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PART I

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the
answers, the word that is closest in meaning:

(1) CHASTE

(A) loyal (B)timid (C)curt (D)pure (E)outspoken

(2) CHIDE

(A) unite (B)fear (C)record (D)skid (E)scold

(3) CHIMERICAL

(A) developing (B)brief (C)distant (D)economical (E)fantastic

(4) CHOLERIC

(A) musical (B)episodic (C)hotheaded (D)global (E)seasonal

(5) CHURLISH

(A) marine (B) economical (C)impolite (D)compact (E)young

(6) CILIATED

(A) foolish (B)swift (C)early (D)constructed (E)hairy

(7) CIRCUITIOUS

(A) indirect (B)complete (C)obvious (D)aware (E)tortured

(8) CITE

(A) galvanize (B)visualize (C)locate (D)quote (E)signal

(9) CLANDESTINE

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(A) abortive (B)secret (C)tangible (D)doomed (E)approved

(10) CLAUSTROPHOBIA

(A) lack of confidence (B)fear of spiders (C)love of books (D)fear of


grammar (E)fear of closed places
For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the
answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:

(11) LOUTISH

(A) boisterous (B)provocative (C)calamitous (D)sophisticated


(E)insightful

(12) ENIGMATIC

(A) talkative (B)oppressed (C)easily understood (D) easily


avoided(E)very common

(13) RECALCITRANT

(A) polished (B)feckless (C)yielding (D)somber (E)miserly

(14) MITIGATE

(A) intensify (B)defend (C)mire (D)frequent (E)coax

(15) TREPIDATION

(A) contempt (B)restlessness (C)rancor (D)vigilance (E)courage

(16) PRECIPITOUS

(A) well-planned (B)gargantuan (C)prolific (D)credence (E)inception

(17) PROCLIVITY

(A) prodigality (B)avoidance (C)credence (D) calumny (E)inception

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(18) TENOUS

(A) unseemly (B)inherited (C)substantial (D)forlorn (E)awkward

(19) SALIENT

(A) concealed (B)inclined (C) stagnant (D) blameworthy (E)omnipotent

(20) ENERVATE

(A) invigorate (B)contemplate (C)necessitate (D)evaluate (E)elucidate

Read the following text. The passage contains some blank spaces.
Choose the sentence from the list A – I, that best fits in each of the blank
spaces. The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers.

The emancipation of women, “James Joyce told one of his friends, “ has
caused the greatest revolution in our time in the most important relationship
there is - that between men and women. “ Other modernists agreed: Virginia
Wolf claming that in about 1910” human character changed”, and
illustrating ___D_____. “ Read the Agamemnon,” and see whether your
sympathies are not almost entirely with Clytemnestra. “D. H. Lawrence
Cosote, “Perhaps the deepest fight for 2000 years and more, __A_____

But if modernist writers considered women’s revolt _H_____, only


recently – in perhaps the past 15 years has literacy criticism begun to
catch up with it. Not that the images of __B_____ have gone un-
remarked from it. But what we are able to __F____ and now that women-
enough to make a difference- ______E_________, the landscapes of
literacy history and the features of individual books have begun to
change options for answers.

A. has been the fight for women’s independence


B. sexual antagonism that about in modern literature
C. noting instances of hostility between man and women
D. the new balance between the sexes.
E. are reforming canons and interpreting literature

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F. see in literacy works depends on the perspectives we bring to them
G. modernist writers and search for equality
H. against man’s domination one of their “greatest” and “deepest”
themes
I. the interest in feminist issues is not now.

Whether as result of some mysterious tendency in the national psyche


or as a spontaneous reaction to their turbulent historical experience after the
breakup of the Mycenaean world, the Greeks felt that to live with changing,
undefined, unmeasured, seemingly random impressions - to live, in short,
with what was expressed by the Greek word chaos-was to live in a state of
constant anxiety.

In the apparent mutability of the physical world and of the human


condition was a source of pain and bewilderment to the Greeks, the
discovery of permanent pattern or an unchanging sub stream by which
apparently chaotic experience could be measures and explained was a source
of satisfaction, even joy, which had something of a religious nature. For the
recognition of order and measure in phenomena did more than simply satisfy
their intellectual curiosity or gratify a desire for tidiness; it also served as the
basic of a spiritual ideal. “Measure and commensurability are everywhere
identified with beauty and excellence.” Was Plato’s way of putting it in
dialogue in which measure is identified as a primary characteristic of the
ultimate good. Rational definability and spirituality were never mutually
exclusive categories in Greek thought. If the quest for order and clarity was
in essence the search for a kind of spiritual ideal, it was not an ideal to be
perceived in rapturous emotional mysticism but rather one to be arrived at
by patient analysis.

We see this process at work especially in Greek philosophy, which in


various ways was aimed at alleviating the anxiety that is inherent in the
more spontaneous expression of lyric poetry. The Milesian philosophers of
the sixth century were interested above all in discovering a primary
substance from which all other phenomena could be explained. Neat, clear,
and sublimely undisturbed by the social world of humanity, which took
shape and dissolved within the natural order of things, it was an austere
ideal, an astringent antidote to the apparent senselessness of life. The
persons who contemplated it deeply could feel a part of a great system that

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was impersonal but predictable, and, like Lucretius, who revived the
Milesian attitude in a later age, he or she could derive a peculiar peace from
it. As time passed and Greek philosophy developed, the urge to find order in
experience was shifted from physics to the realm of mathematical
abstraction by the Pythagoreans, and to the world of human behavior by
various thinkers of the later fifth century; and, finally, Plato and Aristotle
attempted to weave all these foci of interest into comprehensive pictures of
the relationship between human life and the world, as a whole. But in all
these epochs the basic quest- the search for a “kosmos”-remained the same.

(27) The author’s primary purpose is to

A. evaluate conflicting viewpoints


B. challenge an accepted opinion
C. question philosophical principles
D. enumerate historical facts
E. describe a cultural phenomenon

(28) The author indicates that the discovery of “ an unchanging


substratum” served primarily to

A. alter the Greeks perception of the mutability of existence


B. help eradicate severe social problems
C. alleviate painful memories of national suffering
D. calm a restless intellectual curiosity
E. foster a more mystical understanding of the physical world

(29) It can be inferred from the passage that rational thought and spiritual
ideals were categories of experience that were

A. unimportant and unfamiliar to most ordinary Greeks


B. advocated by the Milesians and rejected by the Pythagoreans
C. neglected by most philosophers before Plato and Aristotle
D. seen by the Greeks as essentially compatible
E. embraced mainly Greek poets

(30) All of the following can be inferred about the Greeks’ anxiety over
the possibility of “ chaos” EXCEPT that it

A. has source sin their national consciousness

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B. was reflected in specific aspects of their religion
C. was related to their sense of change in the physical world
D. led to striving for order in their philosophy
E. was expressed in their lyric poetry

(31) The author implies that the Milesian philosophers of the sixth century
sought relief from worldly anxiety by

A. focusing narrowly on inherently human questions


B. establishing sharp distinctions between spiritual and rational
understanding
C. focusing primarily on an impersonal natural order
D. attempting to integrate rational and mystical worldviews
E. withdrawing from the physical world into the realm of
mathematical abstraction.

(32) Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage
(“For ----- Thought”)?

A. The author summarizes two view points, cites historical evidence, and
then
declines to support either of the viewpoints
B. The author makes an observation, admits to evidence that weakens the
view points and then revises his observation
C. The author specifies two distinct arguments, examines both in details,
then advances a third argument that reconciles the other two
D. The author clarifies a previous statement, offers an example, and then
draws a further conclusions based on these ideas.
E. The author states a thesis, mentions an opposed thesis, and cites
evidence supporting it, and then restates his original thesis.

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PART II

Q1. Fill in the missing number in the sequence


9 10 11 13 15 ?? 21 28

(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 19 (d) 20 (e) 17

Q2. In the following series, how many Vs are there such that each V is
followed by an Y next to it if the Y is not followed by a U next to it.

V Y V U Q M V Y U M Y V Y Y V Q
M V V

Y Q V Y U Y V A M Y V Y M

(a)2 (b)3 (c)5 (d)4 (e) 6

Q3. If CSFBUI is coded as BREATH how will DPWFS be coded?


(a) COVER (b)TRIAL (c) SHEET (d)MIND (e)CIGAR

Q4. Suppose the first and second letters in the word


SIMULTANEOUSLY were interchanged, also the third and fourth
letters, the fifth and sixth etc. Print the letter that would then be the
twelfth letter counting from the right.
(a) L (b) I (c) M (d) O (e)
U

Q5. In which number system would 1234 represent the decimal number
310?
(a) Base - 7 (b) Base - 8 (c) Base - 6 (d) Base - 5 (e) Base – 9

Q6. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 7-bit word
computer?
(a) 133 (b) 119 (c) 121 (d) 127 (e)
139

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Q7. If n = 15 x 28 x 26, which of the following is NOT an integer?

a. n / 76 b. n / 42 c. n / 35
d. n / 60 e. n / 78

Q8. Which of the following is a power of 2?

a. 4148 b. 4196 c. 4198


d. 4096 e. 4248

Pick the odd one out

Q9. (a) ORACLE (b) ARP (c) INGRESS


(d) DB2 (e) SYBASE

Q10. (a) JAVA (b) LISP (c) EIFFEL


(d) SMALLTALK (e) C++

Q11. The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle.


Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?
(a) (90º,31º,69º) (b) (60º,90º,30º)(c) (74º,66º,40º)
(d) (70º,60º,50º)(e) (80º,60º,40º)

Q12. The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options


represents the number of edges ,the number of vertices and the
number of faces respectively. Find out which of these represents a
solid planar cube?
(a) (8,12,6) (b) (8,6,12) (c) (12,8,6) (d) (6,6,6) (e) (8,6,8)

Q13. Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?


(a) 4, -4, 4, -4, 4, -4 (b) 4, 0, -4, 4, 0, -4 (c) 4, 4, 4, 0, 4, 4
(d) 4, 4, 4, 4, 4, 4 (e) -4, -4, -4, -4, -4, -4

The three circles below represent the number of people speaking


Japanese, Chinese and French. Answer the next three questions based
on the diagram

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14
45 49
Japanese Chinese
12
16 13

51
French

Q14. How many more (or less) people speak Chinese than people who
speak Japanese?
(a)2 (b)3 (c)1 (d)4 (e)6

Q15. What percentage of people speaking French can also speak Japanese
but not Chinese?
(a) 12.5 (b) 13.9 (c) 17.4 (d) 16.8 (e) 12

Q16. What percentage of total people can speak all three languages?
(a)5 (b)4 (c)6 (d)7 (e)8

The figure on the left represents number of members in a Club and the
figure on the right depicts profession wise distribution for 1998

140

120 Executives
12%
100
Others
Members (in "00s)
80 8%
Businessmen
60
55%
40 Doctors
25%
20
0
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1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Q17. Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in
members?
(a) 1996 (b) 2004 (c) 1998 (d) 1995 (e) 1992

Q18. What are the average members for 1995-1999?


(a) 8400 (b) 8800 (c) 8900 (d) 7800 (e) 6600

Q19. If 10% of members in 1998 left the Club, how many fresh members
were made in 1999?
(a)4900 (b) 5100 (c) 4600 (d) 4400 (e) 3400

Q20. A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as:

(Momentum X Velocity) / (Acceleration X Distance)

In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?


(a)Time (b) Power (c) Velocity (d) Distance (e) Mass

Q21. A can do a piece of work in 20 days and B can do it in 12 days. B


worked at it for 9 days. In how many days A alone can finish the
remaining work?
(a)6 (b)5 (c)8 (d)12 (e)9

Q22. Which of these matrices is singular

21 15 -1 7 3 2 0
3
A= B= C= D=
7 5 0 6 5 9 3
0

(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D (e) None

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Q23. Match the following relationships:

(i) Male – Boy (1) Not a type of


(ii) Basmati – Wheat (2) Part of
(iii) Snake – Reptile (3) A type of
(iv) Roof – Building (4) Superset of
(a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2 (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2 (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3
(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4 (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

Q24. If % stands for reciprocal and # stands for doubling what is the value
of
% # % (5) + # % # (2)?
(a)2 (b)4 (c) 3 (d)5 (e)6

Q25. A sequence is defined recursively as


g(0) = 1; g(1) = -1
g(n) = g(n-1) + g(n-2)
What will be the value of g(6)?
(a)-2 (b)2 (c)-3 (d)4 (e)6

Q26. What curve best suits the following data:

X Y
0.99 0.00001
10.04 1.02
99.98 1.997
1000 3.0
9990 4.004

(a) y = logn x (b) y = log10 x (c) y = ex (d) y = -log10 x (e) y =


- ex

Q27. A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly row-wise in a


computer's memory. Each element requires 2 bytes for storage of the
value. If the first byte address of X(1,1) is 1258, what would be the
last byte address of X(5, 8)?
(a)1325 (b) 1455 (c)1345 (d) 1457 (e) 1453

Q28. Of the four vectors A,B,C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal
set

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A = 3i+5j, B = i+j , C = 5i-3j, D = -7i+j
(a)AC(b)AD (c)BC (d)BD(e)AB

Q29. Evaluate the expression

M(737,9) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where


M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and
T stands for Truncation Operation
(a)24 (b)14 (c) 12 (d)18 (e)8

Q30. Three independent mechanisms A,B and C have been incorporated for
power saving in a plant producing respectively 30%, 20% and 25%
efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net
power efficiency achieved?
(a) 58% (b)64% (c) 46% (d) 44% (e) 56%

Q31. The scores in class exams and final exam of 2 students are given as
below:

Class exam Final exam


3 1.4
3.5 1.65
Find the Class exam score of a student who has scored zero in the
Final exam.
Y
(a)0.3 (b)0.1 (c)0.2 (d)-0.2 (e)0.5

Q32. What equation best describes the7curve shown below:


6
5
4
3
2
1
X
0 2
-2

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(a)y = tan x (b) y = ex (c)y + x = 0 (d) y = Cos x (e) y + 3 = x

Q33. The temperature at Kochi is given by the function: -t2/6+4t+12 where t


is the elapsed time since midnight. What is the percentage rise (or fall)
in temperature between 3.00 PM and 6.00 PM?
(a)22.5% (b) 33.3% (c) 36% (d) 32% (e) 28%

Q34. An aircraft takes off from A (72o N Lat, 45o E Long) at 2.00 AM local
time to B (32o N Lat, 45o W Long). If the flying time is 9 hours what
is the local time of landing at B?
(a)5.40 AM (b) 4.00 AM (c) 5.00 AM (d) 7.00AM (e) 8.00AM

Q35. Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:

A 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1
B 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
C 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
A ∩ (B −
C)

Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and


write the decimal value.
(a)4 (b)5 (c)6 (d)2 (e)3

Q36. A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size
of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of
0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender
to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the
bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in

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100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a
formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully
complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.
(a) 10.11 N (b) 10.011 N(c) 11.01 N (d)11.011 N (e)10.101 N

Q37. The electricity used in a device is given by the function P(N) = 4000
√N, where N is the time for which device is used. Find the percentage
change in electricity usage if the time used by the device is increased
by 1%.
(a) 0.75% (b) 0.25% (c) 1% (d) 0.5% (e) 2%

Q38. A power cable is to be run from a power plant on the bank of a river 900
meters wide to a factory that is located 3000 meters downstream on the
opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter
and that of laying overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point
downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.
(a) 450 (b) 3900 (c) 2800 (d) 2100 (e) 1800

END OF PART II

PART III

Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage

(1) Joe, Larry, Ned, Mary, Paul, Willy, Crystal, Albert, Bob, Frank, Ellen, and
Rick all live in the same 6-floor building. There are 2 apartments per floor. No
more than 2 persons live in any apartment.
Some apartments may be empty.

Larry and his roommate live 2 floors above Albert and his room mate Crystal.
Joe lives alone, 3 floors below Willy and 2 floors below Ellen.
Mary lives one floor below Albert and Crystal

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Ned lives three floors above the floor on which Bob and Frank have single
apartments
Rick and Paul live in single apartments, 2 floors below Mary

1. Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going
from the bottom floor to the top?

A. Rick, Bob, Mary, Albert, Larry, Ned


B. Rick, Frank, Ned, Ellen, Larry, Crystal
C. Paul, Bob, Joe, Crystal, Ned, Larry
D. Larry, Ellen, Albert, Mary, Frank, Rick
E. Larry, Joe, Mary, Albert, Bob, Rick

2. Which of the following pairs must live on the same floor?

I. Ned, Ellen
II. Joe, Mary
III. Albert, Larry

A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

3. Rick lives on the

A. First floor below Bob and Frank


B. Second floor, below Joe or Albert and Crystal
C. Third floor, above Mary and Ellen
D. Fourth floor, opposite Albert and Crystal
E. Sixth floor, opposite, Larry and his roommate.

4. Joe arranges to move into an apartment two floors down, whose occupant
moves into an apartment one floor up. The occupant of this apartment moves
into one 3 floors up, whose occupant takes Joe’s old apartment. The new
occupant of Joe’s old apartment is:

A. Bob or Frank
B. Ned or Ellen

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C. Mary
A. Rick
D. Paul

(2) Eight varsity baseball players (G,H, J, K, L, M, N, O) are to be honored at


a special ceremony. Three of these players (H, M and O ) are also varsity
football players.

Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the varsity team.
In arranging the seats it was decided that no athlete in 2 sports should be
seated next to another 2 sport athlete.

1. Which of the following combinations is possible in order to have the


arrangement of seat assignments as planned?

A. HGKJ
2. HKJL
C. JKMN
D. JLHK
E. LKNJ

2. Which of the following cannot sit next to M?

A. G
B. J
C. G and J
D. K
E. L

3. Before all the athletes are seated, there are two vacant either side of N.
Which two athletes may occupy these seats?

A. G and K
B. G and L
C. J and H
D. L and O
E. M and J

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4. To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit between:

A. G and H
B. J and M
C. L and N
D. J and N
E. J and L

(3). To obtain a visa for the Republic of Nimrod, an applicant must appear in
person at the Nimrodian Consulate and show a U.S. birth certificate or
naturalization papers, a certificate of vaccination for swamp fever and a
notarized bank statement showing a balance in excess of $ 1,000. Bank
statements are available during normal business hours (Monday through
Friday, 9am to 3 p.m. at most banks, which also have a notary on staff).

Vaccinations are routinely performed at Alabaster Hospital, adjacent to the


Nimrodian Consulate, on Wednesday s form noon to 5 p.m. They are
performed at Beryl clinic, an hour’s travel away from the consulate, on
Mondays and Thursdays from 9 am to noon and on Fridays form 4 to 5 p.m.
Copies of U.S. birth certificates are issued on Mondays and Thursdays form 9
to 5 and copies of naturalization papers are issued on Tuesdays and Fridays
form 9n to 5. The Nimrodian Consulate is open on Mondays, Wednesdays and
Fridays and from noon to 4 p.m.

1. Which of the following can complete the entire application procedure in


the shortest time?

A. A native born U.S. citizen starting Monday


B. A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Tuesday morning
C. A native born U.S. citizen starting Wednesday morning
D. A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Thursday
E. A native born U.S. citizen starting Friday

2. If a native born U.S. citizen begins the application procedure by going for
a copy of her birth certificate at noon on Thursday, the earliest she can finish
will be:

A. Friday morning

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B. Friday afternoon
C. The following Monday afternoon
D. The following Tuesday afternoon
E. The following Wednesday afternoon

3. Mr. Nikto’s bank, situated in the suburbs one hour’s travel form any other
office that must be visited, issues statements only Tuesdays form 4 to 5 p.m.
If Mr. Nikto completes the entire application procedure within 3 hours, he is

A. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting vaccinated.


B. A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement
C. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting naturalization papers
D. A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a birth certificate
E. A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement

4. Alabaster Hospital closes because of cuts in government funding.


Thereafter, a naturalized U.S. citizen who begins the application procedure at
noon on Tuesday can complete it no sooner than

A. Tuesday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Friday
E. Monday

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