Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 6 MM : 720

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. Magnetic field at point O due to straight conductor 4. The ratio of magnetic dipole moment and angular
PQ is momentum of a charged body of charge q and mass
m is
P
q 2q
i (1) (2)
m m
Q q 2m
(3) (4)
2m q
53 37 5. In parallel L-C circuit, the current from source is 1 A
O and current from inductor is 0.6 A. The current from
r
capacitor is
0 i 0 i (1) 0.36 A (2) 0.5 A
(1) (2)
5r 20r (3) 0.8 A (4) 0.4 A

200 i 0 i
(3)  (4)  6. Magnetic field in a region is given by B B0 i B0 j ,
r 20r
Torque on a circular loop x 2 + z 2 = r 2 carrying
2. Two infinite long wire A and B are separated at a current i in anticlockwise direction as seen from a
and currents are I1 and I2 respectively. The distance point on positive Y-axis is
from wire B where net magnetic field becomes zero
(1) i r 2 k (2) i rB0 k
is
(3) i r 2B0 k (4) i r 2B0 k
aI1 3aI1
(1) I I (2) I I 7. A bar magnet of dipole moment M is cut into two
1 2 1 2
equal piece as shown, magnetic moment of each
piece is
aI1 aI2
(3) I I (4) I I
1 2 1 2
S N
3. Magnetic length of a bar magnet is
(1) More than geometrical length
M M
(2) Less than geometrical length (1) (2)
4 2
(3) Equal to geometrical length M
(3) M (4)
(4) Both (1) & (3) 3
Space for Rough Work

1/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)
8. Magnetic moment of a square loop is M. What will 14. Magnetic induction at equatorial point of the short
be the magnetic moment of the loop if its shape is
changed to a circular? magnet at distance r from centre of dipole is B . Its
value at an axial point of same magnet and at same
M distance is
(1) (2) M
2
(1) 2B (2) 2B
4M M
(3) (4)
4 B B
(3) (4)
9. Locus of all points having same horizontal magnetic 2 2
field on the magnetic map of earth is known as 15. Magnetic field at the centre of regular hexagon
current carrying loop of side length l and current i is
(1) Isogonic line (2) Isoclinic line
20 i 30 i
(3) Isodynamic line (4) Agonic line (1) (2)
l l
10. The Bohr magneton is
30 i 6 0 i
eh eh (3) (4)
(1) (2) l l
2m 4m
16. An electron is projected along positive z-axis,
e h magnetic field is present along positive y-axis, then
(3) (4)
2m 4m direction of initial acceleration of particle is
11. In the electromagnetic wave the electric and (1) Negative x-axis (2) Positive x-axis
magnetic wave are not related as
(3) Positive z-axis (4) Positive y-axis
(1) They are perpendicular to each other 

(2) They have phase difference of 90 17. An -particle is moving with the velocity v u i u j

(3) They have no phase difference in a uniform magnetic field B Bk . Magnetic force
(4) They have equal energy density on -particle is

12. Apparent angle of dip is 30 in a plane at 45 from (1) 2euB ( i j ) (2) euB ( i j )
the magnetic meridian, then the true dip is
euB

1 (3) (i j ) (4) 2euB ( i j )

1 3 3
(1) tan
1
(2) tan
6 2 18. Angles of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to
2 1 1
(3) tan
1
(4) tan1 6 each other are cot 1 and cot 1 respectively.
3 2 3
13. In the geomagnetic pole compass needle True angle of dip is
(1) Stay in North-South direction 1 13 1 13
(1) cot (2) cot
(2) Stay in East-West direction 36 36

1 36 5
(3) Move in vertical plane
(3) cot (4) cot 1
(4) Stay in any position 13 6
Space for Rough Work

2/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
19. An insulating rod of length l carries a charge q 23. Energy density in the electric field of electromagnetic
distributed uniformly on it. The rod is pivoted at its wave is U. If amplitude of electric field (E0) and
one end and is rotated with angular velocity about magnetic field (B0) are related as E0 = cB0, then
a fixed axis perpendicular to rod and passing energy density in magnetic field is (c = speed of
through the pivot. The magnetic moment of system light)
is (1) U (2) c2U
q l 2 q l 2 U U
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 24 c c2

q l 2 q l 2 24. Switch is closed at t = 0, then current in the circuit

(3) (4)
3 6 L
at t is
2R
20. The potential difference across the ends of rod
moving with velocity v in perpendicular magnetic field L R
is
A
x x x
E S
x x x
l v E E 2
x x x (1) (2) e
R R
x x x
E e 1 E e 2 1
B (3) R (4) R e 2
e
Bvl
(1) 2Bvl (2)
2 25. Average value of current for half wave rectifier having
Bvl peak value of current I0 is
(3) (4) Bvl
4 I0 2I0
(1) (2)
21. Which of the following particles can be accelerated
in cyclotron? I0 I0
(1) Proton (2) Electron (3) (4)
2 2
(3) Positron (4) Neutrino 26. A conductor of length L and carrying current i is bent
22. Two charge of same nature are moving parallel to to form a coil of two turns. Magnetic field at the
each other, they will centre of the coil will be
(1) Attract each other 20 i 40 i
(1) (2)
(2) Repel each other L L
(3) Either attract or repel 0 i 0 i
(3) (4)
(4) Neither attract nor repel L 2L
Space for Rough Work

3/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)
27. Magnitude of magnetic field at a point P due to a 31. Two resistors of 2 , 4 and ideal inductor of 4 H
current carrying wire, starting from origin and are connected to a 12 V battery as given in the
extended along y-axis is diagram. The steady current through battery is
Y
4H
P (3, 4)
i 2

O X
30 i 3 0 i
(1) (2) 12 V
4 16
(1) Zero (2) 3 A
30 i 0 i
(3) (4) (3) 2 A (4) 6 A
20 20
32. A coil of radius r is placed at centre of large coil of
28. Which of the following expression represents
radius R, where R >> r and coils are in same plane.
Biot-Savart law?
The coefficient of mutual inductance between the
   
 0I (d  r )  0I (d  r ) coils is
(1) dB 3 (2) dB 2
4 r 4 r 0 r 0 r 2
(1) (2)
2R 2R 2
  
 0I (d  r )  0I (d  r )
(3) dB 2 (4) dB 3 0 r 0 r 2
4 r 4 r (3) (4)
2R 2R
29. Voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 33. In the given circuit, current I is 2A and it is
0.5 radV1 and its resistance is 3 . Its current decreasing at the rate of 103 As1. Then VB VA is
sensitivity is
(1) 0.5 rad A1 (2) 0.16 rad A1 I 2 5 mH

(3) 1.5 rad A1 (4) 6 rad A1 A B

10 V
30. A rectangular coil of area A, rotates in a uniform
magnetic field B with angular velocity about an (1) 9 V (2) 19 V
axis perpendicular to the field. Initially the plane of (3) 10 V (4) 9 V
coil is perpendicular to the field, then the average
induced e.m.f. after rotating by 90 is 34. In LC circuit the maximum charge in capacitor is q0.
Then maximum value of rate of change of current is
BA 2BA
(1) (2)
(1) q0 LC (2) q0 L1C

BA BA
1

1
(3) (4) (3) q0 L 2C 2
(4) q0 L1C1
3 2

Space for Rough Work

4/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
35. The power factor in LCR series circuit at resonance
40. Dimensional formula of LC is
is
(1) [M 0L0 T] (2) [M 0L0 T 1]
1
(1) 1 (2) (3) [M 0L T] (4) [M 0L1 T 1]
2
41. Permanent magnets show
1
(3) (4) Zero (1) High coercivity and low retentivity
2
(2) Low coercivity and low retentivity
36. An AC current is given by I = (3 + 4sint) A, then
its effective value is (3) Low coercivity and high retentivity

(1) 3 A (2) 4 A (4) High coercivity and high retentivity

42. Electromagnetic waves are produced by
(3) 17 A (4) 7 A
(1) A static charge
37. Zero reactance is possible in which circuit?
(2) Moving charge
(1) Inductor (2) Resistor
(3) Chargeless particle
(3) LR (4) RC
(4) Accelerating charge
38. In a series LCR circuit, resonance frequency is half
43. Electric field and magnetic field are given as
of the frequency of source. The nature of the circuit
E = E0 sin(t kx) and B = B0sin(t kx). Then
is
select correct option
(1) Capacitive
E0 k E0
(2) Resistive (1) B (2) B k
0 0
(3) Inductive
E0
(4) Cannot be defined (3) B k (4) E0B0 = k
0

39. In LR circuit, key (K) is closed at t = 0. Which of 44. An electromagnetic wave travels along X-axis. Which
the following quantities is not zero at time equal to of the following pairs of space and time varying field
time constant of circuit? generate the wave?
L E (1) Ex, By (2) Ey, Bx
(3) Ey, Bz (4) Ey, By
45. Displacement current can be expressed as
(symbols have their usual meanings)
R K
d E d E
(1) Current (1) 0 (2) 0
dt dt
(2) Induced e.m.f
(3) Power delivered d E 1 d E
(3) 0 0 (4) dt
(4) All of these dt 0 0

Space for Rough Work

5/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Consider the following statements about 49. Match the terms mentioned in column I with the
O terms in column II
Column I Column II
a. Hyperconjugation (i) Cyclohexane and
(i) The IUPAC nomenclature of the compound is 1-hexene
cyclohex-2, 5-dienone.
b. Isomers (ii) conjugation
(ii) The tautomer of it is phenol in acidic medium.
(iii) Degree of unsaturation in it is 4. c. Nucleophile (iii) Species that can
receive a pair of
(iv) Hybridisation of each carbon is sp2.
electrons
Choose the correct statement(s)
(1) Only (i) (2) (ii) & (iii) d. Electrophile (iv) Species that can
supply a pair of
(3) (i) & (iv) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
electrons
47. Consider the following
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(i) (ii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

50. Which of the following is correct representation for
Allene compound?
(iii) (iv)
H H H H
(1) C C C (2) C C C
The aromatic specie(s) is/are H H H H
(1) (i) only (2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (iii) & (iv) (4) (ii) & (iv) H H H H
(3) C C C (4) C C C
48. In which of the following, the elements of the ring do H H H H
not have the same hybridisation?
51. Total number of asymmetric centre in the following
compound will be
(1) (2)
N
Cl
H H3C
O
H3C

(3) (4) N (1) Three (2) Zero

N
H (3) Four (4) One
Space for Rough Work

6/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

52. The trichloromethyl group is meta directing when 56. Cis-but-2-ene on bromination in CCl4 gives which one
attached in benzene ring due to of the following as major product?

(1) Hyperconjugation (1) Meso form

(2) Reverse hyperconjugation (2) Racemic mixture

(3) d-form
(3) I-effect
(4) l-form
(4) +I-effect
Ozonolysis
53. In which of the following species resonance is 57. CH2 CCH3 (A) + HCHO
possible?
CH3 PCl5
aq. KOH
(1) CH3CHNH2 (C) (B)

(2) CH 2 The product (C) is

CHNH 3
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH (2) CH3CH2CHCl
(3) O O Cl

Cl
(4) CH 3CHBH 2
(3) CH3CCH3 (4) CH3 C CH3
54. Which of the following is incorrect statement? O Cl
(1) Antiaromatic compounds are unstable but
NOCl
resonance is present X
58. CH2 CHCH3
(2) ( ) 3 Cis more stable than (Ph)3C HOCl
Y
(3) If there is conjugation between triple bond and The major product X & Y are respectively
double bond then both -bonds of triple bond are
(1) CH 2CHCH 3 & CH 2CHCH 3
in conjugation with double bond
Cl NO OH Cl
(4) CH 2 CHCH2 is more stable than CH 3CH 2
(2) CH2CHCH3 & CH 2CHCH 3
55. The total number of structural isomers of C4H10O is NO Cl Cl OH
(1) 7 (3) CH 2CH 2CH 2 & CH2CH2CH2
(2) 8 NO Cl Cl OH
(3) 4 (4) CH3CH2CHCl & CH3CH2CHOH
(4) 6 NO Cl
Space for Rough Work

7/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)
62. The reagent which is most appropriate for the
O following conversion is/are
C Cl
H2C Na Na
anhydrous CaO/NaOH Br
59. + O (A) (B)
AlCl3
H2C (1) Alcoholic KOH
C
(2) Alcoholic KOH followed by 1-gram-equivalent
O NaNH2

The product B is (3) Aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2

(4) Excess NaNH2
O
63. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) (2)
(1) When huge amount of sewage is dumped into
a river, the BOD will increase
O (2) Excess nitrate in water causes blue baby
O
C syndrome
(3) (4) O (3) Clean water has maximum BOD value
C
(4) Methane, water vapour and CFCs are
O
greenhouse gases
60. Kjeldahls method is/are not applicable for the
estimation of nitrogen in H H H
Na
(1) (2) PhN NPh 64. 2CH3 C Cl dry ether
CH3CC CH3

N CH3 CH3 CH3

H The above reaction is known as
NO2 (1) Kolbes reaction (2) Wurtz reaction
(3) (4) All of these
(3) Frankland reaction (4) Friedel Craft reaction
61. Which of the following compound has maximum 65. Alkyl iodides can be best prepared by
melting point?
CCl4
(1) (1) RCH2COOAg I2


(2) (2) CH4 I2

acetone
(3) (3) RCH2Br NaI

RCH2I NaBr

(4) All have same melting point (4) All of these

Space for Rough Work

8/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

U.V. 70. The increasing order of hydrolysis of the following

66. C6H6 Cl2
light
Pr oduct
compound is
In the above reaction, product is
(1) C6H6Cl6 (2) C6H5Cl (i) Br (ii) Br
(3) C6H8Cl2 (4) CCl3CH3
67. Which of the following statement is/are correct? (iii) Br (iv) Br
(1) NBS is a specific reagent for allylic bromination
reaction (1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (2) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)
(2) Allylic bromination occurs through free radical (3) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) (4) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)
intermediates.
71. 0.40 g of an organic compound containing
(3) NBS is known as N-Bromo Succinimide
phosphorus gave 0.444 g of Mg2P2O7 by usual
(4) All of these analysis. Calculate the percentage of phosphorus in
68. Which of the following is the example of S N2 the organic compound
reaction?
(1) 15.5% (2) 38%
H
(1) CH3CH2OH CH2 CH2 + H2O (3) 62% (4) 31%

DMSO 72. Which one of the following statements regarding

(2) CH3CHCH3 + OH CH3CHCH3 + Br
photochemical smog is not correct?
Br OH
(1) Photochemical smog is an oxidising agent in
H character
N (2) It is also known as Los Angles smog
(3) CH3COH + SOCl2
(3) It contains smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide
D
H (4) It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate
ClCCH3 + SO2 + HCl 73. Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by
D (1) MIC (2) TEL
(4) Both (2) & (3) (3) DDT (4) BHC
69. Reaction of bromobenzene with sodamide in
74. Which of the following is/are correct for acid rain?
presence of liquid ammonia involves the formation of
which of the following? (1) Acid rain has pH less than 5.6
Br * NH2
(2) It threatens human and aquatic life and reduces
(1) (2) agricultural productivity
(3) Oxide of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon dissolve
in water and causes acid rain
(3) (4) All of these
* NH2 (4) All of these

Space for Rough Work

9/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)

Red hot 79. Which of the following compound has most acidic
(A) hydrogen?
'Fe' tube
75. CH CH 1
S8
8 (1)
(B)

The product (A) & (B) are respectively

(1) Aromatic and non-aromatic (2)
(2) Aromatic and antiaromatic
(3) Non aromatic and antiaromatic
(3)
(4) Aromatic and aromatic
76. The major product formed in the following reaction is
CF3CH CH2 + HCl ? (4)

(1) CF3CHCH3 , by Markownikoffs rule

Cl OH

H /
(2) CCl3CH CH 2 , by substitution reaction 80. (P)
(Major)
(3) CF2CHCH2 , by rearrangement reaction HO OH
F Cl
Which of the following statements is correct for the
(4) CF3CH2CH2Cl, by anti-Markownikoffs addition formation of above product?
77. The best and latest technique for purification and
separation of organic compound is (1) The reaction proceeds through formation of
carbocation
(1) Chromatography (2) Sublimation
(3) Crystallization (4) Steam distillation (2) The major product is benzene
78. The following reaction is an example of
(3) The major product is an aromatic compound
CH2 (4) All of these
Zn-dust
H2C CH2 (A)
81. Which of the following is correct about
Br Br
Dichlorocarbene?
Mg
dry ether
(1) It can be prepared by CHCl3 and alcoholic KOH
(1) Preparation of alkene only (2) It may be diamagnetic or paramagnetic
(2) Preparation of cycloalkane only
(3) It may be act as electrophile or nucleophile
(3) Preparation of both alkene and cycloalkane
(4) Preparation of both cycloalkene and cycloalkane (4) Both (1) & (2)

Space for Rough Work

10/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

CH3 F
O3/Zn
alc.KOH 85. C3H4 (A) + (B)
82. CH3CCH2CHCH3 Alkene H2O
(Major)
Mo2O3/O2
CH3 (C)
sp-hybridisation 543 K/100 atm
The major product of the reaction is of central atom

CH3 The product (A), (B) and (C) are respectively

(1) CH3CCH CHCH3
(1) CO2, HCHO and CH4
CH3
(2) CH3CHO, HCHO and C2H6
CH3 (3) CO2, CH3CHO and C2H6
(2) CH3CCH2CH CH2 (4) CO2, CH3COOH and C2H6
CH3
H OHb
CH3
86. Hd CCCOHa
(3) CH3C CCH2CH3
H Hc O
CH3
In this formula which of the hydrogen is the most
CH3
acidic?
(4) CH3CHCHCH CH2
(1) b
CH
(2) c
83. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(3) d
(1) Inductive effect is a temporary effect
(2) Electromeric effect is a permanent effect (4) a
(3) The density of alkanes is lower than water 87. Which of the following is a correct order of acidity?
(4) All of these
(1) CF3COOH < CCl3COOH < CH3COOH
84. Kolbes electrolytic method can be applied on
aqueous solution of (2) HCOOH > CCl3COOH > CF3COOH

(1) CH2COOK (2) CHCOOK (3) HCOOH > CH3COOH > CH3CHCOOH
CH 2COOK CHCOOK CH3
COOK
(4) HCOOH > COOH > CCl3COOH
(3) (4) All of these
COOK COOH

Space for Rough Work

11/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
88. The number of monochloro derivatives obtained with
Cl2/h from the following compounds are respectively
(I) (II) (III)
(1) 1, 3, 2
(2) 1, 2, 1
(3) 2, 3, 1
(4) 2, 3, 2
89. The chloro compound which is used as a fire
extinguisher is
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) At the end, a release factor binds to the stop
codon, terminating translation of bacteria and
releasing the complete polypeptide from the
80S ribosome.
(b) In tryptophan operon, structural gene codes for
five enzymes needed for the synthesis of an
amino acid
(c) Mutation in homeotic gene results in conversion
of one body part into another
(d) Auxotrophs grow on simple nutrient medium and
has the ability to synthesise all its cellular
components
(1) Three (2) One
(3) Four (4) Two
92. Select the mismatched pair:
(1) QB Bacteriophage DNA as genetic material
(2) DNase Inhibit transformation
(3) Ligases Joining of Okazaki fragments
(4) Hershey and Chase experiment Unequivocal
proof that DNA is genetic material
Space for Rough Work
12/22
Test - 6 (Code E)
(1) CCl4 (2) COCl2
(3) CH2Cl2 (4) CHCl3
90. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) A strong nucleophile in an aprotic solvent
increases the rate or favours SN2 reaction
(2) When an alkyl halide is heated with dry Ag2O,
it produces ether
(3) A weak nucleophile and a protic solvent
increases the rate or favours SN1 reaction
(4) Benzyl bromide on treatment with aq. KOH
followed by addition of AgNO3 gives white ppt.
93. The process which represents dominance of RNA
world is
(1) Transduction (2) Splicing
(3) Transcription (4) DNA replication
94. One codon codes for only one amino acid. This is
called (a) nature of genetic code. An exception
to the above feature of genetic code is (b) codon.
(1) (a)-Degeneracy, (b)-AUG
(2) (a)-Universal, (b)-UUU
(3) (a)-Ambiguous, (b)-CUC
(4) (a)-Unambiguous, (b)-GUG
95. DNA is preferred for storage of genetic information
because it
(1) Has 5-methyl uracil which confers it stability
(2) Is dependent on RNA for translation
(3) Can replicate
(4) Has a structural and catalytic role
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

96. The DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA 101. Translocation factor in bacteria during translation is
polymerase in eukaryotes is
(1) IF2
(1) Shine Dalgarno sequence
(2) eEF2
(2) Pribnow box
(3) EF Tu
(3) TATA box
(4) EF G
(4) Terminator sequence
102. Wobble hypothesis explains
97. RNA polymerase III can catalyse the synthesis of all,
except (1) Degeneracy of genetic code

(1) hnRNA (2) 5SrRNA (2) Transcription

(3) SnRNA (4) tRNA (3) Gene regulation in eukaryotes

98. The triplet nature of genetic code was suggested by (4) Reverse transcription

(1) Nirenberg and Matthaei 3

103. 5
(2) George Gamow
5 A
3
(3) Hargobind Khorana
3 B
(4) Watson and Crick
99. How many amino acids will be coded by the
5
sequence if the 14th base of given mRNA converts to
G? Choose the odd one w.r.t the above diagram.
5 AUG UUU CUC UAG CCG 3 (1) The diagram represents replicating fork
synthesising daughter DNA strands
(1) Three
(2) Five (2) A is the leading strand which is synthesised
continuously
(3) Four
(3) The parent DNA template with polarity 53 has
(4) Two discontinuous replication
100. Transcription and translation can be coupled in (4) B is synthesised in 3 5 direction
bacteria because
104. The length of double helical DNA is 1.7 metres. The
(1) Chain elongation is catalysed by core enzyme number of base pairs present in DNA is
(2) Transcription and translation occur in same
(1) 1.7 109 bp
compartment
(2) 3.4 109 bp
(3) There is clear cut division of labour due to
presence of three types of RNA polymerases (3) 4.6 106 bp
(4) mRNA requires processing to become active (4) 5 109 bp

Space for Rough Work

13/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)

105. Isotopes used for proving semiconservative replication 110. Match the columns
of DNA by Meselson and Stahl are
Column-I Column-II
(1) P32 and S35
a. Bioinformatics (i) DNA polymorphism
(2) C14 and O18
b. BAC (ii) Coding and non
(3) N14 and N15 coding DNA
(4) O18 and radioactive thymidine c. Satellite DNA (iii) Data storage, retrieval
106. Lac operon is induced by and analysis

(1) -galactosidase (2) Repressor protein d. Sequence Annotation (iv) Vectors of HGP

(3) Lactose (4) Constitutive gene (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
107. Read the following statements:
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(A) AUG has dual functions
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(B) Any reference while defining a transcription unit
is made with polarity of coding strand 111. Mark odd one w.r.t Chargaff rule
A+G
(1) Only (A) is incorrect (1) 1
T+C
(2) Only (B) is incorrect
(2) Sugar deoxyribose and phosphate residues
(3) Both the statements are correct occur in equal number
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (3) Purine guanine is equimolar with pyrimidine
108. In a transcription unit cytosine

(1) Promoter is located towards 3 end A+ T

(4) Base ratio is unity for all species
(downstream) of structural gene C+ G
(2) factor binds to terminator site 112. Consider the following statements:

(3) factor is required for chain termination and (a) DNA is a long polymer of ribonucleotides
release of RNA chain (b) Only one strand of DNA acts as a template for
the synthesis of a new strand of DNA during
(4) Structural sequences usually code for
replication
monocistronic RNA in bacteria
(c) tRNA is also called adaptor molecule
109. Select wrongly matched pair:
(d) DNA performs both autocatalytic and
(1) Tertiary structure of tRNA Inverted L shaped heterocatalytic functions.
(2) 23SrRNA Ribozyme in bacteria Which of the given statements are correct?
(3) Gene regulation in E.coli Splicing of hnRNA (1) (a), (c) & (d) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(4) UGA Opal (3) (a) & (b) (4) (c) & (d)

Space for Rough Work

14/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

113. Mark correct option (w.r.t. Reverse Central Dogma) 118. Biofortification includes improvement in all, except
(1) RSV (2) -phage (1) Micronutrient content
(3) 174 (4) TMV
(2) Protein content
114. Heterochromatin is said to be
(3) Oil content and quality
(1) Loosely packed DNA
(4) Vitamin content and quality
(2) Transcriptionally inactive DNA
(3) Light stained region 119. Select the mismatched pair:
(4) Transcriptionally active DNA (1) SCP Methylophilus
115. The protoplasts of two plants are brought in contact (2) Energy crop Maize
and made to fuse by means of
(3) Biodiesel Jatropha
(1) 2, 4D
(2) Sodium nitrate (4) Statins Streptococcus

(3) Polyethylene glycol 120. Eleven membered cyclic oligopeptide which acts as
(4) Both (2) & (3) immunosuppressive agent is produced by

116. Select incorrect statement (1) Fusarium monoliforme

(1) Crops varieties like Pusa Gaurav and Pusa (2) Trichoderma polysporum
A-4 bred by hybridisation and selection
(3) Penicillium
(2) Pusa Sadabahar is a disease resistant variety of
cow pea (4) Clostridium butylicum
(3) Conventional plant breeding techniques dates 121. Which varieties of wheat were brought to India from
back to 9,00011,000 years ago Mexico and modified by gamma radiation?
(4) Green revolution was dependent to a large extent
(1) Jaya and Ratna
on plant breeding techniques
117. Find the correct match w.r.t crop variety and their (2) Pusa Lerma and Sharbati Sonora
special trait (3) Lerma Rojo 64 and Sonara-64
Column-I Column-II
(4) Ganga and Ranjit
a. Pusa Swarnim (i) Resistant to fruit borer
122. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/
b. Pusa Sawani (ii) High protein content explant is called
c. Parbhani Kranti (iii) Resistance to yellow
(1) Regeneration
mosaic virus
d. Atlas-66 (iv) White rust resistant (2) Totipotency
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) Micropropagation
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) Hybridisation

Space for Rough Work

15/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
123. Select mismatched pair:
(1) Parbhani Kranti Variety of bhindi
(2) Kalyan Sona Wheat variety
(3) Triticale Polyploid breeding
(4) Pomato Sexual hybridisation
124. Resistance of wheat to stem saw fly is due to
(1) Solid stem (2) Hairy stem
(3) Smooth leaves (4) High aspartic acid
125. The root of plant breeding programme is
(1) Collection of germplasm
(2) Selection of superior recombinants
(3) Cross hybridisation
(4) Commercialisation of new cultivars
126. The microbe used in the preparation of butyric acid,
is
(1) Acetobacter aceti (2) Penicillium notatum
(3) Aspergillus niger (4) Clostridium butylicum
127. In plant breeding, superior recombinants are _____
for several generations till they reach a state of
homozygosity so that the characters will _____ in
the progeny.
(1) Self-pollinated, segregate
(2) Cross-pollinated, segregate
(3) Cross-pollinated, not segregate
(4) Self-pollinated, not segregate
128. Blood cholesterol lowering agent is obtained from
(1) Monascus purpureus
(2) Aspergillus flavus
(3) Candida lipolytica
(4) Trichoderma polysporum
Space for Rough Work
16/22
Test - 6 (Code E)
129. Secondary treatment of sewage
(1) Is physico-chemical process
(2) Involves formation of activated sludge
(3) Leads to the separation of primary sludge
(4) Involves process like sequential filtration and
sedimentation
130. Select the correctly matched pair:
(1) Cottage cheese Propionibacterium sharmanii
(2) HD1553 variety Sonalika
(3) Geotrichum candidum Commercial source of
protease
(4) Shakti and Protina Lysine rich rice varieties
131. The organic acid which is used as a source of
calcium for infants is
(1) Gluconic acid (2) Butyric acid
(3) Acetic acid (4) Fumaric acid
132. Biogas formation is
(1) Microbial process
(2) Involves obligate anaerobes in its ultimate step
(3) Three steped microbial process
(4) More than one option is correct
133. Trichoderma species are used
(1) To control several root borne pathogens
(2) To control prickly pear
(3) For control of aphids and stem borer
(4) For control of Klamath weed
134. Which of the following organisms can increase
nitrogen content of the soil?
(1) Rhizobium and Glomus
(2) Bacillus anthracis and Salmonella
(3) Frankia and Azotobacter
(4) Boletus and Glomus
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

135. The most important biofertiliser in rice fields is 139. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
natural killer cells?
(1) Aulosira
(1) NK cells lack antigen receptors unlike B cells
(2) Beijerinckia and T cells
(3) Azotobacter (2) NK cells are formed in bone marrow and mature
in thymus
(4) Rhizobium
(3) NK cells release chemicals called perforins
136. The infective stage for secondary host (female which cause cytolysis of microbe
Anopheles) in the life cycle of Plasmodium is
(4) NK cells release tumour necrosis factors which
(1) Sporozoite kills target cells
(2) Gametocytes 140. Opsonization is

(3) Trophozoite (1) Coating of bacteria by antibodies and further its

phagocytosis by macrophages
(4) Cryptozoite
(2) Representation of antigen by macrophage to T
137. Select the correct match w.r.t. disease, its helper cells
causative agent and mode of spread.
(3) Development of pores in microbe by complement
system proteins
Disease Causative agent Mode of spread
(1) Typhoid (4) Agglutination of bacteria & viruses by antibodies
Salmonella typhi Droplet infection
141. A thymectomized individual will
(2) Dengue Arbo virus Bite of female
Aedes (1) Strongly reject an allograft
(3) Rabies Rhino virus Bite of rabid dog (2) Show proper development/maturation of T cells
(4) Diphtheria Corynebacterium From soil (3) Show reduced ability to reject on allograft
diphtheriae
(4) Show reduced B cell maturation
138. Which of the following is not a phagocytic cellular
barrier? 142. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
MALT?
(a) Histiocytes (b) Kupffer cells
(1) It is the primary lymphoid organ
(c) Clasmatocytes (d) Mast cells
(2) It constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid tissue
(1) a & b in human body

(2) b & d (3) It is the site of proliferation and differentiation of

B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
(3) c & d
(4) It is located within the lining of digestive,
(4) d only respiratory and urinogenital tracts

Space for Rough Work

17/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)
143. Oral polio vaccine (OPV) was discovered by 147. Which of the following disease is correctly matched
(1) Edward Jenner with its symptoms/description?

(2) Louis Pasteur (1) Amoebiasis Abscesses in small

intestine; blood mixed,
(3) Jonas Salk
slimy motions
(4) Albert Bruce Sabin
(2) Leprosy Blood containing
144. Consider the following four statements and select sputum, bubo in groin
whether they are true (T) or false (F). and armpit
(A) The person suffering from SCID lacks both B-
(3) Pertussis Repeated bouts of
cells and T-cells
violent cough which
(B) Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease end in a whoop;
(C) Gamma globulins are synthesised in lymph vomiting
nodes
(4) Rabies Attack of paralysis
(D) Tetanus toxoid provides artificial passive begins with high fever,
immunity headache chilliness
A B C D and pain all over the
(1) T F F F body; inflammation of
nervous system
(2) F T T F
(3) T T T F 148. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. diseases and
diagnostic test.
(4) F F F T
(1) Hepatitis B Australian antigen
145. Anaphylactic shock is characterised by
(2) Dengue Tourniquet
(1) Marked dilation of all arteries and drastic fall in
(3) Diphtheria Mantoux test
blood pressure
(4) Leprosy Lepromin test
(2) Swollen, reddened running eyes and nose as a
result of allergy towards pollen 149. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
lifecycle of Plasmodium vivax?
(3) Use of adrenaline to neutralize histamine
produced, thereby, reducing lowering of BP (1) Infective stage for man Sporozoite in saliva of
Anopheles
(4) Reddening of skin followed by appearance of
(2) Onset of fever Liberation of
minute blisters as a result of allergic reaction
erythrocytic merozoites
towards particular fabric
from RBC
146. Which of the following immunoglobulins is found as
dimer and has a secretory J-chain? (3) Fertilisation Intestine of
Anopheles
(1) IgA (2) IgG
(4) Schizogony Stomach wall of
(3) IgM (4) IgE Anopheles
Space for Rough Work

18/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

150. Which of the following class of proteins is 156. Drosophila pseudoobscura and Drosophila persimilis
represented by antigen presenting cells to express represent
antigenic peptide to T helper cells?
(1) Paraspecies (2) Geographical isolation
(1) MHC I (2) HLA I
(3) Sibling species (4) Anagenesis
(3) MHC II (4) Both (1) & (2)
157. Which of the following is an example of artificial
151. The genes for MHC in humans is present on selection?
(1) Chromosome 3 (2) Chromosome 6 (1) Development of short legged ancon sheep
(3) Chromosome 10 (4) Chromosome 21 (2) Cactus ground finches and insectivorous tree
152. Secondary immune response differs from primary finches on Galapagos islands developed from
immune response in that it seed eating finch

(1) Is due to memory cells (3) Development of retractile claws in carnivorous

mammals
(2) Takes long time to establish
(4) Development of cabbage, cauliflower and broccoli
(3) Declines rapidly
158. Read the statement given below and find the
(4) Is feeble
incorrect statement
153. The light and heavy chains in an antibody molecule
(1) Life appeared 500 million years after the
are linked to each other mainly by
formation of earth i.e. almost four billion years
(1) Ionic bonds (2) Hydrogen bonds ago
(3) Disulphide bonds (4) Peptide bonds (2) Louis pasteur by careful experimentation
154. Which of the drugs are used for quick relief from demonstrated that life comes only from pre-
symptoms of allergy? existing life, by using pre-sterilized flasks and
killed yeast
(1) Anti histamine
(3) On the primeval earth, organic compounds got
(2) Adrenaline
degraded due to free oxygen
(3) Prednisolone
(4) Arrhenius suggested that primitive form of life
(4) More than one option is correct called panspermia consisted of spores or seeds
155. Stratum corneum prevents the entry of bacteria and which existed throughout universe and produced
viruses in human body. It is a part of non-specific different forms of life on this earth
innate immunity to which also belongs 159. The ratio of ammonia, methane and hydrogen gas in
(1) Tears and saliva the spark chamber of Millers experimental set-up
was
(2) Neutrophils and monocytes
(1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2 : 2
(3) Plasma cells and antibodies
(3) 2 : 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 3 : 4
(4) Mucous membrane

Space for Rough Work

19/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)

160. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. Lamarckism? 165. Find out the incorrect statement.
(1) Only those variations are passed on to the (1) In evolution of modern man there is parallel
offspring which affect germ cells evolution of human brain and language
(2) Appetency does not play any role in evolution (2) The fossil of Ramapithecus has been discovered
(3) A change in environment brings about changes in Ethiopia and Tanzania
in organism (3) The first human-like being the hominid was
(4) An organ can develop further or degenerate only Homo habilis with cranial capacity 650 800 cc
due to continuous variations (4) Homo erectus existed about 1.5 mya and
161. The book An Essay on Principles of Population probably ate meat
was written by 166. Which of the following took place 10,000 years ago?
(1) Sewall Wright
(1) Beginning of human settlement
(2) G L Stebbins
(2) Development of agriculture
(3) Alfred Wallace
(3) Use of fire for hunting, cooking and defense
(4) Thomas Robert Malthus
(4) More than one option is correct
162. Mule and Hinny are examples of
167. All of the following plants have been evolved from
(1) Hybrid inviability (2) Hybrid sterility psilophyton except
(3) Hybrid breakdown (4) Gametic isolation (1) Ferns (2) Conifers
163. Find out the incorrect match. (3) Bryophytes (4) Sphenopsids
(1) Directional selection Evolution of giraffe
168. Match the two columns
(2) Balancing selection Sickle cell anaemia
Column I Column II
(3) Sibling species Morphologically
dentical; but a. 500 mya (i) Evolution of jawless
reproductively isolated fishes

(4) Convergent evolution Darwins finches b. 350 mya (ii) Sea weeds and few
plants existed
164. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.
Neanderthal man? c. 320 mya (iii) Land reptiles went
(1) Neanderthal man lived near east and central back into water to
Africa between 1,00,000 40,000 years back evolve into fish-like
reptiles
(2) During ice age about 75,000 10,000 years ago
they gave rise to modern man d. 200 mya (iv) Invertebrates were
formed and active
(3) They had a cranial capacity of 1400 cc and used
hides to protect their body and buried their dead (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) They had orthognathous face (3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

Space for Rough Work

20/22
Test - 6 (Code E) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

169. The allelic frequency of recessive allele is 0.3. Find 173. How many of the following statements are wrong?
out the number of heterozygous individuals in a
(a) Electron spin resonance method is relatively
population of 200?
most accurate method for dating of fossils
(1) 42
(b) Basic unit of evolution is population
(2) 84
(c) New environment selects the pre adaptive
(3) 21 mutations that occurred earlier
(4) 18
(d) Genus Australopithecus evolved parallel to genus
170. Industrial melanism is one of the most striking homo and both have similar cranial capacity
example which demonstrates natural selection. After
(1) Three
industrial revolution the black coloured form of the
peppered moth increased as compared to dull grey (2) Four
or white moth. The black coloured form developed as
(3) One
a result of
(1) Dominant mutation (4) Two

(2) Recessive mutation 174. The first one toed horse was

(3) Deposition of smoke over white moth (1) Eohippus

(4) Genetic drift (2) Mesohippus
171. Which of the following factor does not affect Hardy (3) Merychippus
Weinberg equilibrium?
(4) Pliohippus
(1) Gene recombination
175. Dinosaurs and toothed birds became extinct in
(2) Random mating
(1) End of triassic period of mesozoic era
(3) Gene migration
(2) Beginning of jurassic period of mesozoic era
(4) Natural selection
(3) Beginning of cretaceous period of mesozoic era
172. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
theory and its proposer/supporter? (4) End of permian period of palaeozoic era
(1) Theory of continuity of A Weismann 176. All of the following are examples of atavism in
Germplasm humans except
(2) Artificial Selection Charles Darwin (1) Tail in new born human baby
Theory
(2) Greatly developed canine teeth
(3) Germ theory of Edward Jenner
disease and immunology (3) Nipples in male
(4) Mutation Theory Hugo de Vries (4) Exceptionally long dense hair

Space for Rough Work

21/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E)

177. Sting of honey bee and scorpion exemplify 179. Ronald Ross is associated with discovery of

(1) Homologous organ (1) Gametocytes of Plasmodium in RBC of man

(2) Causative agent of tuberculosis
(2) Analogous organ
(3) Causative agent of cholera
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Oocyst of Plasmodium in stomach wall of female
(4) Vestigeal organ Anopheles

178. Oparins coacervates fail to fulfill the requirement as
a candidate of probable precursors of life because
(1) They do not exhibit simple form of metabolism
(2) They do not have lipid outer membrane
(3) They cannot reproduce
(4) Both (2) & (3)
 
180. Complete the following statement.
Widal test in ___A___ of man suggest the infection
of ____B____.
(1) A-Sputum, B-Rhino virus
(2) A-Blood, B-Salmonella typhi
(3) A-Faeces, B-Entamoeba histolytica
(4) A-Faeces, B-Mycobacterium tuberculosis


Space for Rough Work

22/22
Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

TEST - 6 (Code-E)
Test Date : 28-02-2016 ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (1) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (1)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146 (1)
3. (2) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (4) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (4) 148. (3)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (4) 42. (4) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (3)
7. (2) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (3) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (3) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (1) 85. (1) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (1) 124. (1) 160. (3)
17. (1) 53. (3) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (2) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (1) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (2) 165. (2)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (1) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (1) 171. (2)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (2) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (1) 102. (1) 138. (4) 174. (4)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (4) 140. (1) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (2)
34. (4) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)

1/8
 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 18. Answer (2)
19. Answer (4)
0 i
B0 [sin 53 sin37] 20. Answer (4)
4 r
21. Answer (1)
2. Answer (4)
22. Answer (2)
0 I2 0 I1
23. Answer (1)
2 x 2 ( a x )
24. Answer (3)
I2 a i = i0[1 et/]
x
I 1 I2 L
R
3. Answer (2)
25. Answer (1)
4. Answer (3)
26. Answer (2)
5. Answer (3)
0 i
I 2 IC2 IL2 B and
2R
6. Answer (4) n.2R = L
n=2
M B
27. Answer (3)
7. Answer (2)
0 i
8. Answer (3) B [sin + sin]
4 R
M = il 2, M = ir2, 2r = 4l 4
sin and sin = 1
9. Answer (3) 5
10. Answer (2) 28. Answer (1)
11. Answer (2) 29. Answer (3)
12. Answer (1) Si
SV Si RSV 1.5 rad A 1
R
tan
tan 30. Answer (2)
cos
= BA cosand
apparent angle of dip

true dip eind .
t
13. Answer (4)
31. Answer (2)
14. Answer (2)
Steady current is at t = and inductor offers zero
15. Answer (3) resistance.

0 i 32. Answer (4)

B [sin + sin]
4 r N1 1
M
16. Answer (2) i2
33. Answer (1)

Fm q[V B ] 34. Answer (4)
17. Answer (1) q = q0 cos(t) and i = i0 sin(t).

2/8
Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
35. Answer (1) 40. Answer (1)
36. Answer (3) 41. Answer (4)
2
I 42. Answer (4)
Ieffective I12 2

2
43. Answer (2)
37. Answer (1)
38. Answer (3) 44. Answer (3)
39. Answer (4) 45. Answer (1)

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (4) 52. Answer (2)

O OH OH Cl Cl

Cl C Cl Cl C Cl

(Phenol)
H H
47. Answer (1)

H Cl Cl
Cl C Cl Cl C Cl

H
6 -electron 10 -electron 4 -electron
(Aromatic) Non-planar (Antiaromatic)
(Non-aromatic)
i.e. CCl 3 group acts as meta-directing due to
reverse hyperconjugation
53. Answer (3)
(tub-shape) 54. Answer (3)
Non-planar
Non-aromatic 55. Answer (1)
(8 -electron)
Alcohol Ether
48. Answer (4)
a. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (i) CH3OCH2CH2CH3
sp2
Weak overlapping b. CH3CHCH2OH (ii) CH3OCHCH3

sp2 CH3 CH3

c. CH 3CHCH 2CH 3 (iii) CH3CH2OCH2CH3

N N OH
sp2
H H CH3
49. Answer (1) d. CH3COH
50. Answer (1) CH3
51. Answer (4)
56. Answer (2)

* Cis-but-2-ene on bromination in CCl4 gives racemic

, Number of chiral carbon = 1 mixture of product but trans-but-2-ene gives meso
form of product.

3/8
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

57. Answer (3) 66. Answer (1)

O3/Zn
CH2 CCH3 CH3CCH3 + HCHO C6H6 3Cl2
U.V.
C6H6 Cl6
H2O Light
Benzene BHC
CH3 O
PCl5 67. Answer (4)
OH Cl O
aq. KOH NBS
CH3 C CH3 CH3C CH3 CH2 CHCH3 CH2 CHCH2Br + NH
H2O
Cl O
OH (Allylic bromination reaction) Succinimide

68. Answer (4)

CH3CCH3 69. Answer (4)
H2O
O 70. Answer (2)
58. Answer (2)
59. Answer (3) > > >

O O 71. Answer (4)

C C
CH2 AlCl3 62
+ O anhy.
CH2 Percentage of P =
CH2 222
C CH2
OHC NaOH
O Mass of Mg2P2O7 formed
100
O Mass of the organic compound
(A)
O
O 62 0.444
C = 100
Sodalime 222 0.40
or NaOH/CaO
CH2
= 31%
Na2CO3 CH2
NaOC 72. Answer (3)
O Photochemical smog contains O3, PAN & NOx.
60. Answer (4) 73. Answer (1)
61. Answer (2) MIC : Methyl isocyanate
Order of melting point 74. Answer (4)
75. Answer (4)
> >
Red hot
62. Answer (4) 3 CH CH Fe tube
1 (Benzene)
2g.eq. CH 2g.eq. S8 Aromatic
Cl HC NaC CNa 8
Br NaNH2 NaNH2
Heterocyclic
63. Answer (3) aromatic
Clean water has minimum BOD value. S (Thiophene)

64. Answer (2) 76. Answer (4)

65. Answer (3)

CF3CH CH2 + H CF3CHCH3
CH4 I2  CH3I HI , (Less-stable)

CCl4 CF3CH2CH2
RCH2COOAg + I2 RCH2COOR + AgI +CO2 (More stable)

4/8
Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
77. Answer (1) 83. Answer (3)
78. Answer (2) Inductive effect is a permanent effect but electromeric
effect is a temporary effect.
CH2
CH2 CH2 Zn-dust 84. Answer (4)
+ ZnBr2
Br Br
Kolbe's
CH2COOK electrolysis CH2
+ 2CO2 + KOH + H2
CH2COOK CH2
CH2 CH2
Mg CH2 CH2
MgBr2 CH2 CH2 Kolbe's
dry ether
MgBr Br CHCOOK electrolysis CH
Cyclopropane
+ CO2 + KOH + H2
CHCOOK CH
79. Answer (3)
H COOK Kolbe's
electrolysis
+ CO2 + KOH + H2
H
COOK
4 -electron
(Antiaromatic) 85. Answer (1)

H O3/Zn
CH2 C CH2 H2O
O C O + HCHO
6 -electron (C3H4) (B)
(Aromatic)

80. Answer (4) sp-hybrid

(A)
81. Answer (4) Mo2O3/O2
CH4
Cl 543 K / 100 atm
CHCl3 + KOH C + KCl + H2O (C)
Cl
(Dichlorocarbene)
86. Answer (4)
82. Answer (2)
87. Answer (3)
E1CB Mechanism :
+I-effect decreases the acidic strength of carboxylic
CH3 acid and I-effect increases the acidic strength of
CH3 C CH2CHCH2 carboxylic acid.
H2O
CH3 F H 88. Answer (1)

OH
Cl
Cl
CH3 Cl
Cl
, , ,
CH3 C CH2CHCH2
CH3 F

F Cl

CH3 ,
Cl
CH3 C CH2CH CH2
CH3 89. Answer (1)
(Major) 90. Answer (4)

5/8
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (2) 110. Answer (2)
(a) Bacteria - 70S ribosome 111. Answer (4)
(b) Three enzymes A+T
is constant for a species e.g., 0.93 for E. coli
(d) Prototroph G+ C
92. Answer (1) 112. Answer (4)
QB-BacteriophageRNA as the genetic material. Both strands of DNA act as template for synthesis
93. Answer (2) of daughter DNA.
SnRNA in splicing. 113. Answer (1)
94. Answer (4) Reverse transcription
95. Answer (1) 114. Answer (2)
5-Methyl uracil is thymine which provides extra Euchromatin is loosely packed DNA.
stability.
115. Answer (4)
96. Answer (3)
116. Answer (2)
Pribnow box is promoter site in prokaryotes.
Chilli
97. Answer (1)
117. Answer (3)
hnRNA synthesis is catalysed by RNA pol II.
118. Answer (4)
98. Answer (2)
George Gammow, the physicist. Vitamin content

99. Answer (1) 119. Answer (4)

UAG is a stop codon. Statins Monascus
100. Answer (2) 120. Answer (2)
101. Answer (4) Trichoderma polysporum
Translocase 121. Answer (3)
102. Answer (1) 122. Answer (2)
103. Answer (4) 123. Answer (4)
104. Answer (4) Somatic hybridisation.
Distance between two bp is 0.34 nm = 0.34 109 m 124. Answer (1)
Length of DNA = 1.7 m or 1.7 109 nm 125. Answer (1)
Number of base pairs = 1.7 109 nm 0.34 nm
126. Answer (4)
= 5 109 bp
127. Answer (4)
105. Answer (3)
128. Answer (1)
N14 and N15
129. Answer (2)
106. Answer (3)
130. Answer (2)
Lactose / Allolactose.
Cottage cheese Streptococcus lactis and
107. Answer (3)
Lactobacillus
108. Answer (3)
Geotrichum Lipase
Rho factor is required for chain termination in
transcription. Shakti and Protina Maize

109. Answer (3) 131. Answer (1)

Splicing of hnRNA in eukaryotes Butyric acid

6/8
Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
132. Answer (4) 152. Answer (1)
Methanogenesis as last step Secondary immune response is due to subsequent
133. Answer (1) encounter of the body with antigen. It is heightened,
lasts much longer and is a rapid response.
134. Answer (3)
153. Answer (3)
Nitrogen fixing bacteria
154. Answer (4)
135. Answer (1)
Histamine hastens allergy response
Cyanobacteria
155. Answer (4)
136. Answer (2)
Skin and mucous membrane are a part of anatomic
Gametocytes are formed in RBC of human. barriers.
137. Answer (2) 156. Answer (3)
Typhoid is spread through contaminated food and Sibling species are almost identical morphologically
water. Rabies is caused by Rhabdo virus. Diphtheria but are distinct from each other due to absence of
spreads through respiratory discharge. interbreeding.
138. Answer (4)
157. Answer (4)
Mast cells are not phagocytic. Kupffer cells are
158. Answer (3)
phagocytic cells of liver. Histiocytes/clasmatocytes
are macrophages. Free or molecular oxygen was absent on primeval
earth.
139. Answer (2)
159. Answer (2)
NK cells do not mature in thymus.
160. Answer (3)
140. Answer (1)
141. Answer (3) 161. Answer (4)

142. Answer (1) 162. Answer (2)

MALT (Mucosal associated lymphoid tissues) is Mule and hinny are sterile.
secondary or peripheral lymphoid organ. 163. Answer (4)
143. Answer (4) Darwins finches is an example of adaptive radiation.
Fact 164. Answer (3)
144. Answer (3) Neanderthal man lived near east and central Asia.
Tetanus toxoid provides artificial active immunity. They had prognathous face.
145. Answer (1) 165. Answer (2)
146 Answer (1) 166. Answer (4)
IgA is secretory antibody. 167. Answer (3)
147. Answer (3) Bryophytes have been evolved from chlorophyte
ancestors.
148. Answer (3)
168. Answer (2)
Diphtheria Schick test
149. Answer (4) 169. Answer (2)

Schizogony takes place in liver cells and RBC of q = 0.3

man. p = 1 0.3 = 0.7
150. Answer (3) 2pq = 2(0.3)(0.7) = 0.42
151. Answer (2) Number of heterozygous individuals = 0.42 200
Fact = 84

7/8
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 6 (Code E) (Answers & Hints)

170. Answer (1) complete finger and one complete toe respectively
171. Answer (2) and two splints hidden beneath skin.

Non-random mating affects HWE. 175. Answer (3)

172. Answer (3) Dinosaurs became dominant in Jurassic period of

mesozoic era.
Germ theory of disease and lmmunology was given
by Louis Pasteur. 176. Answer (3)

173. Answer (3) Nipples in male is an example of vestigeal organ.

Australopithecus give rise to homo habilis and also 177. Answer (2)
increase in cranial capacity. 178. Answer (4)
174. Answer (4) 179. Answer (4)
In Pliohippus, each fore limb and hind limb had one 180. Answer (2)

  

8/8