A) Increases
Ax
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged Ix IA
(C) h = 0 (D) h = 0
(D) None A x
20. The intensity of pressure in a liquid due its 28. The pressure of fluid can be measured by a
depth will vary with depth. (A) Barometer (B) Manometer
(A) Directly (B) Indirectly (C) Piezometer tube (D) All the above
(C) Both (D) None of the above 29. The point of application of buoyant force is
21. The height of the free surface above any point known as
is known as (A) Centre of pressure
(A) Static head (B) Centre of buoyancy
(B) Intensity of pressure (C) Centre of gravity
(C) Both (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 30. The body is said to be floating when
22. The term fluid is applied to substances (A) W > F b (B) W = F b
which (C) W < F b (D) None of these
(A) Offer no resistance to change of shape Where W = Weight of the body
(B) Offer resistance to change of shape F b = Buoyant force
(C) Offer least resistance to compression
(D) None of the above 31. According to principle of floatation the weight
of liquid displaced as compared to the weight
23. The pressure of a fluid on a surface act of the body is
(A) Normal to the surface (A) More (B) Less
(B) Normal to the sphere (C) Same (D) None of the above
28 | Mechanical
32. The stability of a floating body depends 42. The loss of head due to sudden contraction is
upon equal to
(A) Its volume v2 v2
(A) 075 (B) 075
(B) Its weight 2g 4g
(C) Its metacentric height v2 v2
(C) 15 (D) 025
(D) The specific weight of fluid g 2g
33. The metacentric height of sailing ships is 43. The length of mouthpiece as compared to
(A) 045 m to 125 m diameter is
(B) 15 m to 35 m (A) 5 to 6 times (B) 6 to 8 times
(C) 025 m to 035 m (C) 2 to 3 times (D) 1 to 15 times
(D) 5 m to 75 m 44. At vena contract a the diameter of jet is
34. The metacentric height of battle ships is (A) Maximum (B) Minimum
(A) 03 m to 08 m (B) 10 m to 15 m (C) Average (D) Unpredictable
(C) 25 m to 35 m (D) 50 m to 60 m 45. The reciprocal of Eulers number is known
as
35. A manometer is used to measure
(A) Machs number
(A) Velocity of flow in channel
(B) Newtons number
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Pressure in pipes (C) Webers number
(D) None of the above (D) Froudes number
36. A differential manometer is used to measure 46. The Reynolds number for laminar flow in
(A) Difference of pressure at two sections of circular pipes is less than
a pipe (A) 5000 (B) 3000
(B) Atmospheric pressure (C) 2000 (D) 8000
(C) Absolute pressure 47. The frictional resistance independent of
(D) Velocity of fluid in pipes (A) Velocity of flow
37. A small hole in the side or base of a tank is (B) Temperature of fluid
termed as (C) Pressure of flow
(A) Notch (B) Orifice
(D) Area of surface in contact
(C) Mouthpiece (D) Downed orifice
48. The frictional resistance in case of turbulent
38. A venturimeter is used to measure discharge
flow is independent of
through
(A) A pipe (B) An open channel (A) Area of surface in contact
(C) A weir (D) Notch (B) Density of fluid
(C) Temperature of fluid
39. The diameter of throat of a venturimeter as
compared to inlet diameter is generally (D) Pressure of flow
(A) Half (B) One fourth 49. The head lost due to turbulence flow as
(C) Double (D) One eigth compared to head lost in laminar flow is
40. In order to avoid separation in venturimeter (A) 100 times (B) 200 times
the angle of divergence is kept (C) 320 times (D) 480 times
(A) 10 to 15 (B) 15 to 20 50. According to Nikuradses the boundary be-
(C) 5 to 7 (D) 7 to 10 haves as hydrodynamically smooth when
41. The discharge through a pipe can be measured k k
(A) > 10 (B) > 025
with
(A) A venturimeter (B) An orificameter k k
(C) < 025 (D) < 8
(C) A flow nozzle (D) All the above
Mechanical | 29
51. The value of critical velocity is governed by 61. The total drag on a plate held normal to the
the flow is equal to
(A) Inertia force (A) Pressure drag (B) Viscous drag
(B) Viscous force Viscous drag
(C) Ratio of inertia force and viscous force Pressure drag
(D) None of the above 62. The coefficient of drag and lift are functions
52. The lower critical Reynolds number is appro- of
ximately equal to (A) Frouds number
(A) 100 (B) 200 (B) Reynolds number
(C) 1000 (D) 2000 (C) Weber number
53. The head loss due to turbulence flow as (D) Euler number
compared to laminar flow is 63. The line joining the leading and training of
(A) Less (B) More the airfoil is known
(C) Equal (D) Unpredictable (A) Profile centre line
54. The kinematic viscosity '' is given by the (B) Chord line
relation (C) Camber line
(D) Curvature line
(A) = (B) =
64. The aspect ratio of a wing is expressed as
l2
(C) = (D) = + l
(A)
A
(B)
A
55. The motion of whirlpool in a river is l l2
(A) Rectilinear (B) Radial (C) 2 (D) 2
A A
(C) Forced vortex (D) Free vortex l = Span, A = Area
56. In a stream line flow the component of 65. The coefficient of lift at stall point is
viscosity at right angle to the streamline is (A) Maximum (B) Minimum
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum (C) Zero (D) Average
(C) Zero (D) Unpredictable
66. The maximum velocity of an airplane in
57. If the flow parameters change with time it is steady level flight will occur at an angle of
known as attack of
(A) Uniform flow (B) Unsteady flow (A) 205 (B) 185
(C) Steady flow (D) None of the above (C) 225 (D) 265
58. The coefficient of friction in term of Reynolds 67. The weir with thick crest is known as
number is equal to (A) Drowned weir
16 32 (B) Broad crested weir
(A) (B)
Re Re (C) Suppressed weir
8 10 (D) Cippoletti weir
(C) (D)
Re Re 68. The cross section of cippoletti weir is
59. If a thin plate is held parallel to a fluid stream, (A) Rectangular (B) Triangular
the pressure drag on it is (C) Trapezoidal (D) None of the above
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum 69. The critical depth of a channel is expressed
(C) Zero (D) None of the above as
60. If a thin plate is held normal to the flow, the V V2
(A) hc = (B) hc =
viscous drag on it is g g
(A) Maximum (B) Minimum V2
(C) hc = (D) None of the above
(C) Zero (D) None of the above 2g
30 | Mechanical
70. The critical depth of a channel is equal to 78. The intensifier can raise the pressure of water
1 2 upto
(A) E min (B) E min
2 3 (A) 100 kg/cm2 (B) 560 kg/cm2
3 1 (C) 950 kg/cm2 (D) 1600 kg/cm2
(C) E min (D) E min
2 4 79. The pressure of water in a pelton wheel is
71. The velocity for which the specific energy is (A) Less than atmosphere
minimum is known as (B) More than atmosphere
(A) Maximum velocity (C) Equal to atmosphere
(B) Minimum velocity (D) None of the above
(C) Critical velocity 80. Which one is an impulse turbine ?
(D) Average velocity (A) Kaplan turbine (B) Francis turbine
72. The condition for a tranquil flow in a channel (C) Pelton wheel (D) Fourneyron
is
81. Pelton wheel is a
v2 v2
(A) h > (B) h = (A) Tangential flow turbine
g g
2 (B) Radial flow turbine
v
(C) h < (D) None of the above (C) Axial flow turbine
g
73. Hydraulic jump is a phenomenon occurring
in 82. Which one of the following is an axial flow
(A) A pipe turbine ?
(B) A closed channel (A) Pelton wheel (B) Francis turbine
(C) An open channel (C) Kaplan turbine (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above 83. The type of turbine recommended for a head
of 10 metre is
74. The wave produced due to surface tension in
a shallow channel is known as (A) Francis turbine (B) Kaplan
(A) Gravity wave (C) Pelton wheel (D) None
(B) Capillary wave 84. A Girard turbine is
(C) Elastic wave (A) An axial flow reaction turbine
(D) None of the above (B) An axial flow impulse turbine
75. In case of depressed nappe the pressure of air (C) An inward flow reaction turbine
below the nappa is (D) None of the above
(A) Less than atmospheric 85. In case of reaction turbine
(B) More than atmospheric (A) P 1 = P2 (B) P 1 > P2
(C) Equal to atmospheric (C) P 1 < P2 (D) None of the above
86. The Banki turbine is generally employed for a
76. When there is no air left blow the nappe, it is head upto
known as (A) 100 m (B) 500 m
(A) Free nappe (B) Depressed nappe (C) 20 m (D) 600 m
(C) Adhering nappe (D) All the above
87. In a reciprocating pump the accelerating head
77. The hydraulic accumulator is fitted is maximum at the
(A) In between the pump and machine (A) Beginning of stroke
(B) Before the pump (B) End of stroke
(C) After the machine (C) Mid of stroke
(D) Can not fitted anywhere (D) None of the above
Mechanical | 31
88. A single impeller pump deliver the discharge 97. The hydraulic mean depth for a rectangular
against a maximum head of section is
(A) 10 m (B) 100 m bd bd
(A) (B)
(C) 200 m (D) 500 m 2d + b d+b
89. The no. of blades in a kaplan turbines are 2bd bd
(C) (D)
d+b 2(d + b)
(A) 4 6 (B) 10 12
b = Width, d = Depth
(C) 20 24 (D) 25 30
98. The hydraulic mean depth for a pipe running
90. The unit speed of a turbine is equal to
full of water is equal to
N
(A) (B) N H d d
H
(A)
2
(B)
4
H
2N (C) 2d (D) 2d
(C) (D) Where d = diameter
N H

99. The thickness of the boundary layer at the
91. The unit power of a turbine is equal to
leading edge of the body is
P P
(A) 5/2 (B) 1/2 (A) Maximum (B) Minimum
H H
(C) Average (D) None of the above
P P
(C) 3/2 (D) 2/5 + 1/2 100. The flow within the boundary layer is
H H
(A) Only laminar
92. The head of water required for pelton wheel
is (B) Only turbulent
(A) Low (B) Medium (C) Either laminar or turbulent
(C) High (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
93. The overall efficiency of pelton wheel is Answers
about
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C)
(A) 55% (B) 65%
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A)
(C) 85% (D) 99%
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
94. The function of a hydraulic turbine is to 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
convert water energy into
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (A)
(A) Heat energy
26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(B) Electrical energy
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C)
(C) Machanical energy
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (C)
(D) Atomic energy
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B)
95. The suction pressure in a reciprocating pump, 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (C)
to avoid separation must not exceed 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (D)
(A) 26 m of water 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (C)
(B) 77 m of water 61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A)
(C) 10 m of water 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (B)
(D) 3 m of water 71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (A)
96. A pitot tube is used to measure 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (C)
(A) Discharge through a pipe 81. (A) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (B)
(B) Velocity of flow 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (A)
(C) Specific gravity 91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B)
(D) Viscosity 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (C)
6 INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE
01. The following is an S.I. engine 09. Fuel injector is used in

(A) Diesel engine (B) Petrol engine (A) S.I. engine (B) Gas engine
(C) Gas engine (D) None of the above (C) C.I. engine (D) None of the above
02. The following is C.I. engine 10. Very high speed engines are generally
(A) Diesel engine (A) Gas engines (B) S.I. engines
(B) Petrol engine (C) C.I. engines (D) Steam engines
(C) Gas engine 11. In S.I. engine, to develop high voltage for
(D) None of the above spark plug
03. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, during (A) Battery is installed
suction stroke (B) Distributor is installed
(A) Only air is sucked in (C) Carburettor is installed
(B) Only petrol is sucked in (D) Ignition coil is installed
(C) Mixture of petrol and air is sucked in 12. In S.I. engine, to obtain required firing
(D) None of the above order
04. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, during (A) Battery is installed
suction stroke (B) Distributor is installed
(A) Only air is sucked in (C) Carburettor is installed
(B) Only fuel is sucked in (D) Ignition coil is installed
(C) Mixture of fuel and air is sucked in 13. For petrol engine, the method of governing
(D) None of the above employed is
05. Compression ratio of petrol engines is in the (A) Quantity governing
range of (B) Quality governing
(A) 2 to 3 (B) 7 to 10 (C) Hit and miss governing
(C) 16 to 20 (D) 80 to 90 (D) None of the above
06. Compression ratio of diesel engines may have 14. For diesel engine, the method of governing
the range employed is
(A) 8 to 10 (B) 10 to 15 (A) Quantity governing
(C) 16 to 20 (D) 80 to 90 (B) Quality governing
(C) Hit and miss governing
07. The thermal efficiency of good I.C. engine at (D) None of the above
the rated load is in the range of
(A) 80 to 90% (B) 60 to 70% 15. Voltage developed to strike spark in the spark
plug is in the range
(C) 30 to 35% (D) 10 to 20%
(A) 6 to 12 volts
08. Carburettor is used for (B) 1000 to 2000 volts
(A) S.I. engine (B) Gas engine (C) 20000 to 25000 volts
(C) C.I. engine (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
Mechanical | 33
16. In a 4-cylinder petrol engine the standard 25. In a petrol engine the delay period is of the
firing order is order of
(A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 1-4-3-2 (A) 0001 S (B) 0002 S
(C) 1-3-2-4 (D) 1-3-4-2 (C) 0015 S (D) 006 S
17. The torque developed by the engine is 26. is not the effect of detonation
maximum (A) Loud and pulsating noise
(A) At minimum speed of engine (B) High local stresses
(B) At maximum speed of engine (C) High operating temperature
(C) At maximum volumetric efficiency speed (D) Loss in efficiency and power output
of engine
27. The ignition quality of a petrol engine fuel is
(D) At maximum power speed of engine
expressed as
18. Iso octane content in a fuel for S.I. engine (A) Octane number (B) Cetane number
(A) Retards auto-ignition (C) API gravity (D) SAE rating
(B) Accelerates auto-ignition
28. The capacity of most of the mopads in India
(C) Does not affect auto-ignition is
(D) None of the above (A) 50 cc (B) 150 cc
19. Normal heptance content in a fuel for S.I. (C) 200 cc (D) 250 cc
engine
29. is used for the insulating body of a spark
(A) Retards auto-ignition plug.
(B) Accelerates auto-ignition (A) Dolomite (B) Alumina
(C) Does not affect auto-ignition (C) Glass (D) Silica
30. The compression ratio in diesel engine is
20. The knocking in S.I. engine increases with in comparison to expansion ratio
(A) Increase in inlet air temperature (A) Less (B) More
(B) Increase in compression ratio (C) Same (D) Variable
(C) Increase in cooling water temperature 31. In an automobile the magneto is basically
(D) All the above (A) d.c. generator (B) a.c. generator
21. Petrol commercially available in India for (C) Transformer (D) Capacitor
Indian passanger cars has octane number in
32. Scavenging is usually done to increase
the range
(A) Power output
(A) 40 to 50 (B) 60 to 70 (B) Fuel consumption
(C) 80 to 85 (D) 95 to 100 (C) Thermal efficiency
22. Cetane number of the fuel used commercially (D) Speed
for diesel engine in India is in the range 33. For a petrol engine for vehicles the air fuel
(A) 80 to 90 (B) 60 to 80 ratio for maximum power generation is of the
(C) 60 to 70 (D) 40 to 45 order of
23. The injection presence in diesel engine is of (A) 8 : 1 (B) 12 : 1
the order of (C) 18 : 1 (D) 20 : 1
(A) 3040 bar (B) 100150 bar 34. In loop scavenging the top of the piston is
(C) 170220 bar (D) 400600 bar (A) Convex shaped (B) Depressed
24. The ignition temperature of diesel fuel is (C) Slanted (D) Contoured
about 35. The part load efficiency of a carburettor is
(A) 200C (B) 400C (A) Constant (B) Maximum
(C) 550C (D) 700C (C) Optimum (D) Poor
34 | Mechanical
36. can work on very lean mixture. 46. Maximum torque is generated by an engine
(A) C.I. engine (B) S.I. engine when
(C) 2-stroke engine (D) 4-stroke engine (A) It runs at lowest speed
(B) It develops maximum power
37. Thermal efficiency of I.C. engine on weak
mixture is (C) It consumes maximum fuel
(A) Lower (B) Higher (D) None of the above
(C) Unaffected (D) Unpredictable 47. With an increase of the number of cylinders
in a multicylinder engine the power to weight
38. Cetane number is the measure of
ratio
(A) Viscosity of fuel
(A) Decreases
(B) Ignition quality
(B) Increases
(C) Calorific value of fuel
(C) Remains unaffected
39. In a S.I. engine an ignition coil performs
48. Lean air-fuel mixture is required for
which of the following functions
(A) Idling (B) Acceleration
(A) Regulates battery voltage
(C) Starting (D) Cruising
(B) Avoids sparking
(C) Controls spark 49. is not a part of petrol engine.
(D) Supplies high voltage to the spark plug (A) Air filter
(B) Induction coil
40. The octane rating of the commercially (C) Valve mechanism
available petrol in India is
(D) Fuel injector
(A) 1535 (B) 4555
(C) 6070 (D) 8590 50. of heat supplied in the form of fuel in a
4-stroke engine is carried away by exhaust
41. lubrication technique is used for gases.
lubrication of the cylinder of a scooter engine. (A) 37% (B) 812%
(A) Petrol (B) Splash (C) 2035% (D) 4555%
(C) Gravity feed (D) Forced feed
51. Petrol engines are adjusted to give minimum
42. In 4-stroke engine the camshaft rotates at brake specific fuel consumption at
the crank shaft speed.
(A) No load
(A) Half (B) Three-fourth
(B) 2030% of full load
(C) Equal (D) Double
(C) About 70%of full load
43. The minimum number of rings in a piston
(D) Near full load
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6 52. Crank shafts are generally
44. process is not associated with diesel (A) Die cast
cycle. (B) Sand cast
(A) Constant pressure (C) Forged
(B) Constant volume (D) Turned from bar stock
(C) Adiabatic 53. has maximum resistance to detonation.
(D) Isothermal
(A) Alcohol (B) Benzene
45. Hunting occurs due to which of the following ? (C) Toulene (D) Iso-octane
(A) Faulty governor
(B) Poor-control by the governor 54. In isochronous governors the speed drop is
(C) Over-control by the governor (A) Zero (B) 5%
(D) Bad engine design (C) 30% (D) 50%
Mechanical | 35
55. The top ring nearest to the piston crown is 64. The piston of an I.C. engine completes two
known as strokes in
(A) Compression ring (A) 180 of crank rotation
(B) Oil ring (B) 360 of crank rotation
(C) Scrapper ring (C) 540 of crank rotation
(D) Groove ring (D) 720 of crank rotation
56. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine 65. Displacement volume or swept volume is the
is volume displaced by the piston in
(A) Less efficient (A) 2-strokes (B) 4-strokes
(B) More efficient 1
(C) 1-stroke (D) -stroke
(C) Equal efficient 2
(D) None of the above 66. If the engine is running at 1600 r.p.m. the
57. The level of oil in engine cylinder should be speed of cam shaft will be
checked when the engine is (A) 400 r.p.m. (B) 800 r.p.m.
(A) Running (B) Not running (C) 1600 r.p.m. (D) None of the above
(C) During starting (D) During cranking 67. Spark ignition engine works on
58. Endurance for I.C. engine is conducted for (A) Carnot cycle
(A) 200 hours (B) 300 hours (B) Rankine cycle
(C) 400 hours (D) 500 hours (C) Constant pressure cycle
59. Movement of air inside engine cylinder does (D) Constant volume cycle
not help in 68. C.I. engine works on
(A) Reducing noise (A) Bell Coleman cycle
(B) Mixing of fuel with air (B) Carnot cycle
(C) Distribution of fuel (C) Constant pressure cycle
(D) Reducing after burning (D) Otto cycle
60. An engine indicator is used to determines 69. The term 'Bore' in I.C. engine is used for
(A) Temperature (A) Inside diameter of cylinder
(B) m.e.p. and I.P. (B) Diameter of piston
(C) Speed (C) Diameter of piston ring
(D) Volume of cylinder (D) None of the above
61. The camshaft of a 4-stroke I.C. engine run- 70. Which of the following is related to S.I.
ning at 2000 r.p.m. will run at engine only ?
(A) 2000 r.p.m. (B) 1500 r.p.m. (A) Ignition coil (B) Flywheel
(C) 1000 r.p.m. (D) 500 r.p.m. (C) Intel valve (D) Piston
62. In a cycle the spark lasts for 71. In S.I. engine the method of governing used
(A) 0001 s (B) 001 s is
(C) 01 s (D) 1 s (A) Quantitative governing
63. By which of the following is the air pressure (B) Hit and miss governing
produced in the crankcase method of (C) Qualitative governing
scavenging ? (D) None of the above
(A) Natural aspiration 72. The injection pressure in diesel engine is
(B) Movement of engine piston between
(C) Supercharger (A) 0 10 kg/cm2
(D) None of the above (B) 10 50 kg/cm2
36 | Mechanical
(C) 100 150 kg/cm2 83. The meterial used for the cylinder block is
(D) None of the above (A) Stainless steel (B) Grey cast iron
73. Which one is not related to I.C. engine ? (C) Copper (D) Bronze
(A) Gas turbine 84. Connecting rod is made of
(B) 4-stroke C.I. engine (A) Cast iron
(C) Steam turbine (B) Aluminium alloy
(D) None of the above (C) Copper alloy
74. Which is related to C.I. engine only ? (D) Medium carbon steel
(A) Carburettor (B) Spark plug 85. Piston rings are made of
(C) Atomiser (D) Distributor (A) Babi H (B) Bronze
75. In a law speed S.I. engine the inlet valve (C) Cast iron (D) None of the above
closes 86. Which is related to C.I. engine ?
(A) 40 after B.D.C. (A) Carburettor (B) Spark plug
(B) 30 before B.D.C. (C) Injector (D) Distributor
(C) 10 after B.D.C. 87. The material of the exhaust valve is
(D) 10 before B.D.C. (A) Aluminium alloy
76. In a high speed S.I. engine, the exhaust valve (B) Cast iron
starts to open (C) Silicon chrome steal
(A) 10 after B.D.C. (B) 15 before B.D.C. (D) None of the above
(C) 55 after B.D.C. (D) 45 before B.D.C.
88. The flywheel is located on the
77. The minimum number of compression rings (A) Rocker arm shaft
provided on a piston are
(B) Crank shaft
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) Cam shaft
(C) 1 (D) 3 (D) All the above
78. In four stroke four cylinder C.I. engine the 89. The face angle of the poppet tupe valve is
number of spark plugs used are generally
(A) Four (B) Eight (A) 15 (B) 20
(C) One (D) Zero (C) 45 (D) 75
79. In a four cylinder gasoline engine of a fiat car 90. The electrode of a spark plug is made of
the number of carburettors fitted are (A) Copper-alloy
(A) One (B) Two (B) Alluminium alloy
(C) Three (D) Four m (C) Nickel cromium alloy
80. The main bearings of the engine supports (D) White metal
(A) Crank shaft (B) Cam shaft 91. The I.H.P. of an individual cylinder of a
(C) Both (D) None of the above multi-cylinder engine can be determined by
(A) An indicater
81. In a six cylinder C.I. engine the number of (B) A morse tast
spark plugs required are (C) A rope brake dynamometer
(A) 6 (B) 1 (D) None of the above
(C) 12 (D) 0
92. An engine indicator is used to find out
82. Which of the following is related to S.I. (A) b.h.p.
engine ? (B) f.h.p.
(A) Atomiser (B) D-slide valve (C) Piston speed
(C) Magneto (D) Fusible plug (D) Mean effective pressure
Mechanical | 37
93. The octane value of normal haptane is 99. The chemically correct air fuel ratio for a
(A) 0 (B) 10 gasoline engine is
(C) 100 (D) 76 (A) 5 : 1 (B) 10 : 1
(C) 1512 : 1 (D) 20 : 1
94. The capacity of the battery is given in term
of 100. The octane value of iso-octane is
(A) Ampere-hour (A) 0 (B) 76
(B) Voltage (C) 100 (D) 97
(C) Weight of battery
Answers
(D) Volume of electrolite
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B)
95. The battery generally used in a coil ignition
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
system is of
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(A) 15 volts (B) 3 volts
16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (D)
(C) 12 volts (D) 24 volts
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B)
96. The temperature after ignition in I.C. engine 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (B)
is in the range of
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(A) 100 C to 150C
36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)
(B) 150 C to 250C
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C)
(C) 250 C to 500C
46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C)
(D) 2000 C to 2500C 51. (D) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (A)
97. The lubricant used in I.C. engine are 56. (B) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)
(A) Vegitable oils (B) Animal oils 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C)
(C) Graphite (D) Mineral oils 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (A)
98. Viscosity meter is the instrument used for 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (C)
finding out the fluids 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (A)
(A) Flash point 81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (C)
(B) Viscosity 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C)
(C) Fire point 91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C)
(D) None of the above 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (C)
STEAM BOILERS, COMPRESSORS,
7 ENGINES, NOZZLES, TURBINES, GAS
TURBINES AND JET ENGINES
01. During the reversible adiabatic process, the 08. Clapeyron's equation used for evaluating
entropy of steam (A) Specific volume at any temperature and
(A) Remains constant pressure
(B) Increases (B) Dryners fraction of steam
(C) Decrease (C) Entropy of superheated steam
(D) None of the above (D) Total heat of saturated
02. With the increase in pressure the latent heat of 09. A device used for generating steam for power
vapourization generation is known as
(A) Decreases (A) Turbine (B) Steam engine
(B) Increases (C) Re-boiler (D) None of these
(C) Remains constant
10. In a boiler if the furnace region is completely
(D) None surrounded by water it is known as
03. 1 Kg. of wet steam contains 015 Kg of water (A) Externally fired boiler
particles. Its dryners fraction is (B) Internally fired boiler
(A) 15% (B) 100% (C) Water tube boiler
(C) 85% (D) None of these (D) None of these
04. The throttling process on a mollier diagram is 11. Central station steam generators are used
represented by a for
(A) Horizontal line (B) Vertical line (A) Electric power generator
(C) Point (D) Curve (B) Process heating in industries
(C) Residential heating
05. For a given law P Vn = Constant the value
of n is given by the relation (D) Locomotives
(A) 1135 + 01x (B) 1035 + 01x 12. The maximum pressure in a miniature boiler
(C) 1.035 0.1x (D) 1135 01x is
(A) 1 Kg/cm2 (B) 10 Kg/cm2
06. Which equation is true for the total heat of 2
(C) 25 Kg/cm (D) 69 Kg/cm2
dry steam ?
(A) h /w +x L 13. The concentration of soluble salts and solid is
reduced to the desired level by
(B) h /w + L
(A) Priming
(C) h /w + L + Cp
(B) Blow-down
(D) x L + Cp (Tsup Tsat)
(C) Gravity separation
07. The critical temperature of steam is (D) None of these
(A) 22565 kg/cm2 (B) 25265 kg/cm2 14. The fusible plug is situated
(C) 34715 kg/cm2 (D) 37415 kg/cm2 (A) Near the manhole
Mechanical | 39
(B) Just below the water level 23. If the steel boiler is properly installed and
(C) At the crown of the furnance looked after its average life will be
(D) At the base of the boiler (A) 5 years (B) 20 years
(C) 50 years (D) 75 years
15. Steam used in high pressure turbines must not
contain impurities 24. To produce one unit of electricity the appro-
(A) More than 10 P.P.M. ximate amount of coal burnt is
(B) More than 03 P.P.M. (A) 05 Kg (B) 16 Kg
(C) More than 250 P.P.M. (C) 5 Kg (D) 10 Kg
(D) More than 500 P.P.M. 25. In a babcock and wilcox boiler the tubes are
16. In induced draft the fan is used inclined at
(A) Before the furnance (A) 0 (B) 90
(B) At the base of the chimney (C) 15 (D) 45
(C) At the top of the chimney 26. Economiser is used for
(D) In the manhole (A) Superheating the steam
17. The amount of K.cal. required to heat 1 kg. of (B) Pre-heating of the feed water
water at 100C to dry saturated steam at (C) Pre-heating the air
100C is (D) Condensing the exhaust steam of the
(A) 539 K.cal. (B) 100 K.cal. engine
(C) 539 K.cal. (D) None of these 27. The Horse Power (H.P.) of boiler indicate
18. In term of equal evaporation on boiler HP is (A) The maximum pressure at which steam
equal to can be generated
(A) 15563 Kg (B) 15563 Kg (B) The rate of generator of steam
(C) 345 Kg (D) 11 Kg (C) The capacity of the shell
19. Smokeless or compact boiler is a (D) None of these
(A) Three pass boiler 28. The function of fusible plug is
(B) Two pass boiler (A) To drain off the water of the shell
(C) Single pass boiler (B) To prevent damage of boiler against
(D) None of these over-heating
20. In a super critical boiler the pressure range (C) To blow off excess of steam
is (D) None of these
(A) 50 to 100 kg/cm2
(B) 100 to 150 kg/cm2 29. In lancashire boiler the number of flue tubes
are
(C) 150 to 200 kg/cm2
(D) 225 to 250 kg/cm2 (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
21. Lancashire boiler is a
(A) Single pass boiler 30. The function of superheater is to
(B) Two pass boiler (A) Pre-heat the feed water
(C) Three pass boiler (B) Pre-heat the air
(D) Four pass boiler (C) Increase the temperature of steam above
22. A boiler known as a small steam jenny is used saturation temperature
for (D) Increase the rate of combustion of fuel
(A) Power generator 31. The maximum working pressure of fire tube
(B) Heating purpose boiler is limited to
(C) Spray painting (A) 15 kg/cm2 (B) 5 kg/cm2
(D) None of these (C) 20 kg/cm 2 (D) 100 kg/cm2
40 | Mechanical
32. In a steam engine can be a horizontal, vertical 41. In Rankine cycle expansion of steam assumed
or inclined. This classification is according to to be
the (A) Adiabatic (B) Polytropic
(A) Expansion of steam (C) Hyperbolic (D) Isothermal
(B) Position of cylender 42. The expansion of steam in hypothetical
(C) Field of application indicated diagram is assumed to be
(D) Speed of the engine (A) Isothermal (B) Polytropic
33. A steam engine having a speed of 275 R.P.M. (C) Hyperbolic (D) Adiabatic
is termed as a 43. The thermal efficiency of a steam engine is
(A) High speed engine about
(B) Low speed engine (A) 10% (B) 25%
(C) Medium speed engine (C) 50% (D) 80%
(D) None of these 44. When the steam is carried from boiler to the
engine, the pressure of steam
34. In case of a condensing steam engine the
exhaust from the steam engine is directly sent (A) Will increase
to the (B) Will decrease
(A) Atmosphere (B) Condenser (C) Will remain same
(D) None of these
(C) Hot well (D) Economiser
45. The ratio of thermal efficiency to the standard
35. In a double acting steam engine the number of
efficiency is defined as
working strokes per revolution are
(A) Overall efficiency
(A) 1 (B) 2
(B) Standard efficiency
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Relative efficiency
36. The efficiency of the Rankine cycle is given (D) Specific steam consumption
by the relation
46. In a throttle governing the steam consumption
H1 H2 H1 + H 2 per hour is directly proportional
(A) (B)
H1 Hw2 H1 Hw2 (A) B.H.P. of the engine
H1 + H 2 H1 H2 (B) I.H.P. of the engine
(C) (D)
H1 + Hw 2 H1 + Hw 2 (C) F.H.P. of the engine
37. Steam engine works on (D) None of these
(A) Constant volume cycle 47. The function of the governor in steam engine
(B) Constant pressure cycle is to
(C) Rankine cycle (A) Reverse its direction
(B) Control the speed
(D) Joule's cycle
(C) Absorb the excess energy produced dur-
38. Diagram factor is always ing a cycle
(A) More than one (B) Less than one (D) Stop the engine
(C) Equal to one (D) None of these 48. The thermal efficiency of steam engine is
39. The approximate value of diagram factor is (A) More than steam turbine
(A) 02 (B) 05 (B) Less than steam turbine
(C) 07 (D) 12 (C) Equal to steam turbine
40. Willian's law is expressed mathematically as (D) Unpredictable
(A) w = a + B.H.P. + b 49. In uniflow steam engine the type of valve
(B) w = a I.H.P. + b used for controlling the steam is
(C) w = a F.H.b (A) D.Slide valve (B) Drop valve
(D) w = a I.H.P. b (C) Corliss valve (D) None of these
Mechanical | 41
50. In receiver type compound steam engine, the (C) Clearance control
cranks of the two cylinder are placed (D) All the above
(A) 90 to each other 58. The efficiency of vane type air compressor as
(B) 180 to each other compared to roots air compressor for the
(C) 360 to each other same pressure ratio is
(D) 45 to each other (A) More (B) Less
51. In woolf type compound steam engine, the (C) Same (D) None of these
phase angle between two cranks is 59. In centrifugal air compressor the pressure
(A) 90 (B) 45 developed depends on
(C) 180 (D) 120 (A) Impeller tip velocity
52. The work input to air compressor is minimum (B) Inlet-temperature
if the compression law followed is (C) Compression index
(A) PV135 = C (D) All the above
(B) Isothermal PV = C 60. In air compresser installations where are
(C) Isentropic PV = C seperators generally used ?
(D) None of these (A) Before intercooler
53. For reciprocating air compressor the law of (B) After intercooler
compression desired is isothermal and that (C) Between aftercooler and receiver
may be possible by (D) None of these
(A) Very low speed 61. With an increase in compression ratio the
(B) Very high speed volumetric efficiency of air compressor
(C) Any speed as speed does not affect the (A) Decreases
compression law (B) Increases
(D) None of these (C) Remains unchanged
54. Work input to the air compressor with 'n' as (D) Unpredictable
index of compression
62. Why is intercooling in multistage compressor
(A) Increases with increase in the value of n done ?
(B) Decreases with increase in the value of n (A) To minimise the work of compression
(C) Remains same whatever the value of n (B) To cool the air at delivery
(D) None of these (C) To cool the air during compression
55. With increase in clearance volume, the ideal (D) None of these
work of compressing 1kg of air
(A) Increases (B) Decreases 63. Why is an after cooler used ?
(C) Remains same (D) None of these (A) To remove impurities from air
(B) To reduce the volume of air
56. Mechanical efficiency of reciprocating air co-
mpressor is expressed as (C) To cool the air
B.P. I.P. (D) None of these
(A) (B)
I.P. B.P. 64. type compressors are used for gas
F.P. F.P. turbines.
(C) (D) (A) Sliding vane (B) Centrifugal
B.P. I.P.
(C) Axial flow (D) All of the above
57. In reciprocating air compressor the method of
controlling the quantity of air delivered is 65. Centrifugal blowers can supply volumes
done by of air at pressures.
(A) Throttle control (A) Large, low (B) Large, high
(B) Blow-off control (C) Small, high (D) Small, low
42 | Mechanical
66. is an non-positive displacement com- 76. is used to drive a rotary compressor.

pressor. (A) Engine (B) Electric motor
(A) Reciprocating compressor (C) Air motor (D) Either A or B
(B) Roots blower
(C) Axial flow compressor 77. is a positive displacement compressor.
(D) Vane blower (A) Axial flow compressor
(B) Centrifugal flow compressor
67. The performance of reciprocating compressor
is compared on the basis of efficiency. (C) Roots blower
(A) Volumetric (B) Mechanical (D) None of these
(C) Over all (D) Isothermal 78. Which of the following compressors is mostly
68. Minimum work is required to compress the used for supercharging I.C. engines ?
air when compression is (A) Reciprocating compressor
(A) Polytropic (B) Adiabatic (B) Axial flow compressor
(C) Isothermal (D) Any of the above (C) Roots blower
69. Which of the following is the most-efficient (D) Radial flow compressor
method of compressing air ? 79. Reciprocating compressors are employed to
(A) Adiabatically (B) Isothermally compress air upto a pressure of bar.
(C) Isentropically (D) Polytropically (A) 20 (B) 40
70. For which of the following Euler's equation is (C) 80 (D) More than 100
applicable
(A) Axial compressor 80. In a centrifugal compressor what is the usual
(B) Centrifugal compressor value of power input factor ?
(C) Pumps (A) 10 (B) 104
(D) All of the above (C) 12 (D) 13
71. The ratio of indicated power to shaft power is 81. is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler
known as efficiency. work, in a rotary bladed compressor.
(A) Adiabatic (B) Mechanical (A) Degree of reaction
(C) Isothermal (D) Volumetric (B) Slip factor
72. In a compressor the clearance volume should (C) Work factor
be (D) Pressure co-efficient
(A) As small as possible
(B) As large as possible 82. In air compressor may be controlled by
(C) About 25% of swept volume control.
(D) About 80% of swept volume (A) Clearance (B) Blow-off
(C) Throttle (D) Any of the above
73. Rotary compressor is suited for quantity
of air at pressure. 83. With the decrease in the valve of index n the
(A) Large, low (B) Small, low volumetric efficiency
(C) Same, high (D) Large, high (A) Decreases
74. At high altitude a compressor will draw (B) Increases
(A) Less power (B) More power (C) Remains unaffected
(C) Same power (D) None of these (D) None of these
75. The volumetric efficiency of compressor 84. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
with in compression ratio. cycle.
(A) Decreases, increases (A) Rankine (B) Joule
(B) Increases, increases (C) Atkinson (D) Brayton
(C) Decreases, decreases 85. In gas turbine high air fuel ratio
(D) Increases, decreases (A) Reduces exhaust temperature
Mechanical | 43
(B) Increases power output 95. Campair to aircraft, the air velocity in a
(C) Improves thermal efficiency rocket is
(D) None of the above (A) Zero (B) Less
(C) Same (D) More
86. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a
96. Compared to turbo jet, a turbo propeller gas
(A) Cooling chamber
as the additional feature.
(B) Heating chamber
(A) Diffuser (B) Intercooler
(C) Compressor (C) Propeller (D) None of these
(D) All of the above
97. At a speed of about the maximum
87. For a gas turbine the air-fuel ratio is generally propulsion efficiency of a turbo jet is attained.
kept closer to (A) 400 Km/h (B) 1000 Km/h
(A) 10 : 1 (B) 25 : 1 (C) 1500 Km/h (D) 2400 Km/h
(C) 45 : 1 (D) 60 : 1 98. The overall efficiency of a rocket is maxi-
88. limits the maximum temperature in a mum when aircraft velocity compared to jet
gas turbine cycle. velocity is
(A) Turbine blade material (A) Half (B) Two-third
(B) Efficiency of combustion (C) One-fourth (D) Double
(C) Quality of fuel 99. type of gas turbine is employed in
(D) None of these aircraft units.
(A) Open (B) Closed
89. is used as a fuel in gas turbine. (C) Semi-closed (D) None of these
(A) Liquid benzene (B) Powdered coal
100. In practice, propulsion efficiency of the
(C) Producer gas (D) Any of the above following order is obtained
90. The ideal constant pressure gas turbine works (A) 20% (B) 40%
on cycle. (C) 60% (D) 75%
(A) Brayton (B) Joule
Answers
(C) Both (D) None of these
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B)
91. In gas turbine's the pressure ratio is the ratio 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (B)
of 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B)
(A) Exhaust pressure to inlet pressure 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
(B) Pressure across turbines 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C)
(C) Highest pressure to exhaust pressure 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
(D) None of these 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)
92. is suitable for space travel. 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (C)
(A) Turbo propeller (B) Turbo jet 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (A)
(C) Rocket (D) All of the above 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (C)
56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (C)
93. Which of the following properties is most im-
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (A)
portant for material used for gas turbine blad ?
66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (D)
(A) Bulk modulus (B) Fatigue 71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (D)
(C) Toughness (D) Creep 76. (D) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (B)
94. In a gas turbine the compression ratio is of the 81. (D) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (A)
order of 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (A) 89. (D) 90. (A)
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (A)
(C) 8 : 1 (D) 13 : 1 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (C)
8 HEAT TRANSFER, REFRIGERATION AND
AIR-CONDITIONING
01. The thermal conductivity is expressed as 09. Due to which of the following reasons cork is
(A) W/mk (B) W/m2 k a good insulator ?
(C) W/hmk (D) W/h2m2 k (A) It is porous
02. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is used (B) Its density is low
in the problems of (C) It can be powdered
(A) Radiation (D) All of the above
(B) Conduction 10. is expected to have highest thermal
(C) Convection conductivity.
(D) Conduction and convection (A) Water (B) Melting ice
03. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amor- (C) Solid ice (D) Steam
phous solid with decrease in tempera- 11. The temperature variation with time, in the
ture. lumped parameter model is
(A) Decreases (A) Exponential (B) Sinusoidal
(B) Increases (C) Cubic (D) Linear
(C) Remains constant 12. number is relevant, is transient heat
(D) Unpredictable condition.
04. Heat transfer takes place as per law of (A) Reynolds (B) Fourier
thermodynamics. (C) Grashoff (D) Prandtl
(A) Zeroth (B) First 13. number is generally associated with
(C) Second (D) None of these natural convection heat transfer.
05. Heat closely related with (A) Prandtl (B) Weaker
(A) Energy (B) Entropy (C) Nusselt (D) Grashoff
(C) Enthalpy (D) Temperature 14. is not the assumption in Fourier's
equation of heat conduction.
06. has least value of conductivity. (A) Constant temperature difference
(A) Rubber (B) Air (B) Uniform area of cross-section
(C) Water (D) Glass (C) Steady heat flow
07. has maximum value of thermal (D) Homogeneous substance
conductivity. 15. A substance above critical temperature exists
(A) Lead (B) Copper as
(C) Steel (D) Aluminium (A) Liquid (B) Solid
08. In which of the following cases. molecular (C) Gas (D) Wet vapour
transmission of heat is smallest ? 16. Shape of an ideal thermometer should be
(A) Solids (B) Alloys (A) Cubical (B) Rectangular
(C) Gases (D) liquids (C) Spherical (D) Cylindrical
Mechanical | 45
17. Planck's law of radiation is application to 28. For gases prandtl number is
radiation. (A) Near unity
(A) Monochromatic (B) Thermal (B) Between 5 to 50
(C) Temperature (D) None of the above (C) Between 60 to 100
18. The monochromatic emissivity of a white (D) Between 150 to 300
body at all wavelenths and temperatures is 29. In ablation heat transfer method is used.
equal to
(A) Nuclear war heat
(A) Zero (B) 01 to 04
(B) Satellites
(C) 06 (D) 1
(C) Rockets
19. A body reflects entire radiation incident (D) None of these
it.
30. number can be used for convective heat
(A) Trasparent (B) Black
transfer.
(C) Gray (D) White
(A) Mach (B) Froude
20. method is used to find the thermal (C) Nusselt (D) None of these
conductivity of rubber.
31. The ratio of thermal conductivity to that of
(A) Searle's
water is nearly.
(B) Lee's disc
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) Cylindrical shell
(C) 4 (D) 6
(D) Laby and Hercus
32. In air preheater for boiler, heat is least
21. rays have least wavelength. transferred by
(A) Infrared (B) Ultraviolet (A) Radiation (B) Conduction
(C) Radio (D) Cosmic (C) Convection (D) Both
22. Dropwise condensation occurs on a 33. In which of the following cases non-isotropic
surface. conductivity is exhibited ?
(A) Oily (B) Smooth (A) Lead (B) Wood
(C) Glazed (D) Coated (C) Copper (D) Brass
23. Least value of prandtl number can be 34. is suitable for low temperature applica-
expected in case of tions.
(A) Water (B) Liquid metals (A) Fused alumina bricks
(C) Salt solution (D) Sugar soluble (B) Asbestos paper
24. Agitated film evaporator is suitable for (C) Cork
concentrating liquids. (D) Diatomacious earth
(A) Viscous (B) Low temperature 35. A dimensionless number which is the ratio of
(C) Corrosive (D) Liquid level kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity is
25. The intensity of solar radiation on earth is known as number.
KW/m2 . (A) Grashoff (B) Prandtl
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) Mach (D) Nusselt
(C) 6 (D) 8 36. Fog is formed due to
26. In flow maximum heat transfer rate can (A) Humidity
be expected. (B) Low pressure
(A) Laminar (B) Turbulent (C) Temperature fall of atmosphere
(C) Counter current (D) None of these (D) All of the above
27. The emissivity of a grey body is 37. Which of the following is a very good
(A) 05 (B) 1 insulator ?
(C) Less than 1 (D) More than 1 (A) Saw dust
46 | Mechanical
(B) A hard wood board (B) 1 + (C.O.P.)ref

(C) An asbestos sheet (C) (C.O.P.) ref 1
(D) A porcelain sheet
1
38. Thermal conductivity of liquids can be deter- (D)
(C.O.P.) ref
mined by
(A) Searlis method 48. Air-refrigerator works on cycle.
(B) Guarded plate method (A) Rankine
(C) Laby and Hercas method (B) Bell-coleman
(D) None of the above (C) Reversed Carnot cycle
39. is likely to have highest thermal con- (D) Both (B) and (C)
ductivity. 49. Bell-coleman cycle is a reversed cycle.
(A) Boiling water (B) Steam (A) Rankine (B) Otto
(C) Solid ice (D) Rain water (C) Joule (D) Carnot
40. body transmits all the radiations falling 50. The refrigerating capacity of 165 domestic
on it. refrigerator is approximately equal to
(A) Transparent (B) Grey (A) 01 tonne (B) 115 tonnes
(C) Black (D) White (C) 5 tonnes (D) 8 tonnes
41. A radiation shield should have 51. The Bell-coleman refrigeration cycle uses
(A) High emissivity as the working fluid.
(B) Low reflectivity (A) Air (B) CO2
(C) High reflectivity (C) H2 (D) None of these
(D) None of these
52. Air-refrigeration cycle is used in
42. are generally diathermanous. (A) Domestic refrigerators
(A) Gases (B) Liquids (B) Gas liquification
(C) Solids (D) All the above
(C) Commercial refrigerators
43. The reflectance of a black body is (D) All of the above
(A) Zero (B) Less than 10
(C) 10 (D) Infinity 53. cycle uses air as the refrigerant.
(A) Stirling (B) Ericsson
44. Grashoff number has significant role in heat
transfer by (C) Bell-coleman (D) Carnot
(A) Conduction 54. In a refrigeration cycle the heat is rejected by
(B) Radiation refrigerant at
(C) Natural convection (A) Condenser (B) Evaporator
(D) Forced convection (C) Compressor (D) Expansion value
45. Temperature of steam around 550C can be 55. In a refrigeration cycle the flow of refrigerant
measured by is controlled by
(A) Thermopile (B) Thermocouple (A) Compressor
(C) Thermometer (D) Radiation (B) Evaporator
46. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the (C) Expansion value
order of (D) Condenser
(A) 01 to 03 tonne (B) 2 tonnes 56. Which part of the vapour compression
(C) 5 tonnes (D) 10 tonnes refrigeration cycle, produces the refrigeration
47. The C.O.P. of a heat pump for the same effect ?
operating temperature limits, equals (A) Compressor (B) Condenser
(A) (C.O.P.) ref (C) Evaporator (D) None of these
Mechanical | 47
57. In the vapour compression refrigeration cycle, 65. Which refrigerant is used in a vapour absorp-
the refrigerant is generally in the form of tion refrigerator ?
fairly wet vapour at entry to (A) Freon (B) Sulpher dioxide
(A) Compressor (C) Water (D) Acqua-ammonia
(B) Condenser 66. In a vapour compression system the tempera-
(C) Expansion valve ture of ammonia after compression is in the
(D) Evaporator range
58. In a refrigeration cycle, the supurheating (A) 15 to 25C (B) 25 to 50C
C.O.P. (C) 50 to 70C (D) 70 to 110C
(A) Decreases (B) Does not change 67. Freon group of refrigerants are
(C) Increses (D) None of these (A) Toxic
59. In a refrigeration cycle oil separator is ins- (B) Inflammable
talled between (C) Nontoxic and inflammable
(A) Condenser and expansion valve (D) Nontoxic and non-inflammable
(B) Compressor and condenser 68. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy
(C) Condenser and evaporator chart show constant lines.
(D) None of these (A) Extropy (B) Pressure
60. In a small refregerator a capillary tube is used (C) Temperature (D) Total heat
to serve the purpose of 69. has the minimum freezing point.
(A) Evoportor (B) Thermostate (A) Freon-22 (B) Freon-12
(C) Condenser (D) Expansion valve (C) Corbon-dioxide (D) Ammonia
61. A device designed to remove moisture from a 70. A refrigerant with highest critical pressure
refrigerant is called is
(A) Dehumidifier (A) Carbon-dioxide (B) Ammonia
(B) Solenoid (C) Freon-11 (D) Freon-22
(C) Expansion valve
71. is the refrigerant widely used in domes-
(D) Drier
tic refrigerators.
62. is usually the constiliest item in a (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Air
refrigeration system. (C) Freon-12 (D) Ammonia
(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser 72. is the refrigerant commonly used in co-
(C) Expansion valve mmercial ice plants.
(D) Evaporator (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Air
(C) Ammonia (D) Freon-12
63. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
atmospheric pressure. 73. The refrigerant used in steam jet refrigeration
(A) Lower than is
(B) Equal to (A) Brine (B) Water
(C) Higher than (C) Ammonia (D) Freon-12
(D) None of these 74. Which of the following refrigerants has the
64. At the back of domestic refrigerator, the bank lowest boiling points ?
of tubes are (A) Freon-12 (B) Carbon dioxide
(A) Evaporator tubes (C) Ammonia (D) Sulpher dioxide
(B) Condenser tubes 75. The brine is an aqeous solution of in
(C) Refrigerant cooling tubes water.
(D) Capillary tubes (A) Magnesium sulphate
48 | Mechanical
(B) Sodium chloride (C) Remains constant

(C) Calcium carbonate (D) None of these
(D) None of these 85. During sensible cooling, wet bulb tem-
76. The C.O.P. of a domestic refrigerator in com- perature
parison to domestic air-conditioner will be (A) Decreases
(A) Less (B) Same (B) Increases
(C) More (D) None (C) Remains constant
77. An electrolux refrigerator works on (D) None of these
system. 86. An air washer can work as a
(A) Vortex tube (A) Filter only
(B) Absorption refrigeration (B) Humidifier only
(C) Vapour compression M (C) Dehumidifier only
(D) None of these (D) All of the above
78. In vapour absorption system lithium bromide 87. The relative humidity during sensible heat-
is used as ing
(A) Lubricant (B) Cooling substance (A) Can increase or decrease
(C) Absorbent (D) Refrigerant (B) Increases
79. is the least used refrigerant these days. (C) Decreases
(A) Freon-12 (B) Sulpher dioxide (D) Remains constant
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Ammonia 88. The vapour pressure, during sensible heating
80. The refrigerant 717 is of moist air
(A) Sulpher dioxide (A) Increases
(B) Ammonia (B) Decreases
(C) Methyl chloride (C) Remains constant
(D) None of these (D) None of these
81. In brine is always used as a secondary 89. The relative humidity, during heating and
refrigerant. humidification
(A) Milk chilling plant (A) Increases
(B) Ice plant (B) Decreases
(C) Cold storage (C) May increase or decrease
(D) None of these (D) Remains constant
82. ....... is not a desirable property of good 90. The relative humidity during cooling and
insulating material. dehumidification of moist air
(A) Low initial cost (A) Increases
(B) Light weight (B) Decreases
(C) Odourless (C) Can increase or decrease
(D) High heat conductivity (D) Remains constant
83. In an unsaturated air the state of a vapour is 91. The wet bulb temperature is measure of
(A) Wet (B) Superheated humidity.
(C) Saturated (D) Unsaturated (A) Relative (B) Absolute
84. During sensible heating of moist air, (C) Specific (D) None of these
enthalpy 92. The dry bulb temperature during heating and
(A) Increases dehumidification
(B) Decreases (A) Decreases
Mechanical | 49
(B) Increases (C) Increases

(C) Remains constant (D) Unpredictable
(D) None of these 99. The wet bulb temperature during sensible
93. The dehumidification process, on the cooling process
psychrometric chart is shown by (A) Decreases (B) Remains same
(A) Curved line (B) Vertical line (C) Increases (D) Unpredictable
(C) Horizontal line (D) Inclined line 100. is a functional or decorative covering
94. As warms air cools, its relative humidity for an outlet or intake.
(A) Decreases (A) Register (B) Grille
(B) Increases (C) Diffuser (D) None of these
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) Unpredictable Answers
95. During dehumidification process of removing 1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D)
moisture dry bulb temperature 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
(A) Decreases 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(B) Increases 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (B)
(C) Remains constant 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A)
(D) Unpredictable 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C)
96. The wet bulb temperature, at 100 per cent 31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (A)
relative humidity is dew point. 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
(A) Less than (B) Same as 41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (B)
(C) More than (D) None of these 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (A)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (C)
97. In spray humidification process, the dry bulb
temperature 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (D)
(A) Decreases 61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (D)
(B) Remains same 66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (B)
(C) Increases 71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (B)
(D) None of these 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (A)
98. The wet bulb temperature during evaporative
cooling process 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(A) Decreases 91. (B) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (B) 95. (C)
(B) Remains constant 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (A) 100. (B)
9 THEORY OF MACHINES AND MACHINE
DESIGN
01. The velocity ratio of the belt drive due to slip 09. In a scott russel mechanism for straight line,
of the belt there are movable links.
(A) Increases (A) Two (B) Three
(B) Decreases (C) Four (D) Six
(C) Remains unchanged 10. governor is dead weight governor.
(D) Unpredictable (A) Watt (B) Pickering
02. The Follower is extensively used in air (C) Hartnell (D) Porter
craft engine.
11. gears are used in a differential of an
(A) Flat faced (B) Roller automobile.
(C) Knife edge (D) Spherical faced (A) Double helical (B) Mitre
03. When a body is subjected to trsnsverse vibra- (C) Straight level (D) None of these
tions stress is induced in the body.
12. Auto mobile steering gear is an example of
(A) Compressive (B) Tensile pair.
(C) Shear (D) Any of the above (A) Rotary (B) Turning
04. Which of the following brakes is used in (C) Lower (D) Sliding
motor cars ?
13. What will be the locus of a point on a thread
(A) Band brake unwound from a cylinder ?
(B) Internal expanding brake (A) Involute (B) Helix
(C) Shoe brake (C) Straight line (D) Circle
(D) Any of the above
14. mechanism produces mathematically an
05. gear train is used to connect minute exact straight line motion.
hand to hour hand, in a clock mechanism. (A) Ackermann (B) Peaucellier's
(A) Simple (B) Reversed (C) Watt (D) None of these
(C) Epicyclic (D) Compound
15. In case of cam, the maximum value of the
06. A point on a link connecting double slider pressure angle is kept as
crank chain traces a path. (A) 15 (B) 20
(A) Straight line (B) Elliptical
(C) 30 (D) 45
(C) Hyperbolic (D) Parabolic
16. Hartnell governor could be classified as
07. drive is not a positive drive.
type governor.
(A) V-belt (B) Rope
(A) Dead weight (B) Pendulum
(C) Flat-belt (D) All of the above
(C) Centrifugal (D) None of these
08. Throw of a cam can be defined as the maxi-
mum distance of the follower from 17. In order to obtain resistance against wear, best
circle. profile is
(A) Pitch (B) Base (A) 14 involute stub
(C) Prime (D) None of these (B) 14 full depth involute
Mechanical | 51
1 27. In a reciprocating engine mechanism the

(C) 14 full depth involute number of links and instaltaneous centres
2
(D) 20 rack are
(A) 3, 3 (B) 4, 5
18. In a continuous system, the number of degree
of freedom would be (C) 4, 6 (D) 5, 5
(A) One (B) Two 28. How many links are in peaucellier mecha-
(C) Three (D) Four nism ?
(A) Two (B) Four
19. In sugar crushing machinery which of the
(C) Eight (D) Six
following types of tooth are provided on the
gears used ? 29. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a
(A) Cycloidal (B) Involute pair.
(C) Paraboloid (D) Hyperboloid (A) Turning (B) Screw
(C) Rolling (D) Sliding
20. For a vibrating system, if the damping factor
is unity, then the system is damped. 30. For inelastic bodies, the co-efficient of
(A) Under (B) Over restitution is
(C) Critically (D) Zero (A) One (B) Greater than one
(C) Zero (D) None of these
21. The governor speed when the sleeve of
a porter governor moves upwards. 31. The pair is said to be a pair when the
(A) Decreases (B) Increases elements of the pair are kept in contact by the
action of external forces.
(C) Constant (D) None of these
(A) Self closed (B) Force closed
22. The frictional torque transmitted by a disc or (C) Lower (D) Higher
plate clutch is same as that of bearing.
32. A quaternary joint, in a kinematic chain, is
(A) Conical pivot equivalent to
(B) Flat pivot (A) One binary joint
(C) Trapezoidal pivot (B) Two binary joint
(D) Flat collar (C) Three binary joint
23. governor is used to drive a gramophone. (D) None of these
(A) Pickering (B) Hartnell 33. A kinematic chain is known as a machanism
(C) Watt (D) Porter when of the links is fixed.
24. is a transmission dynamometer (A) None (B) One
(A) Hydraulic dynamometer (C) Two (D) All
(B) Prony brake dynamometer 34. A kinamatic chain is known as a mechanism
(C) Rope brake dynamometer when of the links is fixed.
(D) None of the above (A) None (B) One
25. Which of the following is used as a lubricant (C) Two (D) all
in a rope brake dynamometer ? 35. A completely constrained motion can be
(A) Water transmitted with links with pin joints.
(B) Oil (A) Two (B) Four
(C) Grease (C) Five (D) Six
(D) No lubricant is used 36. Which of the following is an example of
26. The size of cam depend on circle. spherical pair ?
(A) Prime (B) Outer (A) Ball and socket joint
(C) Base (D) Pitch (B) Bolts and nut
52 | Mechanical
(C) Ball bearing and roller bearing 47. gear train is used in the gear box of an
(D) None of these automobile.
37. A universal joint is an example of pair. (A) Inverted (B) Epicyclic
(A) Sliding (B) Lower (C) Simple (D) Compound
(C) Higher (D) None of these 48. follower is generally used in automobile
engines.
38. What is the unit of mass moment of inertia is
S.I. units ? (A) Roller
(A) Kg-m (B) Kg-m2 (B) Flat faced
(C) m 4 (D) Nm/Kg (C) Knife edge
(D) Spherical faced
39. The energy possessed by a body for doing
work, by virtue of its position is called 49. circle is an imaginary circle which by
energy. pure rolling action gives the same motion as
(A) Chemical (B) Electrical the actual gear.
(C) Potential (D) Kinetic (A) Clearance (B) Dedendum
(C) Addendum (D) Pitch
40. What is the contact ratio for gears ?
(A) Less than one 50. How many links does a pantograph mecha-
nism contain ?
(B) Zero
(A) Two (B) Four
(C) Greater than one
(C) Nine (D) Ten
(D) None of these
51. V-belts are usually used for driver.
41. When the number of degrees of freedom(n) is
equal to the mechanism forms a (A) Short
structure. (B) Long
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) Both short and long
(C) 2 (D) 0 (D) None of these
42. The quality of a governor is judged by its 52. In the coupling rod mechanism of a loco-
(A) Power (B) Sensitivity motive each of the four pairs is a pair.
(C) Stability (D) All of the above (A) Screw (B) Turning
(C) Spherical (D) Sliding
43. A does not require a flywheel.
(A) Gas turbine (B) Steam engine 53. The balls in a ball bearing are made of
steel.
(C) Power press (D) None of these
(A) Tungston (B) High carbon
44. A rock is a gear of (C) Vanadium (D) Nickel-chrome
(A) Infinite module (B) Infinite diameter
(C) Infinite pitch (D) None of the above 54. Transmission losses, in a car, will be mini-
mum in gear.
45. Helical gears are subjected to stresses.
(A) First (B) Second
(A) Bending
(C) Third (D) Direct
(B) Torsional shear
(C) Transverse shear 55. What is the maximum value of pressure angle
(D) Hoop of cam ?
46. Which of the following gears should be (A) 8 (B) 20
recommended for a speed reduction of 50 : 1. (C) 30 (D) 90
(A) Spur 56. If the number of links in a mechanism is 6,
(B) Differential the number of pairs would be
(C) Worm and worm wheel (A) 5 (B) 2
(D) Bevel (C) 1 (D) 4
Mechanical | 53
57. Mid-point of the floating link of elliptical 68. How many crank are there in a single row six
trammel traces. cylinder engine ?
(A) A straight line (B) A circle (A) One (B) Two
(C) A parabola (D) An ellipse (C) Three (D) Four
58. A hook's joint is used to connect two 69. Motor cycle shock absorbers are generally
shafts. designed for dauping.
(A) Parallel (A) Resonant (B) Light
(B) Intersecting (C) Critical (D) Partial
(C) Non-parallel intersecting 70. A vibrating beam has degrees of
(D) None of these freedam.
59. Type writer constitutes (A) One (B) Two
(A) An inversion (B) A mechanism (C) Three (D) Four
(C) A machine (D) None of these 71. is used to enlarge or reduce the size of a
60. The co-efficient of friction in a well greased drawing.
ball bearing may be (A) Clinometer (B) Pantograph
(A) 01 to 025 (B) 025 to 030 (C) Clinograph (D) Oscillograph
(C) 03 to 035 (D) None of these 72. A kinematic chain requires at least links
61. coupling is not a flexible coupling. and turnning pairs.
(A) Oldham's (B) Muff (A) 2, 3 (B) 3, 4
(C) Universal (D) Bushed PM (C) 4, 4 (D) 5, 4
62. In case of gears, the contact ratio or engage- 73. Which of the following motions is imparted
ment factor should be by a cam ?
(A) 11 (B) 13 to 15 (A) Reciprocating (B) Oscillating
(C) 16 to 18 (D) 19 to 21 (C) Rotating (D) All of the above
63. In aero-engines the cylinders are arranged 74. For boiler plate riveting head is usually
along lines. used.
(A) Parallel (B) Radial (A) Conical (B) Pan
(C) Perpendicular (D) Any of the above (C) Snap (D) Counter sunk
64. The vibrations at node of shaft are 75. For motor car cranks shafts steel is
widely used.
(A) Zero (B) Minimum
(A) Silicon (B) High speed
(C) Maximum (D) Unpredictable
(C) Chrome (D) Nickel
65. For ship, which of the following effects is
more dangerous ? 76. In a sleeve and cotter joint, the length of
cotter is taken as
(A) Steering (B) Pitching
(A) 2 d (B) 3 d
(C) Rolling (D) Waving
(C) 4 d (D) 45 d
66. How many degree of freedom are there in a
vibrating beam ? 77. is a permanent fastening.
(A) Zero (B) One (A) Screw (B) Rivet
(C) Two (D) Three (C) Bolt (D) Key
67. The frequency of damped oscillations as com- 78. A hot short metal is brittle
pared to frequency of undamped vibrations, (A) When hot
with viscous damping is (B) When cold
(A) More (B) Less (C) Under all conditions
(C) Same (D) Zero (D) None of the above
54 | Mechanical
79. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more 89. Residual stresses are present in shafts.
serious in (A) Cast (B) Forged
(A) Brittle materials (C) Cold rolled (D) None of these
(B) Ductile materials 90. The piston rod, in a steam engine, is usually
(C) Both (A) and (B) connected to the cross head by joint.
(D) None of these (A) Cotter (B) Kunckle
80. What is the value of Wahl's factor for spring (C) Universal (D) None of these
index of 4 ? 91. Rankine's theory is used for materials.
(A) 12 (B) 14 (A) Plastic (B) Ductile
(C) 145 (D) 18 (C) Elastic (D) Brittle
81. Which type of key is used for mounting 92. If one of the rode of a turnbuckle has left
shifting gears in gear boxes ? hand threads, then the other rod will have
(A) Saddle key (B) Flat key threads.
(C) Square key (D) Splines (A) Left hand (B) Multiple
82. type of gear profile is free from (C) Right hand (D) Pointed
interference. 93. For a mirror polished material the surface
(A) Cycloidal (B) Hypocycloidal finish factor is
(C) Epicycloidal (D) Involute (A) 035 (B) 055
83. While designing shaft and hub assembly (C) 075 (D) 1
is taken as the weakest component. 94. Guest's theory is used for materials.
(A) Key (B) Shaft (A) Ductile (B) Plastic
(C) Hub (D) None of these (C) Elastic (D) Brittle
95. A screw is specified by its diameter.
84. The rolling contact bearings are known as
bearings. (A) Minor (B) Major
(A) Sleeve (B) Plastic (C) Pitch (D) None of these
(C) Antifriction (D) None of these Answers
85. The diameter of the rivet hole is usually 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B)
the nominal diameter of the rivet.
6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
(A) Equal to (B) Less than 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)
(C) More than (D) None of these 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
86. The thickness of gib in a gib and cotter joint 21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (D)
is thickness of cotter. 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(A) Equal to 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B)
(B) Less than 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (C)
(C) More than 41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D)
(D) None of these 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (C)
87. The bearings of medium series have capacity 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (B) 60. (A)
over the light series.
61. (B) 62. (B) 63. (B) 64. (A) 65. (B)
(A) 5 to 10% (B) 15 to 20%
66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (B)
(C) 30 to 40% (D) 45 to 55% 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (C)
88. is the factor of safety for steel and for 76. (C) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (B)
steady load. 81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C)
(A) 3 (B) 4 86. (A) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (A)
(C) 5 (D) 6 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (A) 95. (B)
10 ENGINEERING MATERIALS
01. Babbit metal is base alloy. 10. Dies, drills and taps contain carbon.
(A) Tin (B) Copper (A) Below 04% (B) Below 08%
(C) Lead (D) Tungston (C) Above 1% (D) Above 25%
02. does not certain tin as an alloying 11. can be easily drawn into wire.
element. (A) Cast iron (B) Zinc
(A) Babbit metal (B) White metal (C) Tin (D) Copper
(C) Solder (D) All of the above
12. structure is obtained by austempering
03. In 18-4-1 HSS (high speed steel) the percen- process of heat treatment.
tage of chromium is (A) Sorbite (B) Bainite
(A) 1% (B) 4% (C) Martensite (D) Troostite
(C) 18% (D) 20%
13. is better suited for lighter duty bearings.
04. is present in high percentage in magnet (A) Phosphor bronze
steel. (B) Plastics
(A) Aluminium (B) Tungsten (C) White metal
(C) Zinc (D) Copper (D) Monel metal
05. Hardness of cementite is of the order of 14. Corrundum contains more than 95%.
BHN.
(A) MgO (B) SiO 2
(A) 200 (B) 500
(C) Al2 O3 (D) Steel
(C) 1400 (D) 1100
15. What is the percentage of carbon present in
06. With which of the following polymerisation
cold rolled steel sheets ?
is associated ?
(A) 002% (B) 01%
(A) Copper
(C) 025% (D) 035%
(B) Zinc
(C) Thermoplastic plastics 16. is the binding material in cemented
(D) None of these carbides.
(A) Nickel (B) Cobalt
07. Under microscope, ferrite appears
(C) Carbon (D) Vanadium
(A) White (B) Light
(C) Dark (D) None of these 17. Preheating is essential in welding
(A) High speed steel
08. The pH value of neutral solution is (B) Cast iron
(A) Equal to 7 (B) Less than 7 (C) All non-ferrous materials
(C) Greater than 7 (D) None of these (D) None of these
09. Foundry crucible is made of 18. is not the neutral refractory material.
(A) Graphite (B) Lead (A) Ghraphite (B) Kaynite
(C) Cast iron (D) Mild steel (C) Chromite (D) Dolomite
56 | Mechanical
19. Pipes of bicycle frames are made of ... (B) Diamond

steel. (C) Organic polymers
(A) Cast (B) Hot rolled (D) Neoprene
(C) Carbon chrome (D) Dead mild 30. Ceramic cutting tools are made of
20. Cast iron has the maximum tensile (A) Tungsten carbide
strength. (B) Silicon oxide
(A) White (B) Grey (C) Mixture of oxides of aluminium
(C) Nodular (D) Pig (D) None of these
21. As percentage of carbon increases in steel its 31. For the production of L.D. converter is
decreases. used.
(A) Corrosion resistance (A) Steel (B) Polythene
(B) Ultimate strength (C) Graphite (D) Cast iron
(C) Hardness
32. Ball bearings are generally made of
(D) Ductility
(A) Carbon steel
22. The melting point is the lowest for (B) Carbon chrome steel
(A) Low carbon steel (C) Stainless steel
(B) High carbon steel (D) Grey cast iron
(C) Cast iron
33. is the essential grasdient of any hardened
(D) Wrought iron steel.
23. structure has maximum hardness. (A) Carbon (B) Pearlite
(A) Troostile (B) Pearlite (C) Austenite (D) Martensite
(C) Martensite (D) Sorbite 34. Out of the following which is the amorphous
24. Austenite is a solid solution of carbon in material ?
iron. (A) Lead (B) Brass
(A) Alpha (B) Beta (C) Glass (D) Silver
(C) Gamma (D) Delta
35. structure in obtained if steel is quenched
25. process needs no quenching. in water.
(A) Case hardening (A) Sorbite (B) Pearlite
(B) Flame hardening (C) Troostite (D) Martensite
(C) Induction hardening
36. In metals the size of course grains is greater
(D) Nitriding than
26. are usually made of mild steel. (A) 05 mm (B) 005 mm
(A) Fish plates (B) Angle irons (C) 0005 mm (D) 00005 mm
(C) Die blocks (D) Shear blades
37. has high tendency to get work hardened.
27. is commonly used for making house- (A) Lead (B) Aluminium
hold utensils.
(C) Brass (D) Silver
(A) Duralumin (B) Hindalium
(C) - alloy (D) Magnalium 38. structure can be studied by naked eye.
(A) Atomic (B) Grain
28. has reast co-efficient of expension.
(C) Micro (D) Macro
(A) Manganin (B) Invar
(C) Constantan (D) Duralumin 39. Alloys of magnesium are
29. will exhibit viscoelastic behavior. (A) Easy to machine (B) Magnetic
(A) Steel (C) Light (D) Prone to corrosion
Mechanical | 57
40. High speed steel belongs to the category of 51. has maximum malleability.
steel. (A) Aluminium (B) Copper
(A) Alloy (B) Stainless (C) Lead (D) Wrought iron
(C) Low carbon (D) High carbon 52. Nickel is material.
41. In blast furnace is used as fuel. (A) Dielectric (B) Ferro-electric
(A) Producer gas (B) Coal (C) Ferro-magnetic (D) Dia-magnetic
(C) Coke (D) Diesel 53. What is the product of cupola called ?
42. is the hardest known material. (A) Wrought iron (B) Cast iron
(A) Cemented carbide (C) Mild steel (D) Pig iron
(B) Ceramic 54. With which of the following age-hardening is
(C) Diamond related ?
(D) Alloy steel (A) Cast -iron (B) Gun metal
(C) Duralumin (D) German silver
43. Babbit metal is a alloy.
55. Which of the following hardening processes
(A) Zinc base (B) Lead base is not generally used for steels ?
(C) Tin base (D) None of these (A) Nitriding (B) Cyaniding
44. is used for bearing liner. (C) Age hardening (D) None of these
(A) Brass (B) Bronze 56. Steel can be hardened quickly by pro-
(C) Gun metal (D) Babbit metal cess.
45. Under microscope pearlite appears as (A) Carburising
(B) Cyaniding
(A) White (B) Light
(C) Induction harduening
(C) Dark (D) Finger print
(D) None of these
46. test is a non-destructive test. 57. surface hardening process gives maxi-
(A) Impact (B) Charpy mum hardness to the surface.
(C) Radiography (D) Tensile (A) Pack hardening
47. By which of the following heat treatment (B) Nitriding
processes, a small selected portion of the job (C) Cyaniding
can be hardened ? (D) Induction hardening
(A) Nitriding 58. The chisel used for cutting steel sheets is
(B) Cyaniding usually
(C) Pack hardening (A) Annealed
(D) Flame and induction hardening (B) Normalised
48. is obtained by isothermal hardening (C) Hardened
operation. (D) Hardened and tempered
(A) Cementite
59. The corrosion resistance property of stainless
(B) Sorbite steels is due to the presence of
(C) Acicular troostite
(A) Manganese (B) Chromium
(D) Bainite
(C) Cobalt (D) Silicon
49. is the most important element which
controls the physical properties of steel. 60. The chisels are generally made of steel.
(A) Carbon (B) Chromium (A) High carbon (B) Mild
(C) Vanadium (D) Tungsten (C) Medium carbon (D) Dead mild
50. What is the range of Moh's scale ? 61. Slip gauges are generally made of
(A) 1 to 4 (B) 1 to 10 (A) Alloy steel (B) Cast iron
(C) 1 to 14 (D) 1 to 16 (C) Bronze (D) None of these
58 | Mechanical
62. Gold is material. 72. Which of the following properties pertain to

(A) Ferro-electric (B) Ferro-magnetic cast iron ?
(C) Dia-magnetic (D) Para-magnetic (A) Resistance (B) Ductility
(C) Wear resistance (D) Toughness
63. Monel metal is an alloy of
(A) Cu and Cr (B) Ni and Cu 73. To which of the following is the proof stress
(C) Ni and Cr (D) Cu, Ni and Cr related ?
(A) Elongation (B) Necking
64. has excellant resistance to acids.
(C) Yielding (D) Fracture
(A) Permalloy (B) Constantan
(C) Hastelloy (D) Monel metal 74. affect the fatigue strength least.
(A) Stress concentration
65. is not a ceramic material.
(B) Magnitude of mean stress
(A) Glass (B) Bakelite
(C) Temperature
(C) Clay (D) Aluminium oxide
(D) Frequency
66. material show direction dependent
75. Babbit metal is alloy of
properties.
(A) Cu and Zn (B) Sn and Cu
(A) Orthotropic (B) Isotropic
(C) Sn, Cu and Sb (D) Sn, Cu, Sb and Pb
(C) Anisotropic (D) None of these
67. is a copper free alloy. Answers
(A) German silver (B) Muntz-metal
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (C)
(C) White metal (D) Gun metal
6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (C)
68. Heating elements are generally made of 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B)
(A) Invar (B) Perminvar 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
(C) White metal (D) Nichrome 21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D)
69. is not a constituent of alnico steel. 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
(A) Cobalt (B) Copper 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (D)
(C) Nickel (D) None of the above 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
70. steel is widely used for rails of a railway 41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (D)
track. 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(A) Mild (B) High carbon 51. (C) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (C)
(C) Silicon (D) Nickel 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (A)
71. iron is the magnetic allotrope of iron. 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (B)
(A) (B) 66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (B)
(C) (D) 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (D)
PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
11 INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING AND
MANAGEMENT
01. activities are the activities for which 09. itroduced therbligs.
total float is equal to zero. (A) Blanket (B) Gilbreath
(A) Dummy (B) Subcritical (C) Cooper (D) Adam
(C) Critical (D) Supercritical
10. In production acceptance sampling is
02. layout provides greater flexibility. widely used.
(A) Product (B) Process (A) Job (B) Batch
(C) Fixed position (D) Group (C) Mass (D) All of the above
03. In a shop heavy jobs are lifted by means of
11. In industry routing is essential.
(A) Fork lift (B) Conveyors
(A) Job order
(C) Hoists (D) Overhead crane
(B) Assembly
04. is a group incentive plan. (C) Mass production
(A) Stanlon plan (B) Bedaux plan (D) Process
(C) Rowan plan (D) None of the above
12. PERT has time estimate.
05. chart is not associated with work study. (A) One (B) Two
(A) Gnatt (C) Three (D) Four
(B) SINO
(C) Multiple activity 13. In which of the following cases, bar charts are
suitable ?
(D) None of these
(A) Large projects
06. One TMV (Time Measurement Unit) equals
(B) Major works
(A) 00002 minute
(C) Minor works
(B) 00006 minute
(C) 00004 minute
(D) 00008 minute 14. Queing theory is associated with which of the
following ?
07. Large inventories are permitted in case of
items. (A) Production time
(A) Only C (B) Only B (B) Waiting time
(C) A and B (D) B and C (C) Scales
(D) Inspection time
08. plan is a bonus plan in which allowance
is determined in terms of time for each unit of 15. Which class of elements in ABC analysis are
output instead of money. generally large in number ?
(A) Rowan (B) Bedaux (A) A (B) B
(C) Group (D) Hour-for-hour (C) C (D) Unpredictable
60 | Mechanical
16. In which of the following are the specifi- (B) Availability

cations of work operations and their sequence (C) System effectiveness
described ?
(D) Maintainability
(A) Route card
24. is the internal during which of the
(B) Work order
system is not in an acceptable operation
(C) Job order condition.
(D) Operation chart (A) Maintainability
17. is the basic tool in work measurment. (B) Man-hours
(A) SIMO chart (B) Process chart (C) Administrative time
(C) Bar chart (D) Stop watch (D) Down time
18. For which of the following stop watch is not 25. is the probability that a failed system is
needed ? restored to operable condition in a specified
(A) R-chart down time.
(B) Micromotion study (A) System effectiveness
(C) SIMO chart (B) Maintainability
(D) None of these (C) Availability
(D) Man-hours
19. With which of the following is slack or slack
time associated ? 26. OC curves are used for the selection lots by
(A) An event (A) Attributes
(B) An activity (B) Variables
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) Variables and attributes
(D) None of the above (D) Random
20. The slack on various events at critical path on 27. In sampling plans, N indicates
a PERT/CPM chart
(A) Acceptance number
(A) Decreases continuously
(B) Rejection number
(B) Increases continuously
(C) Sample size
(C) Remains constant
(D) Lot size
(D) Unpredictable
28. X-rays are used in
21. Availability is a function of
(A) Ultrasonic testing
(A) System effectiveness
(B) Thermal methods
(B) Maintainability
(C) Magnetic testing
(C) Reliability
(D) Radiography
(D) Both (B) and (C)
29. Air gauge is a comparator.
22. System cost includes the total amount for
(A) Electrical
(A) Service life support
(B) Electronics
(B) Development
(C) Pneumatic
(C) Production
(D) Mechanical
30. Size bar is used for measuring.
23. is a measure of the net worth, of value
of a system to the uses. (A) Height (B) Angle
(A) Performance capability (C) Length (D) Area
62 | Mechanical
(B) Batch production 53. Management and administration means the

(C) Continuous production same thing. This opinion was given by
(D) Intermillent production (A) Henry Fayol (B) F.W. Taylor
(C) Halsey (D) Spriegal
46. Micromotion study involves .. fundamental
hand motions. 54. Bar charts are suitable for
(A) 12 (B) 16 (A) Large projects
(C) 20 (D) 24 (B) Major projects
47. Therblig in micromotion study, is described (C) Minor projects
by (D) None of the above
(A) An event 55. Queuing theory is associated with
(B) Colours only (A) Inventory (B) Waiting time
(C) Standard symbol and colour (C) Sales (D) Production
(D) Symbols.
56. plan is not wage incentive plan.
48. In work study, what does symbol imply ? (A) Halsey (B) Rowan
(A) Operation (C) Emerson (D) Taylor
(B) Transport 57. Which of the following is the main dis-
(C) Permanent storage advantage of line organisation ?
(D) None of these (A) Rigid structure
49. Human resource planning includes (B) Delays in communication
(A) Raw material resources (C) Top level executives have to do exce-
ssive work
(B) Recruitment and selection
(C) Sales of the firm
(D) None of these 58. is used to find percent idle time for men
or machines.
50. authored the principles of scientific (A) Work study
management.
(B) Time study
(A) Elton Mays
(C) Method study
(B) Henry Fayol
(D) Work sampling
(C) F.W. Taylor
59. What does capital expenditure mean ?
(D) M.P. Follet
(A) Expenditure on property
51. Queuing theory is used for
(B) Recurring expenditure
(A) Job shop scheduling
(C) Expenditure on procurement of fixed
(B) Inventory control assests
(C) Traffic congestion studies (D) None of these
60. is the times which results in least
52. was the first method invented for possible direct cost of an activity.
planning projects. (A) Standard time (B) Crash time
(A) CPM (C) Normal time (D) Slow time
(B) PERT 61. With which of the following is 'Queuing
(C) Bar chart theory' associated ?
(D) Milestone chart (A) Production time
Mechanical | 63
(B) Inspection time 69. Does not pertain to inventory manage-

(C) Sales ment.
(D) Waiting time (A) Effective running of store
(B) Control of stock
62. With which of the following is simplex (C) Production schedule
method the basic method ?
(A) Model analysis
(B) Linear programming 70. The 'Employees Provident Fund Act' is appli-
cable to
(C) Operating research
(A) All major industries
(D) Value analysis
(B) All industries
63. plan ensures a part of the saving to the (C) The industries notified by government
worker and rest to employer.
(A) Taylor
71. ABC analysis deals with which of the
(B) Gilberth
followng ?
(C) Emerson efficiency (A) Controlling inventory costs money
(D) Halsey premium (B) Flow of material
64. In the lines need to be balanced. (C) Ordering schedule of job
(A) Plant layout (D) None of the above
(B) Functional layout 72. Why is 'job enrichment technique' applied ?
(C) Process layout (A) To make people happy
(D) Product layout (B) To reduce labour monotony
(C) To overcome boring and demotivating
65. is the appellate authority for an in-
work
dustrial dispute.
(A) President
73. organisation is the best suited for steel
(B) Labour court
plants.
(C) Management (A) Line
(D) High court/Supreme court (B) Staff
66. A Gantt chart provides information about (C) Line, staff, and functional
(A) Production schedule (D) None of the above
(B) Material handling 74. In an automobile industry material handling is
done by
(C) Both
(A) Belt conveyon
(D) None of these (B) Trolley
67. During process inspection is carried out. (C) Overhead crane
(A) Manufacture of the boltles (D) None of the above
(B) Surface grinding 75. What for MIS stand ?
(C) Surface hardening of mild steel plate (A) Management information service
(D) Thread cutting on a lathe machine (B) Management information system
(C) Military inspection scheme
68. Where is 'bin card' used (D) None of the above
(A) In workshop
76. In production emergency rush order can
(B) In assembly shop be pushed more effectively.
(C) In administrative wing (A) Automatic (B) Job
(D) In stories (C) Intermittent (D) Continuous
64 | Mechanical
Answers
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (A)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C) 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (B)
16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C) 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (D)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (B) 61. (D) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (D)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (C)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C) 71. (A) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B)
36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (B) 76. (C)
Objective
Electrical Engineering
2 | Obj. Electrical
Model Set-1
11. The rate of movement of charge through any 10. In M.K.S. system one Horse Power is equal
conductor is known as to
(A) Voltage (B) Resistance (A) 746 watts (B) 7355 watts
(C) Current (D) e.m.f. (C) 830 watts (D) 4180 watts
12. The force tending to move the electricity is 11. Three resistance of 1 ohm, 2 ohms, and 3
called ohms respectively are connected in series
(A) Current across a battery of 6 volts in total resistance
(B) Resistance of the circuit will be
(C) e.m.f. (A) 8 ohms (B) 6 ohms
(D) Potential difference (C) 4 ohms (D) 2 ohms
13. The ratio of voltage and current in a closed 12. Three resistances of 6 ohms each are
circuit remains connected in parallel across 6 volts supply,
the total resistance of the circuit will be
(A) Varies (B) Constant
(A) 18 ohms (B) 12 ohms
(C) Increases (D) Decreases
(C) 6 ohms (D) 2 ohms
14. The metre which measure current is known
as 13. Two resistances of 4 ohms and 6 ohms are
connected in parallel across 12 volts supply,
(A) Voltmeter (B) Avometer
the total resistance of the circuit will be
(C) Ohm-meter (D) Ammeter
15. The metre which measure voltage is known (C) 42 ohms (D) 5/12 ohm
as
14. Three resistance of values 8 ohms, 12 ohms
(A) Avometer (B) Ampere-meter
and 24 ohms are connected in parallel across
(C) Voltmeter (D) Multimeter 12 volts supply, the total resistance of the
16. The unit of force in M.K.S. system is circuit will be
(A) Joules (B) Newton (A) 1/4 ohm (B) 44 ohms
(C) K. gm (D) Newton-meter (C) 4 ohms (D) 24 ohms
17. The unit of work in M.K.S. system is 15. When a high resistance is connected in
(A) Watt-sec (B) Kilo gram parallel with a low resistance, the combined
resistance is
(C) Kilo-watt (D) Kilo watt hour
(A) Higher than the low resistance
18. The unit of electrical energy is (B) Lower than the higher resistance
(A) Watt (B) Kilo-watt (C) Between the value of high and low
(C) Kilo-watt-hour (D) Joule resistance
19. Horse power is the unit of (D) Less than the lower resistance
(A) Electrical energy 16. Electric battery is a device that
(B) Work (A) Generates e.m.f. by chemical action
(C) Power (B) Converts mechanical energy into electri-
(D) Force cal energy
Obj. Electrical | 3
(C) Converts heat energy into electrical (B) When magnetisation force is kept same
energy (C) When magnetisation force is removed
(D) Converts sound energy into electrical (D) When magnetisation force is reduced
energy
27. A permanent magnet retains its magnetism
17. In a primary battery (A) When the magnetisation force is removed
(A) Chemical action is reversible (B) When the magnetisation force is not
(B) Chemical action is irreversible removed
(C) No chemical take place (C) When the magnetisation force is kept
(D) Chemical action take place constant
(D) When the magnetisation force is reduced
18. Which one of the following is a primary cell ?
(A) Lead-Acid cell (B) Daniel cell 28. Poles of magnet
(C) Alkaline cell (D) Lechlanche cell (A) Can be separated
(B) Can not be separated
19. In a secondary battery (C) Can be use separately
(A) Chemical action is reversible (D) Can be separated by breaking it into
(B) Chemical action is irreversible pieces
(C) No chemical action takes place 29. An electromagnet can be made by
(D) Chemical action takes place (A) Single touch method
20. Which one of the following is a secondary (B) Double touch method
cell ? (C) Divided touch method
(A) Daniel cell (B) Lead Acid cell (D) Passing current through solenoid
(C) Dry cell (D) Alkaline cell
30. The strength of electromagnet can be increa-
21. Static electricity is produced by sed by
(A) Chemical reaction (A) Increasing the length of conductor
(B) Friction (B) Decreasing the length of conductor
(C) Induction (C) Increasing the number of turns
(D) Friction and induction (D) Decreasing the number of turns
22. The sure test of electrification is
31. A current is said to be alternating when
(A) Induction (B) Friction
(A) Magnitude of current changes with time
(C) Repulsion (D) Attraction
(B) Magnitude and direction of current
23. The space surrounding a charge body within changes with time
the influence of its charge extends is called (C) Magnitude of current remains constant
(A) Coulombs through out the period
(B) Electric field (D) The direction of current changes with
(C) Electric intensity time
(D) Lines of force 32. A current is said to be direct current when
24. One coulombs of electricity is equal to (A) Direction of current changes with time
(A) 3 108 e.s.u. (B) 3 109 e.s.u. (B) Magnitude of current changes with time
(C) 48 10 8 e.s.u. (D) 8 1011 e.s.u. (C) Magnitude and direction of current
changes with time
25. One e.s.u. of potential is equal to (D) Magnitude remains constant with time
(A) 3 102 volts (B) 3 103 volts
33. Normal frequency adopted for a.c. generation
(C) 1/3000 volts (D) 1/3 103 volts in our country is
26. A temporary magnet loses its magnetism (A) 60 HZ (B) 25 HZ
(A) When magnetisation force is not removed (C) 50 HZ (D) 30 HZ
4 | Obj. Electrical
34. The frequency of the machine depends upon (C) I1 I2

(A) Pair of poles (D) Vector sum of I1 and I2
(B) Angular velocity 42. The total current of the parallel circuit can be
(C) Rating of the machine determined by
(D) Nature of supply (A) Kirchoff's Law
35. The angle between voltage and current is (B) Super imposed Theorem
called (C) Admittance Method
(A) Power factor (B) Form factor (D) Suspectance Method
(C) Peak factor (D) Phase difference 43. The conductance (G) of a branch can be
36. The power factor of a purely resistive circuit determined by
is I R
(A) (B)
(A) Zero (B) Lagging R Z
(C) Leading (D) Unity Z2 R
(C) (D) 2
37. The power factor of a purely inductive circuit R Z
is 44. The suspectance (b) of a branch can be
(A) Zero (B) Leading determined by
(C) Lagging (D) Unity 1 X
(A) (B)
38. The power factor of a purely capacitive X Z2
circuit is X XC
(C) 2L (D)
(A) Lagging (B) Zero Z Z2
(C) Leading (D) Unity 45. Power factor of a branch as compared to total
39. The power factor of a R-L-C circuit of which power factor will be
XL > XC is (A) Same (B) Different
(A) Lagging (B) Leading (C) Lower (D) None of the above
(C) Zero (D) Unity 46. In case of two phase supply the electrical
displacement of the winding is
40. In a circuit three meters are connected as
shown in Figure the real power can be (A) 180 (B) 120
obtained by (C) 90 (D) 60
47. In case of three phase supply, the electrical
displacement of the winding is
(A) 180 (B) 120
(C) 90 (D) 60
48. With the increase of phase, the rating of
machine for the same out put of single phase
(A) Wattmeter reading only motor of same size
(B) The product of Voltmeter and Ammeter (A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) Dividing Wattmeter reading by Ammeter (C) Remains same (D) None of the above
reading
49. The efficiency of 3-phase transmission as
(D) Dividing Wattmeter reading by Volt-
compared to single phase transmission is
meter reading
(A) Higher (B) Lower
41. I1 and I2 are the currents in two branches of (C) Same (D) None of the above
the parallel circuit. The total current will be
50. Polyphase motors are
(A) I1 + I2
(A) Not self-starting
(B)
I1 2 + I 2 2 (B) Selfestarting
Obj. Electrical | 5
(C) Require auxiliary winding 61. Moving iron instruments are

(D) Does not require auxiliary winding (A) Attraction type
51. The metre used for measuring electrical quan- (B) Repulsion type
tities are called (C) Attraction and repulsion type
(A) Tachometer (D) Dynamometer
(B) Micrometer 62. Moving coil instruments are
(C) Measuring instruments
(A) Permanent magnet type
(D) Spherometer
(B) Dynamometer type
52. The metre used for electrical power is called (C) Induction type
(A) KWh meter (B) Voltmeter
(D) Permanent magnet and dynamometer
(C) Ammeter (D) Wattmeter type
53. The metre used for measuring potential diffe-
63. Moving iron instruments can be used on
rence of a circuit is called
(A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter (A) a.c. and d.c.
(C) Energy meter (D) Ohm meter (B) a.c. only
(C) d.c. only
54. The metre used for measuring current of an
electrical circuit is called (D) Half wave rectified a.c.
(A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter 64. Moving Coil (M.C.) permanent magnet instru-
(C) Potential meter (D) Multimeter ments can be used on
(A) A.C. and D.C.
55. The metre used for measuring electrical
energy of a consumer is called (B) A.C. only
(A) Wattmeter (B) Ampere hourmeter (C) D.C. only
(C) KWh meter (D) Avometer (D) Half wave rectified A.C.
56. The essential requirement of measuring 65. The scale of moving iron (MI) instrument is
instrument is (A) Uniform
(A) Deflecting torque (B) Cramped
(B) Controlling torque (C) First uniform then confusted
(C) Damping torque (D) None of the above
(D) All of the above three
66. The cost of M.I. instrument as compared to
57. The deflecting torque can be produced by M.C. instrument is
(A) Gravity control (B) Spring control (A) High (B) Low
(C) Air friction (D) Magnetically (C) Same (D) Very high
58. The controlling torque can be produced 67. The accuracy of M.C. instruments as com-
(A) Electrostatically pared to M.I. instruments is
(B) Thermally (A) High
(C) By using hair spring (B) Low
(D) By fluid friction
(C) Same
59. The damping torque can be produced by (D) Reasonable accurate
(A) Eddy currents (B) Gravity control
68. M.C. instrument is
(C) Electrostatically (D) Thermally
(A) Robust
60. Electrostatic effect for producing deflecting
torque is used in (B) Accurate
(A) Ammeters (B) Voltmeters (C) Consumes less power
(C) Wattmeters (D) Energymeters (D) Posses all of the above three advantages
6 | Obj. Electrical
69. The consumption of M.I. instrument as com- (C) Current coil

pared to M.C. instrument is (D) None of the above
(A) Same (B) More 78. Which of the following type of damping is
(C) Less (D) Very small most commonly employed in the dynamo-
70. For increasing the range of an ammeter meter type wattmeter ?
connect (A) Fluid friction
(A) A high value resistance in series with the (B) Eddy current
ammeter (C) Air friction
(B) A high value resistance in parallel with (D) Air and fluid friction both
the ammeter coil
79. A wattmeter can be used
(C) A low value resistance in parallel with
the ammeter coil (A) Only for one rating current
(D) A low value resistance in series with the (B) For different rating current without any
ammeter coil charge
(C) Different rating current with change of
71. The metre used for measuring power of the connection without multiplier
circuit is called
(D) With different currents with change of
(A) KWh meter (B) Wattmeter connections and multiplier
(C) Multimeter (D) Voltmeter
80. Wattmeters are available for different rating
72. The metre used for measuring electrical of
energy is called (A) Currents
(A) KWh meter (B) Wattmeter (B) Voltages
(C) Multimeter (D) Ammeter (C) Current and voltage both
73. Most commonly used wattmeter is (D) Current and voltage with the use of
(A) Induction type (B) Electrostatic type multiplier
(C) Dynamometer (D) Moving iron type 81. Megger is used for measuring
74. The dynamometer type wattmeter is used on (A) Low resistance
(A) a.c. only (B) High resistance
(B) d.c. only (C) Medium resistance
(C) a.c. and d.c. both (D) Very low resistance
(D) Full wave rectified a.c. 82. Megger can be used of testing
75. Which of the following advantages, the (A) Open circuit
dynamometer wattmeter has ? (B) Short circuit
(A) Uniform scale (C) Open and short circuit both
(B) Can work on a.c. and d.c. both (D) High resistance circuit only
(C) High accuracy 83. Megger is a combination of
(D) All of the above three (A) Motor and generator
76. At low power factor the dynamometer (B) Generator and ammeter
wattmeter will cause (C) Generator and voltmeter
(A) No error (B) Serious error (D) Generator and ohmmeter
(C) Minute error (D) None of the above
84. Speed of the megger is kept at
77. In dynamometer type of wattmeter, which of (A) 100 r.p.m.
the coil is split up into two parts (B) 120 r.p.m.
(A) Pressure coil (C) 140 r.p.m.
(B) Pressure coil and current coil both (D) 160 r.p.m.
Obj. Electrical | 7
85. The megger voltage for testing 250 V insta- 93. The meter of multimeter will work on
llation should be (A) d.c. supply
(A) 250 V (B) 300 V (B) a.c. supply
(C) 500 V (D) 1000 V (C) a.c. and d.c. both
(D) Half wave rectified a.c.
86. The megger voltage for testing 500 V insta-
llation should be 94. An operating voltage of a particular multi-
(A) 1000 V (B) 500 V meter is
(C) 300 V (D) 100 V (A) 230 V, a.c. (B) 230 V, d.c.
(C) 9 V, d.c. (D) 9 V, a.c.
87. Which of the megger is better for testing
installation ? 95. Higher value of resistance can be measured
(A) Battery operated by keeping the selector switch position on
(B) Generator operated (A) R 1 (B) R 10
(C) Integrated circuit operated (C) R 100 (D) R 1000
(D) Motor operated 96. The leads of a multimeter are connected for
a.c. voltage. If a resistance to be measured. It
88. The insulation resistance of a installation
will require
between conductor to conductor should not be
less than (A) Change of one lead to another Jacket
(A) 50 Mega-ohms/no. outlets (B) Change of both the leads to other Jacket
(B) 50 Mega-ohms/no. outlets (C) One lead is kept common and the other
lead is change to another Jacket
(C) 25 Mega-ohms/no. outlets
(D) No change in leads
(D) 30 Mega-ohms/no. outlets
89. As per I.E. Rules the insulation resistance bet- ANSWERS
ween conductor and Earth should not be less 1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C)
than 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
(A) 100 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets 11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D)
(B) 80 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
(C) 50 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A)
(D) 30 Mega-ohms/no. of outlets
26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (A)
90. On testing and electric iron on megger, the
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A)
reading of the megger in infinity. This
indicates 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A)
(A) Short circuit of heating element 41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B)
(B) Short circuit of supply terminal 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) Loose terminal connection 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (B) 55. (C)
(D) Open circuit of the heating element 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
91. Multimeter can measure 61. (C) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C)
(A) Current (B) Voltage 66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (B)
(C) Resistance (D) All of the above 71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
92. Multimeter can be used for measuring 76. (B) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (D)
(A) Alternating current quantities 81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (C)
(B) D.C. quantities 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (C) 90. (D)
(C) A.C. and D.C. quantities both 91. (D) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (D)
(D) Pulsating D.C. quantities 96. (C)
8 | Obj. Electrical
Model Set-2
11. In case of two phase supply the electrical 18. The copper losses in 3-phase transmission as
displacement of the winding is compared to S/ phase transmission for the
(A) 180 (B) 120 same power is
(C) 90 (D) 60 (A) Same (B) Higher
12. In case of three phase supply the electrical (C) Lower (D) None of the above
displacement of the winding is 19. For the generation of 3-phase 4 wire supply
(A) 180 (B) 120 number of windings used on the armature
(C) 90 (D) 60 are
(A) 1 (B) 3
13. With the increase of phases, the rating of
machine for the same output of single phase (C) 2 (D) 4
motor of same size 10. The power factor of S/ phase motor as com-
(A) Increases pared to 3 (Phase) motor is
(B) Decreases (A) Higher (B) Lower
(C) Remains same (C) Same (D) Fluctuates
(D) None of the above 11. The meter used for measuring electrical
14. The efficiency of 3 phase transmission as quantities are called
compared to single phase transmission is (A) Tachometer
(A) Higher (B) Lower (B) Micrometer
(C) Same (D) None of the above (C) Measuring instruments
(D) Spherometer
15. Polyphase motors are
12. The measure used for electrical power is
(A) Not self-starting called
(B) Self-starting (A) KWh power (B) Voltmeter
(C) Require auxiliary winding (C) Ammeter (D) Wattmeter
(D) Does not require auxiliary winding 13. The metre used for measuring potential diffe-
16. Phase sequence of three phase supply can be rence of circuit is called
determined by (A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter
(A) Ammeters (C) Energy meter (D) Ohm meter
(B) Voltmeter 14. The metre used for measuring current of an
(C) Phase sequence indicator electrical circuit is called
(D) Frequency meter (A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter
17. Synchronising (Parallel operation) of three (C) Potentiometer (D) Multi meter
phase alternator as compared to single phase 15. The metre used for measuring electrical
alternator is energy of a consumer is called
(A) Easier (A) Wattmeter
(B) Difficult (B) Ampere hour meter
(C) Same in both the cases (C) KWh meter
(D) Require same auxiliary arrangement (D) Avometer
Obj. Electrical | 9
16. The essential requirement of measuring 24. The direction of current in the coil can be
instrument is found out by
(A) Deflecting torque (A) Fleming's Left Hand Rule
(B) Spring control (B) Fleming's Right Hand Rule
(C) Air friction (C) Cork Screw Rule
(D) Magnetically (D) Right Hand Thumb Rule
17. The deflecting torque can be produced by 25. The different types of self-excited Generator
(A) Gravity control are
(B) Spring control (A) Series Generator
(C) Air friction (B) Shunt Generator
(D) Magnetically (C) Compound Generator
18. The controlling torque can be produced by (D) All the above three
(A) Electrostatically 26. In a separately excited Generator, field
(B) Thermality winding is excited by
(C) By using hair spring (A) Its own current
(D) By fluid friction (B) External source of alternating current
(C) External source of direct current
19. Electrostatic effect for producing deflecting
torque is used in (D) a.c. and d.c. both
(A) Ammeters (B) Voltmeters 27. The field of self-excited Generator is excited
(C) Wattmeters (D) Energy meters by
(A) D.C. (B) A.C.
20. The damping torque can be produced by
(C) Its own current (D) A.C. and D.C. both
(A) Eddy currents (B) Gravity control
(C) Electrostatically (D) Thermally 28. The Yoke of Generator is made of cast iron
because
21. A d.c. Generator (A) It is cheaper
(A) Generates electrical energy (B) It completes the magnetic path
(B) Converts electrical energy into mechani- (C) All of the above three
cal energy
29. Poles are made of laminated steel instead of
(C) Converts mechanical energy into electri- wood because it has
cal energy
(A) low permanently
(D) Converts chemical energy into electrical
energy (B) High permanently
(C) Reduces the copper losses
22. The e.m.f. generated in a d.c. Generator is
(D) Reduces the friction losses
(A) Dynamically induced e.m.f.
(B) Statically induced e.m.f. 30. Armatures are made of laminated steel instead
(C) Electrostatically induced e.m.f. of wood because it has
(D) Magnetically induced e.m.f. (A) Low permeability
(B) High permeability
23. The D.C. Generator works on the principle
(C) More mechanical strength
of
(D) More mechanical strength and high
(A) Faraday's Laws of electro magnetic
permeability both
induction
(B) Lenz's law 31. Motor converts
(C) When current carrying conductor placed (A) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
in the magnetic field, an e.m.f. is (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
produced (C) Chemical energy into electrical energy
(D) Induction (D) Kinetic energy into mechanical energy
10 | Obj. Electrical
32. If the direction of field and direction of current 39. The motor will draw high current at the time
in the conductor is known, the direction of of starting because
motion can be found out by (A) E b > V (B) E b < V
(A) Fleming's right hand rule (C) E b = 0 (D) E b = V
(B) Fleming's left hand rule
40. The magnitude of Eb depends upon
(C) Cork screw rule
(A) Eb = V IaR (B) Eb = V + IaRa
(D) Lenz's rule
(C) Eb = V IaRa (D) Eb = Vb IaRsh
33. In series motor, the number of turns at the
field pole is 41. Transformer is a
(A) More than shunt field (A) Rotating device
(B) Less than shunt field (B) Static device
(C) Less than armature (C) Electrostatic device
(D) Same as in shunt field (D) Magnetic device
34. The resistance of shunt winding is 42. Transformer works on
(A) More series winding (A) A.C.
(B) More than armature (B) D.C.
(C) Less than series and armature (C) A.C. and D.C. both
(D) More than series and armature (D) Pulsating D.C.
35. Motor is called cumulative compound when 43. Transformer works on the principle of
(A) Series field flux has an additive effect (A) Self induction
with shunt field flux (B) Mutual induction
(B) Series field flux opposes the shunt field (C) Faraday's law of electro magnetic
flux induction
(C) Polarities of series and shunt polers are (D) Self and mutual induction both
same
44. Transformer is device which transforms the
(D) It has an additive effect and the polarity voltage
of poles are same
(A) From higher level to lower level
36. The construction of D.C. motor is (B) From lower level to higher level
(A) Similar as of D.C. generator (C) All of the above two
(B) Different than D.C. generator (D) To the same level
(C) Similar but different in frame con- 45. If D.C. supply is given to a transformer, It
struction will
(D) Similar in construction and similar in (A) Work
frame construction (B) Not work
37. The magnitude of the back e.m.f. depends (C) Give lower voltage than the rated voltage
upon on secondary side
(A) Flux per pole (D) Burn the winding
(B) Speed of motor 46. Different type of transformer are
(C) Number of parallel paths in the armature (A) Core type
(D) All of the above three (B) Shell type
38. The back e.m.f. of the motor (C) Berry type
(A) Opposes the applied voltage (D) All of the above three
(B) Has no effect on the applied voltage 47. Rating of transformer is given in
(C) Favorous the applied voltage (A) KVA (B) KVAR
(D) None of the above three (C) KW (D) Watts
Obj. Electrical | 11
48. If a higher voltage is given to the primary and 56. The generator which gives d.c. supply to the
low voltage is taken from the secondary of rotor is called
transformer, it is called (A) Converter (B) Exciter
(A) Step up (C) Invertor (D) Rectifier
(B) Step down
57. The different type rotor of an alternator are
(C) Current transformer
(A) Salient pole type
(D) Voltage stabilizer
(B) Cylindrical type
49. If a lower voltage is given to the primary and (C) Both salient pole and cylindrical type
higher voltage is taken from the secondary of (D) Non-salient type
a transformer, it is called
(A) Step up 58. Salient pole type rotors are generally used
with prime moves of
(B) Step down
(A) High speed
(C) Current transformer
(B) Low speed
(D) Stabilizer
(C) medium speed
50. If the input voltage is 100 V and output (D) Low and medium speed
voltage is 200 V, which side of the trans-
former windings will be primary 59. Cylindrical type rotors are generally used
(A) 200 V Side with prime movers of
(B) 100 V Side (A) High speed
(C) Winding with more turns (B) Low speed
(D) Winding with less turns (C) Medium speed
(D) Low and high speed
51. Alternator generates
(A) D.C. 60. The frequency of e.m.f. generated depends
upon
(B) A.C.
(A) Speed of the alternator
(C) D.C. and A.C. both
(B) Number of Polers of the alternator
(D) Pulsating D.C.
(C) Type of alternator
52. Alternator works on the principle of (D) (A) and (B) both
(A) Mutual induction
61. In a 93 inductions motor, the current is
(B) Faraday's laws of electro magnetic
produced in the rotor conductors by
induction
(C) Self-induction (A) Giving A.C. supply
(D) Self and mutual induction (B) Giving D.C. supply
(C) Induction effect
53. The rotor of the alternator requires
(A) D.C. (B) A.C. (D) Pulsating D.C. supply
(C) Pulsating D.C. (D) None of the above 62. When 3 supply is given to the stator of the
54. In a larger size of alternator, flux is kept motor, a
(A) Stationary (A) Revolving field is set up
(B) Rotating (B) Pulsating field is set up
(C) Flux and conductors both stationary (C) Revolving field at synchronous speed is
(D) Flux and conductors both rotating set up
(D) Revolving field at the rotor speeds set up
55. The rotor of the alternator has
(A) Four slip rings 63. The direction of roting (d.o.r.) of revolving
(B) Three slip rings field can be changed by interchanging
(C) Two slip rings (A) R and Y phase only
(D) No slip ring (B) B and Y phase only
(C) R and B phase only (B) More than the number of stator poles
(D) Any two phase (C) Less than the number of stator poles
64. If any two phase of the supply are inter- (D) Independent of the stator poles
changed motor will 71. A single phase motor is
(A) Run in the same direction
(A) Self-starting
(B) Stop running
(B) Not self-starting
(C) Run in the reverse direction
(C) Self-starting with the help of auxiliary
(D) Draw high current
winding
65. Different type of 3 induction motors are (D) Self-starting with the help of capacitor in
(A) Squirrel cage series
(B) Slipring
72. A split phase single induction motor
(C) Communator type
(A) Has 2 stator winding connected in series
(D) All of the above three across the supply
66. The rotor of 3 induction motor rotates in the (B) Has 2 windings main and starting of the
same direction as of the direction of revolving same value of resistance and reactance
field because connected across the supply
(A) Faraday's laws of electro magnetic (C) Has the main winding of low resistance
induction and high resistance and high reactance
(B) Lenz's law and starting winding of high resistance
(C) Fleming's right hand rule and low reactance
(D) Fleming's left hand rule (D) Has main winding and starting winding
67. The rotor of 3 induction motor always runs both of high reactance and low resistance
at 73. In case of split phase induction motor
(A) Synchronous speed (A) Main winding is connected through
(B) Less than synchronous speed centrifugal switch
(C) More than synchronous speed (B) Starting winding is connected through
(D) None of the above centrifugal switch
68. The synchronous speed of the revolving field (C) Both the winding are connected through
depends of the revolving field depends upon centrifugal switch
(A) Number of poles (D) None of the winding is connected
(B) Supply of frequency through switch
(C) Flux 74. The starting torque of a 1 motor can be
(D) (A) + (B) both improved by connecting a capacitor
69. In a 93 squirrel cage induction. motor the (A) Across the supply terminals
(A) Rotor conductor are kept open (B) In series with the main windings
(B) Rotor conductors are circuited with end (C) In series with the starting winding
rings (D) With both the windings in series
(C) Ends of the motor conductors are con-
nected to sliprings 75. If the capacitor of a single phase motor is
(D) Ends of the rotor conductors are short short circuited, the motor will
circuited through sliprings (A) Start
70. In a 3 sliprings induction motor, the number (B) Not start
of poles in the rotor winding are kept (C) Starting with Jerks
(A) Same as of the number of stator poles (D) Starting and then stop
76. The starting torque of capacitor start motor 84. Synchronous motor always runs at
will be directly proportional to the angle (A) Unity power factor
which it makes between starting current and (B) Lagging power factor
running current
(C) Leading power factor
(A) Sin a (B) Tan a
(D) Any power factor
(C) Cos a/2 (D) Cos a
85. If a synchronous motor is switched on to 3-
77. The capacitor motor is generally run motor, phase supply with its rotor winding short
the type of capacitor used is circuited, it will
(A) It has higher full load efficiency (A) Start
(B) It has high starting torque (B) Not start
(C) It has low running torque (C) Start and continue to run as induction
(D) All of the above three motor
78. In a capacitor start capacitor run motor, the (D) Start and continue to run as synchronous
type of capacitor used is motor
(A) Air capacitor 86. The magnitude of the e.m.f. induced in the
(B) Paper capacitor starter due to revolving flux will depend upon
(C) Dry type A.C. electrolytic capacitor the
(D) Paper spaced oil filled type (A) Speed of the motor
(B) D.C. excitation current
79. The capacity of the capacitor connected in
series with the starting winding of a ceiling (C) Load on the motor
fan is (D) Speed and rotor flux
(A) 32 F (B) 16 F 87. Under no load running condition the angle
(C) 4 F (D) F between induced voltage and supply voltage
will be
80. The D.O.R. of 1 capacitor motor can be
reserved by interchanging connection of (A) 180
(A) Main winding and starting winding (B) 90
(B) Starting winding only (C) Between 90 and 180
(C) Main winding only (D) Zero
(D) Any one of the starting or main winding 88. Under running condition on load, the angle
between induced voltage and supply voltage
81. The synchronous motor runs at
will be
(A) Less than synchronous
(A) Zero
(B) Synchronous speed
(B) 180
(C) More than synchronous
(D) None of the above (C) Between 90 and 180
(D) Zero
82. The construction of synchronous motor is
similar to 89. Net stator voltage of synchronous motor is
(A) d.c. compound motor (A) Vector difference of E b and V
(B) Slipring induction motor (B) Vector sum of Eb and V
(C) d.c. shunt generator (C) Arithmatic difference to Eb and V
(D) Alternator
(D) Arithmatic sum of Eb and V
83. The synchronous motor runs on
(A) A.C. 3-phase supply 90. The angle between the rotor poles and stator
(B) A.C. 3-phase and D.C. supply poles is called
(C) D.C. supply only (A) Power factor angle
(D) A.C. 3-phase and single supply both (B) Synchronous angle
(C) Torque angle (C) M.S.C.P./M.H.C.P.

(D) Angle of retardation (D) M.H.S.C.P./M.H.C.P.
91. The velocity of light is 99. The efficiency of lamp is measured in
(A) 3 108 m/sec (B) 3 108 cm/sec (A) Lux/watt
(C) 3 109 m/sec (D) 30 108 m/sec (B) Lumns/watt
92. The wave length is generally measured in (C) Candle power watt
(A) Armstrong (B) Angstrom (D) Foot candle power/watt
(C) Steradians (D) Meters/sec 100. Number of steradians in sphere of radius r
93. The human eye is more sensitive to light will be
which has a wave length of (A) steradians (B) 4 steradians
(A) 3900 A (B) 7800 A (C) 2 steradians (D) 6 steradians
(C) 5500 A (D) 3000 A
ANSWERS
94. The solid angle is measured in
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (B)
(A) Radians (B) Steradians
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B)
(C) Degrees (D) Polar radian
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (C)
95. Visible light has a wave length between 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A)
(A) 3900 A to 7800 A 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D)
(B) 7800 A to 9800 A 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)
(C) 9800 A to 11000 A 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (D)
(D) 11000 A to 13800 A 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (C)
96. One foot angular is equal to 41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (D)
(A) 00923 lux (B) 57608 lux 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) 107608 lux (D) 157608 lux 51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D)
97. In M.K.S. system, the unit of illumination 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (B)
is 61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (C) 65. (D)
(A) Foot candle power 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (A)
(B) Lux 71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (B)
(C) Lumns 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
(D) Candle power 81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (C)
98. Reduction factor is the ratio of 86. (B) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(A) M.H.S.C.P./M.S.C.H. 91. (A) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (A)
(B) M.S.C.P./M.H.C.S.P. 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (B)
Model Set-3
11. The efficiency of an incandescent lamp is 19. Choke is used in series with the sodium
(A) 30 lumens/watt (B) 12 lumens/watt vapour lamp for
(C) 20 lumens/watt (D) 40 lumens/watt (A) Reducing the voltage
(B) Stepping up the voltage
12. The sodium vapour lamp gives full brilli-
ancy (C) Stabilising the discharge
(A) Immediately (D) Improving the power factor
(B) After 3 to 5 minutes 10. The sodium vapour lamp installed in street
(C) After 10 to 15 minutes lighting in our country operate on
(D) After 30 minutes (A) 440 V, 3 supply
(B) 400 V, 1 supply
13. The efficiency of sodium vapour lamp is
(C) 230 V, 1 supply
(A) 100 lumens/watt (B) 80 lumens/watt
(D) 110 V, 1 supply
(C) 40 lumens/watt (D) 20 lumens/watt
11. Efficiency of gas filled lamp as compared to
14. After interruption of supply, the sodium
vacuum lamp is
discharge lamp will start
(A) Same (B) Double
(A) Immediately
(C) Three times (D) Four times
(B) After 3 to 5 minutes
(C) After 10 to 15 minutes 12. A good illumination will be, when the light
(D) After 15 to 20 minutes is
(A) More
15. The average life of sodium vapour lamp is
(B) Dim
(A) 3000 hours
(C) Uniform and adequate
(B) 4000 hours
(C) 5000 hours (D) Diffused
(D) 10,000 hours 13. The illumination level required for a living
room is
16. Sodium vapour lamp can be operated in
(A) 200 lux (B) 50 to 60 lux
(A) Any position
(C) 6 to 10 lux (D) 100 lux
(B) A horizontal position
(C) Vertical position 14. The uniform distribution of light depends
(D) An inclined position upon
(A) Space height ratio
17. Mercury vapour lamp can be operated in (B) Type of the lamps used
(A) Any position (C) Type of reflectors used
(B) Horizontal position (D) Mounting height of the source
(C) Vertical position 15. The illumination in a room depends upon
(D) An inclined position (A) Colour of the walls
18. The average life of mercury vapour lamp is (B) Colour of the ceiling
(A) 500 hours (B) 1000 hours (C) Colour of walls and ceiling both
(C) 2000 hours (D) 3000 hours (D) Type of reflector used
16. Shadows can be avoided 23. The efficiency of the electric furnace lies
(A) By using small luminaries between
(B) By using globes (A) 75 to 100% (B) 65 to 75%
(C) By using indirect lighting system (C) 50 to 65% (D) 40 to 50%
(D) All of the above 24. Electric furnace requires
17. For designing the lighting scheme, which (A) More maintenance
factor should be taken into account (B) Less maintenance
(A) Area to be illuminated (C) No maintenance
(B) Depreciation factor (D) Sophisticate maintenance
(C) Utilisation factor 25. Types of electric resistance furnaces are
(D) All of the above (A) Direct resistance heating furnace
(B) Indirect resistance heating furnace
18. Which method is generally employed for (C) Direct and indirect resistance heating
lighting calculations ? furnace
(A) Watts/sq. metre method (D) Induction heating furnace
(B) Lumens or light flux method 26. In a direct resistance heating furnace the
(C) Point to point method electrodes are kept
(D) Square law method (A) In contact with the charge
19. Shadows are caused by (B) Placed at a small distance from the
charge
(A) Mounting lamps at low level
(C) Immersed in the charge
(B) Mounting lamps at high level
(D) Placed at a great distance from the charge
(C) Using lamps of low wattage
27. The direct resistance heating furnace works
(D) Using more number of lamps with
20. Shadows give (A) A.C., 1 supply (B) D.C. supply
(A) Relief to human eye (C) 3 supply (D) All of the above
(B) Fatigue to human eye 28. In a 3 direct resistance heating furnace,
(C) Soothing effect to human eye number of electrodes required will be
(D) Pleasing effect to human eye (A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
21. In a resistance heating furnace, heat is gene-
rated by 29. In a direct resistance heating furnace, a high
(A) Passing current through charge or by resistance material is sprinkled over the sur-
passing current through a high resistive face for
element (A) Avoiding short circuit
(B) Passing current through the charge only (B) Having better continuity
(C) Passing current through a highly resistive (C) Passing more current
element (D) Controlling current
(D) Having an arc between two electrodes 30. In an indirect resistance heating furnace, heat
is generated
22. Electric heating is considered better as com-
(A) By passing current through the charge
pared to ordinary core furnace
(B) By maintaining arc between charge and
(A) It is more efficient electrode
(B) It gives uniform heating (C) By placing high resistance heating
(C) Easy to control temperature element below and above the charge
(D) All of the above (D) None of the above
31. In an induction heating, heat is generated by (C) Medium frequency

(A) Passing current through the charge (D) Supply frequency
(B) The currents induced in the material 39. Coreless furnace requires
itself (A) Rollers for stirring the molten metal
(C) Maintaining an arc between charge and (B) External jerks to the outer frame for
electrode stirring the molten metal
(D) Using heating element (C) No external force for stirring the molten
32. The different type of induction furnaces are metal
(A) Core type (D) None of the above
(B) Coreless type 40. Eddy currents produced in the coreless fur-
(C) Core and coreless type both nace are proportional to
(D) Direct core type (A) Supply voltage
33. In a core type furnace, the secondary winding (B) Flux density square
has (C) Frequency square
(A) More number of turns (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Less number of turns 41. In an electric arc heating heat is produced
(C) No turns by
(D) All of the above (A) Striking the electrode with the charge
34. Because of high leakage reactance, the (B) Producing an arc due to ionisation of air
induction furnace works on gap at high voltage
(A) Leading power factor (C) Passing current through the charge
(B) Lagging power factor (D) Producing an arc due to ionisation of air
(C) Unity power factor gap at low voltage
(D) Lagging and leading both 42. Different type of arc furnace are
35. In an induction furnace, electromagnetic (A) Direct arc furnace
forces produces (B) Submerged arc furnace
(A) Great turbulence of molten metal (C) Indirect arc furnace
(B) Less turbulence of molten metal (D) All the above three
(C) No turbulence of molten metal 43. Most common size of direct arc furnaces are
(D) All of the above (A) 30 to 50 ton (B) 20 to 30 ton
36. For minimising the leakage reactance and (C) 10 to 20 ton (D) 5 to 10 ton
turbulence effect, the furnace must operate 44. Direct arc furnace can work on
(A) At high frequency (A) 1, a.c. supply
(B) At supply frequency (B) 3, a.c. supply
(C) At low frequency (C) 1 and 3 a.c. supply both
(D) None of the above (D) d.c. supply only
37. In a coreless induction furnace 45. For measuring temperature of electric fur-
(A) Laminated steel cores are used naces, the instrument used is
(B) Solid iron is used as a core (A) Thermometer (B) Pyrometer
(C) No iron core is used (C) Lactometer (D) Fachometer
(D) Both (A) and (B) can be used
46. Which type of electrodes used in electric arc
38. Coreless induction furnaces are operated on furnace ?
(A) Low frequency (A) Copper (B) Alluminium
(B) High frequency (C) Carbon (D) Iron
47. The heating chamber in an arc furnace is 54. The voltage required for resistance welding
designed spherical to is
(A) Reduce refractory lining (A) Very high (B) Medium
(B) Produce uniform heating (C) Low (D) Extra high
(C) Increase efficiency 55. Resistance welding can be used for
(D) Reduce power consumption (A) Repairing of heavy jobs
(B) Repairing of light jobs
48. The reactors are used in electrical circuit of
arc furnace is to (C) Repairing of heavy and light jobs both
(A) Limit the starting current (D) None of the above
(B) Control the temperature 56. For welding of sheets which type of welding
is recommended
(C) Reduce input power
(A) Butt-welding (B) Seam welding
(D) Improve power factor
(C) Spot-welding (D) Projection welding
49. In a electric arc furnace, stirring in the molten
57. For welding lamp filaments with supporting
metal is caused due to
wires, which welding machine is required
(A) High voltage (A) Butt-welding (B) Seam welding
(B) Electro magnetic forces caused by flow (C) Spot-welding (D) Flash welding
of current through the charge
58. The spot welding machine can be used for
(C) Low frequency
welding sheets of thickness
(D) Eddy current (A) 25 mm to 127 mm
50. Direct arc furnace is mostly employed (B) 25 mm to 127 mm
because (C) 025 mm to 127 mm
(A) It gives uniform heating (D) 0025 mm to 0127 mm
(B) High temperature can be obtained
59. Types of welding used for attaching nuts and
(C) Both (A) and (B) bolts with the sheets is
(D) They are cheap (A) Projection welding
51. In a resistance welding, the welding of two (B) Flash welding
pieces is possible (C) Spot welding
(A) With application of external pressure (D) Butt welding
(B) Without application of external pressure 60. In seam welding, the speed of wheels is
(C) With and without application of external generally kept
pressure (A) 20 metres/min
(D) None of the above (B) 10 metres/min
52. External pressure is required for (C) 5 to 10 metres/min
(D) 2 to 10 metres/min
(A) Arc welding
(B) Spot welding 61. In an arc welding, arc is produced between
electrode and the job by passing current
(C) Hydrogen welding through an air gap at
(D) Atomic arc welding (A) Low voltage (B) Medium voltage
53. Which supply is required for resistance (C) High voltage (D) Extra high voltage
welding ? 62. In an arc welding, filler material is
(A) 3, a.c. supply (A) Essential
(B) 1, a.c. supply (B) Not essential
(C) 3 and 1 a.c. supply (C) Sometimes essential
(D) d.c. supply (D) Not at all required
63. Different types of arc welding are (B) It helps in maintaining arc
(A) Carbon arc welding (C) It prevents the weld from sudden cooling
(B) Metallic arc welding (D) All of the above
(C) Carbon and metallic arc welding both 71. Electroplating works on the principle of
(D) Indirect arc welding (A) Faraday's laws of electro magnetic
64. In a carbon arc welding, the electrode is induction
keep (B) Faraday's laws of electrolysis
(A) Positive potential (C) Law of conservation of energy
(B) Negative potential (D) Law of conservation of chemical energy
(C) Positive or negative potential 72. The electrode at positive potential is called
(D) None of the above (A) Cathode (B) Anode
65. In a carbon arc welding, the supply used is (C) Electrode (D) Positive terminal
(A) a.c. 1 supply 73. The electrode at negative potential is called
(B) d.c. supply (A) Cathode (B) Anode
(C) a.c., d.c. supply both (C) Electrode (D) Negative terminal
(D) 3, a.c. supply 74. The amount of metal deposited on cathode
66. For welding non-ferrous metals by carbon arc depends upon
welding flux is used for (A) Current
(A) Raising temperature (B) Time
(B) Melting at low temperature (C) Electric chemical equivalent
(C) Preventing oxidation (D) All of the above
(D) Removing impurities in metal 75. The supply required for electroplating is
67. In carbon arc welding, the electrodes is kept (A) 1, a.c.
at negative potential for (B) d.c.
(A) Preventing the carbon particles to go to (C) 3, a.c.
the weld (D) 1, a.c. and d.c. both
(B) Making the weld brittle 76. Chemical equivalent weight is the ratio of
(C) Marking the weld soft (A) Valency/atomic weight
(D) Maintaining arc (B) Velency/electro chemical equivalent
weight
68. In metallic arc welding, the supply voltage
may be (C) Atomic weight/valency
(A) d.c. supply (D) Electro chemical equivalent weight/
velency
(B) a.c., 1 supply
(C) a.c. and d.c. supply both 77. Current efficiency is the ratio of
(D) 3, a.c. supply (A) Actual quantity of substance liberated/
theoretical quantity
69. In metallic arc welding, the electrode used
(B) Theoretical quantity/actual quantity of
will be
substance liberated
(A) Bare electrodes (C) Actual quantity liberated/actual energy
(B) Coated electrodes required
(C) Copper electrode (D) Actual energy required/actual quantity
(D) None of the above liberated
70. The advantage of using coated electrode in 78. Energy efficiency is the ratio of
metallic arc welding is that (A) Actual energy required/theoretical energy
(A) It prevents the weld for oxidation required
(B) Theoretical energy required/actual energy (C) Deposit of oxide

required (D) All of the above
(C) Theoretical energy required/theoretical 86. For removing oxide and scale from the
quantity of substance liberated surface of the job, the job is given
(D) Theoretical quantity of substance libera- (A) Alkaline bath (B) Acidic bath
ted/theoretical energy required (C) Pickling bath (D) All of the above
79. Electroplating protects 87. For removing dirt and grease from the surface
(A) Direct at the surface of metal of the job, the job is given
(B) Corrosion at the surface of metal (A) Alkaline bath (B) Acidic bath
(C) Oxidation at the surface of metal (C) Pickling bath (D) All of the above
(D) All of the above 88. For electroplating, the electrolyte is prepared
80. Electroplating is used for from
(A) Replacing worn out material (A) Salt of the metal to be deposited
(B) Giving shining appearance to the surface (B) Different salt of metal to be deposited
(C) Giving reflecting property to reflector (C) Two or three salts of the same category
(D) All of the above of metal to be deposited
(D) Both (B) and (C)
81. Before starting electroplating which operation
is necessary 89. The speed of the buffing machine used for
(A) Cleaning (B) Polishing electroplating should
(C) Buffing (D) All of the above (A) Low (B) Medium
(C) High (D) None of the above
82. Which operation is necessary for electro-
plating a job ?
ANSWERS
(A) Cleaning
(B) Deposition of metal 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A)
(C) Polishing and buffing 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
(D) All of the above 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
83. Cleaning of a job is essential because
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C)
(A) It gives bright appearance 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
(B) The deposit of metal will adhere to the 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A)
base metal firmly
36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (D)
(C) Giving reflecting property
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (B)
(D) It gives shiny look
46. (C) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)
84. Cleaning operation protects the job from 51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (D)
(A) Corrosion 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (D)
(B) Oxidation 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (B) 65. (B)
(C) Pecling off the metal deposit 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (D)
(D) All of the above 71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (A) 74. (D) 75. (B)
85. The most common contaminants are 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (D)
(A) Grease sticking to the surface 81. (A) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (D)
(B) Dirt 86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (C)
Model Set-4
11. The domestic refrigerator works on the princi- 18. In the modern domestic refrigerator, the
ple of expansion value is replaced by
(A) Vapour absorption refrigeration system (A) Suction pipe (B) Capillary tube
(B) Vapour compression refrigeration system (C) Discharge pipe (D) Accumulator
(C) Thero electric refrigeration system 19. The condenser of domestic refrigerator is
(D) liquid gas refrigeration system fitted
12. The refrigerant used in the domestic refrigera- (A) Below the evaporator
tor is (B) On the back of the refrigerator
(A) Amonia (B) Freon (C) Near the compressor
(C) Fluorine (D) Methyl chloride (D) On the top of the refrigerator
13. The refrigerant used for domestic refrigerator 10. The liquid refrigerant which enters the evapo-
must be rator is at
(A) Non-corrosive (A) Low pressure
(B) Non-toxic and odour less (B) Low temperature
(C) Of high working pressure (C) Low pressure and temperature both
(D) All of the above (D) High pressure and temperature both
14. The refrigeration is used for 11. Motor gets hot on running because of
(A) Comfort (A) Poor relay contacts
(B) Food preservation (B) Low voltage
(C) Cold storage and ice factories (C) Open circuit in starting winding
(D) All of the above (D) Thermostat contact open
15. The compressor of the refrigerator 12. Motor runs slow because of
(A) Bearing worn-out
(A) Sucks the refrigeration from the evapo-
rator (B) Insulation failure
(C) Motor over loaded
(B) Deliver the compressed refrigerant to the
condenser (D) Defective thermostat
(C) Both (A) and (B) 13. Motor keeps on running but cooling is in-
(D) Regulates the quantity of refrigerant sufficient
(A) Wrong setting of thermostat
16. The function of the expansion valve as (B) Defective thermostat
(A) To control the pressure (C) Less refrigerant gas
(B) To control the temperature (D) No refrigerant gas in the system
(C) To regulate the flow of refrigerant 14. Motor gives humming noise and does not
(D) All of the above start due to
17. The coldest part in the domestic refrigerator (A) Defect in motor
is (B) Defective relay contacts
(A) Condenser (B) Evaporator (C) Low voltage
(C) Receiver (D) Compressor (D) Any one of the three
15. Too much frosting around the freezer is due 23. Which of the following properties, the air-
to conditioner has ?
(A) Defective door seal (A) It can control the humidity of air
(B) Frequent opening of door (B) It can maintain proper temperature
(C) Storing of hot food stuff (C) It can keep down concentration carbon-
(D) Low voltage dioxide and smoke with low limits
16. Normal cooling in freezer, but not in all the
portion is due to 24. Working cycles of air conditioner is measured
(A) Defective door gasket in
(B) Frequent opening of door (A) Domestic refrigerator
(C) Both (A) and (B) (B) Water cooler
(D) Less refrigerant in the system (C) Both (A) and (B)
17. The compressor gives noisy operation due
to 25. The capacity of airconditioner is measured
(A) No refrigerant in the system in
(B) Loose mounting volts (A) Litres (B) Cu. metres
(C) Choking in the suction pipe (C) Cu. cm (D) Tons
(D) Defective door seal 26. In an airconditioner, the condenser fan and
18. Motor goes on running, even the temperature blower fan are driven
is very low inside the refrigerator is due to (A) By same motor (B) By different motor
(A) High voltage (C) By same shaft (D) None of the above
(B) Low voltage 27. The refrigerant used in the airconditioner is
(C) Defective thermostat
(A) Ammonia (B) Freon
(D) Defective relay
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Methyl chloride
19. Motor gets hot on running due to
28. The different types of airconditioner are
(A) Worn-out bearing
(A) Central type
(B) Low voltage
(B) Unitary type
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Central and unitary type both
(D) Defective relay
20. Bulb of the refrigerator does not work due
to 29. The centrifugal blower fitted in an air condi-
tioner sucks air
(A) Defective thermostat
(A) From the room which is to be cooled
(B) Defective door switch
(B) From the atmosphere
(C) Low voltage
(C) From the inner body of the cooler
(D) Defective gasket
(D) Given by the fan near the condenser
21. The artificial atmosphere of particular requi-
rements can be obtained from 30. What is the percentage of fresh air mixed with
air sucked by the centrifugal blower for
(A) Ceiling fan (B) Desert cooler
recirculation of air ?
(C) Airconditioner (D) Exhaust fan
(A) 10% (B) 25%
22. The airconditioner gives (C) 50% (D) 75%
(A) Cool air
(B) Hot air 31. The capacity of water cooler is measured in
(C) Cold and hot air both (A) Tons (B) Litres
(D) Damped air (C) Cu. m. (D) Cu. ft.
32. The different type of water cooler are (C) Less refrigerant
(A) Instantaneous type (D) None of these
(B) Storage type 41. Domestic electrical installation have
(C) Bottle type (A) 1 load (B) 2 load
(D) All of the above (C) 3 load (D) All of the above
33. Instantaneous type water cooler is used 42. In a lighting sub-circuit the maximum current
where allowed is
(A) Water supply available round the clock (A) 15A (B) 10A
(B) Water supply available frequent intervals (C) 10A (D) 5A
(C) Both (A) and (B)
43. In a power sub-circuit the maximum current
(D) By having a separate storage tank allowed is
34. In a storage type water cooler, the evaporate (A) 30A (B) 15A
coil is kept (C) 10A (D) 5A
(A) In the storage tank
44. Maximum number of points in a lighting sub-
(B) Around the storage circuit allowed by I.E. rules is
(C) Below the storage tank (A) 14 (B) 12
(D) By having a separate storage tank (C) 10 (D) 8
35. The storage type water cooler has 45. Maximum number of points in a power sub-
(A) Centrifugal blower pump circuit allowed by I.E. rules is
(B) Blower pump (A) 8 (B) 6
(C) Exhaustfan (C) 4 (D) 2
(D) None of the above 46. The size of wire used for lighting sub-circuit
36. The cost of storage water cooler as compared is
to instantaneous water cooler of the same (A) 1/2 mm.2 (B) 1/2 mm.2
capacity is (C) 1/15 mm.2 (D) 1/12 mm.2
(A) Same (B) High 47. The size of wire used for power sub-circuit in
(C) Lower (D) Very low copper conductor is
(A) 3/22 S.W.G.
37. The fan motor used for heat transfer from the
condenser coil is of (B) 7/22 S.W.G.
(A) Double speed (B) Single speed (C) 3/20 S.W.G.
(D) 7/20 S.W.G.
(C) Three speed (D) Four speed
48. The size of wire used for power sub-circuit
38. The refrigerant used in a water cooler
(A) 1/5 mm.2 (B) 1/25 mm.2
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methyl chloride
(C) 1/2 mm.2 (D) 1/15 mm.2
(C) Freon (D) Ammonia
49. Most commonly type of wiring used in
39. Time taken for cooling water in a storage type domestic installation is
water cooler as compared to instantaneous (A) Cleat wiring
type water cooler is
(B) P.V.C. batter wiring
(A) Less (B) More (C) Concealed conduit wiring
(C) Same (D) Nearly same (D) Both (B) and (C)
40. Motor of the water cooler starts at short inter- 50. The lighting load generally sanctioned for a
vals, otherwise cooling is good because of residential house is
(A) Less quantity of water in the tank (A) 025 KW (B) 05 KW
(B) More quantity of water in the tank (C) 10 KW (D) 15 KW
51. The metre which measure resistance is known 61. One kilo watt hour is equal to
as (A) 4180 Kilo cal. (B) 820 K. cal.
(A) Ammeter (B) Multimeter (C) 860 K. cal. (D) 4200 K. cal.
(C) Voltmeter (D) Ohm-meter 62. In M.K.S. system one kilo watt is equal to
52. The unit of measuring resistance is (A) 136 H.P. (B) 134 H.P.
(A) Ohm (B) Volt (C) 15 H.P. (D) 166 H.P.
(C) Ampere (D) Millivolt 63. One Board of Trade unit is equal to
53. For long transmission lines, voltage is mea- (A) 36 106 Joules
sured in (B) 36 105 Joules
(A) Volts (B) Micro-volts (C) 36 105 Joules
(C) Kilo-volts (D) Milli-volts (D) 36 107 Joules
54. With the increase in length of conductor, the 64. One kilo calories is equal to
value of resistance
(A) 4200 Joules (B) 4180 Joules
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) 418 Joules (D) 418 102 Joules
(C) Remains same (D) Becomes zero
65. A current of 5 Amp. flows through a con-
55. With the increase in cross sectional area of ductor against a potential difference of 200
the conductor, the value of resistance volts. The power dissipated will be
(A) Increases (B) Remains same (A) 1000 watts (B) 1.1 kilo-watts
(C) Decreases (D) Becomes zero (C) 2000 watts (D) 100 watts
56. Specific resistance of a conductor depends 66. A 100 volts is applied to a circuit of resistance
upon of 10 ohms, the power dissipated by the resis-
(A) Composition of the conductor tance will be
(B) Length of conductor (A) 100 watts (B) 500 watts
(C) Area of cross-section of the conductor (C) 1000 watts (D) 1500 watts
(D) Resistance of the conductor 67. Power taken by a resistance of 20 ohms with
57. With the increases in temperature, the resis- a flow of 10 amp. current is
tance of copper (A) 1 KW (B) 15 KW
(A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) 25 KW (D) 2 KW
(C) Become zero (D) Remains constant 68. Energy consumed by a heater of rating 1000
58. With the increase of temperature, the resis- watts by operating it for a period of 2 hours
tance of carbon will be
(A) Increases (A) 1 unit (B) 2 units
(B) Become zero (C) 25 units (D) 4 units
(C) Remains constant 69. Energy consumed by an electric iron of rating
(D) Decreases 1000 watts as compared to 750 watts will be
(A) More (B) Less
59. Which of the following insulator is most
effected by heat ? (C) Half (D) Same
(A) P.V.C. (B) Mica 70. Between 200 watts 860 watts lamp of the
same voltage rating, the resistance of 200
(C) Paper (D) Leatheriod
watts lamp will be
60. With the increase of temperature, the insula- (A) Higher
ting power of insulator (B) Same
(A) Loses (B) Gains (C) Varies with the nature of supply
(C) Remains same (D) Lower
71. Two lamps of rating 60 w, 100 v and 100 w, (B) With two parallel pairs in series
100 v are connected in series across 200 volts (C) All in parallel
supply. The current drawn by both the lamps
(D) One pair with other two in series
will be
(A) Different 76. Two heaters of rating 1KW, 250 v are
(B) Same connected in series across 250 volts supply,
the power taken by the heaters will be
(C) High current by 100 w lamp
(D) High current by 60 w lamp (A) 1 KW (B) 1/w KW
(C) 1/2 KW (D) 1 KW
72. Two lamps of rating 100 w, 250 v and 60 w,
250 v are available. The resistance of the 77. The combined resistance of the circuit shown
lamp will be in Fig. will be
(A) Same for both the lamps
(B) Resistance of 100 w will be more than
60 w
(C) Resistance of 100 w will be less than
100 w
(D) Less than the sum of their resistance
73. Fair circuits of identical values of resistance (A) 10 ohms (B) 18 ohms
are connected as shown in figure. Which (C) 4 ohms (D) 12 ohms
circuit will draw the least current ?
78. The combined resistance of the circuit shown
(A) in Fig. will be
(B)
(C)
(A) 362/12 ohms (B) 12 ohms

(D)
79. The combined resistance of the circuit shown
74. Three resistance of values 0 ohms, 12 ohms in Fig.
and 24 ohms are connected in parallel across
100 volts supply. The value of potential
difference across each resistance will be
(A) Same
(B) Different
(C) Less than 100 volts
(D) More than 100 volts
75. Four heaters of rating 1 KW 250 v each
available. How you will connect them for
maximum heat (A) 16 ohms (B) 1/7 ohms
(A) All in series (C) 7 ohms (D) 7/12 ohms
80. A 100 w, 100 v lamps is to be operated on 90. The watt-hour efficiency is always
250 v supply, the value of additional resis- (A) More than hour efficiency
tance to be connected in series will be
(B) Equal to ampere hour efficiency
(C) Less than ampere-hour efficiency
91. The electrolyte used in Edision cell is
81. Which cell is known as strong cell ? (A) Sulphuric Acid
(A) Primary cell (B) Dry cell (B) Potassium Hydroxide
(C) Lechlanche cell (D) Secondary cell (C) Nickle Hydrate
82. Active elements in Lead-Acid battery is (D) Nitric Acid
(A) Sulphuric Acid 92. Internal resistance per cell of Lead Acid cell
(B) Caustic Potash is always
(C) Magnese Dioxide (A) Less than Edison cell
(D) Nitric Acid (B) More than Edison cell
(C) Equal to Edison cell
83. Electrolyte used in Lead Acid battery is
(A) Sulphuric Acid 93. Average e.m.f. per cell of lead Acid cell is
(B) Caustic Potash (A) 12 v (B) 108 v
(C) Magnese Dioxide (C) 15 v (D) 22 v
(D) Nitric Acid 94. During charging of a battery Specific gravity
of electrolyte
84. Specific gravity of a battery is expressed in
(A) Decreases (B) Increases
(A) Ampere hour (B) Ampere-volt
(C) Does not change
(C) Percentage (D) Volts
85. The capacity of a battery is expressed in ANSWERS
(A) Ampere-hour (B) Ampere-volts 1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (C)
(C) Percentage (D) Volts 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
86. Capacity of battery depends upon 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C)
(A) Rate of discharge 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B)
(B) It is dependent 21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D)
(C) Ampere hour 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (B)
(D) Temperature 31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C)
87. The e.m.f. of a dry cell is
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (D)
(A) 108 volts (B) 20 volts
46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (A)
(C) 12 volts (D) 15 volts
51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (C)
88. Active elements of Alkaline battery are 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (A)
(A) Lead peroxide and sponge lead 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A)
(B) Nickle-hydrate and iron oxide 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (A) 70. (D)
(C) Magnese-dioxide and carbon 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74. (A) 75. (C)
89. During discharge of a battery 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (C)
(A) The voltage of cell decreases 81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (B) 85. (A)
(B) The voltage of cell increases 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (C)
(C) Voltage does not charge 91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (D) 94. (B)
Model Set-5
11. One coulombs is equal to 18. Paper condenser is a type of
(A) 6 102 electrons (A) Variable condenser
(B) 6 1010 electrons (B) Electrolytic condenser
(C) 6 105 electrons (C) Fixed condenser
(D) 6 108 electrons (D) None of the above
12. The force between two charges of 2 19. Mica or coramic condenser is a type of
coulomb's each. If placed at a distance of 2 (A) Fixed condenser
metres apart in air will be (B) Variable condenser
(A) 9 1012 newton (B) 9 1015 newton (C) Electrolytic condenser
(C) 9 109 newton (D) 9 106 newton (D) None of the above
13. The force between two charge 4 and 8 10. With the rise of temperature, dielectric
coulomb's which are placed at a distance of strength of material
2
2 metres will be when K = 2 (A) Increases (B) Remains constant
(A) 18 109 newton (C) Decreases (D) Become zero
(B) 9 109 newton 11. The strength of electromagnt can be increased
(C) 18 1012 newton by
(D) 9 102 newton (A) Reducing number of turns
14. An air condenser with capacitance 0001 F (B) Increasing the magnitude of current
is connected to a d.c. voltage of 200 volts. (C) Decreasing the magnitude of current
The energy stored in the condenser will be (D) Increasing the length of conductor
(A) 10 Joules (B) 20 Joules
12. The direction of magnetic field set up in a
(C) 20 Joules (D) 20 H Joules current carrying conductor can be found out
15. A condenser is connected across 200 V by
supply for 05 second, the current is kept (A) Flemings right hand rule
steady at 02 amp., the charged on condenser (B) Flemings left hand rule
will be
(C) Cork screw rule
(A) 001 coulombs (B) 0001 coulombs
(D) Thumb rule
(C) 01 coulombs (D) 1 coulombs
13. The direction of magnetic field can be deter-
16. A condenser of 10 F is connected to a d.c. mined by
source of 23V through a resistance of mega
ohms. The time of the current which is to be (A) End rule (B) Right hand rule
kept steady will be (C) Left hand rule (D) Thumb rule
(A) 10 Sec. (B) 100 Sec. 14. The polarity of the pole can be found out by
(C) 50 Sec. (D) 1 Sec. (A) End rule
17. One F (micro farad) is equal to (B) Fleming's right hand rule
(A) 106 Farad (B) 106 Farad (C) Fleming's left hand rule
12
(C) 10 Farad (D) 102 Farad (D) Cork screw rule
15. It the current flows in an anticlock wise direc- 25. The equation of an e.m.f. is given by e = 10
24
tion, then the polarity of the nearer pole will sin t its amplitude is
be
(A) South pole (B) No polarity (A) 24
(B) 10
24
(C) North pole (D) Both the polarities (C) 101/2
24 (D) 101/2241/2
16. If the current flows in clockwise direction 26. The four equations of e.m.f. are given by
then the polarity of the nearer pole will be (i) e1 = 10 sin t
(A) South pole (B) No polarity (ii) e2 = 20 sin (t + /6)
(C) North pole (D) Both the polarities (iii) e3 = 50 sin (t + /3) and
17. A current carrying conductor placed in the (iv) e4 = 100 sin (t + /3)
magnetic fields as show, the force experienced
on the conductors acts Which will have the max. value ?
(A) Equation (i) (B) Equation (ii)
S N (C) Equation (iii) (D) Equation (iv)
(A) Upward (B) Down ward 27. The equation of an alternating current is
(C) To the left (D) To the right i = 4242 sin 628t
the effective value will be
18. The unit of magnetic flux is
(A) 27 amp (B) 30 amp
(A) Amp. turn (B) Weber
(C) 27 amp (D) 3 amp
(C) Coulombs (D) Newton
28. The equation of an alternating current is
19. The unit of m.m.f. is
i = 4242 sin 50 t
(A) Volts (B) Ergs
(C) Amp. turns (D) Coulombs the average value will be
(A) 30 amp. (B) 4242 amp.
20. The unit of Reluctance is
(C) 27 amp. (D) 27 amp.
(A) Weber (B) Amp. turn (At)
(C) Maxwell (D) At per waber 29. An alternating current has the following
values for half cycle current in amp 0, 2, 3, 5,
21. The max value of the cycle is known, the 8, 5, 3, 2, 0. Its average value will be
r.m.s. value can be found at
(A) 55 amp. (B) 85 amp.
(A) 0707 instantaneous value
(B) 0606 instantaneous value (C) 46 amp. (D) 46 amp.
(C) 0707 Emax. value 30. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal supply whose
(D) 0707 Eav value peak value is 100 volts is
(A) 100/V2 (B) 100 V2
22. A sinusoidal current is represented by i = 70
sin 314t, its frequency will be (C) 50/V2 (D) 50 V2
(A) 25 Hz (B) 50 Hz 31. Which of the following statement is correct
(C) 60 Hz (D) 30 Hz for a d.c. circuit ?
23. A 2 pole alternator runs at 3000 r.m.p., it will (A) W = VI
generate frequency (B) W = VI sin
(A) 50 Hz (B) 100 Hz (C) KW = kVA cos
(C) 1500 Hz (D) 3000 Hz
(D) KW = kVA sin
24. An a.c. generator generates an e.m.f. at 50 c/s
when runs at 1500 r.p.m., the generator will 32. With the reduction of frequency, the inductive
have reactance of the circuit will
(A) 2 Poles (B) 8 Poles (A) Decreases (B) Increases
(C) 4 Poles (D) 6 Poles (C) Remains same (D) None of the above
33. With the increase of frequency the capacitive 42. Three branches are connected in parallel
reactance of the circuit across a supply voltage V which quantity will
(A) Decreases (B) Increases be same ?
(C) Remains same (D) None of the above (A) Current in each branch
(B) Power factor of each branch
34. If the frequency of the pure inductive circuit
is half, the current of the circuit will be (C) Phase difference of each branch
(A) Same (B) Doubled (D) Voltage across each branch
(C) Halved (D) Four times 43. Two inductances L1 and L 2 are connected in
parallel across V volts, the total power factor
35. The reactance offered by a capacitor to an will be
alternating current of frequency is reduced to (A) Higher
100 c/s is 10 ohms. If frequency is reduced to
50 c/s the reactance becomes (B) Same
(A) 5 ohms (B) 10 ohms (C) Lower
(C) 15 ohms (D) 20 ohms (D) None of the above
44. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in
36. Q-factor of a circuit is given by
parallel across V volts, the total power factor
(A) Ratio of R/Z (B) Ratio of Z/R will be
(C) Ratio of XL/Z (D) Ratio of XC/Z (A) Higher (B) Lower
37. The input to an a.c. circuit is 10 KVA at 06 (C) Zero (D) None of the above
power factor lagging, the power drawn by the 45. A circuit consists of a resistance of 30 ohms
circuit in KW will be is connected in parallel with a coil of
(A) 6 (B) 12 inductive reactance of 40 ohms across 120 V,
(C) 8 (D) 16 50 Hz supply. The total current of the circuit
will be
38. The apparent power drawn by an a.c. circuit is
(A) 5 A (B) 4 A
20 KVA and reactive power is 12 KVA. The
real power in the circuit in KW will be (C) 3 A (D) 7 A
(A) 20 (B) 12 46. A resistor of 10 ohms and inductive reactance
(C) 16 (D) None of the above of 8 ohms and capacitive reactance of 15
ohms are connected in parallel across 120 V,
39. A R-L circuit has 6 ohms resistance and 8 50 Hz supply. The total current of the circuit
ohms inductive reactance. Its Impedance will will be
be (A) 35 A (B) 1389 A
(A) 8 ohms (B) 10 ohms (C) 1856 A (D) 19 A
47. An inductive coil is connected in a parallel
40. A R-L-C circuit has a resistance of 6 ohms across a non-inductive resistor of 30 ohms.
inductive reactance of 8 ohms and capacitive This combination is connected across single
reactance of 16 ohms. The impedance of the phase 50 Hz supply. The total current taken
circuit will be from the mains is 10 amp. when the current in
(A) 10 ohms (B) 16 ohms the non-inductive resistance of 6 amp. the
(C) 8 ohms (D) 6 ohms current in the inductive coil will be
41. In a parallel circuit, the whole of the current (A) 10 A (B) 4 A
will go in phase when (C) 8 A (D) 16 A
(A) I C = I sin 48. In a parallel resonant circuit at resonant
(B) I C = I cos frequency, the line current in
(C) I L = I C (A) Max. (B) Zero
(D) I L = I cos (C) Min. (D) None of the above
49. In a parallel resonant circuit at resonant fre- (C) Being the spring light in weight, there is
quency, the impedance of the circuit will be no increases in weight of the moving
(A) Very low system
(B) Very high (D) That rise of temperature does not effect
(C) Zero the controlling torque
(D) There will be minor change 58. The advantage of gravity control method is
that it is
50. In a parallel resonant circuit frequency, the
factor will be (A) Costly
(B) Not very simple method

1 1 1 L (C) Effect by temperature
(A) (B)
R C R C
(D) Not subject to fatigue
2 f L CR
(C) (D) 59. The disadvantage of gravity control method is
R L
that, it is
51. Thermal effect is used for producing deflect- (A) Kept in vertical position
ing torque in
(B) Light in weight
(A) Watt meter (B) Energy meter
(C) Graduated uniformly
(C) Ammeter (D) Multimeter (D) Costly
52. Electordynamic effect is used for the 60. For controlling the vibration of the disc of
operation of A.C. energymeter, damping torque is pro-
(A) Wattmeter (B) Voltmeter duced by
(C) Ammeter (D) All of the above (A) Eddy currents
53. Chemical effect is used for the operation of (B) Chemical effect
(A) Wattmeter (C) Electrostatic effect
(B) Ammeter (D) Magnetic effect
(C) Ampere hour meter 61. For increasing the range of voltmeter
(D) kwh meter connect a
54. The spring controlled meter is (A) High value resistance in series with volt-
(A) Not portable meter
(B) Portable (B) Low value resistance in series with volt-
(C) Should be mounted in a definite position meter
(D) None of the above (C) High value resistance in parallel with
55. In spring controlling instruments, controlling voltmeter
torque (D) Low value resistance in parallel with
(A) Can be adjusted only voltmeter
(B) Can not be adjusted only 62. A galvanometer can be used for measuring
(C) Remains same current and voltage of a circuit by
(D) Varies with the load (A) Shunt only
56. For controlling torque, spring controlling (B) Connecting high value of resistance in
method is series only
(A) Generally used (B) Rarely used (C) Shunt for measuring current and high
(C) Always used (D) Never used resistance series for voltage
(D) Without shunt and series resistance
57. The advantages of spring control instruments
is 63. The cost of ammeter as compared to volt-
(A) It is subject to fatigue meter is
(B) The controlling torque can be adjusted (A) Same (B) Higher
easily (C) Lower (D) Very high
64. Two voltmeter of same range one MI type (B) Both the limbs of laminated core with
and other M.C. type are connected in parallel different turns
for measuring a.c. supply voltage, if the (C) Both the limbs of the laminated core
reading of M.I. type is 300. The reading of with same number of turns
M.C. type will be (D) The centre of the limb on the laminated
(A) Higher than MI type core
(B) Lower than MI type
72. The pressure coil of a single phase Energy-
(C) Same meter is wound on
(D) Zero (A) One limb of the laminated core
65. How will you identify wheather the meter 28 (B) Both the limbs of the laminated core
MI type of M.C. type from with different turns
(A) The type of scale (C) Both the limbs of the laminated core
(B) The marking of terminals with same number of turns
(C) The symbol given on the meterplate (D) The centre of the limb on the laminated
(D) All of the above one
66. The most commonly used type of single 73. The pressure coil consists of
phase energymeter is (A) More number of turns of fine wire
(A) Dynamometer type (B) Less number of turns of fine wire
(B) Electrostatic type (C) Less number of turns of thick wire
(C) Induction type (D) More number of turns of thick wire
(D) Moving coil type 74. The current in the pressure coil is pro-
67. The energymeter used for measuring energy portional to
of a d.c. circuit is (A) Load current
(A) Amphere hour type (B) Line current
(B) Induction type (C) Supply voltage
(C) Electrostatic type (D) Supply voltage and line current both
(D) Dynamometer type
75. The current in the pressure coil will lag
68. The meter constant of energymeter is given behind the voltage by 90 because high
by (A) Inductance
(A) rev./KW (B) rev/KWh
(B) Resistance
(C) rev/watt (D) rev/KWh
(C) Resistance
69. The essential requirements of a single phase (D) Resistance and low inductance
meter are
(A) Recording mechanism 76. For testing the earth fault of an Electric kettle,
(B) Operating mechanism the megger reads zero, this indicates
(C) Moving mechanism (A) Open circuit
(D) All of the above (B) Live terminal touching with the body
70. The series magnet of single phase Energy- (C) Neutral terminal touching with the body
meter consists of coil of (D) Any one of the terminals touching with
(A) Thin wire of few turns body
(B) Thick wire of few turns 77. A man holds both the terminals of a 500 V
(C) Thick wire of more turns megger, but still safe due to
(D) Thin wire of more turns (A) High voltage
71. The current coil of single phase energymeter (B) Very low current
is wound on (C) High resistance of the body
(A) One limb of the laminated core (D) Low resistance of the body
78. The reading of the megger is 30 mega-ohms 86. The megger voltage for testing 500 V
while testing the insulation resistance of the installation should be
wire. The wire can be (A) 1000 V (B) 500 V
(A) Suitable for installation (C) 300 V (D) 100 V
(B) Not suitable for installation
87. Which of the megger is better for testing
(C) Semi suitable for the installation installation ?
79. While testing an odd installation the main (A) Battery operated
switch of the supply will be kept
(B) Generator operated
(A) OFF position
(B) ON position (C) Integrated circuit operated
(C) ON position and switches of the circuit (D) Motor operated
in OFF position 88. The insulation resistance of a installation
(D) OFF position and switches of the circuit between conductor to conductor should not be
in ON position less than
80. If the megger terminals are connected to 230 (A) 50 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
V supply, megger will (B) 60 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
(A) Work (B) Not work (C) 25 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
(C) Burn (D) Parially damaged (D) 30 mega-ohms/no. of outlets
81. Megger is used for measuring
(A) Low resistance ANSWERS
(B) High resistance 1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C)
(C) Medium resistance 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
(D) Very low resistance
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C)
82. Megger can be used for testing 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
(A) Open circuit
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
(B) Short circuit
(C) Open and short circuit 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (B)
(D) High resistance circuit only 31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D)
83. Megger is a combination of 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
(A) Motor and generator 41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (A)
(B) Generator and ammeter 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
(C) Generator and voltmeter 51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (B)
(D) Generator and ohmmeter
56. (A) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
84. Speed of the megger is kept at 61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (D)
(A) 100 r.p.m. (B) 120 r.p.m.
66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (B)
(C) 140 r.p.m. (D) 160 r.p.m.
71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (A)
85. The megger voltage for testing 250 V installa-
tion should be 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C)
(A) 250 V (B) 300 V 81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (C)
(C) 500 V (D) 1000 V 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A)

Upkar Mechanical and Electrical MCQ PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Upkar Mechanical and Electrical MCQ PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mechanical Engineering

01. For isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the (B) Temperature

(B) Heat and work 56. is the unit of entropy.

(C) Pressure only 72. The absolute temperature on centigrade scale

01. Electron was discovered by (C) Becquerel

01. Which of the following is a scalar ? 08. Stress is

(A) Thin shell

(B) Hardness (C) Become one-fourth

15. is a phenomenon by which a liquid rises (C) Parallel to the surface

01. The following is an S.I. engine 09. Fuel injector is used in

66. is an non-positive displacement com- 76. is used to drive a rotary compressor.

(B) A hard wood board (B) 1 + (C.O.P.)ref

(B) Sodium chloride (C) Remains constant

(B) Increases (C) Increases

1 27. In a reciprocating engine mechanism the

19. Pipes of bicycle frames are made of ... (B) Diamond

62. Gold is material. 72. Which of the following properties pertain to

16. In which of the following are the specifi- (B) Availability

(B) Batch production 53. Management and administration means the

(B) Inspection time 69. Does not pertain to inventory manage-

34. The frequency of the machine depends upon (C) I1 I2

(C) Require auxiliary winding 61. Moving iron instruments are

69. The consumption of M.I. instrument as com- (C) Current coil

(C) Torque angle (C) M.S.C.P./M.H.C.P.

31. In an induction heating, heat is generated by (C) Medium frequency

(B) Theoretical energy required/actual energy (C) Deposit of oxide

(A) 362/12 ohms (B) 12 ohms

You might also like