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Logical reasoning advanced objective questions and answers 1
2 Logical reasoning advanced objective questions and answers
1 General science questions

Tick () the correct option.
1. When a gas is turned into a liquid, the process is called:
(a) condensation (b) evaporation
(c) deposition (d) sublimation
2. Which of the following parts of the sun is easily visible only during a total solar
eclipse?
(a) core (b) photosphere
(c) sunspots (d) corona
3. Earth’s seasons are caused by which of the following?
(a) The tilt of the earth’s rotation relative to the ecliptic as earth revolves around
the sun
(b) The varying amount of sunspot activity
(c) The earth’s orbit around the sun as an eclipse rather than a circle
(d) The rotation of during a 24-hour day
4. Which of the following is most likely to cause a rise in the average temperature of
earth’s atmosphere in future?
(a) Atomic warfare (b) CO2 from fossil fuels
(c) Dust clouds from volcanoes (d) depletion of earths’ ozone layer
5. The accumulation of stress along the boundaries of lithospheric plates results in
which of the following?
(a) Earthquakes (b) Magnetic reversals
(c) Hurricanses
(d) Increased deposition of deep-sea sediments
6. Which of the following elements is a metal:
(a) S (b) Se
(c) I (d) Ga
7. Which of the following items will be attracted to the north pole of a permanent
magnet by a magnet force?
(a) The north pole of another permanent magnet
(b) A piece of iron that is not a permanent magnet
(c) A positively charged glass rod (d) A negatively charged rubber rod
8. Pollination by birds is called
(a) autogamy (c) ornithophily
(d) entomophily (d) anemophily
9. The fastest-running terrestrial animal is
(a) cheetah (b) lion
(c) man (d) jaguar
10. As you go down into a well, your weight
(a) increases slightly (b) decreases slightly
(c) remains exactly the same (d) None of the above
11. Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the
same, equal or constant?
(a) iso (b) mega
(c) meta (d) quasi
12. The study of phenomena at very low temperatures is called
(a) heat transfer (b) morphology
(c) crystallography (d) cryogenics
13. The branch of medical science which is concerned with the study of disease as it
affects a community of people is called
(a) epidemiology (b) oncology
(c) paleontogy (d) pathology
14. Superconductivity is a material property associated with
(a) cooling a substance without a phase change
(b) frictionless liquid flow
(c) a loss of thermal resistance (d) a loss of electrical resistance
15. If a metal can be drawn into wires relatively easily it is called
(a) malleable (b) ductile
(c) extractive (d) tactile
16. Cystitis is the infection of which of the following?
(a) liver (b) urinary bladder
(c) pancreas (d) lung
17. Which of the following is primarily composed of calcium carbonate?
(a) Fish scales (b) Shark teeth
(c) Oyster Shells (d) Whale bones
18. Water flows through a horizontal pipe at a constant volumetric rate. At a location
where the cross sectional area decreases, the velocity of the fluid
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) stays the same (d) none of the above
19. Yeast, used in making bread is a
(a) fungus (b) plant
(c) bacteria (d) seed
20. A cyclone is an engineering device that is used to
(a) transport materials (b) segregate particles
(c) control switching devices (d) model fractals
21. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted
attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to
develop an effective malaria vaccine?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium.
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria.
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host.
22. With reference to the soil conservation, consider the following practices:
(1) Crop relation (2) Sand fences
(3) Terracing (3) Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in
India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
23. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste4. Pollination of crops
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. A gas used as a disinfectant in drinking water is
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Fluorine (d) Chlorine
25. A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been
developed. The objective of this is
(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
(c) To make it drought-resistant (d) To make its shelf-life longer
26. A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born
to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood
group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of
the adopted son is:
(a) O positive (b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
27. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In
what way is it different from the traditional DVD?
1. DVD supports standard Definition video while BD supports High definition
Video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
28. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The
animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the
destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?
(a) Indian wild buffalo (b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar (d) Indian gazelle
29. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino
acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie
sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily
oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it
becomes resistant to oxidation
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted
into metabolites that yield no calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made
with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
30. At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes
of DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
31. Vacuoles are bound by a definite membrane in plant cells called
(a) Plasma membrane (b) Tonoplast
(c) Cell wall (d) None of the above
32. Titan is the largest natural satellite of planet
(a) Mercury (b) Venus
(c) Saturn (d) Neptune
33. Thermometer is related to degree in the same way as clock is related to
(a) Wall (b) Tower
(c) Hour (d) Cock
24. There are rings around which of the following?
(a) Uranus (b) Mars
(c) Jupiter (d) Saturn
25. The theory which advocates that living beings can arise only from other living
beings is termed
(a) Bio-genesis (b) Abiogenesis
(c) Catastrophism (d) Cosmozoic
26. There are how many strains of H & N proteins that cumulatively make up the HN
breed of flu virus (eg. being the presently famous H1N1 virus)
(a) 16 & 9 respectively (b) 9 & 16 respectively
(c) 16 & 16 respectively (d) 9 & 9 respectively
27 The wonder pigment chlorophyll is present in
(a) Mitochondria (b) Centrosomes
(c) Quantosomes (d) Lysosomes
28. The vestiges of hind limbs are present in
(a) Cobra (b) Sea snake
(c) Krait (d) Python
29. The use of which of the following devices has given the modern biologist a better
insight into the internal structure of cells
(a) Super Computer (b) Electron microscope
(c) Spectrophotometer (d) Ultracentrifuge
30. The two diseases that most often kill AIDS victims are
1. Kaposi’s sarcoma 2. Lymphangioma
3. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia 4. Systemic Lupus erythromatosus
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
31. The solar eclipse occurs when
(a) the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(b) the earth comes in the between the sun and the moon
(c) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(d) None of the above
32. The smallest functional and structural unit of kidney is called as
(a) Neuron (b) Nephron
(c) Granulocyte (d) Reticulocyte
33. The removal of top soil by water or wind is called
(a) Soil wash (b) Soil erosion
(c) Soil creep (d) Silting of soil
34. In a certain electronic circuit the output is positive if input 1 is positive and input 2
is zero. If both inputs are positive the output is zero. This is
(a) an AND circuit (b) a NOR circuit
(c) an OR circuit (d) a high-pass filter
35. The speed of light with the rise in the temperature of the medium
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains unaltered (d) Drops sharply
36. The Panda belongs to the same family as that of
(a) Bear (b) Cat
(c) Dog (d) Rabbit
37. The oxide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is
(a) Nitrogen dioxide (b) Nitric oxide
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Nitrogen pentoxide
38. The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an
(a) Amphibian (b) Bony fish
(c) Shark (d) Mammal
39. The intencity of Earthquakes is measured on
(a) Richter scale (b) Secant scale
(c) Mercalli scale (d) Beaufort scale
40. The hardest substance available on earth is
(a) Platinum (b) Diamond
(c) Quartz (d) gold
41. The general direct flow of summer monsoon in India is
(a) From South to North (b) From South West to South East
(c) From South East to South West (d) From South West to North East
42. The gas predominantly responsible for global warning is
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Nitrogen peroxide
43. The dynamo is a device for converting
(a) Heat energy into electrical energy
(b) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) Magnetic energy into electrical energy
(d) None of the above
44. The disease diphtheria affects
(a) Lungs (b) Intestine
(c) Throat (d) Body joints
45. The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following?
(a) Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro (b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Montreal Protocol (d) G-8 Summit, Hciligendamm
46. The cell that lacks a nucleus is
(a) Flame cell (b) Spermatozoan
(c) Red blood corpuscles in man (d) White blood corpuscles
47. The blue colour of the clear sky is due to
(a) Diffraction of light (b) Dispersion of light
(c) Reflection of light (d) Refraction of light
48. The animal which uses sounds as its ‘eyes’ is
(a) Dog (b) Cat
(c) Snake (d) Bat
49. Thalassaemia is a hereditary disease affecting
(a) Blood (b) Lungs
(c) Heart (d) Kidney
50. Stainless steel is an example of
(a) A metallic compound (b) A homogeneous mixture
(c) A heterogeneous mixture (d) An inorganic compound
51. Spinach leaves are rich source of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Iron
(c) Carotene (d) Vitamin E
52. Small pox is caused by:
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungus
(c) Virus (d) Algae
53. Silk is produced by
(a) Egg of silkworm (b) Pupa of silkworm
(c) Larva of silkworm (d) Insect itself
54. Select the one which is not a mixture
(a) Air (b) Gasoline
(c) LPG (d) Distilled water
55. Persons with which blood group are called universal donors?
(a) AB (b) A
(c) O (d) B
56. Plant cells can usually be distinguished because only plant cells possess
(a) Cell walls and mitochondria (b) Golgi bodies and central vacuoles
(c) Cell walls and central vacuoles (d) Chromosomes and mitochondria
57. With reference to the evolution of living organisms, which one of the following
sequences is correct?
(a) Octopus - Dolphin - Shark (b) Pangolin - Tortoise - Hawk
(c) Salamander - Python - Kangaroo (d) Frog - Crab - Prawn
58. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statement:
1. After the waste is remove in the kidney, the clear blood is sent back through renal
artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much
of the gluclose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein. Which of
the following is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. With reference to normal human beings consider the following statements:
1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of
fatty acids.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. WiMAX is related to which one of the following?
(a) Biotechnology (b) Space technology
(c) Missile technology (d) Communication technology
61. Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?
(a) Edwin Hubble (b) Albert Einstein
(c) S. Chandrasekhar (d) Stephen Hawking
62. Why is it difficult to see through fog?
(a) Rays of light suffer total internal reflection from the fog droplets
(b) Rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets
(c) Fog droplets absorb light
(d) The refractive index of fog is extremely High
63. Which one the following is the most effective carrier for communications?
(a) Cables (b) Microwaves
(c) Optical fibres (d) Radiowaves
64. Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus?
(a) Radio waves (b) Microwaves
(c) Infra-red waves (d) None of the above
65. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?
(a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins
(b) Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
(c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
(d) Vitamin-B, (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure
66. Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or
moons?
(a) Jupiter (b) Mars
(c) Saturn (d) Venus
67. Which one of the following is used as an explosive?
(a) Phosphorus trichloride (b) Mercuric oxide
(c) Graphite (d) Nitroglycerine
68. Which one of the following is not a radioactive element?
(a) Uranium (b) Radium
(c) Thorium (d) Cadmium
69. Which one of the following is correct?
A concrete wall generally,
(a) only reflects sound (b) only absorbs sound
(c) only transmits sound (d) absorbs and transmits sound
70. Which one of the following is considered as the easily digestible source of protein?
(a) Egg albumin (b) Soybean
(c) Fish flesh (d) Red meat
71. Which one of the following glands produces the Growth Hormone (Somatotropin)?
(a) Adrenal (b) Pancreas
(c) Pituitary (d) Thyroid
72. Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K
73. Which one of the following gases is predominant in the atmosphere?
(a) Argon (b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon Dioxide (d) Oxygen
74. Which one among the following has the highest energy?
(a) Blue light (b) Green light
(c) Red light (d) Yellow light
75. Which of these is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengue fever (b) Malaria
(c) Filariasis (d) Goitre
76. Which of the following uses non-conventional Source of Energy?
(a) Kerosene lamp (b) Wax candle
(c) Solar lantern (d) Torch
77. Which of the following plant diseases is caused by a virus?
(a) Aster yellows (b) Barley yellow dwarf
(c) Curly top of sugar beets (d) All of the above
78. Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?
(a) Pluto (b) Jupiter
(c) Venus (d) Mercury
79. Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of
their sizes?
(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Earth, Mercury (b) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(c) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn (d) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
80. Which of the following is not a natural fibre
(a) Silk (b) Jute
(c) Coir (d) Rayon
81. Which acid is produced when milk gets sour?
(a) Tartaric acid (b) Butyric acid
(c) Lactic acid (d) Acetic acid
82. Which of the following is a water -borne diseases?
(a) Viral hepatitis B (b) Cholera
(c) Dengu (d) Influenza
83. Which of the following crops is of Kharif season?
(a) Soyabean (b) Linseed
(c) Lentil (d) Mustard
84. When an ant bites a person, which irritating chemical it (ant) injects into his
(person) body?
(a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid
(c) Tartaric acid (d) Formic acid
85. When 1 litre of water freezes, the volume of ice formed will be
(a) 0.9 litre (b) 1.0 litre
(c) 1.11 litre (d) 1.5 litre
86. What would be the best choice for window material to keep the outside heat away?
(a) Single-pane glass
(b) Double-pane glass without a gap in between
(c) Double-pane glass with water filled in between
(d) Double-pane glass with air in between
87. Water boils at a lower temperature on the hills because
(a) It is cold on the hills
(b) There is less carbon dioxide on the hills
(c) There is a decrease in air pressure on the hills
(d) there is less oxygen
88. Washing soda is the common name for
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium bicarbonate
(c) Sodium carbonate (d) Sodium bicarbonate
89. The most abundant organic molecule on the surface of the Earth is
(a) cellulose (b) chitin
(c) DNA (d) hemoglobin
90. The persons working in textile factories such as carpet weavers are exposed to which
of the following occupational disease?
(a) Asbestosis (b) Asthma and Tuberculosis
(c) Silicosis (d) Siderosis
91. The angle between the geographical meridian and magnetic meridian is called
(a) Angle of dip (b) Angle of declination
(c) Angle of inclination (d) None of the above
92. The characteristic odour of Garlic is due to which one of the following?
(a) Chlorine-containing compounds (b) Fluorine-containing compounds
(c) Nitrogen-containing compounds (d) Sulphur-containing compounds
93. Mist is caused by:
(a) Dry ice (b) Ice at low temperature
(c) Water vapours at low temperature (d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
94. In the human body, Cowper’s glands form a part of which one of the following?
(a) Digestive system (b) Endocrine system
(c) Reproductive system (d) Nervous system
95. In normal adult human, what is the rate of heartbeat per minute?
(a) 72-80 (b) 70-75
(c) 80-97 (d) 82-87
96. Evaporation from water surfaces exposed to air is not dependent of the
(a) velocity of the wind (b) humidity
(c) temperature (d) depth of the water
97. Earth quake waves travel fastest in
(a) Soil (b) Molten rock
(c) Water (d) Flexible rock
98. Which of the following plants is not capable of manufacturing own food?
(a) Algae (b) Mushroom
(c) Carrot (d) Cabbage
99. Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest temperature?
(a) Blood red (b) Dark cherry
(c) Salmon (d) White
100. Which among the following substances is used as a lubricant?
(a) Quartz (b) Silica
(c) Graphite (d) Nickel
101. What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Sodium azide
(c) Sodium nitrite (d) Sodium peroxide
102. The weight of an object will be minimum when it is placed at
(a) The North Pole (b) The South Pole
(c) The Equator (d) The center of the Earth
103. The uranium fuel used worldwide is mainly in the form of
(a) U3O8 (b) UO2
(c) UF6 (d) U metal
104. The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is
(a) 50 mn years (b) 100 mn years
(c) 250 mn years (d) 365 mn years
105. Consider the following:
1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter 4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
106. Chemically, lime water is:
(a) Calcium hydroxide (b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Calcium carbonate
107. Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of
chlorine is mainly due to
(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water.
(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water.
(c) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water.
(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water.
108. Chemically, bleaching powder is:
(a) Calcium hypochlorite (b) Calcium hydroxide
(c) Sodium hydroxide (d) Calcium sulphate
109. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher
latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
110. Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV / AIDS.
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal
power plants?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Oxides of Hydrogen 2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
113. Defect of colour blindness can be remedied by the use of
(a) Concave lens (b) Convex lens
(c) Cylindrical lens (d) None of the above
114. Deficiency of iron leads to
(a) Anorexia (b) Anaemia
(c) Polycythemia (d) Leucopenia
115. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated
for ethanol?
(a) Jatropha (b) Maize
(c) Pongania (d) Sunflower
116. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a
tropical deciduous forest. This is because
(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) The rain forest species are slow growing
(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
117. Radioactivity is measured by
(a) Geiger-Muller counter (b) Polarimeter
(c) Calorimeter (d) Colorimeter
118. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they
are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain
health and promote longevity?
(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help
prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the
body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism
(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing
119 Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A
satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous. 2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
120. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety
hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide
zone in which people neither live not venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of
after any natural disaster.
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent
shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their
extensive roots
121. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the
following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon?
(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
(d) It has less human interference
122. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons (b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor (d) Stop the nuclear reaction
123. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern.
What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons.
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and
chlorofluorocarbons.
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
124. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could
be the appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
125. What is a zoom lens?
(b) It is a lens having variable focal length (a) It is a lens having fixed focal length
(c) It is a lens used in radio telescopes (d) None of the above
126. What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp
uses semi-conductor material.
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
127. Which one of following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three?
(a) Sand desert (b) Paddy crop land
(c) Land covered with fresh snow (d) Prairie land
128. Which one of the following is the largest terrestrial wild animal?
(a) Indian elephant (b) African elephant
(c) Giraffe (d) White tiger
129. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive
process?
(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O.
(c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen.
(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins.
130. Seawater (i.e. saltwater) freezes at:
(a) the same temperature as fresh water.
(b) at a slightly higher temperature than fresh water
(c) at a slightly lower temperature than fresh water.
(d) seawater does not freeze.
131. Nitrous oxide, commonly called laughing gas, has been a matter of concern to
environmentalists recently because:
(a) it is thought to cause cancer at low concentrations.
(b) it produces photochemical smog.
(c) it is a greenhouse gas. (d) none of the above
132. Pollination by wind is called
(a) autogamy (b) entomophily
(c) anemophily (d) ornithophily
133. The Pakistan population receives the largest dose of ionizing radiation from:
(a) natural sources.
(b) fallout from nuclear weapons testing.
(c) nuclear medicine. (d) nuclear power plants.
134. The radioactive element most commonly detected in humans is
(a) potassium-40 (b) cobalt-60
(c) iodine-131 (d) plutonium-238
135. Radioisotopes which are used in medical diagnosis are known as
(a) tracers (b) silver bullets
(c) markers (d) dyes
136. Most commercial nuclear power plants worldwide are cooled by
(a) sodium (b) mercury
(c) helium (d) water
137 Which of the following materials is used along with iron ore and limestone to
produce iron in a modern blast furnace?
(a) coke (b) cementite
(c) coal (d) bauxite
138. The study of poisons is called
(a) oncology (b) toxicology
(c) phrenology (d) ergonomics
139. What range of frequencies are usually referred to as audio frequencies for humans?
(a) 0 to 20 Hertz (b) 20 to 20,000 Hertz
(c) 200 to 200,000 Hertz (d) 10,000 to 30,000 Hertz
140. A device used to measure the amount of moisture in the atmosphere is called a
(a) hydrometer (b) hygrometer
(c) anemometer (d) barometer
141. Plants get their nitrogen from
(a) rain (b) the soil
(c) the air (d) the bedrock
142. Which of the following elements was unknown to ancient civilizations?
(a) tin (b) aluminum
(c) mercury (d) sulfur
143. Which is the longest?
(a) a kilometer (b) a centimeter
(c) a dekameter (d) a terameter
144. You use a hydrometer to check the condition of the electrolyte in your car battery.
It is actually measuring what property of the fluid?
(a) charge (b) density
(c) temperature (d) surface tension
145. Steel is composed of a number of elements. The two essential elements are iron and
(a) aluminum (b) carbon
(c) nickel (d) silicon
146. Which of the following is an important element of stainless steel?
(a) chromium (b) magnesium
(c) copper (d) nickel
147. Which of the following is not a major pollutant from automobiles?
(a) carbon monoxide (b) unburned hydrocarbons
(c) nitrous oxide (d) sulfur dioxide
148. The most serious environmental pollution from a nuclear reactor is
(a) radioactivity (b) particulate formation
(c) thermal pollution (d) noise pollution
149. Biomass energy is
(a) formed through photosynthesis
(b) caused by heat due to the large mass of the earth
(c) has been used for only a few years
(d) is effective in only certain regions of India
150. A temperature of 295 K is equivalent to approximately
(a) 0 degrees Fahrenheit (b) 32 degrees Fahrenheit
(c) 72 degrees Fahrenheit (d) 97 degrees Fahrenheit
Answers
1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (d) 25 (a) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (d) 30 (d)
31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35 (a) 36 (a) 37 (c) 38 (d) 39 (b) 40 (c)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (b) 44 (c) 45 (c) 46 (a) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (a) 50 (a)
51 (b) 52 (a) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (b) 58 (d) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (c) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (a) 72 (b) 73 (b) 74 (c) 75 (a) 76 (a) 77 (d) 78 (d) 79 (d) 80 (b)
81 (a) 82 (b) 83 (b) 84 (c) 85 (a) 86 (a) 87 (d) 88 (d) 89 (d) 90 (b)
91 (c) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (d) 95 (c) 96 (d) 97 (c) 98 (c) 99 (a) 100 (b)
101 (b) 102 (d) 103 (c) 104 (c) 105 (a) 106 (d) 107 (c) 108 (b) 109 (d) 110 (c)
111 (b) 112 (d) 113 (b) 114 (c) 115 (c) 116 (a) 117 (c) 118 (a) 119 (c) 120 (c)
121 (d) 122 (c) 123 (d) 124 (b) 125 (b) 126 (a) 127 (a) 128 (c) 129 (a) 130 (d)
131 (b) 132 (a) 133 (b) 134 (c) 135 (b) 136 (c) 137 (c) 138 (b) 139 (a) 140 (c)
141 (c) 142 (c) 143 (a) 144 (a) 145 (a) 146 (d) 147 (a) 148 (b) 149 (b) 150 (b)
151 (b) 152 (b) 153 (d) 154 (b) 155 (b) 156 (a) 157 (d) 158 (c) 159 (a) 160 (c)
2 Logical Reasoning Advanced Objective

1. AZ, GT, MN, ?, YB
(a) KF (b) RX
(c) SH (d) TS
2. AZ, CX, FU, ?
(a) IR (b) IV
(c) JQ (d) KP
3. AZ, BY, CX, ?
(a) EF (b) GH
(c) IJ (d) DW
4. DKY, FJW, HIU, JHS, ?
(a) KGR (b) LFQ
(c) KFR (d) LGQ
5. SIY, OEU, KAQ, GWM, CSI
(a) WNE (b) WNB
(c) WNE (d) WMC
6. CMW, HRB, ?, RBL, WGQ, BLV
(a) MWG (b) LVF
(c) LWG (d) WMX
7 BXJ, ETL, HPN, KLP, ?
(a) NHR (b) MHQ
(c) MIP (d) NIR
8. QPO, SRQ, UTS, WVU, ?
(a) XVZ (b) ZYA
(c) YXW (d) VWX
9. JE, LH, OL, SQ, ?
(a) WV (b) WX
(c) VW (d) XW
10. AD, EH, IL, ?, QT
(a) LM (b) MN
(c) MP (d) OM
11. BMO, EOQ, HQS, ?
(a) KSU (b) LMN
(c) SOV (d) SOW
12. AC, FH, KM, PR, ?
(a) UW (b) VW
(c) UX (d) TV
13. T, R, P, N, L, ?, ?
(a) J, G (b) J, H
(c) K, H (d) K, I
14. R, U, X, A, D, ?
(a) F (b) G
(c) H (d) I
15. B, E, D, F, ?, H, J, ?, L
(a) I, M (b) M, I
(c) I, N (d) J, M
16. M, N, O, L, R, I, V, ?
(a) A (b) E
(c) F (d) H
17. Y, B, T, G, O, ?
(a) N (b) M
(c) L (d) K
18. BD, GI, LN, QS, ?
(a) TV (b) UW
(c) WX (d) VX
19. CE, GI, KM, OQ, ?
(a) TW (b) TV
(c) SU (d) RT
20. BF, CH, ?, HO, LT
(a) DN (b) EL
(c) EK (d) EM
21. OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?
(a) SYJ (b) TCI
(c) SXJ (d) SXI
22. A, B, N, C, D, O, E, F, P, ?, ?, ?
(a) G, H, I (b) G, H, J
(c) G, H, Q (d) J, K, L
23. Z, W, S, P, L, I, E, ?
(a) B (b) D
(c) F (d) K
24. A, I, P, V, A, E, ?
(a) E (b) F
(c) G (d) H
25. EJO, TYD, INS, XCH, ?
(a) NRW (b) MRW
(c) MSX (d) NSX
26. AI, BJ, CK, ?
(a) DL (b) DM
(c) GH (d) LM
27. Z, X,V, T, R, ?,
(a) O, K (b) N, M
(c) K, S (d) P, N
28. AB, DEF, HIJK, ?, STUVWX
(a) MNOPQ (b) LMNOP
(c) LMNO (d) QRSTU
29. U, B, I, P, W, ?
(a) D (b) F
(c) Q (d) Z
30. ABA, EDE, IFI, ?
(a) UGU (b) OIO
(c) OHO (d) OMS
31. AYD, BVF, DRH, ?, KGL
(a) FMI (b) GMJ
(c) HLK (d) GLJ
32. A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY
(a) LMNO (b) MNO
(c) MNOP (d) NOPQ
33. AK, EO, IS, ?
(a) MW (b) MV
(c) XW (d) NX
34. MHZ, NIW, OKT, PNQ, ?
(a) RRN (b) QRN
(c) QRM (d) QQN
35. DHL, PTX, BFJ, ?
(a) CGK (b) KOS
(c) NRV (d) RVZ
36. G, H, J, M, ?, V
(a) Q (b) T
(c) O (d) R
37. LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ?
(a) PHV (b) PIU
(c) PJW (d) PKX
38. ATTRIBUTION, TTRIBUTIO, RIBUTIO, IBUTI, ?
(a) IBU (b) UT
(c) UTI (d) BUT
39. KUZ, MOX, OIV, QET....?
(a) SUR (b) SDR
(c) SMR (d) SAR
40. SHG, RIF, QJE, PKD, ?
(a) OLE (b) OLC
(c) NMC (d) NLB
41. B, D, F, I, L, P, ?
(a) R (b) S
(c) T (d) U
42. BAZ, DCY, FEX, ?
(a) FXW (b) EFX
(c) FEY (d) GHW
43. FLP, INS, LPV, ?
(a) ORY (b) UXZ
(c) VXY (d) SVW
44. M, N, O, L, R, I, V, ?
(a) A (b) E
(c) F (d) H
45. BAS, ?, DCQ, DDP, FEO
(a) CBT (b) ABR
(c) BCT (d) BBR
46. DEF, HIJ, MNO, ?
(a) STU (b) RTV
(c) SRQ (d) TUV
47. Z, U, Q, ?, L
(a) I (b) K
(c) M (d) N
48. BYW, DUX, FQY, ?
(a) HZM (b) HCZ
(c) HMZ (d) HZC
49. DFE, JIH, MLN, ?, VUT
(a) OQP (b) PSR
(c) PRQ (d) RSP
50. EJO, TYD, INS, XCH ?
(a) NRW (b) MRW
(c) MSX (d) NSX
51. A/2, B/4, C/6, D/8
(a) E/8, F/10 (b) E/12, F/14
(c) E/10, F/12 (d) D/10, E/10
52. Q1F, S2E, U6D, W21C, ?
(a) Z88B (b) Y66B
(c) Y44B (d) Y88B
53. 2Z5, 7Y7, 14X9, 23W11, 34V13, ?
(a) 27U24 (b) 47U15
(c) 45U15 (d) 47V14
54. P3C, R5F, T8I, V12L, ?
(a) Y17O (b) X17M
(c) X17O (d) X16O
55. J2Z, K4X, 17V, ?, H16R, M22P
(a) L11S (b) L12T
(c) L11T (d) L12S
56. 3F, 6G, 11I, 18L, ?
(a) 21O (b) 25N
(c) 27P (d) 27Q
57. D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ?, ?
(a) K-12, M-13 (b) L-12, M-14
(c) L-12, N-14 (d) K-12, M-14
58. D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ?, ?
(a) LMNO (b) MNO
(c) NOPQ (d) MNOP
59. 2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ?
(a) 36I19 (b) 48J21
(c) 36J21 (d) 48J23
60. C4X, F9U, 116R, ?
(a) K25P (b) Y44B
(c) Y88B (d) Z88B
61.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
62. ba_ba_bac_acb_cbac
(a) aacb (b) bbca
(c) ccba (d) cbac
63. m _ nm _ n _ an _ a _ ma _
(a) aamnan (b) ammanm
(c) aammnn (d) amammn
64. adb_ac_da_cddcb_dbc_cbda
(a) bccba (b) cbbaa
(c) ccbba (d) bbcad
65. bca_b_aabc _a_caa
(a) acab (b) bcbb
(c) cbab (d) ccab
66. a _ ba _ b _ b _ a _ b
(a) abaab (b) abbab
(c) aabba (d) bbabb
67. _ nmmn _ mmnn _ mnnm _
(a) nmmn (b) mnnm
(c) nnmm (d) nmnm
68. - bc - - b - aabc
(a) acac (b) babc
(c) abab (d) aacc
69. cccbb _ aa _ cc _ bbbaa _ c
(a) aebe (b) baca
(c) baba (d) acba
70. ab __ d __ aaba __ na _ badna _ b
(a) andaa (b) babda
(c) badna (d) dbanb
71. Poles : Magnet :: ? : Battery
(a) Energy (b) Power
(c) Terminals (d) Cells
72. Peace : Chaos :: Creation : ?
(a) Manufacture (b) Destruction
(c) Build (d) Construction
73. Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ?
(a) Museum (b) Statue
(c) Chisel (d) Stone
74. Horse : Mare ::
(a) Fox : Vixen (b) Duck : Geese
(c) Dog : Puppy (d) Donkey : Pony
75. Cricket : Pitch ::
(a) Ship : Dock (b) Boat : Harbour
(c) Boxing : Ring (d) Wrestling : Track
76. Oceans : Deserts : : Waves : ?
(a) Dust (b) Sand Dunes
(c) Ripples (d) Sea
77. Grain : Stock : : Stick : ?
(a) String (b) Heap
(c) Collection (d) Bundle
78. Cube is related to Square in the same way as Square is related to
(a) Plane (b) Triangle
(c) Line (d) Point
79. Bank is related to Money in the same way as Transport is related to
(a) Traffic (b) Goods
(c) Speed (d) Road
80. Fan is related to Wings in the same way as Wheel is related to
(a) Round (b) Air
(c) Spokes (d) Cars
81. FOX : CUNNING :: RABBIT : ?
(a) Courageous (b) Dangerous
(c) Timid (d) Ferocious
82. FLEXIBLE : RIGID :: CONFIDENCE : ?
(a) Diffidence (b) Indifference
(c) Cowardice (d) Scare
83 NECKLACE : ADORNMENT :: ?
(a) Medal : Decoration (b) Bronze : Medal
(c) Scarf : Dress (d) Window : House
84. BILLY : GOAT ::
(a) Cow : Bull (b) Lord : Maid
(c) Man : Woman (d) Cow : Calf
85. WORK : MOTIVE ::
(a) Body : Mind (b) Wall : Paint
(c) Body : Food (d) Petrol : Car
86. WINDOW : CURTAIN ::
(a) Door : Frame (b) Book : Jacket
(c) CPU : Cabinet (d) Casing : Wire
87. MIND : BODY ::
(a) Water : Air (b) CPU : Hard Disk
(c) Ship : Oil (d) Software : Computer
88. MIRROR : GLASS ::
(a) Music : Violin (b) Match : Matchbox
(c) Shirt : Cloth (d) Air : Flow
89. SUNFLOWER : LIGHT ::
(a) Torch : Battery (b) Scholar : Books
(c) Ink : Print (d) Mould : Humidity
90. BLADE : GRASS ::
(a) Dig : Shovel (b) Size : Hole
(c) Grain : Rice (d) Food : Morsel
91. CHAIR : TABLE ::
(a) Object : Prop (b) Son : Father
(c) Car : Scooter (d) Pen : Paper
92. MEDICINE : DOSE ::
(a) Food : Quantity (b) Basket : Waste Paper
(c) Container : Water (d) Fan : Power
93. PHOTOGRAPH : FILM ::
(a) Zero : Binary (b) Positive : Negative
(c) Comma : Full stop (d) Light : Prism
94. HARDWARE : SOFTWARE ::
(a) Body : Mind (b) Paper : Colour
(c) Fan : Electricity (d) Car : Scooter
95. RECTANGLE : PENTAGONE ::
(a) Triangle : Rectangle (b) Diagonal : Perimeter
(c) Side : Angle (d) Circle : Square
96. KEY : IGNITION ::
(a) helmet : motorcycle (b) boot : saddle
(c) switch : light (d) pad : helicopter
97. AUTHOR : MANUSCRIPT ::
(a) optician : spectacles (b) engineer : bridge
(c) architect: blueprint (d) doctor : stethoscope
98. EXTORT : OBTAIN ::
(a) Purify : Strain (b) Steal : Borrow
(c) Explode : Ignite (d) Pilfer : Steal
99. SIMMER : BOIL ::
(a) glide : drift (b) drizzle : downpour
(c) gambol : play (d) stagnate : flow
100. TALLY : VOTES ::
(a) census : population (b) government : laws
(c) taxation : revenue (d) team : athletes
101. Pituitary : Brain : : Thymus : ?
(a) Larynx (b) Spinal Cord
(c) Throat (d) Chest
102. Blunt : Sharp : : Sow : ?
(a) Water (b) Crow
(c) Farm (d) Reap
103. Amnesia : Memory : : Paralysis : ?
(a) Movement (b) Limbs
(c) Handicapped (d) Legs
104. Book : Publisher : : Film : ?
(a) Producer (b) Director
(c) Editor (d) Writer
105. Influenza : Virus : : Typhoid : ?
(a) Bacillus (b) Parasite
(c) Protozoa (d) Bacteria
106. Radio : Listener : : Film : ?
(a) Producer (b) Actor
(c) Viewer (d) Director
107. Spider : Insect : : Crocodile : ?
(a) Reptile (b) Mammal
(c) Frog (d) Carnivore
108. Foresight : Anticipation : : Insomnia : ?
(a) Treatment (b) Disease
(c) Sleeplessness (d) Unrest
109. Virology : Virus : : Semantics : ?
(a) Amoeba (b) Language
(c) Nature (d) Society
110. Novelty : Oldness : : Newness : ?
(a) Culture (b) Discovery
(c) Model (d) Antiquity
111. Milk : Emulsion : : Butter : ?
(a) Aerosol (b) Suspension
(c) Sol (d) Gel
112. Haemoglobin : Iron : : Chlorophyll : ?
(a) Copper (b) Magnesium
(c) Cobalt (d) Calcium
113. Forecast : Future : : Regret : ?
(a) Present (b) Atone
(c) Past (d) Sins
114. Aeroplane : Cockpit : : Train : ?
(a) Wagon (b) Coach
(c) Compartment (d) Engine
115. Restaurant : meal :: vending machine : ?
(a) change (b) snack
(c) candy (d) lobby
116. Coffee : cup :: soup : ?
(a) chicken (b) appetizer
(c) bowl (d) plate
117. Melt : Liquid : : Freeze : ?
(a) Ice (b) Condense
(c) Solid (d) Crystal
118. Tractor : Trailer : : Horse : ?
(a) Stable (b) Cart
(c) Saddle (d) Engine
119. Flower : Bud : : Plant : ?
(a) Seed (b) Taste
(c) Flower (d) Twig
120. Gun : Bullet : : Chimney : ?
(a) Ground (b) House
(c) Roof (d) Smoke
121. Malaria : Disease : : Spear : ?
(a) Wound (b) Sword
(c) Weapon (d) Death
122. Food : Stomach : : Fuel : ?
(a) Plane (b) Truck
(c) Engine (d) Automobile
123. Fire : Ashes : : Explosion : ?
(a) Flame (b) Death
(c) Sound (d) Debris
124. Ocean : Water : : Glacier : ?
(a) Refrigerator (b) Ice
(c) Mountain (d) Cave
125. Sculptor : Statue : : Poet : ?
(a) Canvas (b) Pen
(c) Verse (d) Chisel
126. Man : Biography : : Nation : ?
(a) Leader (b) People
(c) Geography (d) History
127. Fog : Visibility : : AIDS : ?
(a) Health (b) Resistance
(c) Virus (d) Death
128. Reading : Knowledge : : Work : ?
(a) Experience (b) Engagement
(c) Employment (d) Experiment
129. Cricket : Bat : : Hockey : ?
(a) Field (b) Stick
(c) Player (d) Ball
130. Jeopardy : Peril : : Jealousy : ?
(a) Envy (b) Insecurity
(c) Lust (d) Sin
131. Enough : Excess : : Sufficiency : ?
(a) Adequacy (b) Surplus
(c) Competency (d) Import
132. Hermit : Solitude : : Intruder : ?
(a) Thief (b) Privacy
(c) Burglar (d) Alm
133. Skirmish : War : : Disease : ?
(a) Medicine (b) Patient
(c) Epidemic (d) Infection
134. Skeleton : Body : : Grammar : ?
(a) Language (b) Sentence
(c) Meaning (d) Education
135. Mature : Regressed : : Varied : ?
(a) Rhythmic (b) Monotonous
(c) Decorous (d) Obsolete
136. Sedative : Pain : : Solace : ?
(a) Irritation (b) Kill
(c) Grief (d) Hurt
137. Sorrow : Death : : Happiness : ?
(a) Love (b) Dance
(c) Cry (d) Birth
138. Horse : Neigh : : Jackal : ?
(a) Squeak (b) Chatter
(c) Howl (d) Bray
139. Ship : Sea : : Camel : ?
(a) Forest (b) Land
(c) Mountain (d) Desert
140. Dilatory : Expeditious : : Direct : ?
(a) Tortuous (b) Circumlocutory
(c) Straight (d) Curved
141. Wrist : Elbow : : Ankle : ?
(a) Heel (b) Fingers
(c) Foot (d) Knee
142. Insert : Extract : : Mighty : ?
(a) Thin (b) Strong
(c) Frail (d) Feeble
143. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(a) Ocean (b) Forest
(c) Weight (d) Gravitation
144. Amber : Yellow : : Caramine : ?
(a) Red (b) Green
(c) Blue (d) Orange
145. Deep : Shallow : : Freedom : ?
(a) Prison (b) Discipline
(c) Convict (d) Democracy
146. Wax : Wane : : Zenith : ?
(a) Nadir (b) Bottom
(c) Fall (d) Depth
147. Foundation : Edifice : : Constitution : ?
(a) Government (b) State
(c) Nation (d) Cabinet
148. Produce : Waste : : Contrast : ?
(a) Match (b) Correct
(c) Oppose (d) Contradict
149. Knife : Cut : : Axe : ?
(a) Lacerate (b) Chop
(c) Slice (d) Sever
150. Video : Cassette : : Computer : ?
(a) Reels (b) Recordings
(c) Files (d) Hard disk
151. Earth : Sun : : Moon : ?
(a) Orbit (b) Sky
(c) Star (d) Earth
152. Birds : Wing : : Fish : ?
(a) Gill (b) Fin
(c) Tail (d) Scale
153. Painting : Artist : : Symphony : ?
(a) Novelist (b) Poet
(c) Essayist (d) Composer
154. Dawn : Dusk : : Inauguration : ?
(a) Invitation (b) Valediction
(c) Repetition (d) Organisation
155. Annihilation : Fire : : Cataclysm : ?
(a) Earthquake (b) Flood
(c) Emergency (d) Steam
156. Vestry : Church : : Dispensary : ?
(a) Laboratory (b) Hospital
(c) School (d) Monastery
157. Good : Bad : : Virtue : ?
(a) Blame (b) Sin
(c) Despair (d) Vice
158. Noise : Din : : Quiet : ?
(a) Hush (b) Dumb
(c) Gag (d) Mouth
159. Touch : Feel : : Greet : ?
(a) Smile (b) Manners
(c) Acknowledge (d) Success
160. Jungle : Zoo : : Sea : ?
(a) Aquarium (b) Harbour
(c) Water (d) Fishery
161. Entrepreneur : Profit : : Scholar : ?
(a) Income (b) Knowledge
(c) Service (d) Business
162. Bank : Money : : Transport : ?
(a) Goods (b) Road
(c) Traffic (d) Speed
163. Calf : Cow : : Puppy : ?
(a) Dog (b) Bitch
(c) Horse (d) Donkey
164. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(a) Letter-Box (b) Stamp
(c) Mail (d) Envelope
165. Roster : Duty : : Inventory : ?
(a) Furnace (b) Exports
(c) Goods (d) Produce
166. Heed : Neglect : : Pacify : ?
(a) Victory (b) Incite
(c) Allay (d) War
167. Oasis : Sand : : Island : ?
(a) River (b) Sea
(c) Water (d) Waves
168. War : Death : : Smoke : ?
(a) Burning (b) Pollution
(c) Fire (d) Cigarette
169. Sports : Logo : : Nation : ?
(a) Anthem (b) Ruler
(c) Animal (d) Emblem
170. Mountain : Valley : : Genius : ?
(a) Brain (b) Idiot
(c) Think (d) Intelligence
171. Convoy : Ships : : Deputation : ?
(a) Voters (b) Representatives
(c) Politicians (d) Writers
172. Novice : Learner : : Harbinger : ?
(a) Messenger (b) Thief
(c) Pickpocket (d) Robber
173. Circle : Circumference : : Square : ?
(a) Volume (b) Area
(c) Diagonal (d) Perimeter
174. Car : Petrol : : Television : ?
(a) Electricity (b) Transmission
(c) Entertainment (d) Antenna
175. Mattock : Dig : : Shovel : ?
(a) Break (b) Push
(c) Scoop (d) Whittle
176. Receptionist : Office : Hostess : ?
(a) Aircraft (b) Crew
(c) Hospital (d) Airport
177. Jade is related to Green in the same way as Garnet is related to ...
(a) Blue (b) Orange
(c) Red (d) Yellow
178. Life is related to Death in the same way as Hope is related to ...
(a) Sad (b) Despair
(c) Pain (d) Cry
179. Scissors is related to Cloth in the same way as Scythe is related to ...
(a) Wood (b) Steel
(c) Grass (d) Paper
180. Cub is related to Tiger in the same way as Fawn is related to ...
(a) Stag (b) Monkey
(c) Ass (d) Sheep
181. Radical is related to Moderate in the same way as Revolution is related to ...
(a) Change (b) Chaos
(c) Peace (d) Reformation
182. Firm is related to Flabby in the same way as Piquant is related to ...
(a) Bland (b) Salty
(c) Pleasant (d) Small
183. Motorcycle is related to Battery in the same way as Life is related to ...
(a) Earth (b) Sun
(c) Moon (d) Star
184. Appreciation is related to Reward in the same way as Disgrace is related to ...
(a) Crime (b) Guilt
(c) Allegation (d) Punishment
185. Drummer is related to Orchestra in the same way as Minister is related to ...
(a) Voter (b) Constituency
(c) Department (d) Cabinet
186. Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to ...
(a) Sanitation (b) Treatment
(c) Medicine (d) Doctor
187. Thick is related to Thin in the same way as Idle is related to ...
(a) Virtuous (b) Business
(c) Industrious (d) Activity
188. Bread is related to Wheat in the same way as Brick is related to ...
(a) Clay (b) Fire
(c) Cement (d) Building
189. Indolence is related to Work in the same way as Taciturn is related to ...
(a) Observe (b) Speak
(c) Cheat (d) Act
190. Mouse is related to Cat in the same way as Fly is related to ...
(a) Animal (b) Horse
(c) Spider (d) Rat
191. Street is related to Lane in the same way as Road is related to ...
(a) Footpath (b) Junction
(c) Avenue (d) Highway
192. Victory is related to Happiness in the same way as Failure is related to ...
(a) Defeat (b) Anger
(c) Frustration (d) Sandness
193. Laugh is related to Joy in the same way as Cry is related to ...
(a) Child (b) Sad
(c) Punishment (d) Sorrow
194. Earth is related to Axis in the same way as Wheel is related to ...
(a) Tyre (b) Car
(c) Road (d) Hub
195. Engineer is related to Machine in the same way as Doctor is related to ...
(a) Hospital (b) Body
(c) Disease (d) Medicine
196. DDT is related to Abbreviation in the same way as LASER is related to ...
(a) Antithesis (b) Acronym
(c) Epigram (d) Epithet
197. Pride is related to Humility in the same way as Desire is related to ...
(a) Wish (b) Hate
(c) Suppress (d) Indifference
198. Boat is related to Oar in the same way as Bicycle is related to ...
(a) Chain (b) Pedal
(c) Road (d) Wheel
199. Much is related to Many in the same way as Measure is related to ...
(a) Weigh (b) Measures
(c) Calculate (d) Count
200. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as Warning is related to ...
(a) Disaster (b) Precaution
(c) Risk (d) Danger
201. COAL : MINERAL ::
(a) oxygen : water (b) river : dam
(c) gold : metal (d) silver : mine
202. COMPETITION : CONTESTANT ::
(a) trial : witness (b) journey : traveler
(c) royalty : monarch (d) election : candidate
203. ARCHIVE : DOCUMENTS ::
(a) warehouse : merchandise (b) theater : plays
(c) cinema : projector (d) library : shelves
204. INVENTORY : GOODS ::
(a) agenda : meeting (b) snapshot : image
(c) ballot : voters (d) roll : members
205. INNUMERABLE : QUANTITY::
(a) superficial : surface (b) impotent : strength
(c) invaluable : worth (d) finite : size
206. ORATOR : SPEECH ::
(a) protagonist : story (b) chronicler : events
(c) playwright : stage (d) comedian : jokes
207. WING : AIR ::
(a) arm : hand (b) lung : breath
(c) flipper: water (d) engine: jet
208. CONDENSE : SHORT ::
(a) shrink : wet (b) measure : equal
(c) magnify : invisible (d) deflate : flat
209. STIMULANT : ACTIVITY ::
(a) symptom : disease (b) food : hunger
(c) fertilizer : growth (d) diagnosis : treatment
210. RANGERS : FOREST ::
(a) panel : contest (b) corps : army
(c) members : board (d) police : precinct
211. Find the odd one out
(a) crusade (b) expedition
(c) cruise (d) campaign
(a) flourish (b) renovate
(c) blossom (d) thrive
(a) Vapour (b) Mist
(c) Hailstone (d) Fog
(a) Circle : Arc (b) Chair : Leg
(c) Flower : Petal (d) Cover : Page
(a) Ginger (b) Garlic
(c) Chilli (d) Potato
(a) Mango (b) Papaya
(c) Apple (d) Orange
(a) Owl (b) Eagle
(c) Hawk (d) Parrot
(a) Debit (b) Deposit
(c) Deduction (d) Withdrawal
(a) Ball (b) Specter
(c) Globe (d) Sphere
(a) Den (b) Roof
(c) Burrow (d) Nest
(a) Echo (b) Resonance
(c) Tone (d) Ear
(a) Libra (b) Saturn
(c) Mars (d) Venus
(a) Rose (b) Lotus
(c) Jasmine (d) Dahlia
(a) Mother (b) Friend
(c) Sister (d) Brother
(a) Mew (b) Howl
(c) Bark (d) Shout
(a) Island (b) Coast
(c) Peninsula (d) Oasis
(a) Cow (b) Deer
(c) Donkey (d) Rhinoceros
(a) Baboon (b) Gibbon
(c) Chimpanzee (d) Jaguar
(a) Pony (b) Kitten
(c) Pig (d) Larva
(a) Nephew (b) Brother
(c) Cousin (d) Niece
(a) December (b) February
(c) March (d) July
(a) Raid (b) Attack
(c) Defence (d) Ambush
(a) Arc (b) Diagonal
(c) Radius (d) Diameter
(a) Epicentre (b) Seismology
(c) Crater (d) Richter Scale
(a) Ear (b) Lung
(c) Eye (d) Heart
(a) Hostel (b) Club
(c) Inn (d) Hotel
(a) Canoe (b) Igloo
(c) Yacht (d) Raft
(a) Pistol (b) Sword
(c) Gun (d) Rifle
(a) Copper (b) Brass
(c) Platinum (d) Zinc
(a) Cathedral (b) Mosque
(c) Monastery (d) Temple
(a) Sheep: bleat (b) Horse: neigh
(c) Ass: grunt (d) Owl: hoot
(a) door: bang (b) piano: play
(c) drum: beat (d) rain: platter
(a) Ammeter: current (b) Hygrometer: pressure
(c) odometer: speed (d) seismograph: earthquakes
(a) whale: mammal (b) salamander: insect
(c) snake: reptile (d) frog: amphibian
(a) profit: loss (b) wise: foolish
(c) virtue: vice (d) seduce: attract
(a) onomatology: names (b) nidology : nests
(c) phycology: algae (d) concology: shells
(a) aphid: paper (b) moth: wool
(c) termite: wood (d) locust: plant
(a) Deer: meat (b) mongoose: snake
(c) crow: carrion (d) crane: fish
(a) Broom: sweep (b) spoon: feed
(c) nut: crack (d) soap: bathe
(a) apple: jam (b) lemon: citrus
(c) orange: squash (d) tomato: pury
(a) fish: pisciculture (b) birds: horticulture
(c) bees: apiculture (d) slikworm: sericulture
(a) cow: calf (b) dog: bitch
(c) lion: cub (d) tortoise: turtle
(a) twigs: nest (b) wood: furniture
(c) picture: pottery (d) gold: ornaments
(a) beans: pulse (b) rice: cereals
(c) tea : beverage (d) legumes : nodules
(a) microscope (b) telescope
(c) periscope (d) stethoscope
(a) Fish : Shoal (b) Cow : Herd
(c) Sheep : Flock (d) Man : Mob
(a) Stamp : Letter (b) Ticket : Train
(c) Ink : Pen (d) Care : Engine
(a) Shopkeeper : Customer (b) Doctor : Patient
(c) Lawyer : Client (d) Clerk : File
(a) Mercury : Sun (b) Moon : Earth
(c) Star : Galaxy (d) Wheel : Axle
(a) Principal : School (b) Soldier : Barrack
(c) Artist : Troupe (d) Singer : Chorus
(a) Crime : Punishment (b) Judgement : Advocacy
(c) Enterprise : Success (d) Exercise : Health
(a) Hard : Soft (b) Long : High
(c) Sweet : Sour (d) Pointed : Blunt
(a) Student : Scholar (b) Paddy : Rice
(c) Soldier : Warrior (d) Politician : Leader
(a) Tongue : Taste (b) Eye : Blind
(c) Ear : Deaf (d) Leg : Lame
(a) Flower : Petal (b) Chair : Leg
(c) Circle : Arc (d) Cover : Page
(a) Jupiter : Planet (b) Musician : Artist
(c) Merchant : Business (d) Maize : Cereal
(a) Car : Road (b) Ship : Sea
(c) Rocket : Space (d) Aeroplane : Pilot
(a) Tree : Branch (b) Hand : Finger
(c) Table : Chair (d) Room : Floor
(a) Rice : Corn (b) Tomato : Potato
(c) Student : Class (d) Book : Library
(a) Shirt : Dress (b) Boy : Girl
(c) Mango : Fruit (d) Table : Furniture
(a) Class : Students (b) Sentence : Words
(c) Tree : Forest (d) Hour : Minutes
(a) Newspaper : Editor (b) Film : Director
(c) Stamps : Pholatelist (d) Book : Author
(a) Waist : Belt (b) Neck : Tie
(c) Wrist : Band (d) Shoe : Laces
(a) Cow : Fodder (b) Crow : Carrion
(c) Poultry : Farm (d) Vulture : Prey
(a) Oil : Lamp (b) Water : Tap
(c) Oxygen : Life (d) Power : Machine
(a) Shoe : Leather (b) Iron : Axe
(c) Table : Wood (d) Shirt : Fabric
(a) Ice cube : Cold (b) Iron : Hard
(c) Purse : Money (d) Marble : Smooth
(a) See : eye (b) Hear : ear
(c) Touch : skin (d) Tongue : taste
(a) Stale : fresh (b) Truth : lie
(c) Slow : sluggish (d) Teach : learn
(a) Gold : ornaments (b) Cloth : garments
(c) Wood : furniture (d) Earthern pots : clay
(a) Ruby (b) Sapphire
(c) Granite (d) Topaz
(a) Tempest (b) Hurricane
(c) Cyclone (d) Monsoon
(a) Green (b) Violet
(c) Red (d) Amber
(a) Mermaid (b) Sphinx
(c) Unicorn (d) Dinosaur
(a) Kiwi (b) Ostrich
(c) Eagle (d) Penguin
(a) King (b) Queen
(c) Knight (d) Minister
(a) Snore (b) Slumber
(c) Dream (d) Yawn
(a) Anger (b) Grief
(c) Humorous (d) Kindness
(a) Coat (b) Shirt
(c) Blouse (d) Trousers
(a) Nile (b) Amazon
(c) Congo (d) Niagara
291. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how can CANDLE be written in that code?
(a) DEQJQM (b) DCQHQK
(c) EDRIRL (d) ESJFME
292. In a certain code ADVENTURES is written as TRDESAUVEN. How is PRODUCED
written in that code ?
(a) IUIPGSSRNP (b) IUIPGSRSNR
(c) IUINGSSRRP (d) IRIPGSSNRR
293. If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING be written?
(a) NQPTJHOJ (b) NQPTJOHJ
(c) NQTPJOHJ (d) NQPTJOHI
294. If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded
as ZXCMP?
(a) AWDLQ (b) AYDNQ
(c) BZEOR (d) YYBNO
295. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in
that language?
(a) 25430 (b) 29530
(c) 25413 (d) 24153
296. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as
961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?
(a) 216473 (b) 246173
(c) 214673 (d) 214763
297. If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written
as OGUSSNC, then how will TOPICAL be written in that code?
(a) VMRJECN (b) VMRHAGJ
(c) VMRJACJ (d) VNRJABJ
298. If BE QUICK is coded as ZC OSGAI, then the code of the lat letter of the third word
in the sentence I LOVE MY COUNTRY is
(a) A (b) T
(c) Y (d) W
299. If ZEBRA can be written as 2652181, how can COBRA be written?
(a) 302181 (b) 3152181
(c) 31822151 (d) 1182153
300. If ‘eraser’ is called ‘box’, ‘box’ is called ‘pencil’, ‘pencil’ is called ‘sharpener’, and
‘sharpener’ is called ‘bag’, what will a child write with?
(a) Eraser (b) Bag
(c) Pencil (d) Sharpener
301. If TRANSFER is coded as RTNAFSRE, then ELEPHANT would be coded as
(a) LEPEHATN (b) LEPEAHTN
(c) LEEPAHTN (d) LEPEAHNT
302. In a certain code, PAINTER is written NCGPRGP, then REASON would be written
as
(a) PCYQMN (b) PGYQMN
(c) PGYUMP (d) PGYUPM
303. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE
written in the same code ?
(a) EOJDJEFM (b) EOJDEJFM
(c) MFEJDJOE (d) MFEDJJOE
304. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, how can SUCCESS be coded ?
(a) VXEEIVV (b) VXFFHVV
(c) VYEEHVV (d) VYEFIVV
305. In a certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code, PAROLE
will be written as
(a) NCPQJG (b) NCQPJG
(c) RCPQJK (d) RCTQNC
306. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code ?
(a) EDRIRL (b) DCQHQK
(c) ESJFME (d) FYOBOC
307. If in a certain language, COUNSEL is coded as BITIRAK, how is GUIDANCE
written in that code ?
(a) EOHYZKBB (b) FOHYZJBB
(c) FPHZZKAB (d) HOHYBJBA
308. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as
(a) NOIETCRID (b) RIDTCENOI
(c) IRDCTIONE (d) NORTECDII
309. In a certain code, SYSTEM is SYSMET and NEARER is AENRER. What is the code
for FRACTION?
(a) CARFNOIT (b) CARFTION
(c) FRACNOIT (d) ARFCNOIT
310. If FRAGRANCE is written as SBHSBODFG, how can IMPOSING be written?
(a) NQTPJOHJ (b) NQPTJHOJ
(c) NQPTJOHI (d) NQPTJOHJ
311. If in a certain language KINDLE is coded as ELDNIK, how is EXOTIC coded in
that code?
(a) EOXITC (b) EXOTLC
(c) CITOXE (d) COXITE
312. In a code, CORNER is written as GSVRIV. How can CENTRAL be written in that
code?
(a) DFOUSBM (b) GIRXVEP
(c) GNFJKER (d) GJRYVEP
313. If in a certain code, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT, how would DULLARD be
written in the same code?
(a) FWNNCSF (b) FWNNCTF
(c) FWMNCTF (d) FWNNBTE
314. In a certain code, PAPER is written as SCTGW. How is MOTHER written in that
code?
(a) ORVLGW (b) PQXJJT
(c) PQVJGT (d) PQXKJV
315. If in a certain language, NATURE is coded as MASUQE, how is FAMINE coded in
that code?
(a) FBMJND (b) GANIOE
(c) EALIME (d) FZMHND
316. If DIAMOND is coded as VQYMKLV, how is FEMALE coded?
(a) TVNYNV (b) UVNZOV
(c) TUMZOU (d) TUMYNU
317. In a certain code, SUBSTITUTION is written as ITSBUSNOITUT. How is
DISTRIBUTION written in that code?
(a) IRTDISNOIUTB (b) 1RTSIDNOIBUT
(c) IRTDISNOITUB (d) IRTSIDNOITUB
318. If in a code language, COULD is written as BNTKC and MARGIN is written as
LZQFHM, how will MOULDING be written in that code?
(a) NITKHCMF (b) CHMFINTK
(c) LNKTCHMF (d) LNTKCHMF
319. If in a certain language, GAMBLE is coded as FBLCKF, how is FLOWER coded in
that code?
(a) HNQYGT (b) GMPVDS
(c) GKPVFQ (d) EMNXDS
320. In a certain code, REFRIGERATOR is coded as ROTAREGIRFER. Which word
would be coded as NOITINUMMA?
(a) AMMUNITION (b) NMMUNITIOA
(c) ANMOMIUTNI (d) AMNTOMUIIN
321. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, which word would be
coded as GBNPVT?
(a) FASOUM (b) FAMSUO
(c) FOSAUM (d) FAMOUS
322. If LBAEHC is the code for BLEACH, then which of the following is coded
NBOLZKMH?
(a) BNLOKZHM (b) MANKYJLG
(c) LOBNHMKZ (d) OBNKZLHM
323. If in a certain language, MACHINE is coded as LBB1HOD, which word would be
coded as SLTMFNB?
(a) TMUNGOC (b) TMUNGMC
(c) TKULGMC (d) RMSNEOA
324. If ELCSUM is the code for MUSCLE, which word has the code LATIPAC?
(a) CAPRICE (b) CONFESS
(c) CONDUCE (d) CAPITAL
325. If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded
as ZXCMP?
(a) AYDNQ (b) AWDLQ
(c) BZEOR (d) YYBNO
326. If in a certain language, SHIFT is coded as RFFBO, which word would be coded as
LKUMB?
(a) MLVNC (b) KJTLA
(c) MJVLC (d) MMXQG
327. If in a certain language, REMOTE is coded as ROTEME, which word would be
coded as PNIICC?
(a) PICINC (b) PICCIN
(c) NPIICC (d) PICNIC
328. If in a certain code, SWITCH is written as TVJSDG, which word would be written
as CQFZE?
(a) BRAED (b) BRADE
(c) BRDAE (d) BREAD
329. If in a certain language, GRASP is coded as BMVNK, which word would be coded
as CRANE?
(a) FUDQH (b) HWFSJ
(c) GVERI (d) XMVIZ
330. If in a certain language, UTENSIL is coded as WVGPUKN, which word would be
coded as DMSFXG?
(a) BKQDWE (b) BKQDWF
(c) BKQDVF (d) BKQDVE
331. If banana is apple, apple is grapes, grapes is mango, mango is nuts, nuts is guava,
which of the following is a yellow fruit ?
(a) Mango (b) Guava
(c) Apple (d) Nuts
332. If cushion is called pillow, pillow is called mat, mat is called bedsheet and bedsheet
is called cover, which will be spread on the floor ?
(a) Cover (b) Bedsheet
(c) Mat (d) Pillow
333. If wall is called window, window is called door, door is called floor, floor is callled
roof and roof is callled ventilator, what will a person stand on ?
(a) Window (b) Wall
(c) Floor (d) Roof
334. If eraser is called box, box is called pencil, pencil is called sharpener and sharpener
is called bag, what will a child write with ?
(a) Eraser (b) Box
(c) Pencil (d) Sharpener
335. If clock is called television, television is called radio, radio is called oven, oven is
called grinder and grinder is called iron, in what will a lady bake ?
(a) Radio (b) Oven
(c) Grinder (d) Iron
336. If rat is called dog, dog is called mongoose, mangoose is called lion, lion is called
snake and snake is called elephant, which is reared as pet ?
(a) Rat (b) Dog
(c) Mongoose (d) Lion
337. If finger is called toe, toe is called foot, foot is called thumb, thumb is called ankle,
ankle is called palm and palm is called knee, which one finger has a different name
?
(a) Thumb (b) Ankle
(c) Knee (d) Palm
338. If orange is called butter, butter is called soap, soap is called ink, ink is called honey
and honey is called orange, Which of the following is used for washing clothes ?
(a) Honey (b) Butter
(c) Orange (d) Ink
339. If Eye is called Hand, Hand is called Mouth, Mouth is called Ear, Ear is called Nose
and Nose is called Tongue, with which of the following would a person hear ?
(a) Eye (b) Mouth
(c) Nose (d) Ear
340. If ‘paper’ is called ‘eraser’, eraser is called ‘bag’, ‘bag’ is called ‘scale’, scale is called
‘pencil’ and pencil is called ‘paper’, what will a person write with?
(a) Pencil (b) Scale
(c) Eraser (d) paper
341. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in
that code?
(a) CPNCBX (b) CPNCBZ
(c) CPOCBZ (d) CQOCBZ
342. In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in
that code?
(a) CHRONRD (b) DSOESPI
(c) ESJTPTF (d) ESOPSID
343. In certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT. In the same code PAROLE
will be written as
(c) RCPQJK (d) RCTQNG
344. In certain language, CHAMPION is coded as HCMAIPNO, how is NEGATIVE
coded in that code ?
(a) ENAGITEV (b) NEAGVEIT
(c) MGAETVIE (d) EGAITEVN
345. If in a certain code ,TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT, how would DULLARD be
written in the same code ?
(a) FWMNCTF (b) FWNNBTE
(c) FWNNCSF (d) FWNNCTF
346. In certain code, TOGETHER is written as RQEGRJCT .in the same code, PAROLE
will be written as
(c) RCPQJK (d) RCTQNG
347. In a code, CORNER is written as GSVRI. How can CENTRAL be written in that
code?
(a) DFOUSBM (b) GIRXVEP
(c) GJRYVEP (d) GNFJKER
348. If TRAIN IS CODED AS RPYGL, the code for SCOOTER would be
(a) QAMMRCP (b) QBNNRCP
(c) QAMMSBP (d) QBNNSBP
349. If SCIENCE is coded as UFJTJM, GENE will be coded as
(a) HGQI (b) IHRJ
(c) IHRI (d) IHSJ
350. If GOOD is written HQRH, how will you write DREAM ?
(a) ESPBN (b) ETHER
(c) ETHPQ (d) ESHDR
351. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only
son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Sister (b) Aunt
(c) Grandmother (d) Daughter
352. A told B,”The girl I met yesterday was the youngest daughter of the brother–in–law
of my friend’s mother.” How is the girl related to A’s friend?
(a) Niece (b) Cousin
(c) Friend (d) Daughter
353. A and B are young ones of C. If C is the father of A but B is not the son of C. How
are B and C related
(a) Niece and Uncle (b) Daughter and Father
(c) Niece and Uncle (d) Daughter and Mother
354.
(a) X is the sister of Z. (b) B has one daughter.
(c) Y is the son of A. (d) B is the mother of Z.
355. A man pointing to a photograph says. “The lady in the photograph is my nephew’s
maternal grandmother.” How is the lady in the photograph related to the man’s
sister who has no other sister?
(a) Mother–in–law (b) Cousin
(c) Sister–in–law (d) Mother
356. F is the brother of A, C is the daughter of A, K is the sister of F and G is the brother
of C then who is the uncle of G?
(a) C (b) A
(c) K (d) None of the above.
357. A woman walking with a boy meets another woman and on being asked about her
relationship with the boy, she says, “My maternal uncle and his maternal uncle’s
maternal uncle are brothers.” How is the boy related to the woman ?
(a) Husband (b) Brother-in-law
(c) Son (d) Grandson
358. Six members of a family ABCDE and F are travelling together. B is the son of C but
C is not the mother of B. A and C are married couple. E is the brother of C. D is
the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. How many male members are there in the
family ?
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
359. (I). A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family.
(II). One couple has parents and their children in the family.
(III). A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A.
(IV). D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.
Which of the following pairs is the parents of the couple ?
(a) CF (b) AB
(c) AF (d) BC
360. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man
related to the woman?
(a) Uncle (b) Grandson
(c) Cousin (d) Son
361. A told B that C is his father’s nephew. D is A’s cousin but not the brother of C. What
relationship is there between D and C ?
(a) Father (b) Sisters
(c) Aunt (d) Mother
362. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three
children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E
is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to
D and G is their child. Who is C ?
(a) E’s daughter (b) F’s father
(c) G’s brother (d) A’s son
363. Pointing towards a person, a man said to a woman, “His mother is the only daughter
of your father.” How is the woman related to that person?
(a) Sister (b) Daughter
(c) Mother (d) Wife
364. Pointing out to a girl a man said “My uncle is the uncle of this girl’s uncle”. How is
the man related to that girl ?
(a) Cousin (b) Brother
(c) Father in law (d) Father
365. In a family, there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple,
A being the male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the
sister of D. B is the daughter-in-law of F, whose huasband has died. How is E related
to C ?
(a) Nephew (b) Daughter
(c) Sister (d) Son-in-Law
366. If S is the brother of N, the sister of N is M, the brother of P is J and the daughter of
S is P then who is the uncle of J?
(a) J (b) S
(c) P (d) M
367. There are six persons A, B, C, D , E and F. C is the sister of F. B is the brother of
E’s husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. There are two fathers, three
brothers and a mother in the group. Who is the mother ?
(a) E (b) D
(c) B (d) A
368. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy
is girl’s
(a) Uncle (b) Nephew
(c) Brother (d) Son
369. A is the brother of B and K, D is the mother of B and E is the father of A. Which of
the following statement is not definitely true?
(a) A is the son of D (b) A is the father of K
(c) B is the brother of K (d) A is the son of E
brothers and a mother in the group. Who is E’s husband ?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) F
371. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s
father is my father’s son.” Whose photograph was it?
(a) His own (b) His nephew’s
(c) His father’s (d) His son’s
372. A is the mother of B and C. If D is the husband of C. What is A to D.
(a) Mother (b) Sister
(c) Aunt (d) Mother-in-law
brothers and a mother in the group. Which of the following is a group of brothers ?
(a) ABD (b) ABF
(c) BFC (d) BDF
374. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the lady
related to the man?
(a) Sister (b) Daughter
(c) Mother (d) Grand daughter
375. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. Q is the son of R but R is not
mother of Q. P and R are a married couple. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter
of P. Z is the brother of P. Who is the father of Q ?
(a) P (b) R
(c) X (d) Z
376. A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a club. There are two married couples in the
goup. A is the brother of D’s Husband. C is the president of Women’s Association.
F is a Sitar Player, and Bachelor. B’s wife is not a member of the Club. Four of them
belong to the same family. B and F are colleagues in the club. How is F related to B?
(a) Wife (b) Husband
(c) Father (d) It is not possible to determine.
377. If X is the brother of the son of Y’s son, how is X related to Y?
(a) Cousin (b) Son
(c) Grandson (d) Brother
378. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father.” How
is that man related to the woman?
(a) Father–in–law (b) Husband
(c) Maternal uncle (d) Brother
379. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, X, Y and Z. Q is the son of R but R is not
mother of Q. P and R are a married couple. Y is the brother of R. X is the daughter
of P. Z is the brother of P. How many children does P have ?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
380. A family consists of six members P, Q, R, S, T and U. There are two married couples.
Q is a doctor and the father of T. U is grandfather of R and is a contractor. S is
grandmother of T and is a housewife. There is one doctor, one contractor, one nurse,
one housewife and two students in the family. What is the profession of P ?
(a) Nurse (b) Doctor
(c) Contractor (d) Housewife
381. Doctor : Patient : : Politician : ?
(a) Voter (b) Chair
(c) Money (d) Public
382. Ignorance : Education : : Disease : ?
(a) Hospital (b) Doctor
(c) Medicine (d) Nurse
383. Man : Biography : : Nation : ?
(a) History (b) Geography
(c) People (d) Leader
384. Guilt : Past : : Hope : ?
(a) Present (b) Sorrow
(c) Past (d) Future
385. Telephone : Cable : : Radio : ?
(a) Microphone (b) Electricity
(c) Wire (d) Wireless
386. elbow: arm : : knee : _________
(a) walking (b) leg
(c) finger (d) nose
387. car: road : : train : ________
(a) track (b) fast
(c) vehicle (d) wheel
388. grains : sand : : drops : __________
(a) rain (b) surf
(c) snow (d) flood
389. wave: tide : : moment : ________
(a) time (b) tardiness
(c) ocean (d) clock
390. wife: woman : : _______ : man
(a) father (b) boy
(c) groom (d) husband
391. truthfulness: court : : cleanliness : _________
(a) virtue (b) bath
(c) restaurant (d) pig
392. egg: fish : : ________ : plant
(a) leaf (b) seed
(c) root (d) stem
393. lion: animal : : flower : ___________
(a) plant (b) roots
(c) grass (d) rose
394. wave: crest : : _________ : peak
(a) water (b) top
(c) moving (d) mountain
395. book : _______ : : comb : tooth
(a) title (b) page
(c) library (d) knowledge
396. boy: child : : man : ________
(a) father (b) uncle
(c) adult (d) person
397. grass: soil : : seaweed : ___________
(a) water (b) river
(c) salty (d) fish
398. Stone : Sculpture ::
(a) Mural : Painting (b) opera : stage
(c) canvas : easel (d) clay : pottery
399. Crumb : Bread ::
(a) Ounce : Unit (b) Splinter : Wood
(c) Water : Bucket (d) twine : rope
400. Cookbook : Recipes ::
(a) film : reviews (b) manual : instructions
(c) magazine : subscriptions (d) paperback : editions
401. Based on the following statements, which is the correct conclusion drawn.
Only gentlemen can become members of the club. Many of the members of the club
are officers. Some of the officers have been invited for dinner.
(a) All the members of the club have been invited for dinner
(b) Some of the officers are not gentlemen
(c) All gentlemen are members of the club
(d) Only gentlemen have been invited for dinner
402. Of the following two statements, both of which cannot be true, but both can also be
false. Which are these two statements ?
I. All machines make noise
II. Some machines are noisy
III. No machine makes noise
IV. Some machines are not noisy
(a) I & II (b) III & IV
(c) I & III (d) II & IV
403. Circle indicates ‘strong’, square indicates ‘tall’ and triangle ‘army officers’. The
strong army officers who are not tall are shown
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 6
404. There are eight poets, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in respect of whom questions
are being asked in the examination. The first four are ancient poets and the last
four are modern poets. The question on ancient and modern poets is being asked
in alternate years. Those who like H also like G, those who like D like C also. The
examiner who sets question is not likely to ask question on D because he has written
an article on him. But he likes D. Last year a question was asked on F. Considering
these facts, on whom the question is most likely to be asked this year ?
(a) B (b) C
(c) D (d) G
405. Which of the following figures best depicts the relationship among criminals,
thieves and judges ?
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
406. In a family there are husband wife, two sons and two daughters. All the ladies were
invited to a dinner. Both sons went out to play. Husband did not return from office.
Who was at home?
(a) Only wife was at home (b) All ladies were at home
(c) Only sons were at home (d) No body was at home
407. Artists are generally whimsical. Some of them are frustrated. Frustrated people
are prone to be drug addicts. Based on these statements which of the following
conclusions is true?
(a) All frustrated people are drug addicts (b) Some artists may be drug addicts
(c) All drug addicts are artists (d) Frustrated people are whimsical
408. If A is the son of Q, Q and Y are sisters, Z is the mother of Y, P is the son of Z, then
which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) P is the maternal uncle of A (b) P and Y are sisters
(c) A and P are cousins (d) None of the above
409. There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on a table. If A is placed below E, C
is placed above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the
following books touches the surface of the table ?
(a) C (b) B
(c) A (d) E
410. Three ladies X, Y and Z marry three men A, B and C. X is married to A, Y is not
married to an engineer, Z is not married to a doctor, C is not a doctor and A is a
lawyer. Then which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Y is married to C who is an engineer (b) Z is married to C who is a doctor
(c) X is married to a doctor (d) None of these
411. Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) : These questions are based on the figure given above in
which (1) Rectangle represents Males, (2) Circle represents the urbans (3) Square
represents the educated and (4) Triangle represents the civil servants.
The number indicating the uneducated urban males is
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 11
412. The number indicating the educated civil servants who are males but not urbans is
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10
413. The number indicating the educated urban males who are not civil servants is
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11
414. The number indicating the educated males who are urban civil servants is
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9
415. The number indicating the uneducated females who are urban civil servants is
(a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11
416. Directions (Qs. 6 - 10) : Each of the following questions contains two statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider the two
statements to be true, even if they seen to be at variance at the commonly known
facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions definitely follows from the
given statements.
Give answer ((a) if only I follows ; ((b)if only conclusion II follows ; ((c) if either I
or II follows; ((d) if neither I nor II follows and ((e) if both I and II follow
Statement : Some tables are glasses. All trees are tables.
Conclusions: I.Some trees are glasses
II. Some glasses are trees.
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
417. Statement : No man is a lion.
Somu is a man.
Conclusions: I. Somu is not a lion.
II. All men are not Somu.
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
418. Statement : All students are girls.
No girl is dull
Conclusions : I. There are no boys in the class
II. No student is dull
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
419. Statement : Many actors are singers.
All singers are dancers.
Conclusions: I. Some actors are dancers.
II. No singer is an actor.
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
420. Statement : Some files are ants.
All insects are ants.
Conclusions: I. All files are ants.
II. Some ants are insects.
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
421. There is some relationship between diagrams A & B. The same relationship persists
between C & D. Find the right diagrams for D from the alternatives.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
2)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
3)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
4)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
5)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
6)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
7)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
8)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
9)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
10)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
1) Directions for Q.No.1 to 10: Choose the figure which is different :
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
2)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
3)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
4)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
5)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
6)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
7)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
8)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
9)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
10)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
View Answer / Explanation

Answer / Explanation :
Answer : B.
________________________________________
2)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : B.
________________________________________
3)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : D.
________________________________________
4)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : D.
________________________________________
5)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : B.
________________________________________
6)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : A.
________________________________________
7)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : C.
________________________________________
8)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : D.
________________________________________
9)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : B.
________________________________________
10)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer : A.
1)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : A.
________________________________________
2)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : B.
________________________________________
3)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : B.
________________________________________
4)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : D.
________________________________________
5)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : A.
________________________________________
6)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer : C.
________________________________________
7)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : B.
________________________________________
8)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : D.
________________________________________
9)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : A.
________________________________________
10)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer : D.
1) Which figure will replace the question mark ?

(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
2) If BAD is written as YZW and SAME as HZNV, then LOVE will be coded as
(a) ROWN (b) OJUC
(c) OLEV (d) NOPL
3) Which figure will replace the question mark ?
(a) a (b) b
(c) c (d) d
4) Find the missing term of the following series :
DCXW, HGTS, ...... , POLK, TSHG
(a) KLOP (b) LKOP
(c) KLPO (d) LKPO

Answer : D.
________________________________________
5)
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Answer : C.
________________________________________
6)
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Answer : A.
________________________________________
7)
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Answer : B.
________________________________________
8)
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Answer : C.
________________________________________
9)
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Answer : D.
________________________________________
10)
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Answer : A..
1) B, D, G, I, L, ?
(a) M (b) N
(c) O (d) P
2) A, E, I, O, ?
(a) T
(b) P
(c) G
(d) U
3) A, C, F, ?, O
(a) K (b) H
(c) J (d) I
4) CBA, WVU, IHG, TSR, ?
(a) NOM (b) MON
(c) ONM (d) NMO
5) HI, Jl, KL, ML, NO, ? ?
(a) PO (b) PQ
(c) OP (d) QO
6) DC, DE, FE, ??, HG, HI
(a) DE (b) ED
(c) FG (d) GF
7) A, E, I, M, Q, U, ?
(a) Z (b) Y
(c) J (d) T
8) If SYSTEM is written as SYSMET and NEARER is written as AENRER, then
FRACTION will be coded as
(a) Carfnoit (b) Carftion
(c) Noitfrac (d) Fracnoit
9) Which is the odd man out ?
(a) POKI (b) MIEA
(c) SOKG (d) YUQM
10) The words in the first column are written in a secret code in the second column.
However, the secret writings in the second column are not in the same order. What is the
code assigned for the letter D ?
BRAIN 13529
DRAIN 35293
RIVER 13754
DRIVE 83754
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 1 (d) 9
Answers
1. (c) First letter moves 6 steps forward. 15. (a) Divide the series into groups of
Second letter moves 6 steps backward. three letters each. In each group, the second
2. (c) The first letter moves 2, 3, 4 ... steps letter is 3 steps ahead of the first letter; the
forward. The second letter moves 2, 3, 4 ... third letter is 2 steps ahead of the first letter.
steps backward. 16. (b) The sequence is a combination of
3. (d) The first letter moves one step two series with the alternate letters. In the
forward. The second letter moves one step first series (M, O, R, V), the letters move 2,
backward. 3, 4, ... steps forward. In the second series
4. (d) The first letters are alternate. The (N, L, I), the letters move 2, 3, 4, ... steps
second letter of moves one step backward backward.
to obtain the second letter of the successive 17. (c) The sequence consists of two series
term. The third letter moves two steps (Y, T, O) and (B, G, ?). The first series
backward to obtain the third letter of the consists of 2nd, 7th and 12th letters from
subsequent term. the end of English alphabet. The second
5. (d) The lettersmove four steps series consists of 2nd, 7th and 12th letters
backward to obtain the letters of the next from the beginning of English alphabet.
term 18. (d) Each term consists of two alternate
6. (a) The letters move five steps forward. letters. There is a gap of two letters between
7. (a) The first, second and third the last letter of each term and the first
letters move three steps forward, four letter of the next term.
steps backward and two steps forward 19. (c) Each term consists of two alternate
respectively. letters. The last letter of each term and the
8. (c) Each term consists of three first letter of the next term are alternate.
consecutive letters in reverse order. The 20. (c) The first letter moves 1, 2, 3, ...
first letter and the last letter of the next steps forward. The second letter moves 2, 3,
term are the same. 4, ... steps forward.
9. (d) The first letter moves 2, 3, 4 ... steps 21. (d) The first, second and third letters
forward. The second letter moves 3, 4, 5 ... are in alphabetical order.
steps forward. 22. (c) The series consists of 2 groups (A,
10. (c) The letters move four steps B, C, D, E, F, ?, ?) and (N, O, P, ?). The series
forward. is made of two terms of first group followed
11. (a) The first letter moves 3 steps by one term of second group.
forward. The second and third letters move 23. (a) The letters move 3, 4, 3, 4, ... steps
2 steps forward. backward.
12. (a) The letters move 5 steps forward. 24. (d) The letters move 8, 7, 6, 5... steps
13. (b) The letters move 2 steps backward. forward.
14. (b) The letters move 3 steps forward. 25. (b) There is a gap of four letters
between the first and second, the seccond backward.
and third letters of each term, and also 40. (b) The first letter moves one step
between the last letter of a term and the backward. The second letter moves one step
first letter of the next term. forward. The third letter moves one step
26. (a) Both the first and second letetrs are backward.
in alphabetical order. 41. (c) The letters move 2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, ...
27. (d) The alphabets are in the reverse steps forward.
order with a gap of one letter. 42. (d) The first letter moves two steps
28. (a) The first letter moves 1 step forward. The second letter moves 2 steps
forward. The letters are in in alphabetical forward. The third letter moves one step
order. backward.
29. (a) The letters move 7 steps forward. 43. (a) The first letter moves three steps
30. (c) Consonants, which are in forward. The second letter moves two steps
increasing alphabetical order, are placed in forward. The third letter moves three steps
between vowels. forward.
31. (d) The first letters move 1, 2, 3, 4, ... 44. (b) The series consists of two groups
steps forward. The second letters move 3, (M, O, R, V) and (N, L, I, ?). The letters
4, 5, 6, ... steps forward. The last letters are in the first group move 2, 3, 4, ... steps
alternate. forward. The letters in the second group
32. (c) The letters in each term are in move 2, 3, 4, ... steps backward.
alphabetical order. The number of letters in 45. (d) The first letter repeats once and
each term increases by 1. The gap between subsequently moves one step forward. The
the last letter and the first letter of next item second letter moves one step forward. The
increases by 1. third letter moves one step backward.
33. (a) The letters move 4 steps forward. 46. (a) The letters are in alphabetical order.
34. (b) The first letters are in alphabetical The gap between the last letter and the first
order. The second letter moves 1, 2, 3, ... letter of the next term keeps increasing in 1,
steps forward. The third letter moves 3 2, 3, ... steps.
steps backward. 47. (d) The letters move 5, 4, 3, ... steps
35. (c) backward.
36. (???) 48. (c) The first letter moves two steps
37. (a) The first letter moves one step forward. The second letter moves 4 steps
forward. The second letter moves four steps backward. The third letter moves one step
backward. The third letter moves four steps forward.
forward. 49. (c) Each term consists of consecutive
38. (c) At each step, 1, 2, 3, ... letters are letters slightly jumbled up. There is a gap of
removed from the beginning and the end three letters between the first letter and the
alternatively. last letter of the next term.
39. (d) The first letter moves two steps 50. (b) There is a gap of four letters
forward. The second letter moves 9 steps between the first and second, the second
forward. The third letter moves 2 steps and third letters. There is a gap of four
letters between the last letter and the first forward. The last letter moves one steps
letter of the next term. backward. The number series runs as
51. (c) The letters are in alphabetical order. follows :
The numbers increase by two. 1x1+1=2
52. (d) The first letter moves two steps 2x2+2=6
forward. The last letter moves one step 6 x 3 + 3 = 21
backward. The number series runs as 21 x 4 + 4 = 88.
below: 61. (c) The series is bac/bac/bac/bac/bac/
1x1+1=2 bac. The pattern bac is repeated.
2x2+2=6 62. (c) The series is man/man/man/man/
6 x 3 + 3 = 21 man. The pattern ‘man’ is repeated.
21 x 4 + 4 = 88. 63. (b) The series is
53. (b) The first numbers increase by 5, 7, adbcacbdabcddcbadbcacbda.
9, 11.... The letters move one step backward. 64. (a) The series is bcaa/bcaa/bcaa/bcaa.
The last numbers are consecutive odd The pattern ‘bcaa’ is repeated.
numbers. 65. (d) The series is abb/abb/abb/abb. The
54. (c) The first letters of the terms are pattern ‘abb’ is repeated.
alternate. The sequence followed by the 66. (c) The series is nnmm/nnmn/nnmm/
numbers is +2, +3, +4,.... The last letter of nnmm. The pattern ‘nnmm’ is repeated.
is three steps ahead of the last letter of the 67.
preceding term. 68. (a) The series is abc/cab/bca/abc. The
55. (d) The first letters in odd numbered letters are in cyclic order
terms from series J, I, H and in even 69. (b) The series is ccc bbb aaa/ccc bbb
numbered terms from the series K, L, M. aaa/c. The pattern ccc bbb aaa is repeated.
The sequence followed by the numbers is + 70. (a)The series is abadna/abadna/
2, + 3, + 4, + 5, + 6. The third letter moves abadna/ab. The pattern ‘abadna’ is repeated.
two steps backward Analogy - Reasoning Test : | Verbal
56. (c) The letters move 1, 2, 3, ... steps Reasoning questions
forward. The numbers increase by + 3, + 5, 71. (c) As magnet has poles similarly
+ 7, + 9.... battery has terminals.
57. (c) The letters are alternate and the 72. (b) As opposite meaning of peace
numbers indicate their position in the is chaos similarly opposite meaning of
alphabet from the beginning. creation is destruction.
58. (c) The letters are alternate and the 73. (d) As ‘Architect’ makes ‘Building’
numbers indicate their position in the similarly ‘Sculptor’ makes ‘Statue’.
alphabet from the beginning. 74. (a) Second is the feminine gender of
59. (d) The first numbers in the terms the first
follow the sequence x 2, x 3, x 4. The 75. (c) The game of cricket is played on
letter moves three steps forward. The last a pitch similarly, the game of boxing is
numbers follow the sequence + 2, + 4, + 6. performed in a ring.
60. (c) The first letter moves two steps 76. (b) If oceans were deserts, waves would
be sand dunes. 143. (d) 144. (a)
77. (d) Second is a collection of the first. 145. (b) 146. (a)
78. (c) Cube comprises Square on all of its 147. (c) 148. (a)
surfaces. In the same way square comprises 149. (b) 150. (d)
Line on all of its sides. 151. (d) 152. (b)
79. (b) Bank deals with transaction of 153. (d) 154. (b)
Money. Likewise Transport deals with the 155. (b) 156. (b)
movement of Goods. 157. (d) 158. (a)
80. (c) Wings are the parts of Fan. 159. (c) 160. (a)
Likewise Spokes are the parts of Wheel. 161. (b) 162. (a)
81. (a) 82. (a) 163. (b) 164. (d)
83. (a) 84. (c) 165. (c) 166. (b)
85. (d) 86. (c) 167. (c) 168. (b)
87. (d) 88. (c) 169. (d) 170. (b)
89. (b) 90. (c) 171. (b) 172. (a)
91. (d) 92. (a) 173. (d) 174. (a)
93. (a) 94. (a) 175. (c) 176. (a)
95. (a) 96. (c) 177. (c) 178. (b)
97. (c) 98. (d) 179. (c) 180. (a)
99. (b) 100. (a) 181. (c) 182. (a)
101. (d) 102. (d) 183. (b) 184. (d)
103. (a) 104. (a) 185. (d) 186. (a)
105. (d) 106. (c) 187. (c) 188. (a)
107. (a) 108. (c) 189. (b) 190. (c)
109. (b) 110. (d) 191. (c) 192. (c)
111. (d) 112. (b) 193. (d) 194. (d)
113. (c) 114. (d) 195. (c) 196. (b)
115. (b) 116. (c) 197. (b) 198. (b)
117. (c) 118. (b) 199. (d) 200. (d)
119. (a) 120. (d) 201. (c) 202. (d)
121. (c) 122. (c) 203. (b) 204. (d)
123. (d) 124. (b) 205. (c) 206. (d)
125. (c) 126. (d) 207. (c) 208. (d)
127. (b) 128. (a) 209. (c) 210. (d)
129. (b) 130. (a) 211. (c) Cruise = a sea voyage for pleasure.
131. (b) 132. (c) All other words are related to ‘journey on
133. (c) 134. (a) land, sea with an aim’.
135. (b) 136. (c) 212. (b) Renovate = to make new again. All
137. (d) 138. (c) other words are synonyms.
139. (d) 140. (b) 213. (a) All except Vapour are different
141. (d) 142. (d) forms of Precipitation.
214. (d) In all other pairs, second is a part 279. (c) 280. (d)
of the first. 281. (c) 282. (d)
215. (c) All except Chilli are modified 283. (c) 284. (d)
stems. 285. (c) 286. (d)
216. (a) All except Mango have more than 287. (d) 288. (c)
one seed. 289. (d) 290. (d)
217. (d) All except parrot are birds of prey. 291. (c) In the code, the first letter is the
218. (b) All except deposit, indicate second alphabet, the second letter is the
reduction. third alphabet, the third letter is the fourth
219. (b) All the others are round objects. alphabet and so on after the corresponding
220. (b) All except roof are dwelling places letter in the word.
of different animals. 292. (a) The first and sixth, third and
221. (d) 222. (a) eighth, fifth and tenth letters of the word
223. (b) 224. (b) interchange places in the code.
225. (d) 226. (d) 293. (b) Each letter in the word is moved
227. (c) 228. (d) one step forward and the first letter of the
229. (c) 230. (b) group. so obtained is put at the end, to
231. (b) 232. (c) obtain the code.
233. (b) 234. (c) 294. (b) Each letter of the word is one step
235. (d) 236. (b) ahead of the corresponding letter of the
237. (b) 238. (b) code.
239. (b) 240. (c) 295. (d) The letters are coded accordingly
241. (c) 242. (b) P as 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5 and L as 3. So
243. (b) 244. (b) PEARL is coded as 24153.
245. (d) 246. (d) 296. (c) The letters are coded accordingly S
247. (a) 248. (a) as 2, E as 1, A as 4, R as 6, C as 7 and H as 3.
249. (c) 250. (b) i.e., 214673
251. (b) 252. (b) 297. (c) The first, third and sixth letters
253. (c) 254. (d) of the word are each moved two steps
255. (d) 256. (d) forward, the second, fifth and seventh
257. (d) 258. (d) letters are each are moved two steps
259. (c) 260. (a) backward, while the fourth letter is moved
261. (b) 262. (b) one step forward.
263. (b) 264. (a) 298. (d) Each letter in the given message is
265. (d) 266. (c) moved two steps backward.
267. (d) 268. (c) 299. (b) Take A=1, B=2, C=3, ..., Z=26.
269. (b) 270. (b) ZEBRA --> Z/E/B/R/A --> 26/5/2/18/1 -->
271. (c) 272. (c) 2652181.
273. (d) 274. (c) COBRA --> C/O/B/R/A --> 3/15/2/18/1
275. (b) 276. (b) --> 3152181.
277. (c) 278. (d) 300. (d) A child will write with a ‘pencil’,
and pencil is called ‘sharpener’. So, a child 356. (b) C & J are childern of A and F is the
will write with a ‘sharpener’. brother of A. So, F is uncle of C & J.
301. (b) 302. (c) 357. (c) Boy’s maternal uncle will be
303. (a) 304. (b) brother of boy’s mother. Maternal uncle
305. (a) 306. (a) of mother’s brother and maternal uncle
307. (b) 308. (b) of lady are brother means lady is sister of
309. (a) 310. (d) mother’s brother i.e., lady is the mother of
311. (c) 312. (b) the boy. So, the boy is woman’s son.
313. (b) 314. (b) 358. (a) E (Brother) C (Husband) A (Wife)
315. (c) 316. (d) F and B (Sons) D (Daughter)
317. (d) 318. (d) A is the wife of C and their daughter is
319. (d) 320. (a) D. The ramaining members are male
321. (d) 322. (a) members.
323. (c) 324. (d) 359. (d) E is the daughter of A and F is the
325. (a) 326. (d) mother of E.
327. (d) 328. (d) So, A is the father of E and hence the
329. (b) 330. (d) husband of F.
331. (d) 332. (b) Now, D is the daughter of F. So, D and E are
333. (d) 334. (d) the daughters of A and F.
335. (c) 336. (c) Also, A is the son of C. Now, only B
337. (b) 338. (d) remains. Thus, B and C are the parents of
339. (c) 340. (c) A.
341. (b) 342. (a) Hence, B and C are the parents of the
343. (a) 344. (a) couple.
345. (d) 346. (a) 360. (c) Brother of mother– Uncle;
347. (b) 348. (a) Uncle’s son – Cousin.
349. (b) 350. (b) 361. (b) A has two cousins C and D.
351. (a) Only son of woman’s grandfather – Since C is male, D must be female.
Woman’s father; And, both are the nephew and niece of A’s
Man’s brother father – Man’s father. father.
So, the woman is man’s sister. 362. (d) E is married to A or D. But B is
352. (b) married to D.
353. (b) C has two children A and B, if A is Thus, E is married to A. Thus, A, B, D, E
his son, B must be his daughter. are the four adults and C, F, G are the three
354. (c) A is the father of X and Y is the children in the family.
sister of X. So, Y is the daughter of A. B and D have a child G.
355. (d) The lady is the grandmother of A and E have two children. They are C and
man’s sister’s son F.
i.e., the mother of the mother of man’s Now, only F and G are girls. So, C is a boy.
sister’s son. Thus, C is A’s or E’s son.
i.e., the mother of man’s sister. 363. (c) The only daughter of woman’s
father is herself. A.
So, the person is woman’s son. Since there is only one mother, it is evident
i.e., the woman is the person’s mother. that E is the wife of A and hence the
364. (d) The man’s uncle and the uncle of mother of C and C and F.
girls uncle is the same person. So, B is brother of A. There are three
So he may be the father or uncle of the girl. brothers.
365. (b) A is a male and married to B. So, F is the brother of C.
So, A is the husband and B is the wife. Hence, A is E’s husband.
C is the brother of A. D is the son of C. 371. (d) Since the narrator has no brother,
E, who is the sister of D will be the his father’s son is he himself.
daughter of C. So, the man who is talking is the father of
B is the daughter-in-law of F whose the man in the photograph.
husband has died means F is the mother of Thus, the man in the photograph is his son.
A. 372. (d) A is the mother of C and C is the
Hence, E is the daughter of C. wife of D.
366. (c) As J and P are real brothers and So, A is the mother-in-law of D, or D is the
their father is S whose brother is N, so N is son-in-law of A.
the uncle of J and P. 373. (b) D is father of A and grandfather of
367. (a) D is father of A and grandfather of F. So, A is father of F.
F. Thus, D and A are the two fathers.
So, A is father of F. Thus, D and A are the C is the sister of F. So, C is the daughter of
two fathers. A.
C is the sister of F. So, C is the daughter of Since there is only one mother, it is evident
A. that E is the wife of A and hence the
Since there is only one mother, it is evident mother of C and C and F.
that E is the wife of A and hence the So, B is brother of A.
mother of C and C and F. There are three brothers. So, F is the
So, B is brother of A. There are three brother of C.
brothers. So, F is the brother of C. Hence, B and A are brothers.
Hence, E is the mother. F is the brother of C. So, three brothers are
368. (c) Daughter of uncle’s father – Uncle’s A, B, F.
sister – Mother; 374. (a) Lady’s mother husband – Lady’s
Mother’s son – Brother. father;
369. (b) A, B and K are brothers and Lady’s father’s sister – Lady’s aunt.
sisters.E and D may be husband and wife. So, lady’s aunt is man’s aunt and therefore
So, A is the son of E and D both. lady is man’s sister.
370. (a) D is father of A and grandfather of 375. (b) Q is the son of R but R is not the
F. mother. So, R is the father of Q.
So, A is father of F. P is married to R. So, P is the wife of R and
Thus, D and A are the two fathers. the mother of Q.
C is the sister of F. So, C is the daughter of X is the daughter of P and hence of R and
so, she is the sister of Q. 393. (a) 394. (d)
Y is the brother of R and Z is the brother 395. (b) 396. (c)
of P. 397. (a) 398. (d)
R is the father of Q. 399. (b) 400. (b)
376. (d) According to the data there are 401. (c) 402. (c)
two female members D and C of the club 403. (a) 404. (d)
and data is not sufficient regarding B and F. 405. (b) 406. (d)
377. (c) Son of Y’s son – Grandson; 407. (b) 408. (a)
Brother of Y’s grandson – Y’s grandson. 409. (b) 410. (d)
So X is Y’s grandson. 411. (b) 412. (d)
378. (b) Only daughter of my father – 413. (b) 414. (c)
Myself. 415. (d) 416. (d)
So, the man is woman’s husband. 417. (a) 418. (e)
379. (b) Q is the son of R but R is not the 419. (a)
mother. 420. (b) Non-verbal Reasoning questions
So, R is the father of Q. 421. (d) 422. (a)
P is married to R. So, P is the wife of R and 423. (c) 424. (b)
the mother of Q. 425. (c) 426. (a)
X is the daughter of P and hence of R and 427. (d) 428. (a)
so she is the sister of Q. 429. (c) 430. (c)
Y is the brother of R and Z is the brother 431. (d) 432. (c)
of P. 433. (b) 434. (d)
Hence, Q is the son of P and X is the 435. (b) 436. (d)
daughter of P. 437. (a) 438. (c)
So, P has two children. 439. (c) 440. (a)
380. (a) Q, the Doctor, is the father of T. 441. (b) 442. (b)
S, the Housewife, is the grandmother of T 443. (d) 444. (d)
and hence the mother of Q. 445. (b) 446. (a)
Since there are only two married couples 447. (c) 448. (d)
one being that of Q, the grandfather of R 449. (b) 450. (a)
i.e., U must be married to S. 451. (a) 452. (b)
Thus, R and T will be both children of Q 453. (b) 454. (d)
and these must be the students. 455. (a) 456. (c)
So, P, who remains, shall be the wife of Q 457. (b) 458. (d)
and she alone can be the nurse. 459. (a) 460. (d)
381. (a) 382. (c) 461. (b) 462. (c)
383. (a) 384. (d) 463. (c) 464. (d)
385. (d) 386. (b) 465. (c) 466. (a)
387. (a) 388. (a) 467. (b) 468. (c)
389. (d) 390. (d) 469. (d) 470. (a)
391. (c) 392. (b) 471. (b) 472. (d)
473. (c) 474. (c)
475. (a) 476. (c)
477. (b) 478. (a)
479. (a) 480. (c)
3 Arithmetic Aptitude/Numerical Reasoning Tests

The numerical reasoning, also known as arithmetical aptitude / reasoning or quantitative
reasoning, is one’s ability to reason with numbers and important mathematical concepts.
A person with a higher numerical reasoning ability is better equipped to work in positions
that require number sense. So, it is not a surprise that the numerical reasoning questions
commonly appear in any placement tests, competitive exams or entrance exams.
In the exams, you may encounter challenging numerical reasoning questions. Such
challenging numerical reasoning questions require problem-sloving heuristics in addition
to the four basic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication and division). Below are
the 11 useful heuristics you can adopt to solve difficult questions.
1. Use Diagrams / Models
2. Act it Out
3. Use Before & After
4. Use Systematic Listing
5. Look for Patterns
6. Work Backwards
7. Use Guess & Check
8. Simplify the Problem
9. Make Supposition
10. Solve Part of the Problem
11. Paraphrase the Problem
Here are the most frequently asked arithmetic aptitude / numerical reasoning questions
for your practice for CSS exams, PSC exams, entrance exams, bank exams, or any other
competitive exams and job placement interviews. To help the students preparing for
competitive exams and placement tests.

1. If 30% of a number is 12.6, find the number?
(a) 45 (b) 38
(c) 40 (d) 42
2. What number must be added to 6, 16 and 8 to get an average of 13?
(a) 22 (b) 25
(c) 20 (d) 18
3. What is the ratio of 12 minute to 1 hour ?
(a) 2/3 (b) 3/4
(c) 1/5 (d) 1/4
4. 10 cats caught 10 rats in 10 seconds. How many cats are required to catch 100 rats
in 100 seconds
(a) 100 (b) 10
(c) 20 (d) 50
5. A man wants to reach a window which is 40 feet above the ground. The distance
from the foot of the ladder to the wall is 9 feet. How long should the ladder be ?
(a) 9 feet (b) 81 feet
(c) 41 feet (d) 49 feet
6. There are eight mango trees in a straight line. The distance between each mango
tree with other is 3 metres. What is the distance between first tree and eighth tree?
(a) 24 m (b) 27 m
(c) 30 m (d) 21 m
7. 4 men & 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can
complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
(a) 35 days (b) 40 days
(c) 30 days (d) 25 days
8. A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th from left. How many students are there
in total?
(a) 18 (b) 19
(c) 20 (d) 21
9. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the
area it can graze?
(a) 155 sq.m (b) 19.25 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m (d) 38.5 sq.m
10. A father is 30 years older than his son. He will be three times as old as his son after
5 years. What is the father’s present age?
(a) 35 (b) 45
(c) 40 (d) 30
11. Find the next term in the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ...
(a) 81 (b) 69
(c) 108 (d) 72
12. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 34 sq.cm (b) 36 sq.cm
(c) 24 sq.cm (d) 48 sq.cm
13. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back
to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3.5 km/hr (b) 3 km/hr
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 5.5 km/hr
14. In a class of 100 students, 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in
English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students
passed in both the subjects?
(a) 50 (b) 40
(c) 35 (d) 25
15. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length
and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is
(a) 11,500 m2 (b) 12,500 m2
(c) 13,500 m2 (d) 14,500 m2
16. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last
if 80 more children join them?
17. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after
every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will
be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minutes (b) 25 minutes
(c) 15 minutes (d) 10 minutes
18. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5%
(c) 15% (d) 16%
19. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them
to gain 20%?
(a) Rs.240 (b) Rs.204
(c) Rs.250 (d) Rs.232
20. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I.
But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark
for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 150
(c) 180 (d) 200
21. A can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. B can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working
together, how many pages can they type in 30 minutes?
(a) 15 (b) 25
(c) 65 (d) 75
22. A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 7:5.When 9 litres of
mixture are drawn off and the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9.
How many litres of liquid A was contained by the can initially?
(a) 21 (b) 19
(c) 18 (d) 17
23. Two trains of equal lengths take 10 seconds and 15 seconds respectively to cross a
telegraph post. If the length of each train be 120 metres, in what time will they cross
each other travelling in opposite direction?
(a) 9 s (b) 10 s
(c) 11 s (d) 12 s
24. When you reverse the digits of age of father, you will get the age of son. one year ago
the age of father was twice that of son’s age. what are the current ages of father and
son?
(a) 73 and 37 (b) 45 and 54
(c) 31 and 13 (d) 24 and 42
25. A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr.
The average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is
(a) 71.11 km/hr (b) 36 Km/hr
(c) 71 Km/hr (d) 36.33 Km/hr
26. What is the sum of two consecutive even numbers, the difference of whose squares
is 84?
(a) 32 (b) 34
(c) 38 (d) 42
27. Pipe A can fill a tank in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the
same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank?
(a) 15 1/7 minutes (b) 12 1/7 minutes
(c) 17 1/7 minutes (d) 10 1/7 minutes
28. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B
and C be 27, the how old is B?
(a) 9 (b) 10
(c) 11 (d) 12
29. Q is as much younger than R as he is older than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T
is 50 years, what is the difference between R and Q’s age?
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years
(c) 25 years (d) Data insufficient
30. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 kms
in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is
(a) 87.5 km/hr (b) 86.5 km/hr
(c) 85.5 km/hr (d) 84.5 km/hr
31. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and
third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest
number?
(a) 52 (b) 65
(c) 67 (d) 72
32. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by
reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the
original number?
(a) 93 (b) 28
(c) 48 (d) 39
33. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused
and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be
the percentage profit?
(a) 13 (b) 15
(c) 17 (d) 22
34. What is the next term in the series :
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(a) 160 (b) 140
(c) 153 (d) 190
35. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the
field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the
rectangle?
(a) 47m (b) 39m
(c) 52m (d) 40m
36. If the fractions 8/5, 7/2, 9/5, 5/4, 4/5 are arranged in descending order of their
values, which one will be fourth?
(a) 9/5 (b) 4/5
(c) 5/4 (d) 8/5
37. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes
respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom which can empty a filled tank
in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much time will both the taps take
to fill the tank (leakage is still there) ?
(a) 10 minutes (b) 5 minutes
(c) 7 minutes (d) 8 minutes
38. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(a) Rs. 690 (b) Rs. 580
(c) Rs. 670 (d) Rs. 570
39. A started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, B joined him with a
capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, C joined them with a capital of Rs.
90,000. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is A’s share of
profit ?
(a) Rs. 5,500 (b) Rs. 6,500
(c) Rs. 6,900 (d) Rs. 5,900
40. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(a) 40.2 cm (b) 28.9 cm
(c) 29.2 cm (d) 30.8 cm
41. A two digit number is three times the sum of its digits. If 45 is added to it, the digits
are reversed. The number is
(a) 23 (b) 32
(c) 27 (d) 72
42. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. If C joins them today, the
average becomes 22 years. How old is C now?
(a) 27 (b) 24
(c) 30 (d) 28
43. A square garden has fourteen posts along each side at equal interval. Find how
many posts are there in all four sides.
(a) 56 (b) 44
(c) 52 (d) 60
44. The ratio of daily wages of two workers is 4 : 3 and one gets daily Rs 9 more than the
other, what are their daily wages?
(a) Rs 80 and Rs 60 (b) Rs 60 and Rs 45
(c) Rs 36 and Rs 27 (d) Rs 32 and Rs 24
45. Find the ratio of purchase price and sell price if there is loss of 12 1/2 %.
(a) 7 : 8 (b) 8 : 7
(c) 2 : 25 (d) 25 : 2
46. A hawker purchased oranges at the rate of 4 oranges per rupee, but he sells at the
rate of 5 oranges per rupee. His loss is:
(a) 25% (b) 50%
(c) 15% (d) 20%
47. Two identical bottles A and B of sweet drinks contain sugar such that 30% of sugar
in A is equal to 40% sugar in B. The ratio of sugar in the two bottles is
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 4
(c) 12 : 1 (d) 1 : 12
48. If A : B = 3 : 4, C : B = 5 : 4, C : D = 10 : 9, then A : B : C : D is
(a) 8 : 6 : 9 : 10 (b) 8 : 6 : 10 : 9
(c) 6 : 8 : 10 : 9 (d) 6 : 8 : 9 : 10
49. 42 oranges are distributed among some boys and girls. If each boy gets 3, then each
girl gets 6. But if each boy gets 6 and each girl gets 3, it needs 6 more. The number
of girls is
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 6 (d) 4
50. The sum of the present age of the father and his daughter is 42 years. 7 years later,
the father will be 3 times old than the daughter. The present age of the father is
(a) 32 (b) 28
(c) 35 (d) 33
51. How many gold coins are there in a jar of 88 coins, if there are 1/3 as many silver
coins as gold coins?
(a) 22 (b) 33
(c) 44 (d) 66
52. Find the missing numbers and letters in the following series:
C 81 E 64 ? 49 I ? K
(a) G,36 (b) F,36
(c) G,32 (d) H,24
53. Find the missing number in the following series:
5184 1728 576 192 ?
(a) 32 (b) 44
(c) 64 (d) 120
54. In a jar of lollies there are 6 more orange lollies than green ones and there is only
one red lolly. If there are 47 lollies in the jar, how many orange ones are there?
(a) 20 (b) 26
(c) 40 (d) 46
55. In an examination, a studnet was asked to find 3/14 of a certain number. By mistake,
he found 3/4 of it. His answer was 150 more than the correct answer. Find the given
number.
(a) 190 (b) 250
(c) 280 (d) 350
56. Grandma`s cookie mixture has eight parts flour and six parts sugar. If Grandma
needs to make 28 kilograms of the cookie mixture for a party, how many kilograms
of flour will she need?
(a) 7 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 16
57. The Olympic record time for running the endurance event was 4 hours and 40
minutes. Rahul recently broke that record, running a time of 3 hours and 20
minutes. What fraction of the original record time was Rahul’s time?
(a) 5/9 (b) 5/7
(c) 6/9 (d) 6/7
6 120 12 108 24 ? 48 84
(a) 60 (b) 74
(c) 96 (d) 108
59. A motorbike race was scheduled to start at 4.10pm; however, it started 10 minutes
behind schedule. If the motorbike that came first finished one hour and fifteen
minutes after the race began, and the motorbike that came in second place finished
15 minutes after this, at what time did the motorbike that came second cross the
finish line?
(a) 5:30am (b) 4:30pm
(c) 5:40pm (d) 5:50pm
89 75 63 53 45 ?
(a) 35 (b) 37
(c) 39 (d) 43
61. 240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2
(a) 240 (b) 120
(c) 180 (d) 200
62. 0.5, 1, 2.5, 5, ?
(a) 7.5 (b) 6.5
(c) 8.5 (d) 9.5
63. 4, 7, 3, 6, 2, 5, ?
(a) 8 (b) 1
(c) 4 (d) 3
64. 1, 5, 8, 10, 11, ?
(a) 3 (b) 14
(c) 12 (d) 11
65. 6, 30, 120, 360, 720 ?
(a) 5 (b) 8
(c) 1 (d) 3
66. 1, 3, 1, 9, 1, 81, 1 ?
(a) 4 (b) 1
(c) 243 (d) 6561
67. 10, 12, 11; 14, 16, 15; ?; 22, 24, 23
(a) 18, 20, 19 (b) 18, 19, 20
(c) 17, 19, 18 (d) 21, 23, 24
68. 2, 4, 8, 32, ?, 8192
(a) 256 (b) 128
(c) 64 (d) 32
69. Which number will continue the following series ?
27, 25, 25, 22, 23, 19, 21, 16, 19, —
(a) 16 (b) 13
(c) 10 (d) 11
70. Which number will continue the following series ?
3, 8, 15, 24, 35, 48, 63, 80, —
(a) 92 (b) 99
(c) 91 (d) 87
71. How many cubes are there in the figure ?
(a) 9 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 10
72. What number will come next in the following series ?
5, 8, 9, 14, 16, 23, 26
(a) 29 (b) 33
(c) 35 (d) 39
73. The two figures show the expenditure on various items by families A and B. Which
of the following conclusion is not correct ?
(a) A spends more on Food than B
(b) B spends more on clothing than A
(c) B spends equal amounts on food and clothing
(d) A spends more on rent than on any other item
74. What is the minimum number of colours required to fill the spaces in the following
diagram without the adjacent sides having the same colour ?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) Can not be determined
75. How many minimum number of colours will be required to paint all the sides of a
cube without the adjacent sides having the same colours ?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
76. What number comes next ?
4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64
(a) 36 (b) 100
(c) 80 (d) 64
77. A cube with all the sides painted was divided into small cubes of equal measurement.
The side of a small cube is exactly one fourth as that of the big cube. Therefore, the
number of small cubes with only one side painted is
(a) 64 (b) 36
(c) 24 (d) 12
78. How many triangles are there in the diagram
(a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 10 (d) 16
79. The number which is opposite to side 3 is
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 2
80. A man takes 6 km distance to go round a rectangular area. If the area of the rectangle
is 2 km, find the difference between length and breadth
(a) 1 km (b) 0.5 km
(c) 2 km (d) 0.75 km
81. There are 20 students with an average height of 105 cms in a class. Then 10 students
with an average height of 120 cms join the class. What will be the average height of
the class now?
(a) 100 cms (b) 110 cms
(c) 120 cms (d) 130 cms
82. A man’s investment doubles in every 5 years. If he invested Rs. 5,000 in each of the
years 1990, 1995, 2000 and 2005, then what was the total amount received by him
in 2010 ?
(a) Rs. 1,40,000 (b) Rs. 30,000
(c) Rs. 70,000 (d) Rs. 1,50,000
83. A man starts from a certain point O and follows the route as shown in the graph.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) He travels with a uniform velocity throughout
(b) He travels with a greater velocity from O to A than from A to B
(c) He travels with a greater velocity from A to B than from O to A
(d) He returns to the original point with a non-uniform velocity
84. X and Y are two places connected by road as shown. Without touching a point
twice, the number of bus routes possible from X to Y are
(a) 9 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
85. The most busy junction as shown in the previous diagram is
(a) X (b) Y
(c) Z (d) O
86. In the above figure, there are two squares ABCD and PQRS each having side length
of 2a.
P is the centre of the square ABCD. If the point P is fixed and the square PQRS can
be moved freely about it, which of the following statements is appropriate ?
(a) The area of the shaded region increases as the length BX increases
(b) The area of the shaded region decreases as the length BX increases
(c) There will be no change in the area of the shaded region with the change in
the length of BX
(d) There will be a change in the area of the shaded portion but not like the one
mentioned under (a) and (b) above
87. Two persons A and B get the same salary. Their basic pays are different. Their
allowances are 65% and 80% of their basic pays respectively. What is the ratio of
their basic pays ?
(a) 7 : 5 (b) 17 : 15
(c) 11 : 10 (d) 12 : 11
88. If AB = 2 AD = d, the area of the shaded portion will be
(a) d2/4 (b) d2
(c) d2/2 (d) 2d2
89. If p > q and r < o (where ‘>’ stands for greater than and ‘<’ stands for less than), then
which is true ?
(a) pr < qr (b) p - r < q - r
(c) p + r < q + r (d) None is true
90. What is the area of the shaded triangle?
(a) d2 (b) d2
(c) 2d2 (d) d2/4
91. It takes one minute to fill 3/7 th of a vessel. What is the time taken in minutes to fill
the whole of the vessel?
(a) 4/3 (b) 3/4
(c) 7/3 (d) 3/2
92. Every time a man hits the target he gets one rupee and every time he misses the
target he has to pay the rupee. He is allowed to try 100 times and gets an amount of
Rs. 30. How many times did he hit the target?
(a) 60 (b) 65
(c) 70 (d) 75
93. The equation of the given curve is
(a) y = x (b) y = x2
(c) y = 1/x (d) y = -x
94. A coin is placed on a plain paper. How many coins of the same size can be placed
around it so that each of the coins touches its adjacent ones ?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
95. A clock gains 5 minutes in one hour. Therefore, the angle traversed by the minute
hand in one minute is
(a) 360° (b) 390°
(c) 390.5° (d) None of these
96. A walks from P to Q @ 3 km/hr and from Q to P @ 6 km/hr. What is his average
speed ?
(a) 4.5 km/hr (b) 5 km/hr
(c) 5.5 km/hr (d) 4 km/hr
97. If the Republic Day of India in 1980 falls on Saturday, X was born on March 3, 1980
and Y is older to X by four days, then Y’s birthday fell on
(a) Thursday (b) Friday
(c) Wednesday (d) None of these
98. A shop offers 10 percent discount on the purchase of any article. It also offers an
additional 12 percent discount if the payment is made in cash. If the original price
of the item is Rs. 250, then what is its actual price if paid in cash ?
(a) Rs. 220 (b) Rs. 195
(c) Rs. 198 (d) None of these
99. Which of the following is the shortest route for travelling from A to B in the figure
given above ?
(a) ACB (b) ADB
(c) AEB (d) AFB
100. How many triangles are there in the above figure ?
(a) 9 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) None of these
101. In each of the following questions a number series is given with one term missing.
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the
blank spaces.
102. 2, 7, 14, 23, ?, 47
(a) 31 (b) 28
(c) 34 (d) 38
103. 4, 6, 12, 14, 28, 30, ?
(a) 32 (b) 64
(c) 62 (d) 60
104. 4, 9, 13, 22, 35, ?
(a) 57 (b) 70
(c) 63 (d) 75
105. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, ?
(a) 43 (b) 47
(c) 51 (d) 53
105. 15, 31, 63, 127, 255, ?
(a) 513 (b) 511
(c) 523 (d) 517
106. 5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ?
(a) 49 (b) 51
(c) 52 (d) 53
107. 9, 12, 11, 14, 13, ?, 15
(a) 12 (b) 16
(c) 10 (d) 17
108. 0.5, 0.55, 0.65, 0.8, ?
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.9
(c) 0.95 (d) 1
109. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
(a) 35 (b) 36
(c) 48 (d) 49
110. 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), ?
(a) (1/3) (b) (1/8)
(c) (2/8) (d) (1/16)
111. 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343
(a) 125 (b) 50
(c) 78 (d) 132
112. 20, 19, 17, ?, 10, 5
(a) 15 (b) 14
(c) 13 (d) 12
113. 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ?
(a) 13 (b) 12
(c) 10 (d) 7
114. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?
(a) 51 (b) 71
(c) 81 (d) 41
115. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ?, 17
(a) 15 (b) 14
(c) 13 (d) 12
116. 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, ?
(a) 26 (b) 23
(c) 22 (d) 20
117. 13, 35, 57, 79, 911, ?
(a) 1145 (b) 1113
(c) 1117 (d) 1110
118. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, ?
(a) 65 (b) 78
(c) 81 (d) 97
119. 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ?
(a) 14 (b) 12
(c) 16 (d) 18
120. 11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001
(a) 1000 (b) 121
(c) 111 (d) 101
122. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33, ?
(a) 35 (b) 46
(c) 38 (d) 49
123. 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, 21, ?
(a) 15 (b) 17
(c) 23 (d) 25
124. 10, 14, 26, 42, 70, ?
(a) 86 (b) 98
(c) 114 (d) 126
125. 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, ?
(a) 78 (b) 85
(c) 91 (d) 97
126. 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ?
(a) 15 (b) 23
(c) 13 (d) 25
127. 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ?
(a) 100 (b) 121
(c) 144 (d) 169
128. 5, 9, 17, 29, 45, ?
(a) 65 (b) 56
(c) 74 (d) 57
129. 14, 28, 20, 40, 32, 64, ?
(a) 56 (b) 46
(c) 58 (d) 48
130. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, ?
(a) 63 (b) 67
(c) 69 (d) 72
131. 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
(a) 89 (b) 127
(c) 142 (d) 158
132. A man walks at 5kmph for 6hr and at 4km/h for 12hr. His average speed is
(a) 4 1/3 km/h (b) 7 2/3 km/h
(c) 9 ½ km/h (d) 8 km/h
133. A man can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of the distance at 4 km/h
and the rest at 5km/h. The total distance is
(a) 5km (b) 6km
(c) 7km (d) 8km
134. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7: 8. If the second train runs 440 kms
in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is:
(a) 47.4 km/hr (b) 57.19 km/hr
(c) 68.13 km/hr (d) 96.25 km/hr
135. A train 140m long is running at 60kmph. In how much time will it pass a platform
260m long?
(a) 15 seconds (b) 24 seconds
(c) 28 seconds (d) 30 seconds
136. In covering a distance of 30 km, A takes 2 hours more than B. If A doubles his
speed, then he would take 1 hour less than B. A’s speed is:
(a) 5 km/h (b) 8 km/h
(c) 10 km/h (d) 15 km/h
137. Walking at the rate of 4kmph a man cover certain distance in 2hr 45 min. Running
at a speed of 16.5 kmph the man will cover the same distance in.
(a) 12 min (b) 25 min
(c) 40 min (d) 48 min
138. A train covers a distance in 50 min, if it runs at a speed of 48kmph on an average.
The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40min will
be
(a) 45 min (b) 60 min
(c) 55 min (d) 70 min
139. Two persons starting from the same place walk at a rate of 5kmph and 5.5kmph
respectively. What time will they take to be 8.5km apart, if they walk in the same
direction?
(a) 17 hrs (b) 22 hrs
(c) 25 hrs (d) 12 hrs
140. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45
kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
(a) 8 min (b) 5 min
(c) 10 min (d) 14 min
141. A train covers a distance in 50 min, if it runs at a speed of 48kmph on an average.
The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40min will
be.
(a) 60 km/h (b) 55 km/h
(c) 40 km/h (d) 70 km/h
142. A man covers a distance on scooter. Had he moved 3kmph faster he would have
taken 40 min less. If he had moved 2kmph slower, he would have taken 40min
more. The distance is.
(a) 30 km (b) 40 km
(c) 45 km (d) 50 km
143. A motorist covers a distance of 39km in 45min by moving at a speed of x kmph
for the first 15min, then moving at double the speed for the next 20 min, and then
again moving at his original speed for the rest of the journey. Find x.
(a) 60 km/h (b) 48 km/h
(c) 36 km/h (d) 58 km/h
144. A & B are two towns. A person covers the distance from A to B on cycle at 17kmph
and returns to A by a boat running at a uniform speed of 8kmph. His average speed
for the whole journey is
(a) 12.5 km/h (b) 12.33 km/h
(c) 10.75 km/h (d) 10.88 km/h
145. A car covers 4 successive 3km stretches at speed of 10kmph, 20kmph, 30kmph &
60kmph resp. Its average speed is
(a) 20 km/h (b) 25 km/h
(c) 30 km/h (d) 35 km/h
146. A bullock cart has to cover a distance of 80km in 10hrs. If it covers half of the
journey in 3/5th time. what should be its speed to cover the remaining distance in
the time left.
(a) 8 km/h (b) 10 km/h
(c) 12 km/h (d) 14 km/h
147. The ratio between the speeds of the A& B is 2:3, and therefore A takes 10 min more
than the time taken by B to reach the destination. If A had walked at double the
speed, he would have covered the distance in
(a) 8 min (b) 12 min
(c) 15 min (d) 18 min
148. A train M leaves City A at 5 am and reaches City B at 9am . Another train N leaves
City B at 7am and reaches City A at 1030am. At what time do the 2 trains cross one
another?
(a) 1 hr 23 min (b) 1 hr 15 min
(c) 1 hr 8 min (d) 56 min
149. A man takes 5hr 45min in walking to certain place and riding back. He would have
gained 2hrs by riding both ways. The time he would take to walk both ways is?
(a) 7 hr 45 min (b) 7 hr 15 min
(c) 6 hr 45 min (d) 6 hr 15 min
150. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per
hour?
(a) 3.6 (b) 7.2
(c) 8.4 (d) 10
151. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km
more. The actual distance travelled by him is
(a) 50 km (b) 56 km
(c) 70 km (d) 80 km
152. A man complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate
of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.
(a) 220 km (b) 224 km
(c) 230 km (d) 234 km
153. A man on tour travels first 160 km at 64 km/hr and the next 160 km at 80 km/hr.
The average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is:
(a) 35.55 km/hr (b) 36 km/hr
(c) 71.11 km/hr (d) 71 km/hr
154. In covering a distance of 30 km, A takes 2 hours more than B. If Abhay doubles his
speed, then he would take 1 hour less than B. A’s speed is:
(a) 5 kmph (b) 6 kmph
(c) 6.25 kmph (d) 7.5 kmph
155. It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest
by car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done by train and the rest by car. The
ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is:
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2
(c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3
156. A man covered a certain distance at some speed. Had he moved 3 kmph faster, he
would have taken 40 minutes less. If he had moved 2 kmph slower, he would have
taken 40 minutes more. The distance (in km) is
(a) 35 (b) 36 2/3
(c) 37 1/2 (d) 40
157. A train can travel 50% faster than a car. Both start from point A at the same time
and reach point B 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the
train lost about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the stations. The speed of the car is:
(c) 120 kmph (d) 130 kmph
158. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average
speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30
minutes. The duration of the flight is
(a) 1 hour (b) 2 hour
(c) 3 hour (d) 4 hour
in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is:
(a) 70 km/hr (b) 75 km/hr
(c) 84 km/hr (d) 87.5 km/hr
160. A car travelling with 5/7 of its actual speed covers 42 km in 1 hr 40 min 48 sec. Find
the actual speed of the car.
(a) 17 6/7 km/hr (b) 25 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr (d) 35 km/hr
161. A train 150 m long is running at a speed of 68 kmph. How long does it take to pass
a man who is running at 8 kmph in the same direction as the train?
(a) 5 sec (b) 9 sec
(c) 12 sec (d) 15 sec
162. A train is moving at a speed of 132 km/hr. If the length of the train is 110 metres,
how long will it take to cross a railway platform 165 metres long?
(a) 7½ sec (b) 10 sec
(c) 12 ½ sec (d) 15 sec
163. A man sitting in a train which is traveling at 50 kmph observes that a goods train,
traveling in opposite direction, takes 9 seconds to pass him. If the goods train is 280
m long, find its speed.?
(c) 62 kmph (d) 65 kmph
164. A train 220 m long is running with a speed of 59 kmph. In what time will it pass a
man who is running at 7 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train
is going?
(a) 7 sec (b) 8 sec
(c) 10 sec (d) 12 sec
165. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform
in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
(a) 180 m (b) 240 m
(c) 260 m (d) 280 m
166. Two trains are moving in opposite directions at 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their
lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to
cross the faster train in seconds is:
(a) 28 sec (b) 36 sec
(c) 48 sec (d) 52 sec
167. A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train
running in opposite direction at the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the
length of the other train?
(a) 230 m (b) 245 m
(c) 260 m (d) 275 m
168. Two trains 140 m and 160 m long run at the speed of 60 km/hr and 40 km/hr
respectively in opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time (in seconds) which
they take to cross each other, is:
(a) 10.8 sec (b) 9.5 sec
(c) 7.4 sec (d) 8.9 sec
169. Two trains are running in opposite directions with the same speed. If the length of
each train is 120 metres and they cross each other in 12 seconds, then the speed of
each train (in km/hr) is:
170. Two trains of equal lengths take 10 seconds and 15 seconds respectively to cross a
telegraph post. If the length of each train be 120 metres, in what time (in seconds)
will they cross each other travelling in opposite direction?
(a) 8 sec (b) 12 sec
(c) 15 sec (d) 10 sec
171. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform
in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
(a) 110 cm (b) 120 cm
(c) 240 cm (d) 260 cm
172. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 km/hr and crosses a 250 m long platform in
26 seconds. What is the length of the goods train?
(a) 240m (b) 250m
(c) 260m (d) 270m
in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is
(a) 87.5 km/h (b) 78.0 km/h
(c) 65.5 km/h (d) 58.0 km/h
174. In what time will a train 100 meres long cross an electric pole, if its speed is 144 km/
hr
(a) 12.5 s (b) 8.5 s
(c) 10.5 s (d) 2.5 s
175. A train 280m long, running with a speed of 63kmhr will pass a pole in
(a) 12 s (b) 14 s
(c) 16 s (d) 18 s
176. Two trains 126 m and 114 m long are running in opposite directions, one at the
rate of 30kmph and another one at 42kmph. From the moment they meet will cross
each other in
(a) 12 s (b) 14 s
(c) 16 s (d) 18 s
177. A train 150 m long moving at a speed of 35 meters per second overtakes a man
moving at 5 meters/sec in opposite direction. The train will pass the man in
(a) 4.50 s (b) 5.25 s
(c) 3.75 s (d) 6.50 s
178. If a train 110 m long passes a telegraph pole in 3 seconds, then the time taken by it
to cross a railway platform 165 m long is
(a) 5.0 s (b) 6.5 s
(c) 8.0 s (d) 7.5 s
179. A train speeds past a pole in 15 seconds and a platform 100 m long in 25 seconds.
Its length is
(a) 100m (b) 120m
(c) 150m (d) 180m
180. A train of length 150 m long takes 40.5 seconds to cross a tunnel of length 300 m the
speed of the train(in km/hr) is
(a) 25 km/h (b) 40 km/h
(c) 50 km/h (d) 65 km/h
181. An express train traveled at an average speed of 100 km/hr, stopping for 3 minutes
after every 75 km.. How long did it take to reach its destination 600 km from the
starting point?
(a) 6 hrs 30 min (b) 6 hrs 49 min
(c) 6 hrs 45 min (d) 6 hrs 21 min
182. A train 360 m long is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In what time will it pass a
bridge 140mlong?
(a) 40 s (b) 45 s
(c) 50 s (d) 55 s
183. A train is moving at speed of 132kmph. If the length of the train is 110 meters, how
long will it take to cross a railway platform 165 m long?
(a) 6.0 s (b) 7.5 s
(c) 7.0 s (d) 8.5 s
184. A train 150 m long is running at a speed of 90kmph. Time taken by the train to
cross a tree is
(a) 5 s (b) 5.5 s
(c) 6.5 s (d) 6 s
185. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the
train is going, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9
and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train is
(a) 50m (b) 55m
(c) 60m (d) 65m
186. If a 200 m long train crosses a platform of the same length as that of the train in 20
seconds, then the speed of the train is
184. A train 700 m long is running at 72kmph. If it crosses a tunnel in I minute, the
length of the length of the tunnel is
(a) 600m (b) 650m
(c) 500m (d) 550m
188. A train traveling at a speed of 90kmph crosses a pole in 10 seconds. The length of
the train is
(a) 200m (b) 250m
(c) 300m (d) 350m
189. A train 280 m long is moving at 60kmph. The time taken by the train to cross a
tunnel 220 m long is
(a) 20 s (b) 25 s
(c) 30 s (d) 35 s
190. A train covers a distance of 10 km in 12 minutes. If its speed is decreased by 5 km/
hr the time taken by it to cover the same distance will be
(a) 10 min. 50 sec (b) 12 min.
(c) 13 min. 20 sec (d) 10 min. 30 sec
191. A train of length 150 m takes 10 seconds to pass over another train 100 m long
coming from the opposite direction. If the speed of the first train be 30 kmph, the
speed of the second train is
(a) 60 km/h (b) 65 km/h
(c) 50 km/h (d) 55 km/h
192. A train traveling at 48 kmph completely crosses another train having half its length
and traveling in opposite direction at 42 kmph, in 12 seconds. It also passes a
railway platform in 45 seconds. The length of the platform is
(a) 550m (b) 600m
(c) 450m (d) 400m
193. Two trains are running in opposite directions towards each other with speeds of 54
kmph and 48 kmph respectively. If the length of one train is 250 m and they cross
each other in 18 seconds, the length of the other train is
(a) 250 m (b) 270 m
(c) 260 m (d) 280 m
194. A train X starts from A at 4 P.M. and reaches B at 5 P.M. while another train Y starts
from B at 4 P.M. and reaches A, at 5.30 PM. The two trains will cross each other at
(a) 4.36 pm (b) 4.48 pm
(c) 4.52 pm (d) 4.56 pm
195. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the
train is going, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9
and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train is
(a) 60 m (b) 65 m
(c) 50 m (d) 55 m
196. The speed of a 100 m long running train A is 40% more than the speed of another
180 m long train B running in the opposite directions. To find out the speed of
train B, which of the information given in statements P and Q is sufficient?
P : The two trains crossed each other in 6 seconds.
Q : The difference between the speeds of the two trains was 26 kmph.
(a) Only P is sufficient (b) Only Q is sufficient
(c) Both P and Q are needed (d) Both P & Q are not sufficient
197. Two trains travel in opposite directions at 36 kmph and 45 kmph and a man sitting
in slower train passes the fasten train in 8 seconds. The length of the faster train is
(a) 160m (b) 165m
(c) 185m (d) 180m
198. A train 108 m long moving at a speed of 50 km/hr crosses a train 112 m long coming
from opposite direction in 6 seconds. The speed of the second train is
(a) 74 km/h (b) 72 km/h
(c) 80 km/h (d) 82 km/h
199. A train 110 m long passes a man, running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to
that of the train, in 6 seconds. The speed of the train is
(a) 60 km/h (b) 65 km/h
(c) 50 km/h (d) 55 km/h
200. A train 270 m long is moving at a speed of 24 kmph. It will cross a man coming
from the opposite direction at a speed of 3 kmph, in
(a) 30 s (b) 32 s
(c) 34 s (d) 36 s
201. Two trains 200 m and 150 m long are running on parallel rails at the rate of 40
kmph and 45 kmph respectively. In how much time will they cross each other, if
they are running in the same direction?
(a) 176 s (b) 192 s
(c) 238 s (d) 252 s
202. A train 110 m long is traveling at a speed of 58 kmph. The time in which it will pass
a passer by, walking at 4 kmph in the same direction,is
(a) 5 2/3 s (b) 6 1/3 s
(c) 7 1/3 s (d) 6 2/3 s
203. A train takes 18 seconds to pass completely through a station 162 m long and 15
seconds through another station 120 m long. The length of the train is
(a) 80 m (b) 85 m
(c) 90 m (d) 95 m
204. A train 150 m long passes a km stone in 15 seconds and another train of the same
length travelling in opposite direction in 8 seconds. The speed of the second train is
(a) 96 km/h (b) 97 km/h
(c) 98 km/h (d) 99 km/h
205. Two trains running in the same direction at 65 kmph and 47 kmph, completely pass
one another in 1 minute. If the length of the first train is 125 m, the length of the
second train is
(a) 165 m (b) 170 m
(c) 175 m (d) 185 m
206. Two stations A and B are 110 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from A at
7 a.m. and travels towards B at 20 kmph. Another train starts from B at 8 a.m. and
travels towards A at a speed of 25 kmph. At what time will they meet?
(a) 8 am (b) 10 am
(c) 11 am (d) 10:30 am
207. A train running at certain speed crosses a stationary engine in 20 seconds. To find
out the speed of the train, which of the following information is necessary:
(a) Only the length of the train
(b) Only the length of the engine
(c) Either the length of the train or the length of the engine
(d) Both the length of the train and the length of the engine
208. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C, running in the same
direction in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be 100 m and 200 m
respectively, what is the speed of the train C?
(a) 100 km/h (b) 111 km/h
(c) 120 km/h (d) 123 km/h
209. If a train 110 m long passes a telegraph pole in 3 seconds, then the time taken by it
to cross a railway platform 165 m long, is
(a) 4 s (b) 5.5 s
(c) 6 s (d) 7.5 s
210. Two trains 126 m and 114 m long are running in opposite directions, one at the rate
of 30 kmph and another one at 42 kmph. From the moment they meet will cross
each other in
(a) 8 s (b) 10 s
(c) 12 s (d) 14 s
211. A train 270 m long is moving at a speed of 24kmph. It will cross a man coming form
the Opposite direction at a speed of 3kmph, in
(a) 12 s (b) 24 s
(c) 36 s (d) 45 s
212. Two trains each 200 m long are running on parallel rails at the rate of 40kmph
and 45kmph respectively. In how much time will they cross each other, if they are
running in the same direction?
(a) 128 s (b) 288 s
(c) 342 s (d) 368 s
213. A train 110 m long is traveling at a speed of 59kmph. The time in which it will pass
a passer by, walking at 4kmph in the same directions, is
(a) 7 1/5 s (b) 3 2/3 s
(c) 4 3/5 s (d) 5 1/3 s
214. A train takes 18 seconds to pass completely though a station162 m long and 15
seconds though another station 120 m long. The length of the train is
(a) 60m (b) 70m
(c) 80m (d) 90m
215. A train 150 m long takes 20 seconds to cross a platform 450 m long. The speed of
the train is
(a) 20 m/s (b) 25 m/s
(c) 30 m/s (d) 40 m/s
216. A train crosses a platform 100 m long in 60 seconds at a speed of 45kmph. The time
by the train to cross an electric pole is
(a) 52 s (b) 48 s
(c) 43 s (d) 38 s
217. A train 60 m long passes a platform 90 m long in 10 seconds. The speed of the train
is
(a) 60 km/h (b) 58 km/h
(c) 54 km/h (d) 50 km/h
218. The length of a brigade which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45kmph can cross
in 30 seconds, is
(a) 180m (b) 210m
(c) 225m (d) 245m
219. A train 120 m long crosses a standing man in 15 seconds. The speed of the train is
(a) 19.6 km/h (b) 18.8 km/h
(c) 28.8 km/h (d) 22.6 km/h
220. With a speed of 60kmph a train crosses a pole in 30 seconds. The length of the train
is
(a) 300m (b) 400m
(c) 500m (d) 600m
221. If 5 women or 8 girls can do a work in 84 days. In how many days can 10 women and
5 girls can do the same work?
222. If 34 men completed 2/5th of a work in 8 days working 9 hours a day. How many
more man should be engaged to finish the rest of the work in 6 days working 9
hours a day?
(a) 89 (b) 98
(c) 102 (d) 142
223. If 9 men working 6 hours a day can do a work in 88 days. Then 6 men working 8
hours a day can do it in how many days?
224. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 18
days. In how many days will A alone finish the work?
225. Worker A takes 8 hours to do a job. Worker B takes 10 hours to do the same job.
How long it take both A & B, working together but independently, to do the same
job?
(a) 40/9 days (b) 40/7 days
(c) 7.5 days (d) 8.5 days
226. X can do ¼ of a work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3
of work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?
(a) X (b) Y
(c) Z (d) None of the above.
227. A can do a piece of work n 7 days of 9 hours each and B alone can do it in 6 days of
7 hours each. How long will they take to do it working together 8 2/5 hours a day?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
228. A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days & then B alone
finishes the remaining work in 42 days. In how much time will A and B, working
together, finish the work?
229. A and B are working on an assignment. A takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a
computer, while B takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take,
working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
(a) 5 hours (b) 6 hours
(c) 7 hours (d) 8 hours
230. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in half the time taken by
A. Then, working together, what part of the same work they can finish in a day?
(a) 1/5 (b) 1/6
(c) 1/7 (d) 1/8
231. A,B and C are employed to do apiece of work for Rs.529. A and C are supposed to
finish 19/23 of the work together. How much shall be paid to B?
(a) Rs.92 (b) Rs.112
(c) Rs.98 (d) Rs.86
232. 12 men can complete a work in 18 days. Six days after they started working, 4 more
men joined them. How many days will all of them together complete the remaining
work?
233. A is twice as good workman as B, and together they complete a work in 15 days. In
how many days can the work be complete by B alone?
234. A and B and C together can finish a piece of work in 4 days. A alone can do it in 12
days, and B in 18 days. Then, C alone can do it in
235. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 15 days, 10 days and 6 days respectively. How
long will they take to do it, if all the three work together?
(c) 3 days (d) 2.5 days
236. A is thrice as good a workman as B, and takes 10 days less to do a piece of work than
B takes. B alone can do the whole work work in
237. A can do a certain work in 25 days which B alone can do in 20 days. A stared the
work and was joined by B after 10 days. The work was completed in
(a) 18 2/3 days (b) 6 2/3 days
(c) 14 1/3 days (d) 15 1/3 days
238. A does half as much work as B in three fourth of the time. If together they take 18
days to complete the work, how much time shall B take to do it ?
239. A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They workd on it for 20 days, and
then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 more days A alone can
finish the work in
240. A can do 1/3 of the work in 5 days and B can do 2/5 of the work in 10 days. In how
many days both A and B toether can do the work?
(a) 9 3/8 days (b) 8 2/3 days
(c) 8 3/5 days (d) 9 3/5 days
241. A can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each, and B can do it in 6 days of 7
hours each. How long will they take to do it, working together 8 2/5 hours a day?
(a) 2 2/3 days (b) 2 days
(c) 3 1/3 days (d) 3 days
242. A can do piece of work in 30 days while B alone can do it in 40 days. In how many
days can A and B working together do it?
(a) 17 1/7 days (b) 15 2/3 days
(c) 15 2/7 days (d) 17 2/7 days
243. 12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the
same work in 4 days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days, all
of them stopped working. How many women should be put on the job to complete
the remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3 days?
(a) 16 (b) 15
(c) 18 (d) 19
244. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20
days. If B does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B
together will complete the work?
245. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in
24 days and C and A in 20 day. They all work together for 10 days, after which B and
C leave. How many days more will A take to finish the work?
246. A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C
alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in
(a) 15 1/3 days (b) 13 1/3 days
(c) 14 1/3 days (d) 12 1/3 days
247. A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a work in 12 days independently, the
number of days in which A and B can together finish the work is
248. A can do a job in 16 days, and B can do the same job in 12 days. With the help of C,
they did the job in 4 days. Then, C alone can do the job in
(a) 12 3/5 days (b) 8 3/5 days
(c) 10 3/5 days (d) 9 3/5 days
249. 32. A does 4/5 of the work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the
remaining work in 3 days. How long B alone take to finish the whole work?
(a) 37 ½ days (b) 36 ½ days
(c) 35 ½ days (d) 34 ½ days
250. 30. A and B take 15 and 20 days respectively. They worked for 4 days, and then the
fraction of work left was
(a) 8/15 (b) 7/15
(c) 6/15 (d) 11/15
251. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same
work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and woman?
(a) 3:2 (b) 4:3
(c) 5:3 (d) 3:4
252. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs.529. A and B together are
supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What
amount should A be paid?
(a) Rs.355 (b) Rs.345
(c) Rs.375 (d) Rs.335
253. A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started
doing the work together but after 2 days B had to leave and A alone completed the
remaining work. The whole work was completed in
254. A can do a piece of work in 20 days. B is 25% more efficient than A. The number of
days taken by B to do the same piece of work is
255. A and B are working on an assignment. A takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a
computer, while B takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take,
working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
(a) 5 hours 15 minutes (b) 4 hours 30 minutes
(c) 8 hours 15 minutes (d) 7 hours 45 minutes
256. A takes 3 days and B 2 days. Both worked together and finished the work, and got
Rs.150. What is the share of A ?
(a) Rs.90 (b) Rs.60
(c) Rs.80 (d) Rs.50
257. X can do a work in 40 days. He worked for 8 days and then Y finished it in 16 days.
If they work together, how long does it take to finish the work?
(a) 10 1/3 days (b) 18 1/3 days
(c) 13 1/3 days (d) 15 1/3 days
258. 10 men and 15 women together can complete a work in 6 days. It takes 100 days for
one man alone to complete the same work. How many days will be required for one
woman alone to complete the same work?
259. To a complete a work, A and B take 12 days; B and C 15 days; C and A 20 days. How
long A, B and C together will take?
260. A and B can do a piece of work in 5 days. B and C can do it in 7 days, A and C can
do it in 4 days. Who among these will take the least time if put to do it alone?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) None of the above.
Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d)

3. (c) 4. (b) 77. (c) 78. (c)
5. (c) 6. (d) 79. (c) 80. (a)
7. (b) 8. (c) 81. (b) 82. (d)
9. (d) 10. (c) 83. (c) 84. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 85. (d) 86. (c)
13. (b) 14. (d) 87. (d) 88. (a)
15. (c) 16. (d) 89. (a) 90. (d)
17. (a) 18. (a) 91. (c) 92. (b)
19. (b) 20. (b) 93. (c) 94. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 95. (b) 96. (d)
23. (d) 24. (a) 97. (a) 98. (c)
25. (a) 26. (d) 99. (d) 100. (c)
27. (c) 28. (c) 101. (c) The given sequence is +5, +7, +9,
29. (d) 30. (a) ——
31. (b) 32. (d) ie. 2+ 5 = 7, 7 + 7 = 14, 14 + 9 = 23
33. (c) 34. (a) Missing Number = 23 + 11 = 34.
35. (d) 36. (c) 102. (d) The given sequence is a
37. (d) 38. (a) combination of two series 4, 12, 28, .... and
39. (a) 40. (d) 6, 14, 30, .... The pattern is +8, +16, +32. So,
41. (c) 42. (b) the missing number = (28 + 32) = 60
43. (c) 44. (c) 103. (a) Sum of two consecutive numbers
45. (b) 46. (d) of the series gives the next number.
47. (a) 48. (c) 104. (a)
49. (d) 50. (c) 105. (b) Each number is double of the
51. (d) 52. (a) preceding one plus 1.
53. (c) 54. (b) 106. (d) The sequence is +6, +6, +8, +8,
55. (c) 56. (d) +10, ....
57. (b) 58. (c) 107. (b) Alternatively, 3 is added and one is
59. (d) 60. (c) subtracted.
61. (a) 62. (c) 108. (d) The pattern is + 0.05, + 0.10, +
63. (b) 64. (d) 0.15, .....
65. (c) 66. (d) 109. (???)
67. (a) 68. (a) 110. (b) This is a simple division series;
69. (b) 70. (b) each number is one-half of the previous
71. (d) 72. (a) number.
73. (d) 74. (a) 111. (a) The series consists of cubes of odd
numbers and square of even numbers. x2, -8.
112. (b) The Pattern is - 1, - 2, -3, ... 129. (d) The pattern is 1 × 2, 2 × 3, 3 × 4, 4
113. (c) This is a simple alternating addition × 5, 6 × 7, 7 × 8,....
and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 130. (b) Each number in the series is the
is added; in the second, 2 is subtracted. preceding number multiplied by 2 and then
114. (c) The pattern is + 5, + 10, + 15, + increased by 1.
20,.... 131. (a) Avg speed = total distance/total
115. (c) The series consists of prime time
numbers starting from 2. = 5*6 + 4*12 / 18
116. (c) This is an alternating number =4 1/3 km/h
subtraction series. The pattern is -2, -4, -2, 132. (b) Distance = 2/3S
.... distance=1-2/3S=1/3S
117. (b) The terms are formed by joining 21/15 hr=2/3 S/4 + 1/3s /5
together consecutive odd numbers in order. 84=14/3S * 3
i.e. 1 and 3, 3 and 5, 5 and 7, 7 and 9, 9 and S= 6km
11,.... 133. (d) Let the speed of two trains be 7x
118. (c) The pattern is + 5, + 10, + 15, + and 8x km/hr.
20,... Then, 8x = (440/4) = 110
119. (a) First, each number is repeated, x = (110/8) = 13.75
then 13 is subtracted to arrive at the next Hence, speed of first train = (7 x 13.75) km/
number. hr = 96.25 km/hr.
120. (d) The pattern is - 1, × 10 + 1, - 1, × 134. (c) Distance travelled = 140 + 260m =
10 + 1, - 1, × 10 + 1, .... 400m
121. (b) The pattern is + 5, + 7, + 9, + 11,.... Speed = 60 * 5/8 = 50/3m
122. (a) In this alternating repetition Time = 400 * 3/50 = 24 Seconds
series, the number 21 is interpolated. If
you exclude 21, the series increases by 2,
beginning with the number 9. 135.
123. (c) Each term of the series, except the (a) Let A’s speed be X km/hr.
first two terms, is 2 more than the sum of Then, 30/x - 30/2x = 3
the preceding two terms. 6x = 30
124. (d) The pattern is + 8, + 8, + 16, + 24,... x = 5 km/hr.
125. (a) This is a simple alternating 136. (c) Distance = Speed * time
subtraction series, with a pattern -2, -5, -2, 4*11/4 = 11km
-5 .... New Speed = 16.5 kmph
126. (b) The series consists of squares of Therefore time = D/S = 11/16.5 = 40min
consecutive prime numbers. 137. (b) Time = 50/60 hr = 5/6hr
127. (a) The pattern is + 4, + 8, + 12, + 16, Speed = 48mph
.... distance = S*T = 48 * 5/6 = 40km
128. (a) This is an alternating multiplication time = 40/60hr = 2/3hr
and subtracting series with a pattern x2, -8, New speed = 40* 3/2 kmph = 60kmph
138. (a) The relative speed of the boys = = 4 hr 10 km/h
5.5kmph – 5kmph speed =40 km /4 hr
= 0.5 kmph =10 kmph
Distance between them is 8.5 km 147. (c) Ratio of speed = 2:3
Time= 8.5km / 0.5 kmph = 17 hrs Ratio of time = 3:2
139. (c) Due to stoppages, it covers 9 km A takes 10 min more
less. 3x-2x = 10 min
Time taken to cover 9 km = (9/54 x 60) A time=30 min
min = 10 min. -> covers the distance in 30 min , if its
140. (b) They cover 110km & 90 km speed is x
respectively. So, ratio of their speed = -> He will cover the same distance in 15
110:90 = 11:9. min, if its speed
141. (a) Time=50/60 hr=5/6hr doubles (i.e 2x)
Speed=48mph 148. (d) Let the distance between the cities
distance=S*T=48*5/6=40km be x
time=40/60hr=2/3hr They meet after y hr after 7am
New speed = 40* 3/2 kmph= 60kmph M covers x in 4hr
142. (b) Let distance = x m N covers x in 3 ½ i.e 7/2 hr
Usual rate = y kmph speed of M =x/4
x/y – x/y+3 = 40/60 hr speed of N = 2x/7
2y(y+3) = 9x -------------------------------- Distance covered by M in y+2 hr +
-(1) Distance covered by N in
x/y-2 – x/y = 40/60 hr y(y-2) = 3x --------- y hr is x
--(2) x/4 (y+2) +2x/7(y)=x
divide 1 & 2 equations y=14/15hr or 56 min
by solving we get x = 40 km 149. (a) Let x be the speed of walked
143. (c) Total distance = 39 km Let y be the speed of ride
Total time = 45 min Let D be the distance
D = S*T Then D/x + D/y = 23/4 hr ------------------
x * 15/60 + 2x * 20/60 + x * 10/60 = 39 km -(1)
x = 36 kmph D/y + D/y = 23/4 – 2 hr
144. (d) When same distance is covered D/y = 15/8 ----------------------------------
with different speeds, then the average (2)
speed = 2xy / x+y = 10.88kmph substitute 2 in 1
145. (a) Average speed = total distance / D/x + 15/8 = 23/4
total time D/x = 23/4 -15/8 =46-15/8 =31/8
total distance = 4 * 3 = 12 km Time taken for walk one way is 31/8 hr
total time = 3/10 + 3/20 + 3/30 + 3/60 time taken to walk to and fro is 2*31/8 =
= 36/60 hr 31/4 hr
speed =12/36 * 60 = 20 kmph =7 hr 45 min
146. (b) Time left = 10 - 3/5*10
157. (c) Let speed of the car be x kmph.
Then, speed of the
150. (b) Speed=(600/5 * 60) m/sec train=(150/100)*x=(3/2)*x kmph
= 2 m/sec. (75/x)-(75/(3/2x))=125/(10*60)
Converting m/sec to km/hr (75/x)-(50/x)=5/24
=(2*18/5) km/hr x = 25x24/5 = 120kmph.
= 7.2 km/hr. 158. (a) Let the duration of the flight be x
151. (a) Let the actual distance travelled be hours.
x km. Then, 600/x - 600/0.5x = 200
Then x/10=(x+20)/14 --> 600/x - 1200/(2x+1) = 200
--> 14x = 10x + 200 --> x(2x + 1) = 3
--> 4x = 200 --> 2x^2 + x - 3 = 0
--> x = 50 km. --> (2x + 3)(x - 1) = 0
152. (b) 0.5x/21 + 0.5x/24 = 10 --> x = 1 hr.
--> x/21 + x/24 = 20 159. (d) Let the speed of two trains be 7x
--> 15x = 168 x 20 and 8x km/hr.
--> x = (168 x 20)/15 = 224 km. Then, 8x = 400/4 = 100
153. (c) Total time taken = 160/64 + 160/80 Let the speed of two trains be 7x and 8x
= 9/2 hours km/hr.
--> Average speed = 320 x 2/9 = 71.11 km/ --> x = 100/8 = 12.5
hr. --> Speed of first train = (7 x 12.5) km/hr =
154. (a) Let A’s speed be x km/hr. 87.5 km/hr.
Then, 30/x -30/2x = 3 160. (d) Time taken = 1 hr 40 min 48 sec =
--> 6x = 30 1 hr 40 4/5 min. = 126/75 hrs.
--> x = 5 km/hr. Let the actual speed be x km/hr.
155. (c) Let the speed of the train be x km/ Then, (5/7)x X 126/75 = 42
hr and that of the car be y km/hr. --> x = 35 km/hr.
Then, 120/x + 480/y = 8 --> 1/x + 4/y = 161. (b) Speed of the train relative to man =
1/15 ------ (i) (68 - 8) kmph
Also, 200/x + 400/y = 25/3 --> 1/x + 2/y = = (60* 5/18) m/sec = (50/3)m/sec
1/24 ----(ii) Time taken by the train to cross the man
Solving (i) and (ii), we get: x = 60 and y = = Time taken by It to cover 150 m at 50/3
80. m / sec = 150 *3/ 50 sec = 9sec
--> Ratio of speeds = 60 : 80 = 3 : 4. 162. (a) Speed of train = 132 *(5/18) m/sec
156. (d) Let distance = x km and usual rate = 110/3 m/sec.
= y kmph. Distance covered in passing the platform =
Then, x/y - x/(y+3) = 40/60 --> 2y (y+3) = (110 + 165) m = 275 m.
9x ----- (i) Time taken =275 *(3/110) sec =15/2 sec =
Also, x/(y-2) - x/y = 40/60 --> y(y-2) = 3x 7 ½ sec
-------- (ii) 163. (c) Relative speed = 280/9 m / sec =
On dividing (i) by (ii), we get: x = 40. ((280/9)*(18/5)) kmph = 112 kmph.
Speed of goods train = (112 - 50) kmph = --> Speed of each train = 10 m/sec = 10 x
62 kmph. 18/5 km/hr = 36 km/hr.
164. (d) Speed of the train relative to man = 170. (b) Speed of the first train = 120/10 m/
(59 + 7) kmph sec = 12 m/sec.
= 66 *5/18 m/sec = 55/3 m/sec. Speed of the second train = 120/15 m/sec =
Time taken by the train to cross the man = 8 m/sec.
Time taken by it to cover 220 m at (55/3) m Relative speed = (12 + 8) = 20 m/sec.
/ sec Required time = (120 + 120)/20 sec = 12
= (220 *3/55) sec = 12 sec sec.
165. (b) Speed = 54 x 5/18 = 15 m/s 171. (c) 172. (d)
Length of the train = (15 x 20)m = 300 m. 173. (a) 174. (d)
Let the length of the platform be x metres. 175. (c) 176. (c)
Then, (x + 300)/36 = 15 177. (a) 178. (c)
--> x + 300 = 540 179. (d) 180. (c)
x = 240m. 181. (d) 182. (a)
166. (c) Relative speed = (60+ 90) km/hr 183. (b) 184. (d)
= 150x5/18 185. (a) 186. (b)
= 120/3 m/sec 187. (c) 188. (b)
Distance covered = (1.10 + 0.9) km = 2 km 189. (c) 190. (c)
= 2000 m. 191. (a) 192. (d)
Required time = 2000 x 3/125 = 48 sec. 193. (c) 194. (a)
167. (a) Relative speed = (120 + 80) km/hr 195. (c) 196. (a)
= 200 x 5/18 197. (d) 198. (d)
= 500/9 m/sec 199. (a) 200. (d)
Then, (x+270)/9 = 500/9 201. (d) 202. (c)
--> x + 270 = 500 203. (c) 204. (d)
--> x = 230. 205. (c) 206. (b)
207. (d) 208. (b)
168. (a) Relative speed = (60 + 40) km/hr = 209. (d) 210. (c)
100x5/18 = 250/9 m/ sec. 211. (c) 212. (c)
Distance covered in crossing each other = 213. (a) 214. (d)
(140 + 160) m = 300 m. 215. (c) 216. (a)
Required time = 300x9/250 = 54/5 = 10.8 217. (c) 218. (d)
sec. 219. (c) 220. (c)
169. (c) Let the speed of each train be x m/ 221. (a) Given that 5 women is equal to 8
sec. girls to complete a work.
Then, relative speed of the two trains = 2x So, 10 women = 16 girls.
m/sec. Therefore 10 women + 5 girls = 16 girls + 5
So, 2x = (120 + 120)/12 girls = 21 girls.
--> 2x = 20 8 girls can do a work in 84 days then 21
--> x = 10. girls can do a work in (8*84/21) = 32 days.
Therefore 10 women and 5 girls can a work (126*5/(5*42)) = 3 days
in 32 days 228. (c) Work done by A in 10
222. (c) From the above formula i.e (m1*t1/ days=10/80=1/8
w1) = (m2*t2/w2) Remaining work=(1-(1/8))=7/8
so, (34*8*9/(2/5)) = (x*6*9/(3/5)) Now, work will be done by B in 42 days.
so, x = 136 men Whole work will be done by B in
number of men to be added to finish the (42*8/7)=48 days
work = 136-34 = 102 men Therefore, A’s one day’s work=1/80
223. (d) From the above formula i.e (m1*t1/ B’s one day’s work=1/48
w1) = (m2*t2/w2) (A+B)’s one day’s
so (9*6*88/1) = (6*8*d/1) work=1/80+1/48=8/240=1/30
on solving, d = 99 days. Hence, both will finish the work in 30 days.
224. (c) If A takes x days to do a work then 229. (d) Number of pages typed by A in one
B takes 2x days to do the same work. hour=32/6=16/3
--> 1/x+1/2x = 1/18 Number of pages typed by B in one
--> 3/2x = 1/18 hour=40/5=8
--> x = 27 days. Number of pages typed by both in one
Hence, A alone can finish the work in 27 hour=((16/3)+8)=40/3
days. Time taken by both to type 110
225. (a) : A’s one hour work = 1/8. pages=110*3/40=8 hours.
B’s one hour work = 1/10. 230. (b) Given that B alone can complete
(A+B)’s one hour work = 1/8+1/10 = 9/40. the same work in days = half the time taken
Both A & B can finish the work in 40/9 by A= 9days
days A’s one day work = 1/18
225. (c) Whole work will be done by X in B’s one day work = 1/9
10*4 = 40 days. (A+B)’s one day work = 1/18+1/9 = 1/6
Whole work will be done by Y in 231. (a) 232. (d)
(40*100/40) = 100 days. 233. (b) 234. (c)
Whole work will be done by Z in (13*3) = 235. (c) 236. (b)
39 days 237. (b) 238. (c)
Therefore, Z will complete the work first. 239. (d) 240. (a)
227. (a) A can complete the work in (7*9) = 241. (d) 242. (a)
63 days 243. (b) 244. (c)
B can complete the work in (6*7) = 42 days 245. (c) 246. (b)
--> A’s one hour’s work = 1/63 and B’s one 247. (a) 248. (d)
hour work = 1/42. 249. (a) 250. (a)
(A+B)’s one hour work = 1/63+1/42 = 251. (b) 252. (b)
5/126 253. (c) 254. (b)
Therefore, Both can finish the work in 255. (d) 256. (b)
126/5 hours. 257. (c) 258. (a)
Number of days of 8 2/5 hours each = 259. (d) 260. (a)

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Logical reasoning advanced objective questions and answers 1

2 Logical reasoning advanced objective questions and answers

1 General science questions

2 Logical Reasoning Advanced Objective

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1) Which figure will replace the question mark ?

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3 Arithmetic Aptitude/Numerical Reasoning Tests

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1. (d) 2. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d)

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