Professional Documents
Culture Documents
37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is
known as the
* a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the
aircraft would
a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle
* c) fly parallel to the beam
54. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles
are used for
* a) maintaining a computed EPR
b) controlling to a maximum thrust
c) correction minor speed deviations
74. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are
known by using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch
control surfaces
* b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
84. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing
is know as the
* a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
120. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director
engaged, a down command means your speed has
a) increased
* b) decreased
c) is the same
133. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will
happen to the angle of attack?
* a)Tend to increase
b) Tend to decrease
c) Stay the same
159. When the VOR ref and Vari. phase are in phase quadrature ,
the aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
* b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
168. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to under-bank
* b) aircraft to over-bank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
205. To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control
surfaces, in a fly by wire system
* a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability
b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used
206. The compensator in a fuel tank measures
a) specific gravity of fuel
* b) K value of fuel
c) fuel quantity
207. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in
LOC coupling?
a) Heading and Deviation
* b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation
220. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding strip
* b) a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
225. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter
reading would be
a) higher mach number
* b) lower mach number
c) not effected
227. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static
is leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
* b) indicate decent
c) not be affected
240. DH is based on
* a) aircraft characteristics
b) experience of the crew
c) RVR transmitted by ATC
248. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
* b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection
262. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto
the beam?
* a) Radio deviation
b) Glide slope deviation
c) Course deviation
264. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been
selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
* b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
265. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
* a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glide slope beam
c) All are continuously available
269.How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and
the P3 Pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
* b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
270. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected
is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
* b) FROM
c) Neither
272. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away
is the target?
a) 12 miles
* b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
288. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from
a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
* c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units
304. Fiber glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and
dangerous voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b) conductive paint
* c) earth primary conductors
310. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper
will apply corrective rudder to
* a) the right
b) the left
c) the left with some aileron assistance
329. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
* b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
335. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will
* a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS
344. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
* a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
364. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto
the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b) Radio deviation
* c) Course deviation
366. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes
are available?
* a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glide slope beam
c) All are continuously available
379. What color are the auto-land indication lights next to the
pilots instruments with excess deviation?
a) Red
* b) Amber
c) White
387. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry
all the current from a primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
* b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG
394. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system
pages?
* a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function
c) Through the Present Leg faults function
400. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
* b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
418. thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
* b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
422. TCAS II is
a) 1 aircraft per square nautical mile
* b) 24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radius
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
429 What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up, left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
* c) Elevator up, right aileron down
434. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered,
AoA will
* a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain
435. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the
a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
* c) longitudinal axis
439. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and
roll axis?
a) Elevator
* b) Elevon
c) Ailerons
461. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track
is the aircraft?
* a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5
468. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
a) 4%
* b) 7%
c) 10.321%
486. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
* c) rotating at Nsync
505. DFDR (digital flight data recorder) RINC 573 data bus has how
many sub-frames?
a) 4
b) 6
* c) 8
536. What type of signal is used for trigger height trip signals?
a) Switchable d.c
* b) Switchable a.c
c) variable d.c