Raffles Institution Yr 6 H2 Biology Term 2 Common Test (2011)

H
RAFFLES INSTITUTION
2013 Year 5 Term 3 Common Test
Higher 2

BIOLOGY 9648/01
th
Paper 1 Multiple Choice 4 July 2013
55 mins
Additional materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.

Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name and index number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been done for
you.

There are thirty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers, A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this handout.
Calculators may be used.

(Erase all mistakes completely. Do not bend or fold the OMR Answer Sheet.)

This document consists of 12 printed pages.

Raffles Institution
Internal Examination
1. The figure below shows part of the molecular structure of a polysaccharide.

Key: - - - hydrogen bonds

Which of the following statements are true?

I The structure contains -glucose molecules.

II The structure contains -glucose molecules.
III The polysaccharide, which is an important food source for animals, can be digested by
humans.
IV The polysaccharide may associate in groups to form microfibrils, which are then
arranged to form larger bundles.

A I and III
B I and IV
C II and III
D II and IV

2. The figure below shows the structure of 4 monomers.

U X

Y Z
Identify the monomers required to form the respective polymers.

starch cellulose polypeptide polynucleotide

A X U Z Y
B U X Y Z
C Z X Z U
D X Y U Z
3. The following diagram illustrates the types of membrane phospholipids found in the intact
erythrocytes (red blood cells).

Which of the following statements can be concluded from the graph?

I 76% of the total membrane phospholipids contain choline and 20% contain
ethanolamine.
II 24% of PC and 80% of PE make up part of the bilayer half facing cell interior.
III 76% of PC is found on bilayer half facing cell surface because they are needed for cell to
cell recognition.
IV The membrane of the erythrocytes can be concluded to be asymmetric.

A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and IV only
D II and IV only

4. Which property of proteins enables them to act as pH buffers?

A They are made up of amino acids and all amino acids contain at least one carboxyl and
amino group.
B They are made up of amino acids that have R groups which contain carboxyl and amino
groups.
C They are soluble in water.
D They possess both secondary and tertiary structures.

5. How many different polypeptides, each consisting of x amino acids, can be made if the
number of different amino acids available is y?

A yx
B xy
C yx
D y
6. Which of the following statement is true for collagen molecule?

A Collagen has a primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure.

B Collagen is a rigid molecule and cannot be hydrolysed.
C The repetitive amino sequence in collagen accounts for its fibrous shape.
D Hydrogen and ionic bonds are involved in maintaining the quaternary structure of
collagen.

7. Acid phosphatase is found in the lysosome cellular compartment and has a pH optimum of
about 5.0. It hydrolyzes phosphate groups from a wide variety of phosphate esters including
glucose-6-phosphate to form glucose. The active site of acid phosphatase has a high affinity
an artificial substrate, p-nitrophenyl phosphate (pNPP).

The enzymatic reaction between acid phosphatase and glucose-6-phosphate was

investigated. Which of the following statement(s) is true with the addition of pNPP?

I The Km value of reaction between acid phosphatase and glucose-6-phosphate will

increase.
II Glucose-6-phosphate will not be completely hydrolysed.
III At low concentration of glucose-6-phosphate, the rate of reaction will be lower.
IV Glucose will not be formed until all the pNPP has been hydrolysed.

A I only
B I & III
C I, II & IV
D All of the above

8. Which of the following best describes denaturation?

A Denaturation of albumin occurs in the presence of protease.

B Mercury ions (Hg2+) causes the permanent denaturation of enzymes.
C Proteins are denatured by the binding of non-competitive inhibitor.
D An increase in number of disulphide bridges lowers the temperature required for an
enzyme to be completely denatured.

9. The following metabolic pathway is regulated by end-product inhibition. The dotted arrow with
a minus sign symbolizes inhibition of a metabolic step by an end-product.

Which reaction would prevail if both Q and S are present in the cell in high amounts?

A L M
B M O
C L N
D R S

10. Which of the following proteins are synthesized by ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic
 reticulum in cells?

I insulin, a hormone secreted by pancreatic cells

II actin subunits of microfilaments, which make up the cytoskeleton
III channel proteins embedded in the cell surface membrane
IV hydrolytic enzymes packaged into lysosomes
V hexokinase, an enzyme involved in glycolytic reactions occurring in the cytoplasm of cells

A I, II & III
B II & V
C I, III & IV
D III, IV & V

11. The diagram below shows an image of an organelle found in most eukaryotic cells.

Which of the following statement(s) about this organelle is/are true?

I Linear chromosomes can be found within the organelle.

II The organelle could have originated from an ancestral photosynthetic prokaryotic cell.
III An internal membrane system is present.
IV 70S ribosomes can be found within the organelle.
V Inner membrane is highly folded to form cisternae.

A I, II, III & IV

B I, III & V
C IV & V
D IV only

12. In which cell organelles can nucleic acids be found?

I nucleus
II ribosome
III chloroplast
IV centrioles
V Golgi apparatus

A I, III, IV & V
B I, II & III
C I & III
D I only

13. Which of the following statements about the cell is true?

A Endocytosis is an active process because energy is required to move materials into the
 cell against their concentration gradients.
B In simple diffusion, materials enter the cell down their concentration gradients whereas
facilitated diffusion can move materials against their concentration gradients.
C In osmosis, water, ions and small polar molecules enter the cell by diffusing through a
selectively permeable membrane down their concentration gradients.
D Ions can enter the cell against their concentration gradient by active transport.

14. Cell division is the means of almost all growth and reproduction.

Which graph correctly represents a form of cell division that maintains genetic stability at the
expense of variation?

15. A biochemist wants to determine the duration of the S-phase of the cell cycle. This is done by
adding radioactively-labeled compound R to the culture medium of dividing cells. Which of the
following correctly identifies compound R?

A adenine
B cytosine
C thymine
D guanine

16. Two sister chromatids of one of the chromosomes fail to separate because microtubules
became improperly attached to the kinetochores. What is the most likely result?

A Both chromatids will remain at the equator of the spindle.

B Polyploid daughter cells will be produced.
C One of the daughter cells would have lost all its chromosomes.
D One of the daughter cells would have one less chromosome.

17. Which diagram shows early anaphase of the second division of meiosis (anaphase II) of a
nucleus containing two pairs of homologous chromosomes?
18. Sex determination in some insects such as bees and wasps is not controlled by sex
chromosomes.

Using the diagram, which row in the table shows how sex is determined in these insects?

P Q R S
A n n mitosis mitosis
B n 2n mitosis meiosis
C 2n n meiosis meiosis
D n 2n meiosis mitosis

19. The diagram below shows a stage of cell division.

 Which of the following correctly identifies the stage?
A metaphase with 2n = 4
B metaphase II with 2n = 8
C metaphase II with n = 8
D metaphase I with 2n = 4

20. The information below shows a region of the DNA nucleotide and amino acid sequence of a
normal protein and a mutant protein.

DNA nucleotide sequence on template Amino acid sequence

Normal --CTT GCA AAA-- glu arg - phe

Mutant - gly arg - phe

Which of the following could explain this mutation on the template DNA strand?

A A purine was substituted with another purine.

B A pyrimidine was substituted with a purine.
C A purine was substituted by a pyrimidine.
D A pyrimidine was substituted with another pyrimidine.

21. Pyrimidine bases contain 4 carbon atoms and purine bases contain 5 carbon atoms.
 How many carbon atoms are there in a DNA molecule containing 20 adenine bases?

A 100
B 180
C 200
D 380

22. Which of the following correctly describes DNA polymerase activity?

A It can initiate DNA replication.

B It requires no other enzymes to assemble DNA.
C It operates continuously without interruption on either DNA strand.
D It can copy a mutation from the parental strand to the daughter strand.

23. The following coding sequence of DNA is taken randomly from a bacterial genome.

5 TTACGCTTCGAAATAGGAATATCATAGGCT 3

What would be the first four amino acids of a polypeptide generated from this sequence?

The mRNA codons for some amino acids are shown in the table below:

Arg CGA, CGG, AGA, AGG Leu CUU, CUC, CUA, CUG
Asp GAU, GAC Lys AAA, AAG
Ile AUU, AUC, AUA Phe UUU, UUC
Start AUG Ser UCA, UCG, AGU, AGC
Stop UAG, UGA, UAA Tyr UAU, UAC

A Met-Arg-Ser-Phe
B Met-Arg-Ser-Lys
C Met-Ile-Phe-Leu
D Met-Tyr-Lys-Asp

24. What process is carried out by the structure labelled X during translation?
 A combining with an amino acid and then binding to an anticodon
B binding to an anticodon and then combining with an amino acid
C binding to a codon and then combining with an amino acid
D combining with an amino acid and then binding to a codon

25. Which of the following general statements about eukaryotic gene expression is INCORRECT?

A Eukaryotic gene expression involves transcription and translation.

B The template for RNA polymerase is mRNA.
C Poly-A tail at the 3' end of mRNA affects efficiency of gene expression.
D General transcription factors recruits RNA polymerase to form a transcription initiation
complex.

26. Compared to single ribosomes, polyribosomes increase the efficiency of protein synthesis.
How is this achieved?

A Different protein molecules can be made more rapidly.

B Each copy of a protein can be made more rapidly.
C More than one copy of the mRNA molecule can be read at the same time.
D Many copies of the same protein can be made simultaneously from the mRNA
molecule.

27. The photomicrographs below show two different processes occurring in two different species
of bacteria.
 Process 1 Process 2

Which of the following statements are true of both processes?

I For both processes, only bacteria with genes that code for cytoplasmic bridge are
involved.
II Process 1 requires direct contact between 2 different bacteria whereas process 2 can
occur with 1 bacterium.
III Process 1 will result in an increase in the number of identical bacteria whereas process
2 will result in an increase in the number of different bacteria.
IV Both processes involve DNA replication.

A I and III only

B II and IV only
C I, II and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of generalized and specialized transduction?

Generalized transduction Specialized transduction

I transfers any bacterial DNA
II viral DNA is not replicated in the host
cell before being packed into a capsid
III viral DNA is not integrated into the
bacterial chromosome
IV homologous recombination occurs in the
recipient cell
transfers only certain bacterial genes
viral DNA is replicated in the host cell
and packed into a capsid
viral DNA is integrated as a provirus into
the bacterial chromosome
homologous recombination does not
occur in the recipient cell

A I only
B I and III only
C II and IV only
D All of the above

29. In a strain of E. coli, it was observed that the lac structural genes are expressed efficiently
when glucose and lactose are both absent from the growth medium.
 Which of the following are possible explanations for this observation?

I The cell has a mutation in the operator of the lac operon.

II The cell has a mutation in the lacI gene.
III The cell has a mutation in the promoter of the lac structural gene.
IV The cell has a mutation in the CAP binding site.

A I and II only
B II and III only
C III and IV only
D I, II and IV

30. In E.coli, regulation of gene expression involves the catabolite activator protein (CAP).

Which one of the following statements explains why it is considered to be a form of positive
regulation?

A cAMP-CAP increases efficiency of transcription.

B glucose stimulates the production of cAMP.
C CAP increases the production of cAMP.
D glucose binds to CAP and activates it.

END OF PAPER

Answers:
1.D 7.B 13.D 19.D 25.B
2.B 8.B 14.A 20.D 26.D
3.D 9.C 15.C 21.D 27.B
4.B 10.C 16.D 22.D 28.A
5.A 11.D 17.C 23.C 29.A
6.C 12.B 18.B 24.D 30.A