FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
Her training in Kaisserswerth hospital
I. PERSONAL AND PROFESSIONAL
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
A. HISTORICAL PERSPECTIVES IN
NURSING
Situation 1: The original focus of nursing was
caring. It still is notwithstanding the present
professional status of nursing.
1. Traditionally, nursing was concerned with:
a. Attending to the poor
b. Working with the dregs of society
c. Caring for the sick and infirmed
d. Keeping people healthy and well
2. These are historical events that most
influenced the development of women, except:
a. Women suffrage movement
b. Liberation of women
c. Year of the women
d. Better education for women
3. Nursing has evolved from a subservient role
to one that is:
a. People-oriented
b. Handmaiden of doctor
c. Coordinative role
d. Self-regulatory
4. Who initiated the professional nursing
movement in the Philippines?
a. Julita V. Sotejo
b. Anastacia G. Tupas
c. Mrs. Manule L. Quezon
d. St. Paul’s sisters
5. Your competence as a professional nurse
can best be demonstrated by:
a. Performance in practice based on nursing
standards
b. Leading a healthy lifestyle
c. Adherence to hospital policy
d. Strict observance of Code of Ethics for
Nurses
Situation 2: To develop respect and love for
the profession, every nurse must have a good
group of its historical developments including
the important personages and their
contributions.
6. Which of the following achievements of
Florence Nightingale has the greatest impact
on the professionalization of nursing?
a. establishment of St. Thomas Hospital School
of Nursing
b. Being the leaser of a religious order devoted
to nursing
c.
d. her work during the Crimean war
7. Which of the following is considered the
pioneer country in Modern Nursing?
a. England
b. United States
c. Denmark
d. England
8. In which of the following periods of
development of nursing did nurses learn their
skills through formal curriculum program and
clinical training?
a. Contemporary
b. Intuitive
c. Apprenticeship
d. Educative
9. When was the “ spirit of nursing” thought to
have started?
a. time when hospitals and schools of nursing
were established
b. as early as civilization
c. Florence Nightigale time
d. during establishment of university colleges
and schools of nursing
10. Which of the following triads of school of
nursing were first established in the
Philippines?
a. St. Luke’s Hospital. UST Hospital, Manila
Doctors Hospital
b. Philippine General Hospital, St. Paul
Hospital, Mary Johnston Hospital
c. Philippine General Hospital, North General
Hospital, Baguio General Hospital
d. Iloilo Mission Hospital, St. Paul Hospital,
Mary Johnston Hospital
11. The founder of the Philippine Nurses
Association (PNA)?
a. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
b. Julita Sotejo
c. Mrs. Socorro Salamanca-Diaz
d. Miss Mary Coleman
Situation 3: Having finished with your Master’s
degree in Nursing. You were hired as a faculty
member and was assigned to teach the topic
History of Nursing.
12. Historically, nursing function were initially
provided by the Shamams and the Babylon. At
which period in the nursing history was this
seen?
a. Apprenticeship Period
b. Primitive Period
c. Colonization Era
d. Period of Christianization

13. Florence Nightingale and her contemporary
nurse learned nursing skills and techniques as
“trainees”. During which period in the nursing
history is this?
a. Apprenticeship Period
b. Primitive Period
c. Intuitive Period
d. Educative Period
14. Hospice care is a recent development in
nursing care in the care of the terminally ill
patients. In this situation, in which setting is
nursing care provided?
a. Sanitaria
b. Homes
c. Hospitals
d. Clinic
15. Which of the following is the most
acceptable instruction in the training of nurses
according to Florence Nightingale when she
established the St. Thomas Hospital School of
Nursing?
a. Indigenous nurses who are solely devoted to
teaching
b. Head nurses and supervisors of specialty
hospitals
c. Qualified nurses who are solely devoted to
teaching
d. Residents physician assigned in the ward
16. Which of the following is the main function
of hospitals and other similar health
institutions?
a. Early diagnosis and treatment of disease
b. Promotion of health and prevention of
disease
c. Research and health education
d. Autopsy of patients to determine the cause
of death
B. NURSING AS A PROFESSION
Situation 1: Nurses provide care to individuals
in the various stages of health and illness
1. Which of the following are internal factors
that influence health practice?
a. Family practices
b. Norms of society
c. Religious beliefs
d. Developmental stages
2. Health-illness continuum refers to which of
the following statements. A person:
a. Can both be healthy or ill
b. Is either healthy or sick
c. Can be at any level of health and illness
d. Is either not healthy or not ill
3. One’s ideas, convictions and attitudes which
influence his level of health is referred to as
his:
a. Health beliefs
b. Health habits
c. Health practices
d. Health perceptions
4. The Health Belief Model states that one
taken health action if:
a. Is consistent with his health vbeliefs
b. Get support from family
c. Agrees with society’s norms
d. Will prevent his getting sick
5. Health actions that keeps one’s present level
of health is referred to as:
a. Health enhancement
b. Health promotion
c. Death prevention
d. Health maintenance
Situation 2: As a registered nurse, you are
accountable to the public to provide safe,
competent and effective health care.
6. You can best contribute to better nursing
practice by:
a. Observing standards of care
b. Charting SOAPIE
c. Reading professional journals
d. Following medical protocols
7. In professional caring, which of the following
nursing behaviors is essential?
a. Show concern for patients
b. Report promptly for duty
c. Observe hospital rules
d. Perform procedures correctly
8. You demonstrate the advocacy role when
you:
a. Defend rights of patients
b. Take action on behalf of the patient
c. Interpret patient needs to health team
d. Provide safe nursing practice
9. Standard of nursing practice serve as basis
for:
a. Evaluating safe practice
b. Executing nursing techniques
c. Performing competent care
d. Assuming appropriate nursing roles
10. Related learning experiences in health care
settings intend nursing students to:
a. Supplement nursing services of the hospital
b. Use actual patients for laboratory practice
c. Apply in practice what was learned in class
d. Enhance clinical practice skills

Situation 3: You are responsible for achieving
and maintaining professional and ethical
components.
11. You understand that professional nursing
actions are derived from the:
a. Actions you plan and implement
b. Utilization of the nursing process
c. Theory and skills in nursing
d. Making a nursing diagnosis
12. When a nurse demonstrates competence,
she can:
a. Out a patient at ease
b. Perform nursing practice based on standards
c. Do nursing procedures effectively
d. Follow doctor’s order efficiently
13. Which statement about value is correct:
a. Extrinsic value are associated with
maintenance of life
b. Most individuals possess many personal
values
c. Nurse values are essential for quality care
d. Nurse values rarely influence one’s
perception of patients
14. The personal conviction that something is
absolutely right or wrong in all situation:
a. Moral belief
b. Personal value
c. Legal obligation
d. Ethical issue
15. A basic structure under which competent
café is objectively measured is:
a. Standard
b. Law
c. Principle
d. Code
Situation 4: As a graduate of a BSN program,
you are expected to demonstrate basic nursing
skills for safe practice.
16. The most important characteristic of a
professional nurse is:
a. Harmonious relationship with co-workers
b. Critical thinking and decision-making
c. Competence and caring
d. Understanding human needs
17. The best way to improve your competence
after initial registration is to:
a. Practice nursing regularly
b. Take professional adjustment courses
c. Enroll for graduate studies
d. Participate in Continuing Professional
Education
18. The most important functions of the nurse
is:
a. Curative care
b. Prevention of diseases
c. Rehabilitative care
d. Promotion of health
19. In the advocacy role, the nurse:
a. Speaks on behalf of her patients
b. Respects dignity of patients
c. Defends rights of her patients
d. Safely practice nursing
20. Based on RA 7164, which function is new
in the scope of nursing practice:
a. Focuses on the family as the unit of service
b. Attends to normal delivery
c. Administers IV injection
d. Provides primary health care services
Situation 5: You have chosen nursing as a
career. Understanding nursing as a profession
will help protect the image of nursing in public.
21. Nursing is best defined as a profession
that:
a. Is concerned with nursing diagnosis and
treatment
b. Help people to do activities that contribute
to health recovery or peaceful death
c. Care for people, sick or well, in any health
setting
d. Assist people towards self-care
22. What nursing is and ought to be is
embodied in:
a. Code of Ethics
b. Standard Office Nursing Practice
c. Mission Statement
d. Philosophy of Nursing
23. Which of the following statements is a
most important characteristic of professional
nursing:
a. Is community-oriented
b. Observes ethical practice
c. Demonstrate self-control
d. Provides a human resource
24. Safe nursing practice requires:
a. Professional competence
b. Completion of BSN
c. Registration as a nurse
d. Membership in the PNA
25. Nurses demonstrate professional service
and utilize critical thinking and decision-making
through:
a. Practice based on scientific theories
b. Use of nursing process methodology
c. Views the patient as a human being
d. Participation in research
Situation 6: A sense of history gives you better
understanding of nursing as a profession.
26. Which of the following is the most
distinguishing characteristic of a profession?
a. Respects rights of co-workers
b. Orientation towards services
c. Attention to care needs of clients
d. Attitude of helpfulness
27. To prepare for professional practice in the
next century, you should:
a. Review nursing in light of future needs
b. Update knowledge required of changes in
roles
c. Anticipate shifts in health care delivery
systems
d. Extend services to community-based
programs
28. The most important specific characteristic
of a true professional nurse is:
a. Accountable for her actions
b. Observes professionalism
c. Competence and ethical work behavior
d. Sensitive to needs of others
29. What is the most important contribution or
religion to the practice of nursing:
a. Respect for life
b. Humanistic view of man
c. Spiritual health of patients
d. High value on service of fellowmen
30. Thrust of our government for social
program is globalization. For nursing, this
means:
a. Opportunity to work abroad
b. Agreement on terms of nurses employment
c. Exchange in nursing knowledge
d. Borderless nursing practice
Situation 7: A professional nurse is assumed to
update herself about the profession to maintain
competence practice.
31. In the coming millennium, this factor would
probably most influence nursing practice:
a. High technology
b. Nursing education
c. Social issues
d. Economic issues
32. In the next century, the professional nurse
is expected to be:
a. A primary health care expert
b. Mostly working in tertiary settings
c. Globally competitive
d. In community health
33. It is envisioned that nursing practice
settings will be mainly:
a. Hospital-based
b. In any health setting
c. Home-based
d. Community-based
34. Nursing will be more involved in the
following areas, except:
a. Population projects
b. Health policy making
c. Strategic Planning
d. Multi-disciplinary research
35. Nursing education and training will produce
nurses whom will be:
a. Multi-skilled competent
b. Gerontologist
c. Family-nurse practitioner
d. Preventive-oriented
C. THEORETICAL FOUNDATION OF
NURSING APPLIED IN HEALTH CARE
SITUATIONS
Situation 1: After passing the recent board
examination, Ms. Cervera applied for possible
employment in various health institutions.
While preparing for a possible interview, she
thought of reviewing the various theories in
nursing.
1. According to Orem’s Self-Care theory, G2P1
mother, 7 months pregnant, who missed the
last scheduled visit with her obstetrician would
require which type of nursing activities?
a. Supportive-educative
b. Wholly compensatory
c. Partially compensatory
d. Universal intervention
2. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs,
which of the following clients would most likely
evidence a self-esteem need?
a. A pre-eclamptic woman who is on a low-salt
diet
b. A 60-year old man who has urinary
incontinence
c. A hypochondriac who constantly goes to a
doctor for consultation
d. Teen-age boy who is on NPO prior to an
operation
3. The physical, psychological and social
environment in the care of clients is a major
consideration in whose theory of nursing?
a. Sister Callista Roy
b. Florence Nightingale
c. Joyce Travelbee
d. Hildegard Peplau
4. In this theory, Abdellah views client health
needs as nursing problems. She describes
these problems as covert or overt problems.
An example of a nursing problem that can be
mostly manifested by covert signs and
symptoms is the need to:
a. maintain good hygiene and physical comfort
b. maintain oxygen supply
c. accept positive and negative expression,
feelings and reactions
d. promote exercise, rest and sleep
5. Hildegard Peplau identified four sequential
phases in interpersonal relationships. Which
phase is characterized by the nurse and
patient concurrently striving to identify the
problem, both are beginning to become
comfortable with one another with the client
setting to the helping environment? Phase of:
a. Resolution
b. Identification
c. Orientation
d. Exploitation
Situation 2: One of the things that the nurse
should do to ensure quality nursing care is to
formulate a nursing goal for clients based on
some theoretical nursing model that she can
adopt in planning nursing care.
6. One example of a nursing model is the self-
deficit theory. In this model, nursing care
becomes necessary when client is unable to
fulfill biological, psychological, developmental
or social needs. The model was popularized by:
a. Dorothea Orem
b. Hildegard Peplau
c. Faye Abdellah
d. Virginia Helderson
7. The goal of nursing according to the nursing
theory of Florence Nightingale is to:
a. develop interaction between nurse and client
b. care for and help clients retain total self care
c. facilitate the body’s reparative processes by
manipulating client’s environment
d. reduce stress so that client can move easily
through the recovery process
8. In interacting with patients, a nurse can be
governed by Travelbee’s nursing model. The
framework for practice in this model is that:
a. “Interpersonal process is viewed as human
to human relationship”
b. “Client continuously changes and co-exists
with environment”
c. Caring is central and unifying domain for
nursing knowledge and practice”.
d. “Nursing process is defined as dynamic
interpersonal process between nurse, client
and health care system”.
9. Which of the following statements best
supports the concepts that nursing is dynamic?
a. Every patient is a unique physical,
emotional, social and spiritual being
b. It is important that the patient participate in
the overall nursing care plan of the nurse.
c. Nursing practice is expanding in the light of
the modern developments that take place
around her.
d. The health status of every patient is
constantly changing and the nurse must be
cognizant and responsive to these changes.
Situation 3: A sound scientific basis is essential
for quality professional practice.
10. Like other professions, what is unique in
professional nursing?
a. Its compassionate and caring role
b. Its caring role
c. A well defined body of knowledge and
expertise
d. Its involvement in nursing research
11. When you assist an individual to do what
he cannot normally do in illness, you are using
whose nursing theory?
a. Henderson
b. Roy
c. Orem
d. Abdellah
12. The degree to which a nurse behaves as a
professional is reflected in which of the
following?
a. Accepts, promotes and maintains
interdependence of theory and practice
b. Works in coordination of other professional
groups
c. Demonstrates the ideals of nursing
d. Is a member of the accredited professional
nursing organization
13. Florence Nightingale views nursing as:
a. Assisting patients towards early recovery
b. Caring for both healthy and ill individuals
c. Utilizing the patient’s environment for health
d. Helping patients deal with health problems
14. Professionalism is demonstrated in which
of the following behaviors:
a. Maintains interdependence of members of
the health team
b. Observes moral and ethical values
c. Supporting, counseling and assisting other
nurses
d. Communicates and disseminates health d. being free of an acute or chronic disease
knowledge
21. In prioritizing nursing care services to
15. The nursing theorist who gave emphasis on patients in the ward a nurse must remember
adaptation? Maslow’s hierarchy of physiologic needs, the
a. Dorothea Orem greatest priority of which is:
b. Ida Jean Orlando a. oxygen
c. Sister Callista Roy b. love
d. Betty Neuman c. elimination
d. nutrition
16. The nursing theorist who did not believe in
the germ theory? 22. A nurse’s initial priority in creating a
a. Florence Nightingale therapeutic environment for a patient should
b. Imogene King be:
c. Virginia Henderson a. explaining all laboratory and diagnostic
d. Madeleine Leininger procedures to be done
b. providing safe nursing practice
17. The nursing theorist who identified the 14 c. accepting his individuality as a person
basic needs of human. d. orienting him to hospital procedures and
a. Florence Nightingale routines
b. Imogene King
c. Virginia Henderson 23. As a nurse, you assume different roles in
d. Madeleine Leininger the care of your patients. You demonstrate a
patient advocate role when you perform which
18. In the Health Center, the nurse assists a of the following?
couple who chooses ligation for family a. investigate why family members have not
planning. Based on the systems of Dorothea visited the patient
Orem, this is identified as: b. intervene when patients and family have
a. Wholly compensatory conflict
b. Partially compensatory c. interpret the needs of patients to others
c. Self-care theory d. intercede in behalf of the patient
d. Supportive education Situation 5: Lizbeth is reviewing her notes in
preparation for her upcoming exam.
Situation 4: Some of the important things that 24. In concepts of health and illness, who
you learned in school are the theories in postulated that health is the ability to maintain
nursing. As a nurse practitioner, it is expected the internal milieu?
that you integrate these theories in the care of a. Claude Bernart
your patients. b. WHO
c. Walter Cannon
19. The four main concepts common to nursing d. Nightingale
that appear in each of the current conceptual
models are: 25. In Lydia Hall theory, which of the following
1. person represents core?
2. nursing a. Nurturance and factors that are exclusive to
3. environment nursing
4. medicine b. Therapeutic use of self
5. health c. Focuses on nursing related to physician’s
6. psychology order
a. 1, 2, 3 and 5 d. All of the above
b. 1, 2, 3 and 6
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 26. Founder of the Philippine Nurses
d. 3, 4, 5 and 6 Association?
a. Julita Sotejo
20. The term high-level wellness as described b. Anastacia Giron Tupaz
by H.L. Dunn, is best defined as: c. Eufemia Octaviano
a. surviving beyond the current life expectancy d. Mary Vita Jackson
b. functioning at one’s best biopsychosocial
level 27. Known as the Father of Sanitation?
c. fluctuating on a wellness-illness continuum a. Hippocrates
b. Moses b. Martha Rogers
c. St. Elizabeth of Hungary c. Sister Callista Roy
d. St. Catherine of Siena d. Lydia Hall

28. Presented adaptation model viewing a Situation 7: As a professional nurse, you are
person as a unified bipsychosocial/adaptation expected to come up with decisions that are
system in constant interaction with changing considered legal and ethical. Your action must
environment. The adaptive system inpit control be supported by utilization of different nursing
process output and feedback. theories in the patients.
a. Hildegard Peplau 34. Which of the following theories consider
b. Martha Rogers and utilize nature and environment in the
c. Sister Callista Roy healing process?
d. Lydia Hall a. Ida Jean Orlando
b. Florence Nightingale
Situation 6: Nursing practice is governed by c. Julita V. Sotejo
different theoretical framework postulated by d. Imogene King
known theorists.
29. According to self care and self deficit 35. Florence Nightingale was born in:
theory, when the nurse is expected to a. Germany
accomplish all the patient’s therapeutic self b. Britain
care or to compensate for patient’s inability to c. Italy
engage in self care or when the patient needs d. France
continuous guidance in self care, it is
categorized as: 36. Which is unlikely to Florence Nightingale?
a. Wholly compensatory a. Transcultural nursing
b. Partially compensatory b. Lady with a Lamp
c. Supportive-educative c. Notes in Nursing
d. Conservation of personal integrity d. St. Thomas School of Nursing

30. The four concepts common to nursing 37. What country did Florence Nightingale train
conceptual models: in nursing?
a. Person, nursing, environment, medicine a. Belgium
b. Person, health, nursing, support system b. US
c. Person, environment, health, nursing c. Germany
d. Person, environment, psychology, nursing d. England

31. Identified 14 basic needs and says that the 38. Which of the following is recognized for
unique function of the nurse is to assist the developing the concept of high level wellness?
client, sick or well in the performance of these a. Erickson
activities contributing to health, its recovery or b. Madow
peaceful death. c. Peplau
a. Faye Abdellah d. Dunn
b. Virginia Henderson
c. Ida Jean Orlando Situation 8: A significant milestone influencing
d. Imogene King the development of nursing concepts and
theories was the establishment of Journal of
32. Identified 21 nursing problem areas: Nursing Research. Several nursing theorist
a. Faye Abdellah have published the framework for practice
b. Virginia Henderson according to their respective nursing theory
c. Ida Jean Orlando
d. Imogene King 39. Which of the following best describes a
theory?
33. She introduced interpersonal model and a. It is a group of interrelated beliefs and
define nursing as an interpersonal process of attitudes
therapeutic interactions known as nurse-client b. It is well-defined testable description of a
relationship. She classified its phases as subject
orientation, identification, exploitation and c. It is a description of the relationship
resolution. between professional beliefs and attitudes
a. Hildegard Peplau
d. It is a graphic representation of relationship
between different variables
40. Which of the following nurse theorists has
stated that the goals of nursing is to maintain
and promote health, prevent illness and care
for and rehabilitate ill and disabled client
through humanistic science and nursing.
a. Rogers
b. Nightingale
c. Orem
d. Abdellah
41. That “nursing care becomes necessary
when client is unable to fulfill biological,
physiological development or social needs,”
explains which of the following theories?
a. Adaptation Theory
b. Self-care deficit theory
c. Theory of the Unitary Man
d. Transcultural Care Theory
42. In her theory, Imogene King defined
nursing process as a dynamic, interpersonal
process between nurse, client and health care
system. In this theory, which of the following
nursing skills is most important to help client
establish positive adaptation to environment?
a. Technical skills
b. Assessment skills
c. Environment management skills
d. Communication skills
43. Who among the following theorists has
identified twenty-one specific client needs or
problems in the areas of comfort, hygiene, and
safety, physiological balance, psychological and
social factors and sociological and community
factors?
a. Dorothy Johnson
b. Virginia Henderson
c. Sister Callista Roy
d. Faye Abdellah
Situation 8: One of the characteristics of a
professional is that its practice is based on a
body of knowledge. An understanding of the
scientific basis of nursing practice will enable
you to practice quality nursing care.
44. Which of the following expands your critical
thinking and decision-making skills.
a. Theories
b. Nursing research
c. Nursing process
d. Nursing standards
45. Florence Nightingale considered the nurse
theorist viewed nursing as:
a. Establishing a meaningful nurse-patient
relationship
b. Formal education in a university setting
c. Assisting patient to cope with illness
d. Manipulation of environment
46. Whose theory in nursing are you using
when you focus on assisting self-independence
of your patients?
a. Florence Nightingale
b. Levine’s theory
c. Orem’s theory
d. Maslow’s theory
47. The Bachelor of Science in Nursing
curriculum prepare you to be:
a. Primary health care nurse
b. A generalist nurse
c. Staff nurse in the hospital
d. A community-oriented nurse
48. Which of the following activities contribute
to the knowledge base of professional nursing?
a. Nursing research
b. Graduate studies
c. Continuing education
d. Seminar workshops
Situation 9: In rehabilitation, the professional
nurse has a major responsibility for enhancing
client’s capacity for self care.
49. This is the most important self-care
equipment:
a. Maintenance of balance between activity and
rest
b. Maintenance o wholesome recreational
activities
c. Maintenance of educational work and
activities
d. Maintenance of sufficient food
50. Based on Orem’s self care theory, care
during rehabilitation from illness or in advance
chronic illness is:
a. Educative developmental
b. Fully compensatory
c. Partially compensatory
d. Compensatory
51. To enable an individual to develop self-care
skills, which teaching method would be most
effective:
a. Demonstration-return demonstration
b. Role playing
c. Lecture-discussion
d. Group dynamics
52. At the family level, the most important self
care ability to develop is:
a. Education of members for health
b. Health care of chronically dependent
members
c. Family dynamics for health care
d. Compliance of ill members to medical
regimen
53. At the community level, the major goal of
self-care program is to:
a. Give the community the sole control over
their health
b. Empower people to take responsibility for
own health
c. Mobilize the community for self-help
d. Organize the community for basic health
services
D. CONTINUING PROFESSIONAL
EDUCATION
Situation 1: As a professional nurse, you take
responsibility for personal and professional
growth.
1. An important responsibility of a professional
nurse is:
a. Refine competence in safe practice
b. Safety of those she serves
c. Know trends in health and nursing
d. Accountability for her actions
2. For relicensure, you are required to
complete continuing education professional
education equivalent to:
a. 20 hours per year
b. at least 2 weeks seminar-workshop
c. a post basic study
d. 50 hours for 3 years
3. You are a live-in private nurse of a family
with a chronically ill member. You can maintain
your image as a professional nurse by:
a. Doing non-nursing activities
b. Being present during physician’s visit
c. Maintaning good grooming at all times
d. Socializing with family members
4. The primary purpose for requiring
continuing education for relicensure is to:
a. Ensure legal practice
b. Ensure safety of public served
c. Compliance to Board of Nursing
requirements
d. Improve competency after registration
5. The best method of maintaining your clinical
competence is to:
a. Take advance nursing courses
b. View video tapes in clinical nursing
c. Teach a clinical nursing subject
d. Actually work with patients
6. In one of the seminars on continuing
professional education (CPE) , one of the
lectures emphasized is the following primary
characteristics of a profession:
a. Can be used as a stepping stone to go
abroad
b. Nursing action is best supported by natural
instincts
c. It is governed by a code of ethics based on
ethical principles
d. Emphasis of nursing responsibilities is on
dependent rather than independent functions
7. The objectives requiring nurses to attend
CPE seminars and workshops are to:
a. Increase revenue of the government and
organizations providing CPE
b. Update one’s knowledge and skills relevant
to nursing
c. Renew old acquaintances and establish
camaraderie among nurses
d. Update of professionals in the country.
E. PROFESSIONAL ORGANIZATIONS IN
NURSING
Situation 1: In the practice of her profession,
nurses are expected to demonstrate desirable
values and practices
1. One of the expectations is for nurses to join
professional associations primarily because:
a. Promotes advancement and professional
growth of members
b. Works for raising of funds for nurses’ benefit
c. Facilitates and establishes new
acquaintances among nurses
d. Assists them in securing jobs abroad
2. What are considered as most essential to a
good working relationship among members in
any health care setting?
a. Punctuality and efficiency
b. Discipline and loyalty
c. Personality and neatness
d. Intelligence and capability
3. Which of the following best describes the
action of a nurse who documents her nursing
diagnosis?
a. She documents it and charts it whenever
necessary
b. She can be accused of malpractice
c. She does it regularly as an important
responsibility
d. She starts it only when the patient is acutely
ill
4. Which of the following does not govern
nursing practice?
a. RA 7164
b. RA 9173
c. BON Resolution for Code of Ethics
d. Board Resolution Scope of Nursing Practice
5. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in
the community and renders service on
maternal and child health among the
neighborhood for a fee is:
a. A primary care nurse
b. An independent nurse practitioner
c. A nurse midwife
d. A nurse specialist
6. As a nurse you should be an actively
involved member of this nurse’s organization
including attending sponsored activities:
a. ICN
b. Alumni Association
c. ANA
d. NLN
7. Which of the following is the non
government agency which provides training
programs to promote mental health?
a. Association of Mental Health Nursing
b. PNA
c. Philippine Mental Health Association
d. ORNAP
F. THE NURSE IN HEALTH CARE
1. Eleven key areas of
responsibilities
2. Fields of nursing
3. Roles and functions
Situation 1: An ounce of prevention is better
than a pound of cure. This dictum should make
preventive health services an attractive
alternative to the curative approach in health
care particularly that more and more people
are under the poverty line and also because of
the high cost of hospitalization and medical
expenditures.
1. Prevention is an important responsibility of
the nurse in:
a. Hospital and infirmaries
b. All health care settings
c. Health centers and industrial clinics
d. Community and school setting
2. The promotion and protection of health is a
major responsibility of the Department of
Health, which can be the most successful when
there is an active partnership with and/or
involvement of:
a. Department of Education and Local
Government
b. Professional Health Association
c. The people and every citizen
d. Non-Government organization
3. Based on the health belief model, a person
is more likely to take preventive health action
if he:
a. Understands the nature of the disease
b. Has access to health care facilities
c. Believes he is susceptible to the disease
d. Believes in the competence of the nurse
4. The motivation of individuals to participate
in health promotion activities and take specific
health action is most effective in which of the
following strategies:
a. Enactment of a law
b. Use of social pressure
c. Experimental activities
d. Health education
5. Which of the following is a health concern in
the primary level of prevention?
a. Development of health habits and practices
b. Poverty alleviation
c. Early and prompt treatment
d. Case finding
Situation 2: Health is dynamic state in which
the individual adapts to changes in internal and
external environment to maintain a state of
well-being in all dimensions.
6. Which of the following is not considered an
illness behavior?
a. Interpreting a physical symptom of pain as
to its possible cause
b. Ignoring a physical symptom such as
headache
c. Applying for sick leave from work
d. Going to the family physician for
consultation
7. Which of the following are health preventive
activities?
a. Daily exercise
b. Eating well-balanced diet
c. Indulging in wholesome recreational
activities
d. Giving immunization to infants
8. The following are negative health behavior
that must be provided to prevent illness.
a. Regular client check-up
b. Self-medication
c. Immunization
d. Adequate sleep pattern
9. The following is an example of tertiary level
of prevention
a. Teaching a stroke victim how to check bath
water to prevent burns
b. Administering insulin injection to diabetic
patients
c. Supervising Lamaze class to couples
d. Inserting IUD to a mother with two children
10. The following is an example of secondary
level of prevention:
a. Giving of tepid sponge bath
b. Organizing summer tennis club and act class
for children
c. Campaigning for immunizations
d. Doing passive and active exercises for an
orthopedic patient
Situation 3: Professional nursing practice
primarily aims to promote health and prevent
illness.
11. The most basic goal of health promotion is:
a. Healthy
b. Absence of disease
c. No illness
d. Wellness
12. Health promotion essentially involves
nursing activities that:
a. Disseminates health knowledge, values and
healthy lives
b. Encourage nurse community partnership in
health
c. Helps people develop abilities to keep
healthy
d. Enhances people’s quality of life
13. This is the most basic nursing intervention
in health promotion.
a. Health information, communication and
education
b. Screening and case finding activities
c. Behavior modification for healthy living
d. Community organization for health action
14. When you conduct health promotion
activity, an important aspect is:
a. Giving anticipatory guidance
b. Coordinating public health education
c. Assisting in immunization
d. Case finding
15. You are a factory nurse in a bottling
industry. What priority health promotion
program can you undertake?
a. Physical fitness program
b. Accident prevention program
c. Formulating work standards
d. Relaxation exercises
16. A nurse provided the patient and the family
with information regarding the client’s care.
This constitutes:
a. Patient advocate role
b. Surrounds role
c. Counselor role
d. Patient role
17. Which of the following statements if made
by the nurse would you consider him/her as a
prudent nurse?
a. Questions wrong order of the doctor
b. Follow the doctor’s order even if she thinks
it is wrong
c. Very cautiously asks supervision all the time
d. Careful in giving medication in a central line
Situation 4: Care of the elderly is included in
the WHO Health for All. In the Philippines, the
elderly is properly cared for at home.
18. Which Maslow’s hierarchy of needs do old
people need?
a. Spiritual
b. Emotional
c. Economic
d. Belongingness
19. Respiratory disease affect the elderly.
Which nursing function is best to assist your
grandparents?
a. Guidance counseling
b. Referral to specialist
c. Home care management
d. Function specific to disease
20. Humanitarian issues affect care of elderly.
Filipino values are changing. Which one would
you maintain in the care of the elderly?
a. Security and protection
b. Educational and recreation
c. Income of elderly
d. Labor and management
21. What program would you make for the
elderly?
a. Build home for the elderly
b. Information on physical and social process
c. Children to be responsible for parents
d. Involve elderly in volunteer work
22. In our country, senior citizens are given
the privilege in the purchase of their
medicines. How much is the discount?
a. 20%
b. 15%
c. 10%
d. 25%
Situation 5: The following questions pertain to
the nurse duties and responsibilities.
23. Concerned with the care of school children,
the nurse does the following except,
a. Provides for a safe environment
b. Detects, diagnose and treats children with
health problems
c. Identifies and refers children with eye
problems
d . Conduct health education classes
24. The school nurse contributes to the health
care and education of the school population
through which of the following:
a. Health assessment measures
b. Managing school health services
c. Health counseling and coordination with the
community
d. All of these
25. In the provision of care to a family, the
nurse uses the following as a tool in
determining the family’s strength and specific
difficulties.
a. Family coping estimate
b. Family folder
c. Family health record
d. Family health care plan
26. An important reason why erasures in the
patient’s charts should be avoided is:
a. Chart would look dirty and reflects the nurse
personality
b. Recordings may be illegible
c. Chart is a legal document
d. Chartings are essential for endorsement and
follow-up care of patient
27. The nurse documents all nursing care
provided to the patient or family for the
following reason. The document:
a. Is a tool for the assignment of the
patient’s / family’s condition
b. Describes the nursing problem of the patient
or family
c. Provides a record of the medications and
procedures done
d. All these reasons
Situation 6: An understanding of the factors
influencing the health care delivery system will
enable nurses to adjust to change, create
better ways of providing nursing care and
develop new nursing roles.
28. Wellness clinics and health education and
health education activities have been
integrated in government hospitals and render
appropriate services. Which of the following
purposes LEAST help clients in cases of these
health promotion activities?
a. maintain maximum functions
b. identify disease symptoms
c. reduce the costs of health care
d. promote health habits
29. With regards to illness prevention activities
as part of nursing care, which of the following
will help clients most?
a. promote habits related to health care
b. manage stress
c. maintain maximum body function
d. reduce risk factor
30. By experience, which of the following are
the MOST common services overlooked by
nurses and other members of the hospital
team in the care of their clients?
a. Health promotion
b. Diagnosis and treatment
c. Rehabilitation of Patients
d. Illness prevention
31. Which of the following health care agencies
is usually family-centered relatively recent in
popularity and oftentimes focuses on
maintenance of comfort and satisfactory
lifestyle of clients in the terminal phase of
illness?
a. Support Group
b. Community health center
c. Non-government organization
d. Hospice
Situation 7: In taking caré of clients, the nurse
assumes responsibility for one’s own values.
Ethnicity, ethical and legal components have
affected the practice of nursing particularly in
transforming one’s roles and functions.
32. Which of the following statements about
health promotion and assisting the clients to
attain a higher level of health is correct?
a. These are reserved for advance practitioners
b. They are an integral part of the application
of the nursing process
c. These are roles and functions purely for the
public health agencies to perform
d. They are unrealistic given the large client
population
33. The Philippines is a country where patients
come from various ethnic groups. Which of the
following must the nurse do to effectively take
care of their clients from varied geographical
setting?
a. Minimize transcultural communications
b. Work with one ethnic folk healer
c. Determine patient’s personal beliefs and
values
d. Study the ethnic culture of each of the client
34. Which of the following is the MOST
important factor in providing nursing care to
clients coming from a specific ethnic group?
a. Environmental control
b. Time reorientation
c. Biological intervention
d. Communication
35. Which of the following roles match the
work related activity of the nurses whereby
he/she functions as clinician, educator,
manager, consultant and research within a
specific practice?
a. Nurse practitioner
b. Nurse anesthetist
c. Clinical specialist
d. Nurse educator
36. Which of the following roles or functions is
fulfilled by the nurse as he/she answers the
client’s questions about the discharge
medication and ways to hasten to recovery
after abdominal surgery?
a. Decision-making
b. Teacher
c. Caregiver
d. Manager
Situation 8: Miss Tulosan, a young promising
executive, came to the clinic for chronic cough
and progressive weight loss. There were no
abnormal findings noted after a physical
examination.
37. You advised Miss Tulosan to quit smoking.
This is based on the knowledge that:
a. Smoking is associated with lung cancer
b. Nicotine is a throat irritant
c. Smoking is an addictive habit
d. Smoking as relaxing is a myth
38. The first step to take in attempting to
change health behavior is:
a. Specific measures to take
b. Desire to change
c. Commitment to change
d. Awareness of need to change
39. Which statement on the Health Belief
Model (HBM) is true:
a. HBM identifies vulnerability of individual to
become ill
b. HBM identifies an individual’s misconception
on health
c. HBM is based on health practices
d. HBM recommends what health action to take
40. Based on HBM, a factor most likely to
influence initial action of Mrs.Tulosan to quit
smoking is:
a. The support given by the nurse
b. Knowledge of smoking-related diseases
c. Her perceived benefit of the health action
d. The family’s approval of her health action
41. This action strategy will most likely
influence the smoking behavior of Miss
Tulosan: a. Positive reinforcement from peers
b. Declaring her firm “no smoking” area
c. An administrative policy to prohibit smoking
d. A “no smoking” sign
Situation 9: Nurse Lilian is assigned in the
Rehabilitation Unit of HSOD, a tertiary hospital.
42. Lilian should know that rehabilitation is a
health oriented process that assists clients,
sick or well to:
a. Live with permanent disabilities
b. Adjust to his environment and disabilities by
learning to use resources
c. Achieve an acceptable quality of life
d. Achieve her greatest possible level of
physical, mental, social and emotional
functioning
43. Achievement of self-care independence is
manifested by which of the following:
a. Client uses assistive device with assistance
b. Client reports dissatisfaction in her action
c. Client remains withdrawn
d. Client dresses self at a maximal level of
independence
44. In assessing possible footdrop with a client
in leg cast, the nurse should let:
a. The client move his toes and foot
b. The client massage his foot
c. The client perform a kicking motion
d. The client flex his knee
45. You are caring/ assigned to a patient in
Buck’s extension traction after fracture of the
left tibia. Which of these questions is best to
ask in assessing for complications?
a. Can you feel my pen on your toes?
b. Can you attend to yourself?
c. Can you feel the weather?
d. Can you move your left buttock?
46. A client after an acute attack of MI
recovers without complication. She is now on
physical conditioning. Lilian should first:
a. Assist the client in walking inside the room
b. Assist in dangling his client’s legs
c. Allow the client to perform active range of
motion
d. Check tolerance to activity
Situation: Miss Cruz is a staff nurse in the
emergency hospital of a remote town in the
south. As a nurse, she takes care of patients
with varied cases and different ages.
47. One of the two patients she has met is
Aling Maria, 60 years old, who for two years
have been taking medications and following a
low salt diet to control her blood pressure.
She says, these make her feel so much better.
Which of the four models of health best
explains Aling Maria’s behavior?
a. agent-host
b. health-belief model
c. health-illness continuum
d. high-level illness
48. In one of her health tasks, Miss Cruz
gathered all four of her patients with similar
conditions and conducted health education on
diet and activities for hypertensive patient.
This kind of nursing activity is an example of
what level of prevention?
a. Tertiary
b. Primary
c. Quarterly
d. Secondary
49. Aling Maria’s age and her lack of regular
exercise increased her vulnerably to
hypertension. These and other variables that
increase her vulnerability to hypertension is:
a. life-style determinant
b. Negative health behavior
c. Illness behavior
d. Risk factor
50. One program that Aling Maria could be
encouraged to actively involve with is to
improve her present level of illness and
decrease the risk of hypertension is:
a. weight reduction
b. smoking cessation
c. mental hygiene
d. physical fitness
51. Which of the following characterizes health
promotive behavior for Aling Maria
a. Taking medication obtained over the counter
for a physical symptom
b. Having fresh vegetables and fruits regularly
in her diet
c. Consulting a physician because of a
perceived headache
d. Withdrawal from work activities of
fatigability
II. SAFE AND QUALITY CARE
A. THE NURSING PROCESS
Situation 1: You are a head nurse in a unit
where a project on Quality Assurance (QA) is
going to be piloted. As the headnurse, you
expect your staff nurses to demonstrate high
level skills in determining nursing diagnosis so
that appropriate nursing care plan is designed
for your patients.
1. One of the patients in the ward was Rhea,
26 years old, who was admitted for excision of
a small cyst in the left breast. Upon further
interview, you learned from the staff nurse
that Rhea does not know that regular breast
self-examination is important. Which nursing
diagnosis of the said nurse would be most
appropriate for this situation:
a. Non-compliance with cancer-prevention
activities
b. Knowledge deficit relate to anxiety about
cancer
c. Altered health maintenance related to lack of
information about breast self-examination
d. Knowledge deficit related to inability to
perform breast self examination
2. June, another patient in the ward, is a post-
abdominal patient. She will be discharged in 2-
3 days from now. Which behavior objectives
would be most accurate?
a. Client will demonstrate abdominal dressing
change
b. Client will change abdominal dressing using
clean technique before hospital discharge
c. Client will know the correct technique for
abdominal dressing change prior to hospital
discharge
d. Client will describe how to change the
abdominal dressing.
3. Miss Golez, another patient, has been
confined to bed for several days. She needs to
learn to perform back-strengthening exercise.
The best teaching method that you will suggest
to your staff nurse for this patient is:
a. group discussion
b. formal lecture
c. individual study
d. demonstration
4. You will tell your staff nurse that the most
important factors to consider when developing
a teaching plan for a child is:
a. the chronological age of the child
b. the information to be taught
c. the amount of time available
d. the developmental level of the child
Situation 2: Nursing as a profession benefits
from the use of nursing diagnosis process in a
professional clinical practice.
5. The most important values of the use of
nursing diagnosis in care planning is:
a. Highlights your critical thinking and
decision-making
b. Focuses on the cause of the illness
c. Helps to define what is health
d. Identifies what the nurse can prescribe
6. Which statement best describe the purpose
of the nursing diagnoses?
a. Identification of problem areas
b. Specification of patient’s health care needs
c. Organization of assessment data
d. Preparation of a clinical abstract
7. The nursing diagnosis of your patients
consists of statements of:
a. Health problems
b. Medical impression
c. Response to illness
d. Alteration of health
8. Nursing diagnosis as differentiated from
medical diagnosis has its emphasis on:
a. Patient’s response to illness
b. Cause of illness
c. Specific disease process
d. Pathology
9. These statements about nursing diagnosis
are true, except: Nursing diagnosis
a. States etiology of the problem
b. Is disease-oriented
c. Is guided by independent nursing action
d. Is complimentary to medical diagnosis
Situation 3: The scope of nursing practice
provides that the nurse render nursing care to
the client through the application of nursing
process.
10. Nursing process is a problem solving
technique that utilizes which of the following
sequential order?
a. Planning, assessment, implementation and
evaluation
b. Assessment, implementation, planning and
evaluation
c. Problem identification, planning,
implementation and evaluation
d. Planning, implementation, assessment and
evaluation
11. Which of the following is included in a
psychosocial assessment of patients?
a. Doing the examination using the
cephalocaudal approach
b. Gathering the information on the personal,
social and environmental history of the patient
c. Getting the general data and chief
complaints of her patients
d. Obtaining the past medical history of her
patient
12. Which of the following is the main purpose
of doing psychosocial and physical
assessment?
a. Formulate a nursing diagnosis for the plan of
care
b. Identify past potential and probable health
problems of the patient
c. Ascertain the reason why the patient is
brought to the hospital
d. Know the patient and his family at the time
of admission
13. Which of the following information about
patient care is provided by evaluation as part
of the nursing process?
a. The patient has agreed with the process
b. Nursing assessment was properly done
c. Nursing goal is met through the use of
certain nursing interventions
d. The competence of the nurse is determined
in managing patient care
14. The general appearance and emotional
disposition of a client is best observed initially
during which of the following situations?
a. Taking of vital signs
b. Interview
c. Implementation of initial care
d. Actual physical examination
Situation 4: The final activity in the process of
diagnosing is the formulation of the nursing
diagnosis. It is the problem the nurse chooses
to address within the scope of the legal nursing
practice.
15. It refers to a problem that exists at the
present moment
a. Actual nursing diagnosis
b. Risk nursing diagnosis
c. Possible nursing diagnosis
d. Collaborative problems
16. It is clinical judgment that an individual,
family or community is more vulnerable to
develop the problem than are others in the
same similar situation:
a. Actual nursing diagnosis
b. Risk nursing diagnosis
c. Possible nursing diagnosis
d. Collaborative problems
17. This is a tentative nursing diagnosis which
may be compared to a physician who lists
several rules out medical diagnosis in a
patient’s admission assessment. The nurse
assures continued collection of relevant data.
a. Actual nursing diagnosis
b. Risk nursing diagnosis
c. Possible nursing diagnosis
d. Collaborative problems
18. Which of the following is the correct way in
writing an actual nursing diagnosis:
a. Problem + risk factors
b. Problem + risk factors + signs and
symptoms
c. Problem + etiology + signs and symptoms
d. Problem + signs and symptoms + etiology
19. What particular nursing diagnosis focuses
on well patients
a. Actual nursing diagnosis
b. Risk nursing diagnosis
c. Potential nursing diagnosis
d. Wellness nursing diagnosis
Situation 5: Evaluation of care is an integral
part in the application of Nursing Process.
20. What are the changes in the client’s health
status which is the result of nursing
intervention?
a. Healthy lifestyle
b. Desired outcome
c. Modified behavior
d. Compliance with regimen
21. Which of the following is the structural
element from which nursing care is delivered?
a. Philosophy of care
b. Health team
c. Care regimen
d. Modification of symptoms
22. Which of the following is the process
element as framework of nursing care?
a. Outcome changes
b. Determining nursing goals
c. Organizational structure
d. Nursing objectives
23. Which of the following is the outcome
element of nursing care?
a. Success of nursing action
b. Budget and equipment
c. Coordination of services
d. Skill level of client
24. What is the measure of nursing
effectiveness if quality assurance if
recommended?
a. Standard of practice
b. Change in behavior of the client
c. High cost of health care regimen
d. Nurse-patient ratio
Situation 6: The application of the nursing
process is a rational method of planning and
providing nursing care. As a basic tool in
professional nursing practice, its utilization
ensures competent and safe practice.
25. When promoting health of the individual,
family and community, the first step you
should take is:
a. Do health status assessment
b. Conduct a population census
c. Establish a registry of families
d. Organize the community for health action
26. When assessing the family health status,
one most important data to collect is the:
a. Roles of the family members
b. Level of immunization of the children
c. Hospitalization experience of the family
d. Health resources of the family
27. This is a statement of nursing diagnosis
related to health promotion:
a. Health-seeking behaviors related to
ignorance
b. Potential coping deficit because of poverty
c. Misconception about health promotion
attributed to culture
d. Malnutrition due to poor eating habits
28. In health promotion, which of the following
nursing interventions should you give priority:
a. Adult education
b. Health education
c. Primary health care
d. Program planning
29. When implementing a health promotion
plan, it is most important to develop the
individual’s
a. Self-respect
b. Self-responsibility
c. Self-worth
d. Self-image
30. Nursing process is a problem solving
methodology of the nursing profession. It is
the manner of:
a. establishing a trusting and productive
relationship
b. determining the outcome or result of action
taken
c. relating, assessing, planning and
implementing and evaluating
d. Both a and b
31. Implementation of plan action is done
through
a. Independent and interdependent measure
b. Dependent and independent measure
c. Dependent and interdependent measure
d. none of the above
32. Which of the following characteristics of the
client goal in the plan of care is correct?
a. Nurse-focused, flexible, measurable and
realistic
b. Client-focused, flexible, realistic and
measurable
c. Nurse-focused, time-limited, realistic and
measurable
d. Client-focused, time-limited, realistic and
measurable
Situation 7: During the orientation program for
new staff nurses, one of the first things
emphasized is the application of nursing
process in the management and care of thin
patients.
33. The establishment of a data base for a
newly-admitted patient forms which phase of
the nursing process?
a. Assessment
b. Implementation
c. Planning
d. Nursing Diagnosis
34. Assessment phase of the nursing process is
completed:
a. At the beginning of every shift
b. In the terminating phase of nurse-patient
relationship
c. In the initial nurse-patient relationship
d. At the beginning and end of every shift
35. A nurse who is taking a patient with severe
dehydration due to loose bowel movement
decided to first provide the patient with liquids
and juices and give health instruction on
sanitation and hygiene. The nurse in doing
these activities is performing what element in
the nursing process?
a. Implementation
b. Evaluation
c. Planning
d. Assessment
36. The comprehension and interpretation of
patient’s data to identify possible nursing
problems is processed through:
a. Assessment
b. Evaluation
c. Analysis
d. Nursing Diagnosis
37. In taking care of the patient for cardiac
catheterization, the nurse noted that the
patient manifested fear related to cardiac
catheterization and its outcome. This
statement is an example of:
a. Nursing diagnosis
b. Implementation
c. Assessment
d. Evaluation
Situation: As a community health nurse, you
are planning, carrying out and evaluating care
of patients, particularly those who cannot be
attended by the Rural Health Midwife.
1. In order to provide individualized care to
your patients, you must develop for each
patient a:
a. List of factors affecting patient’s condition
b. Patient’s needs
c. Doctor’s order
d. Family’s instruction
2. The provision of immediate care needed by
the patient is your concern. Hence, you
establish priorities according to:
a. List of factors affecting patient’s condition
b. Patient’s needs
c. Doctor’s order
d. Family’s instruction
3. For the nursing care plan to be effective,
this must be prepared with and accepted by
the:
a. Rural Health Physician
b. Other members of the health team
c. Patient
d. Midwife assigned to the area where patient
resides

4. Having in mind Maslow’s hierarchy of needs,
which of the following problems should be
given first priority?
a. Patient has difficulty of urination
b. Patient has poor and demeaning concept of
self
c. Patient expresses need to get a job
d. Patient feels unsafe and insecure for being
left alone
5. In order to evaluate the effectiveness of
your care plan and have a basis for change or
modification, you should:
a. Have a well-documented assessment
b. Have a specific and measurable outcome
criteria
c. Establish a nursing diagnosis
d. Have a list of nursing interventions based on
needs
3. Mr. Ocampo appears quite thin. What data
would you initially need to determine his level
of nutrition?
a. Nutrition notes by dietitician
b. A sample of his daily diet
c. Food he ate yesterday
d. His height and weight
4. Your admission data will include social data
about your patient. These are examples of
social data, except:
a. Perception of illness
b. Religious practices
c. Family home situation
d. Patient’s lifestyle
5. Which of the following about nursing
diagnosis is true?
a. Assessment ends with a diagnosis
b. Assessment data is recorded in SOAP
c. Nursing audit is part of assessment
d. Assessment is a continuous process

B. BASIC NURSING SKILLS 2. VITAL SIGNS

1. ADMISSION AND DISCHARGE
1. The nurse is performing an admission
assessment on a client with exacerbation of
asthma. Which of the following times is ideal to
design discharge planning?
a. At the time of admission
b. The day before discharge
c. After acute episode is resolved
d. When the discharge order is written
Situation: As an RN, you assume responsibility
for systematically assessing needs of your
clients/patients. You admitted Mr. Ocampo to
the ward.
Situation: Mr. Jocson, 65 years old, complained
of feeling extremely cold on a hot summer day.
1. You understand that elderlies are at risk of
hypothermia because of:
a. Lack of exercise
b. Inadequate food intake
c. Reduced sex hormones
d. Reduced heat regulation efficiency
2. To take his temperature accurately, let the
thermometer stay:
a. In the axilla for no time limit
b. In the rectum, mouth or axilla at least one
or two minutes
c. In the rectum for at least five minutes
d. In the mouth or at least one minute

1. In your initial contact with Mr. Ocampo, 3. The next day, he felt extremely warm. You
which of the following greetings will more likely put on the electric fan to increase heat loss
put him at ease? through:
a. “Good morning. I am Leah, your new a. Conduction
nurse”. b. Convection
b. “How are you today? I am your new nurse.” c. Radiation
c. “Are you Mr. Ocampo, Bed 20”. d. Vaporization
d. “I have been assigned to take care of you”.
4. Mr. Jocson is experiencing a fever of 39
2. In your initial and ongoing assessment, you degrees Celsius. In Farenheit, this is equivalent
utilize the: to:
a. Problem-oriented medical records a. 99.8’F
b. Kardex recording system b. 100.20 ‘F
c. Problem-solving approach to care c. 102.2 ‘F
d. Standards of nursing care assessment d. 104.15 ‘F
5. Two days later, he had fever of 39.5 d. inspection, percussion, palpation and
degrees Celsius. The best nursing measure you auscultation
can immediately give:
a. Increase intake of fluid Situation 2: Mrs. Dela Cruz, 35 years old,
b. Administer antipyretic came to a family planning clinic for
c. Alcohol rub consultation. One of the things that a nurse
d. Tepid sponge bath usually does to assist a patient decide an
appropriate contraceptive method is to perform
3. PHYSICAL EXAMINATION AND HEALTH a physical assessment.
ASSESSMENT
6. The purpose of having another female staff
Situation 1: In doing physical examination, the in the same examination room when a male
patient usually is asked to assume different nurse is assigned to a patient is to:
position depending upon the parts of the body a. Ensure that he nurse performs the physical
to be examined. assessment in an ethical manner
b. Observe the patient’s emotional responses
1. In examining the client’s head, neck and and inform the nurse about it
breath sound, it is best that the nurse position c. Validate or confirm the observation of the
her client to: nurse
a. Lithotomy d. Respond to the patient’s queries so as not to
b. Sim’s position interrupt the nurse
c. Dorsal recumbent
d. Upright position 7. In doing the physical assessment, the nurse
observes the following sequences:
2. The best position for externally examining a. Toe to head
the cardiovascular system uterus and other b. Postero-lateral
organs in the abdominal regions of the client c. Head to toe
is: d. Antero-lateral
a. Supine position
b. Dorsal recumbent 8. To have a comprehensive past medical
c. Lithotomy history, the nurse asks the patient of any
d. Sim’s position significant illnesses that occurred in the past.
The assessment process is called:
3. The best measure to psychologically prepare a. Psychosocial
the client for physical examination is: b. Head to toe
a. explain the procedure and allow her to c. Systems Review
verbalize her discomfort and doubts d. Cephalocaudal
b. tell the clients as to what she can do to
assist in the examination 9. Before measuring the client’s height and
c. avoid unnecessary noise as it will interfere weight, the nurse should:
the examination a. Calibrate the weighing scale by setting the
d. provide screen for privacy weight at zero
b. Ask the patient her height and weight
4. In examining the rectum of a client, the best c. Ask if there has been a change in her height
position is: and weight
a. Sim’s position d. Instruct the patient to step right away on
b. Dorsal recumbent the weighing scale
c. Lithotomy
d. Prone 10. The component that should receive the
highest priority before a physical examination
5. In the physical examination of the patient is the:
with abdominal pain, the following sequence of a. Psychological preparation of the client
technique is recommended: b. Preparation of the environment
a. inspection, auscultation, percussion and c. Physical preparation of the client
palpation d. Preparation of the equipment
b. inspection, palpation, percussion and
auscultation 11. Which of the following is the correct
c. inspection, percussion, auscultation and sequence in abdominal assessment?
palpation
a. Inspection, auscultation, percussion,
palpation
b. Inspection, palpation, percussion,
auscultation
c. Auscultation, percussion, palpation,
inspection
d. Inspection, percussion, auscultation,
palpation
12. To ensure pulmonary function, which of the
following will the nurse do?
a. Auscultation
b. Percussion
c. I nspection
d. Palpation
Situation 3: Man is a biopsychosocial being.
Understanding this concept will enable you ton
identify the nursing needs of your patient.
13. The needs of your patient are those that he
must have to survive while problems are
those:
a. Encountered during illness
b. Conditions that can be solved by the nurse
c. Barriers to health
d. Situations requiring assistance
14. This is an example of a covert need:
a. Desire for attention
b. Respiratory distress
c. Expressed concern of patient
d. Impending shock
15. It is important to consider your
client/patient within his environment in order
to:
a. Know his strengths and weaknesses
b. Correct undesirable health practices
c. Improve his well-being
d. Identify appropriate nursing intentions
16. When assessing the needs/problems of the
patient, which of the following is paramount.
His:
a. Financial capacity
b. Support system
c. Coping ability
d. Health resources
17. The patient views illness as a punishment
form God. How would you respond:
a. Allow patient to express her hostile feelings
b. Encourage patient to express his concept of
illness
c. Explain that her view is incorrect
d. Ignore patient’s view and change the topic.
Situation 4: Nurse Susie is the headnurse in
the Pediatric Unit. She considers history
taking, among others, very vital to the care of
patients.
18. To elicit data gathering about a child,
which of the following should the nurse
perform first?
a. Assess what a family understands about
their child’s health
b. Formulate an individual plan of care
c. Establish a relationship with the child and
the family
d. Correct any misinformation the family may
have
19. Jerry, a 6 month old infant is admitted to
the unit. The staff nurse takes the history.
Among others, history-taking in infants focuses
specifically on:
a. Family background
b. Stress, prenatal and postnatal history
c. Physical stress
d. Parental and sibling relationships
20. Gina was admitted for bodily bruises. As a
2-year old child, the nurse took the standard
history taking procedures with specific focus
on:
a. Physical and emotional status of the child
b. Religious affiliations and practices
c. Socio-economic status
d. Home environment, safety issues
21. For school age children, which of the
following aspects in history taking should the
nurse particularly focus on:
a. Church, house, geographical location
b. Child’s physical and emotional make-up
c. School, friends, reaction to previous
hospitalizations
d. Financial status of the family
22. Nurse Susie noted a rise in admission
among adolescent group. She cautioned her
staff to give special attention in history-taking
on:
a. Alcohol, drug, friends, sexual history
b. Food and food stuffs
c. Socio-cultural backgrounds
d. Academic performance
Situation 5: Mr. Roy, a 48 years old executive
was admitted for diagnostic studies. He weighs
210 lbs, leads a sedentary life and is a chain
smoker. You studied the assessment of the
patient.
23. The purpose of your initial physical
assessment is to:
a. Effectively plan nursing care
b. Prepare the patient for diagnostic tests
c. Provide baseline data for further assessment
d. Encourage nurses to expand their role
24. In performing physical assessment of the
abdomen, the proper sequence is:
a. Inspection, palpation, auscultation,
percussion
b. Inspection, auscultation, palpation,
percussion
c. Palpation, auscultation, inspection,
percussion
d. Auscultation, inspection, palpation,
percussion
25. When taking an apical pulse rate, you
should place the stethoscope:
a. Between the third and 4th ribs to the left of
the sternum
b. On the fifth intercostals space along the left
clavicular line
c. Between the 6th and 7th ribs
d. Just to the left with the medium part of the
sternum
26. This is an accurate description of a lymph
node assessment:
a. Enlarge
b. Easily palpable
c. Mobile
d. Tender nodes
27. What confirmation is obtained through
percussion of abdominal organs:
a. Location, size and density
b. Location and density
c. Size and density
d. Size and location
Situation: Aling Puring, 65 years old, a sari-
sari owner, came to the outpatient clinic
complaining of easy fatigability. She is very
much worried about her health. You made a
risk appraisal.
1. Risk appraisal will be more effective if you
demonstrate:
a. An attitude of concern
b. Acceptance of the client
c. A helping attitude
d. Client trust in you
2. The objective of a risk appraisal is to
identify:
a. Undesirable health practices
b. Health deficits
c. Health hazards
d. Danger signs of a disease
3. Which of the following statements is a
priority health promotion goal for Aling Puring?
a. To have regular physical examination
b. To limit activities that tire her
c. To plan her diet
d. To reduce stress
4. Aling Puring’s blood pressure registered
180/110 mmHg. Which of the following factors
would you consider at most risk to her?
a. Sleeping habits
b. Past illnesses
c. Daily activities of living
d. Dietary patterns
5. This is an information which will give you
additional data on Aling Puring’s condition?
a. Her health beliefs and practices
b. Illnesses in the family
c. Demands on her work
d. Health resources of her family
Situation: Risk factors can be present in the
following interrelated categories like genetic
and physiological factors, age, physical
appearance. Identifying risk factors is
important for health and illness prevention.
1. Which of the following risk factors is
associated with genetic and physiological
factors? a. Poor living condition
b. Poor personal hygiene
c. Obesity and renal disease
d. Drug abuse
2. Which of the following environmental
condition is considered a health risk?
a. Poor personal hygiene
b. Complications of pregnancy
c. Family history of diabetes
d. Chemical or toxic wastes
3. Which of the following are internal variables
that influence health beliefs and practices?
a. Cultural background and nationality
b. Socio-economic factors and intellectual
background
c. Spiritual factors and developmental stage
4. When a client relies on a health professional
for relief of his symptoms and accepts care, he
is in which of the following stage of illness?
a. Dependency role
b. Health care professionals contact
c. Assumption of the risk role
d. Recovery and rehabilitation
5. Any variable increasing the vulnerability of
an individual or a group to an illness or
accident is considered which of the following?
a. Negative health behavior
b. Risk factor
c. Lifestyle determinant
d. Illness behavior
4. ADMINISTRATION OF MEDICATIONS
Situation 1: You know that age affects drug
action. Hence, care should be observed in
administering medications to any age group.
1. The doctor ordered antibiotics. Why are
antibiotics generally taken after meal? To:
a. Delay rate of absorption
b. Enhance action of drugs
c. Prevent irritation of gastric mucosa
d. Prevent side effects
2. Central nervous system depressant has
more toxic effects when given to younger
patients primarily due to increased drug:
a. Absorption
b. Excretion
c. Distribution
d. Action
3. How do you prevent introduction of an
intramuscular injection into the venous
system?
a. Inject medication slowly
b. Use a Z tract method of injection
c. Aspirate drug after insertion of needle
d. Inject in an area with fewer blood vessels
4. A patient said he follows his routine in
taking medication. Which is your best initial
response?
a. There is a hospital policy to follow
b. Let me refer you to your doctor
c. Ask what those routines are
d. That’s alright for me
5. When a patient refuses to take his
medication, what is your initial action:
a. Ask the reason why
b. Give him time to change his mind
c. Your doctor may order your discharge
d. Convince him that medicines are for his
welfare
6. Drug absorption in IM injection is decreased
due to:
a. Fat deposits
b. Decreased blood supply to the muscle
c. Muscles are full of connective tissue
d. Increased blood flow
Situation 2: Nurses are prone to medication
errors, this they are advised to be cautious in
their drug administration especially in
parenteral medicine.
7. In cleansing the site for injection, the nurse
should:
a. Swab is used to wipe injection site in a
circular motion moving in an inward direction.
b. Swab is used to wipe injection site on both
sides
c. Swab is moved in a circular motion in an
outward direction
d. Any of the above
8. The nurse should remember that massaging
the injection site is contraindicated.
a. After an intradermal injection
b. Adminitration of insulin
c. IM injection using a Z-track technique
d. All of the above
9. The most common site for SQ injection is:
a. Outer thigh
b. Upper arm
c. Abdomen
d. Middle portion of the back
10. The amount of medication that could be
given through a deltoid muscle is:
a. 0.5 ml or less
b. 1.0 ml or less
c. 1.5 ml or less
d. 2.0 ml or less
11. The needle appropriate to a z-track
procedure is:
a. 1-2 inch needle (2.5-5 cm)
b. 2-3 inches needle (5-7.5 cm)
c. 0.5-1 inch needle (1.3-2.5 cm)
d. 3-4 inches needle (7.5-10 cm)
Situation 3: Lyka, a BSN student, was assigned
in the medical ward. She is to administer
medication under the supervision of her clinical
instructor.
12. When administering drugs, the nurse
compares the label of the drug container with
the medicine card.
I. Before removing the container from
the drawer or shelf
II. As the amount of drug ordered is
removed from the container
III. Before returning the container to
the storage
IV. Before directly administering the
drug
a. I and II only
 b. I, II, III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
13. What is the best way of identifying the
right client?
a. Check the medicine card against the client’s
identification bracelet?
b. Nurse speaks the name of the client
c. Nurses ask the client to state full name
d. Nurses consult the physician
14. If the doctor’s order 8h, what does it
mean?
a. The medication should be given during the
waking hours
b. The medication should be given round the
clock
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
15. When in doubt about drug names, what is
the BEST nursing action?
a. Read the patient’s chart
b. Ask the attending physician
c. Ask another nurse
16. The correct technique in Z-tract injection of
iron is:
a. Pull the skin at site of injection down
b. Inject deep IM
c. Massage the skin
d. Pull the skin tight
17. A nurse supervisor observed the newly
hired nurse in the injection of a parenteral
medication of the buttocks of the patient. The
newly hired nurse needs no further teaching if
she:
a. Injects at the inner upper quadrant
b. Draws an imaginary line at the injection site
c. Pinches the skin before injecting
d. Inject medication at 45 degrees
18. After an injection on buttocks of the
patient, the patient complained of a paralysis-
like feeling on his leg. The patient asks you if
this could be caused by injection. What would
be your response?
a. Say Yes
b. Say No
c. Say perhaps
d. Say it needs assessment
5. ASEPSIS AND INFECTION CONTROL
Situation 1: In nursing practice, you are
directly involved in providing a safe
environment.
1. A biologically safe environment is free from:
a. Living sources of infection
b. Harmful microorganism
c. Dirty treatment instruments
d. Corrosive agents to body tissue
2. What is the main goal of hospital against
infection?
a. Interrupt bacterial growth
b. Avoidance of cross infection
c. Break the chain of infection
d. Strict observance of asepsis
3. This measure will prevent the spread of
infection in hospital wards:
a. Increase knowledge of staff on risk factors
b. Strict observance of asepsis
c. Disinfection of known contaminated
instruments
d. Prompt report of signs of infection
4. The most common infectious agent in the
patient’s unit is:
a. Nosocomial infection
b. Escherichia coli
c. Virulent microorganisms
d. Iatrogenic agents
5. Your patient complained for severe pain at
the inflamed wound and asked you why. Your
correct response is:
a. Injury to local nerve endings
b. Increase permeability of injured capillaries
c. Pain stimulant at inflamed site
d. Pressure of accumulating fluids at inflamed
site
6. Which of the following interventions would
be appropriate before touching Mrs. B’s
dressing?
a. Obtain a physician’s order to remove
bandage
b. Ensure that povidone-iodine solution is
available for cleaning the wound
c. Check the patient’s peripheral pulses
d. Put on sterile gloves
7. All the following statements are true about
donning sterile gloves except:
a. The first glove should be picked up by
grasping the inside of the cuff
b. The second glove should be picked up by
inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff and
pulling the glove.
c. The glove should be adjusted aiding the
gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling 15. What is the term which means there is an
the glove under the wrist. increase susceptibility to special substances
d. The inside of the glove is considered sterile. especially protein. When protein is introduced
to the body, hypersensitivity is alarming:
8. Effective handwashing requires the use of a. Anaphylaxis
a. Soap or detergent to promote emulsification b. Neurogenis
b. Hot water to destroy bacteria c. Serum sickness
c. A disinfectant to increase surface tension d. Antitoxins
d. All of the above
16. Before introduction of any foreign
9. Which of the following procedures always substance to the body, it is the duty of the
require surgical asepsis? nurse to prepare a syringe with adrenalin or
a. Vaginal installation of conjugated estrogen aminophylline to counteract allergies or
b. Urinary catheterization anaphylactic shock. What do you call this
c. Nasogastric tube insertion procedure?
d. Colostomy irrigation a. Horse-serum
b. Antidote
10. The nurse is aware that transmission of c. Sensitivity
microorganisms can be primarily prevented by: d. Dermatologic
a. Handwashing
b. Sterilization Situation 3: The nurse plays an important role
c. Disinfection in the control of preventable diseases.
d. Fumigation 17. The control of any preventable disease
depends to a large extent on the following,
11. You are caring for a client in isolation. After except:
nursing care is done, what will you remove first a. Assignment of the epidemiologist
after handling the patient? b. Nature of the disease itself
a. Mask c. Application of effective control measures
b. Gown d. Knowledge of appropriate technology
c. Gloves
d. Bonnet 18. The first line of defense of the body against
disease is:
Situation 2: Immunity maybe natural or a. An intact skin
acquired but there is not absolute immunity. b. Personal hygiene
12. What kind of immunity is a state of c. Complete immunization
resistance to infection inherent in the body not d. Physical stamina
brought about through a previous attack of the
disease? 19. When breaking the chain of infection,
a. Passive which of the following is true:
b. Natural a. A virulent agent can resist disinfection
c. Anaphylactic b. An appropriate portal of entry will not cause
d. Active infection
c. Mode of entry of harmful organisms is direct
13. This kind of immunity is acquired resulting entry
from previous attack of the disease or repeated d. Every link in the chain of infection can be
exposure to doses of an organism? interrupted
a. Anaphylactic
b. Active 20. Why do newborn babies have a limited
c. Passive ability to produce antibodies against infection?
d. Natural a. Their immune system is still undeveloped
b. All babies have antibodies from their
14. What kind of immunity is dependent on the mothers
presence of the blood of immune substances c. Babies are less exposed to harmful
not produced by the person’s own body cells? microorganisms
a. Passive d. Skin of babies are quite intact
b. Active
c. Natural 21. Health education is a vital component in
d. Prophylactic the control of diseases. Its major aim is to:
a. Modify risk behavior
b. Helps individual protect himself
c. Reduce risk of exposure
d. Avoid unnecessary stress
Situation 4: You have just attended training on
family planning. One of the important things
you have learned as a family planning service
provider is infection prevention.
22. To achieve high-level disinfections by
boiling, which of the following should NOT be
practiced?
a. Completely submerge in clean water
b. Start timing when the stove is turned on
c. Start timing when boiling start
d. Boil the instrument for at least 20 minutes
while keeping the lid covered
23. Immediately after pelvic examination of a
client, you planned to sterilize the gloves and
the speculum for next day’s use. Your first step
should be which one of the following?
a. Clean them with soap and water to remove
visible dirt
b. Set them aside and boil them in the morning
for 30 minutes
c. Boil them immediately after use for 30
minutes
d. Soak them in a 0.5% chlorine bleach
solution for 10 minutes before cleaning
24. In which of the following situations is
aseptic techniques NOT necessary?
a. When there is a gross examination of blood
and other secretions
b. When there is contact with a client who has
communicable disease
c. When there is contact with any client with or
without communicable diseases
d. When there is contact with the belongings of
a client who has communicable disease
25. A client asks you what initially is the
simplest and most important procedure being
done in a clinic so she is not infected with
other client’s diseases. Which one of the
following is your answer?
a. Periodic fumigation of the health center
b. Sterilization of all instruments
c. Handwashing before and after examination
of every client
26. Decontamination of surgical instruments by
soaking in 0.5% chlorine bleach for minutes
results to which of the following?
a. Enables the health workers to reuse the
instrument immediately
b. Completely kill all microorganisms
c. Makes the microorganisms less
contaminated
d. Rapidly kills viruses causing AIDS or
Hepatitis B
6. FIRST AID MEASURES
7. WOUND CARE
Situation 1: Mr. Alfred, a public school teacher
is walking towards school when a stray bullet
hit him. He is rushed to the Provincial Hospital
where an exploratory laparotomy is ordered.
1. In changing the wound dressing a day after
the operation, the nurse can BEST prevent
spread of infection by discarding the soiled
dressing in which of the following?
a. The garbage can in the corridor
b. The garbage can in Mr. Alfred’s room
c. In an improvised paper bag then discard in
the yellow marked garbage can
d. In a plastic bag then discard in the green
marked garbage can
2. Which of the following is the nurse’s MAIN
priority when changing the dressing?
a. Wear sterile gloves when removing the
dressing
b. With the same sterile gloves in removing,
apply the dressing
c. Wash hands after the dressing change
d. Wash hands before and after the dressing
change
3. When charting the nurses notes after a
dressing change, which of the following is NOT
included?
a. Amount, odor and appearance of drainage
b. Quantity of cotton balls used in changing the
wound
c. Appearance of the skin around the wound
d. Time dressing change is done
4. Which of the following is the appropriate
action when assisting Mr. Alfred with the
postoperative coughing and deep breathing
exercises?
a. Place the patient in dorsal recumbent
position during coughing and deep breathing
exercises
b. Administer prescribed analgesics before the
coughing and deep breathing exercises
c. Instruct Mr. Alfred to cough every 3 deep
breathing
d. Administer prescribed analgesics after the
coughing and deep breathing exercises
5. Which of the following is BEST effective skin
disinfection before a surgical procedure?
a. Shaving the surgical site in the day before
the surgery
b. Apply on antiseptic solution on the surgical
site in the morning before the surgery
c. Have the patient take a bath with an
antiseptic soap in the evening before and
morning of surgery
d. Have the patient take a bath in the morning
of the surgery
Situation 2: You took over the nursing care of
a patient with an infected wound.
6. When body calls are responsible for tissue
repair:
a. Macrophages
b. Neutrophils
c. Platelets
d. Epithelial cells
7. The best solution to use in cleaning
decubitus ulcer is:
a. Isotonic saline
b. Sterile water
c. Betadine
d. Hydrogen peroxide
8. Which of the following statements on wound
healing is not true:
a. Wounds heal faster in one patient
b. Stress interferes with wound healing
c. Wound healing is delayed in malnourished
patients
d. Ischemia slows down wound healing
9. When dressing contaminated wounds, you
must keep in mind the following, except:
a. Apply cold around wound area after dressing
b. Disinfect all instruments used
c. Use a non-irritating disinfectant solution
d. Isolate patient from those with clean
wounds
10. The development of an infection depends
primarily on the relationship between:
a. Harmful and harmless microorganism
b. Numerous body defenses
c. Body resistance to disease and good
nutrition
d. Agent, host and environment
8. PERIOPERATIVE CARE
Situation 1: Sam, 25-year-old was admitted in
the surgical ward after diagnosed with acute
appendicitis. He is scheduled for a STAT
operation.
1. As part of the physical per-operative
preparation, the doctor ordered: Enema until
return flow is clear. The safest solution to use
for repeated enemas would be:
a. Sterile water
b. Tap water
c. Soap sud
d. saline
2. What height would be appropriate for
elevation of the enema bag for a cleansing
enema?
a. slightly below the hips
b.12-18 inches above the hips
c. less than 12 inches above the hips
d. 18-24 inches above the hips
3. What is the best position of the patient
during an enema?
a. Lithotomy
b. Right lateral Sim’s position
c. Dorsal recumbent
d. Left lateral Sim’s position
4. After 2 days postoperatively, Sam complains
of abdominal pain and shortness of breath. The
nurse observes abdominal distention. The most
likely cause of Sam’s current condition is:
a. Flatulence
b. Constipation
c. Slowed esophageal emptying
d. Increased peristalsis
5. After 5 minutes while giving enema, Sam
complains of abdominal cramping. The most
appropriate action to take is:
a. Clamp the tubing temporarily
b. Encourage the client to change position
c. Remove the rectal tube
d. Take no action as this is expected
Situation 2: Normita is a staff nurse of the OR
6. As a scrub nurse, your duties before the
surgeon arrive in the filed area are the
following, except:
a. Complete the scrub
b. Drape and set a small table for the patient’s
skin preparation
c. Gown and glove
d. Open and prepare a disposable or
prepackaged prep tray
7. In preparation for operation, which of these
should not be included in the Mayo table?
a. Towel forceps
b. Smooth tissue forceps
c. Retractors
d. Toothed tissue forceps
8. Lea is for perineal repair. The rationale for
wrapping her legs in the OR with an elastic
bandage is:
a. To prevent emboli formation
b. To avoid chilly sensation
c. To protect her legs from injury
d. To prevent mesh
9. When raising the legs on the stirrups, you
should:
a. Raise legs simultaneously
b. Raise legs simultaneously with the help of
another person
c. Raise legs carefully one after the other
d. Raise legs carefully with the help of another
person
10. Joe is for nephrectomy. You would position
him in the OR table in:
a. Right lateral
b. Modified recumbent
c. Jack Knife
d. Reverse Trendelenburg
Situation 3: Mrs. Domingo, a newly operated
patient was just wheeled in from the operating
room still in an unconscious state.
11. During the immediate postoperative
period, you should give high priority to:
a. Observing for hemorrhage
b. Checking vital signs every 15 minutes
c. Monitor patent airway
d. Recording intake and output
12. You refer postoperative patient under
general anesthesia to the doctor when he has:
a. Cold clammy skin and filiform pulse
b. Snoring respiration and rapid pulse
c. Accidental removal of the airway
d. A drop in blood pressure and rapid pulse
13. How do you move the penlight when
testing the papillary reflex:
a. All direction
b. From side to side
c. Up and down
d. IN a circular
14. How do you administer a postoperative
order of Demerol 50 mg and Atropine gr.
1/150 intramuscularly?
a. In separate syringes without saline solution
b. On the same syringe drawing up Demerol
then atropine
c. In separate syringes both diluted in saline
solution
d. In the same syringe drawing up atropine
and Demerol
15. If Mr. Domingo were given spinal
anesthesia. You would expect him to have
hypotension because there is:
a. Decreased strength of cardiac contraction
b. Dilatation of blood vessels
c. Loss of blood
d. Unstable blood pressure
29. After an intravenous pyelography, the
patient was not able to void. Based on
Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs, this is:
a. Love and security
b. Physiologic need
c. Self-actualization
d. Self-esteem
30. A post-appendectomy patient was
endorsed to the recovery room. As a nurse in
the recovery room what will you include in
your nursing care plan?
a. Orient the patient as to the time, place and
person
b. Ask the patient where he is
c. Let the patient sleep and rest
d. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours
31. After a modified radical mastectomy, the
nurse would correctly:
a. Raise the arm of the affected side with a
pillow under
b. Begin active exercise on the affected side
c. Instruct the patient not to move the affected
arm for at least 24 hours
d. Give analgesics as necessary
Situation: John had a lobectomy for cancer of
the left lobe of the lungs. He is 18 hours post-
operative when you start caring for him.
1. Which of the following positions would be
indicated for John?
a. Turn to operative side
b. Flat on his back
c. Semi-Fowler’s position when turning to
either side
d. Turn to operative side
2. John is complaining of severe pain on
inspiration. Which one of the following drugs
would probably be prescribed to relieve pain?
a. Empirin compound
b. Codeine sulfate
c. Morphine sulfate
d. Demerol HCL
3. Which one of the following nursing
interventions can least control post-operative
pain for John?
a. Administering pain reliever for at least every
4 hours for the first 24 hours
b. Keeping bed linens free of wrinkling
c. Position client for at least every four hours
at a time
d. Keeping the bladder empty
4. After 24 hours, you planned to assist John
to ambulate. It has been four hours since his
last pain medication and he refuses to move
considering his condition. Which one of the
following is preferred nursing action?
a. Give the medication and complete bed rest
from nursing activities before ambulating him.
b. Give John the medication and assist him to
ambulate immediately after
c. Give the pain medication and wait for 30
minutes to ambulate him
d. Straighten his legs to reduce strain
5. Following oral Demerol, John vomits and
states that he feels like vomiting again. Which
of the following nursing interventions would
you not continue or complete?
a. Administer Demerol intramuscularly (IM) to
relieve pain
b. Splint the incisional area
c. Offer carbonated uncola beverages if not on
NPO temporarily
d. Have client take slow deep breaths
9. POSTMORTEM CARE
C. MEASURES TO MEET PHYSIOLOGICAL
NEEDS
1. OXYGENATION
Situation 1: Oxygen is one of the vital needs of
man.
1. Which of the following factors is required for
oxygen transport and delivery?
a. Digestion and skin excretion
b. Fibrillation and tachycardia
c. Diffusion and ventilation
d. Inhalation and exhalation
2. The exchange of gases in pulmonary
circulation results in the:
a. Pulmonary capillary bed
b. Pulmonary veins
c. Pulmonary venules
d. Pulmonary artery
3. One physiological factor influencing tissue
oxygen among premature infants is:
a. Teething process and increase nasal
congestion
b. Surfactant deficiency
c. Airway obstruction from foreign object
d. Decreased lung elasticity
4. The mechanism of oxygenation is affected in
patients with cardiovascular accident because
of:
a. Decreased cardiac output
b. Withdraw metabolic rate
c. Altered central nervous system function
d. Decreased oxygen capacity of the blood
5. An abdominal condition in which the person
must sit, stand or use multiple pillows to
breath when lying down is:
a. Orthopnea
b. Dyspnea
c. Eupnea
d. Apnea
6. The best position for dyspneic client is:
a. Orthopneic position
b. Semi-Fowler’s
c. Fowler’s
d. Supine
38. In assisting a client in the insertion of a
nasal cannula, the following are appropriate
nursing interventions:
a. Do not allow the patient to use razor
b. Measure from the tip of the nose to earlobe
and to the xiphoid process
c. Apply a mineral oil to the tip of the cannula
to aid in insertion
d. Position the client from semi-Fowler’s
position
2. NUTRITION
Situation 1: In order to measure nutritional
needs of the patients, nurses must have a very
good background of the digestive and
metabolic processes of the body.
1. The major portion of digestion occurs in
which of the following parts?
a. Large intestine
b. Mouth
c. Stomach
d. Small intestine
2. Which of the following primary nutrient is
absorbed in the large intestine?
a. Bile
b. Water
c. Iron 10. What mineral works with Vitamin E to
d. Vitamins protect the body compounds form oxidation?
a. Sodium
3. Which of the following metabolic processes b. Selenium
is responsible for the breakdown of chemical c. Zinc
substances into simpler substances? d. Manganese
a. Anabolism
b. Digestion Situation 3: Osteoporosis is considered a major
c. Catabolism helath and economic problem. One in every
d. Diffusion four woman over age 50 is believed to have
this disease. As nurses we neeed to educate
4. A fully breast-fed infant is one who is given: people about it since according to the 1994
a. Breast milk plus 2 tablespoon of calamansi survey, only 4 out of 10 Filipinos are aware of
juice daily after one month the disease. Among this 4 misconception are
b. Breast milk plus sterile water in between common.
feeding
c. Breast milk only 11. What is the main reason why Asian women
d. Breast milk plus 4 ounces of cerelac daily are more prone on developing osteoporosis
after the third month than African-American women?
a. There are more post menopausal aged Asian
5. At what age are solid food best introduced in women
a fully breast-fed infant? b. Bones of Asian women are 30-40% less
a. 9 months dense than that of African-American women
b. 6 months c. African-American women eat more
c. 3 months compared to Asian women
d. 12 months d. Asian women have lesser bone mass
compared to African-American women
Situation 2: The 2000 Nutritional Guidelines is
formulated to improve the nutritional stayus of 12. There are factors that predispose an
the Filipinos. The following questions are individual for osteoporosis. What factor is least
concerned with nutrition. associated with the disease?
a. decrease level of estrogen
6. Which one is not a function of calcium? b. calcium deficiency
a. Bone and teeth mineralization c. exposure to sunlight
b. Absorption of iron and formation of d. lack of exercise
hemoglobin
c. Blood clotting 13. When is the peak bone mass or PBM
d. Muscle relaxation and contraction achieved?
a. 0-10 years old
7. Xerophthalmia is characterized by b. 10-20 years old
a. Tunnel vision c. 20-40 years old
b. Floaters d. 40-60 years old
c. Night blindness
d. Window vision 14. Women over 50 years old are very much at
risk for fractures. Where is the most common
8. A deficiency in protein leads to site of fractures secondary to osteoporosis?
a. Kwashiorkor a. femur
b. Rickets b. forearm
c. Beri-beri c. vertebra
d. Hemorrhage d. hips

9. Nutrients are classified according to their Situation 4: Mrs. M has been given a copy of
structures. Which among these is not a her diet. He consulted you about his prescribed
micronutrient? diet.
a. Vitamin A 15. You discuss the food allowed on 500 mg
b. Iron low sodium diet. Which of the following is
c. Iodine allowed on a 500mg diet?
d. Amino acid
a. A ham and swiss cheese on sandwich on 23. Mr. K is placed in a sodium free diet
whole wheat bread because of his hypertension. An example of
b. Mashed potatoes and broiled chicken sodium-free meal is:
c. A tossed salad without vinegar and olives a. Sodium-free soup, 3 oz of baked chicken,
d. Chicken bouillon plain potatoes, plain string beans, a salad with
oil and vinegar , a roll with margarine, one
16. Mrs. M asks you about niacin. The major small apple and coffee
food source of niacin (nicotinic acid) is b. Split pea soup, a ham sandwich, potato
a. meat chips, 4 oz of milk, gelatin and decaffeinated
b. oats coffee
c. rice c. Bouillon, 3 oz of turkey, sweet potatoes,
d. corn beans, two slices of white bread with
margarine and custard
17. Which of the following diseases results d. Cheese omelet, orange juice, sodium free
from niacin deficiency? roll with margarine, gelatin and tea
a. diabetes
b. beriberi 24. Which of the following fluids is
c. pellagra contraindicated before sleep?
d. megaloblastic anemia a. Hot chocolate
b. Coffee or tea
18. He also ask about Vitamin E. The richest c. Cola and root beer
source of Vitamin E is: d. All of the above
a. vegetable oil
b. milk Situation 6: Mrs. Opal Quinto, 40 years old, is
c. fish brought to the hospital with complaints of
d. cereals nausea, vomiting and severe epigastric pain.
Initial care includes insertion of a nasogastric
19. The most common vitamin deficiency seen tube. (NGT)
in alcoholics is:
a. thiamine 25. Which of the following steps should the
b. riboflavin nurse take first when preparing to insert a
c. pyridoxine nasagastric tube?
d. panthothenic acid a. Wash hands
b. Apply sterile gloves
20. Which of the following vitamins is known c. Apply a mask and gown
for its blood clotting effect? d. Open all necessary kits and tubing
a. Vitamin D (calciferol)
b. Vitamin E (tocopherol) 26. The nurse on duty is inserting a
c. Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) nasogastric tube, Mr. Recto begins to gag.
d. Vitamin K Which actions should the nurse take?
a. Remove the inserted tube and notify the
Situation 5: Mr. K, a patient in MS ward, wants physician
to increase his Vitamin C intake. He also ask b. Stop the insertion, allow the client to rest,
you several questions about nutrition. then continue inserting the tube
21. Which of the following foods is not well- c. Encourage the client to take deep breaths
known source of Vitamin C? through the mouth while the tube is being
a. tomatoes inserted
b. grapeftuit d. Document in the chart the insertion, method
c. green and yellow vegetables used to check tube placement and clients
d. oranges
27. Which of the following steps, if taken by
22. Vitamin C deficiency is characterized by the the nurse after insertion of nasogastric tube,
following except could harm Mr. Recto?
a. redness and edema of the gums a. Affix the nasogastric tube to the nose with
b. pinpoint peripheral hemorrhages tape
c. pernicious anemia b. Check tube placement by aspirating
d. bones that fracture easily stomach contents using a piston syringe
c. Check tube placement by installing 100 ml
of water into the tube to check for stomach
filling
d. Document in the chart, the insertion,
method used to check tube placement and
client response to the procedure.
28. Which of the following drug forms can be
administered through a nasogastric tube?
a. enteric coated
b. oral
c. parenteral
d. sublingual
Situation 7: Mrs. Caro, 72 years old, is
admitted to the hospital with an intestinal
obstruction due to acute diverticulitis. She
undergoes emergency surgery and a double
barrel colostomy.
29. Four days after the surgery, Mrs. Caro is
having trouble adjusting to it. Which of the
following is the most common?
a. Anxiety
b. Low self esteem
c. Alteration in comfort
d. Alteration in body image
2. A nurse approaches Mrs. Caro for a routine
assessment and finds her tearful. Which of the
following actions is appropriate?
a. State she’ll come back another time
b. Ask the client if she’s having pain or
discomfort
c. Tell the client she needs to perform
assessment
d. Sit down with the client and ask if she’d like
to talk about anything
3. After a review of colostomy care, Mrs. Caro
says she doesn’t know if she’ll be able to care
for her self at home without help. Which of the
following nursing interventions is most
appropriate?
a. Review care with the client again
b. Provide written instructions for the client
c. Ask the client if there is anyone who can
help
d. Arrange for home health care to visit the
client
4. Mrs. Caro is experiencing mild diarrhea
through his colostomy. Which of the following
is correct?
a. Eat prunes
b. Drink apple juice
c. Increase lettuce intake
d. Increase intake of bananas
5. Mrs. Caro reports a loss of gas in her
colostomy bag. Which of the following is
correct?
a. Burp the bag
b. Eat less beans
c. Replace the bag
d. Put a tiny hole in the top of the bag
6. Mrs. Caro asks a nurse how to avoid leakage
from the colostomy bag. Which of the following
instructions is correct?
a. Limit fluid intake
b. Eat more fruits and vegetables
c. Empty the bag when it is half full
d. Tape the end of the bag to the surrounding
skin
Situation: Mr. Yoyo, 75 years old, has
swallowing problems due to a recurrent cancer
in his throat. A gastrostomy operation is
performed.
1. Gastrostomy is performed by:
a. Relieve abdominal distention
b. Avoid nasogastric tube
c. Administer food through stomach
d. Improve nutrition
2. What is the advantage of gastrostomy from
nasogastric tube feeding:
a. Easier to perform the procedure
b. Cardioesophageal sphincter remains intact
c. No regurgitation of food
d. More acceptable to the patients
3. Your most important responsibility is to:
a. Observe any signs of infection
b. Make patient comfortable
c. Ensure proper food and fluid intake
d. Regularly check status of the tube
4. The best position to assume during
gastrostomy feeding is:
a. Supine position
b. As ordered by the doctor
c. Sideways
d. In back rest
5. The first sign that gastrostomy feeding is
working when patient is:
a. Has fecal movement
b. Is comfortable
c. No obstruction in tube
d. Abdomen is not distended
Situation: Nutritional requirements for older
adults are planned to counteract age-related
changes.
1. Why should caloric needs of adults be
reduced?
a. Because of decreased body metabolism
b. Because of inability to digest food
c. Because of lack of appetite
d. Because of loss of weight
2. Your healthy elderly patient does not have
good appetite. In your assessment, which is
not to be expected?
a. Feeling of sadness
b. Denture of problems
c. Change in taste and smell
d. Unusual loss of weight
3. Which of the following most likely to
maintain adequate intake of food?
a. Some exercises
b. Taking appetite stimulants
c. Well balanced meals
d. Frequent small amounts of food intake
4. Laboratory results of blood test showed high
cholesterol. The following foods are substitute,
except:
a. High protein diet
b. Chicken with sauce
c. High fiber diet
d. Lean meat
5. You include milk in the diet of the elderly
because it promotes defecation due to the:
a. Direct stimulation of colonic musculature
b. Irritating effect of fiber on the bowel wall
c. Action of milk diet on large intestines
d. Tendency of smooth muscle to contract
when stretched
7. Which form of medication can be given to a
client with a nasogastric tube?
a. Enteric coated tablet
b. Oral medications
c. Parenteral medications
d. Medications in capsule form
13. The proper position to facilitate insertion of
NGT is:
a. Fowler’s
b. Supine
c. Side-lying
d. Lateral
Situation: You scheduled a staff development
session on the Department of Health programs
with midwives. The following were
issues/questions discussed.
1. A child whose diet is always deficient in
green and yellow vegetables, fats and oils is
prone to have:
a. Protein-energy malnutrition
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Vitamin A deficiency
d. Vitamin D deficiency
2. Which of these groups are vulnerable to
anemia?
a. Adolescents who are underweight
b. All these groups
c. Pregnant women who have several
pregnancies
d. Children who have not been given
supplementary foods
3. In order to improve resistance to infection,
which of these target groups is given first
priority for supplementation:
a. All 1-4 year old children
b. 104 year old moderately underweight
children
c. Pregnant women
d. Lactating women
4. Emma, 2 years old, had measles last April
3, weeks after her sister Elsa got sick of the
same disease. Their brother Leo was exposed
to measles but did not get sick. What type of
immunity did Emma and Elsa get?
a. Artificially acquired active
b. Naturally acquired passive
c. Artificially acquired passive
d. Naturally acquired active
5. In view of Leo’s repeated exposure to his
sisters with measles, he developed which type
of immunity?
a. Artificially acquired active
b. Naturally acquired passive
c. Naturally acquired active
d. Artificially acquired passive
Situation: Mrs. Villa, 42 years old, visited the
health center complaining easy fatigability,
irregular meal time and dizziness. She said she
has been so busy that she did not find time to
consult regarding her ailments.
1. You noted that your patient often leaves
food untouched or barely eat meals served.
The first step you will take is:
a. Check food preference
b. Determine cause of bad eating habits
c. Take a nutrition history
d. Suggest to choose appropriate food
2. Your patient expressed that she has no b. Many pharmaceuticals supply sample of
appetite for eating. For optimum nutrition, you these
would: c. Because these prevent conditions like caries
a. Feed her to conserve her energy and bone breakage
b. Let her verbalize why she has no appetite d. They act like natural vaccines
c. Ensure that she observes good eating habits
d. Let her participate in the feeding activity 2. If a child has dental caries, he will be prone
to have:
3. What assessment information would be a. Flu
most helpful to help you establish a nursing b. Baldness
diagnosis: c. Fractures
a. Eating habits d. Wounds
b. Nutritional history
c. Occupation 3. For Vitamin C to be easily absorbed by the
d. Dietary pattern child’s gut, what form of presentation is
recommended by the nurse?
4. Her leg cramps may be a probable a. Tablets
symptoms of: b. Liquids
a. Hypocalcemia c. Chewables
b. Hypokalemia d. Injectables
c. Anemi
d. High blood pressure 4. In an array of food spread out on a table, a
child by nature will have servings of?
5. Iron medications were prescribed for the a. Only pick-a-pick choices
patient. This is to: b. Necessary nutrients
a. Cure patient’s anemia c. Nonsense food groups
b. Support red blood cell formation d. Sweets and junk foods
c. Increase RBC count
d. Counteract effects of menopausal Situation: The goal of the 2000 Nutritional
osteoporosis Guidelines for the Philippines is the
improvement of the nutritional status of the
Philippines through desirable dietary practices
23. You are caring for a client with NGT and and healthy lifestyle?
the parent complained of abdominal distention. 1. What are the chemical substitutes that keep
What will be your appropriate nursing the body healthy?
intervention? a. Nutrients
a. Reposition the client b. Macronutrients
b. Flush the tube with normal saline solution c. Micronutrients
c. Clamp the tube d. Vitamins
d. Check the gastric contents if the previous
feeding was absorbed 2. Which of the vitamins below help in the
formation of new cells, maintain nerve cells
39. To ensure that NGT is in place, what is the and assists in the metabolism of fatty acids
best way to determine its placement? and amino acids?
a. Instill 100 ml of saline a. Vitamin B12
b. Aspirate gastric content with bulb syringe b. Vitamin A
c. Place NGT tip in water and observe for c. Macronutrients
bubbling d. Vitamin D
d. Auscultate for breath sounds
3. Which mineral maintains normal fluid and
Situation: Children need adequate intake of electrolytes in the body?
Vitamin C and calcium. The nurse must a. Calcium
emphasize this in the health teaching sessions b. Flouride
to mothers. c. Chloride
1. Why should Vitamin C and calcium rich d. Magnesium
foods occupy a greater part of the child’s daily
menu? 4. Water helps regulate body temperature,
a. Readily available and affordable over the transport nutrients and help in the excretion of
counter
waste products. What is the volume of water
required daily?
a. 3-6 glasses
b. 4-6 glasses
c. 5-8 glasses
d. 6-8 glasses
5. Which nursing procedure is vital in relation
to water requirements, which should not be
delegated to non-nursing personnel?
a. Health teaching about water sanitation
b. Formula computation of water requirement
c. Water and electrolyte balancing
d. Mesurement of intake and output
Situation: Marino, a 35 years old drug
representative came to the outpatient nutrition
clinic due to a progressive loss of weight.
1. A risk for poor nutritional status is one
whose weight is:
a. 5% of normal weight
b. an unstable daily weight
c. 5% less of normal weight
d. unintentional weight loss of 10%
2. Which information would be most helpful
when assessing whether Mario is eating
adequately?
a. Knowledge of nutrition
b. 72 hours diet recall
c. What he takes for snacks
d. Nutritional history
3. What is the body mass index of Marino if his
height s 1.7 meters and weighs 69 kilograms?
a. 24
b. 18
c. 20
d. 22
4. You can best assume your role in nutrition
care by:
a. Preparing therapeutic meals
b. Choosing appropriate foods for patient
c. Giving nutritional counseling
d. Helping patient adjust to changes in diet
5. Physiological alteration of nutrition less than
body requirements is related to which of the
following causes:
a. Too much physical exercises
b. Poor eating habits
c. Knowledge deficit
d. Inability to absorb nutrients
Situation: Noel, a 35 years old head injury
patient with feeding impairment is for
nasogastric tube insertion.
1. To verify the placement of the tube position
in the stomach:
a. Suggest a fluoroscopy
b. Let patient press stomach
c. Mark tube at the point of exit from the nose
d. Measure length from nose to approximate
site of stomach
2. The first consideration in selection of enteral
formula is:
a. Dietitian’s recommendation
b. Patient’s nutritional needs
c. Advice of attending physician
d. Digestibility of food
3. This is a measure that can satisfy Noel’s
desire to taste and chew:
a. Give a bit of the formula before tube feeding
b. Allow to chew food and spit them out
c. Let the patient smell food formula before
tube feeding
d. Put formula dish with insight for sometime
before feeding
4. The most important goal in tube feeding is:
a. To maximize comfort of patient
b. To keep good nutrition during illness
c. To monitor for tube feeding complications
d. To increase patient mobility
5. This is a possible complication of feeding
tube insertion.
a. Stomach ulcer
b. Infection
c. Electrolyte imbalance
d. Intestinal distension
3. ACTIVITY, REST AND SLEEP
Situation: Stress is the single most important
contributing factor to illness. It is related to
many of man’s illnesses and interventions of
these illnesses are based on the body’s
reaction to stress.
1. Which of the following theories explain that
stress is demonstrated by a specific
psychological reaction without consideration of
cognitive influences in the person?
a. Stimulus-based model
b. Adaptation model
c. Response-based model
d. Transaction-based model
2. Which of the following patient’s behavior is a
spiritual indication of stress?
a. Restlessness and difficulty of sleeping
b. Questions about the Meaning of life
c. Inability to resolve conflict
d. Feelings of inadequacies
3. Which of the following goals of nursing
intervention is most appropriate when applying
the adaptation model of stress?
a. To reduce anxiety
b. To maintain fluid balance
c. To improve or stabilize blood pressure
d. To promote reality orientation
4. Which of the following body systems is
primarily involved in General Adaptation
Syndrome as a response to stress?
a. Neurological and endocrine system
b. Endocrine and respiratory system
c. Central nervous system and cardiovascular
system
d. Musculoskeletal and immunological system
5. The 3 stages of General Adaptation
Syndrome are alarm, resistance and
exhaustion. Which of the following response
are best attributed to the stage of exhaustion?
a. Vital signs returning to normal
b. Release epinephrine, norepinephrine
c. Diminished physiological regulation
d. Increased blood glucose level
Situation: Andrea, 35 years old and married,
augments the family income by managing a
sari-sari store. She worried about her cardiac
condition.
1. What characteristic of a stressor most
influence a person’s response to stress?
a. Nature
b. Duration
c. Modifiability
d. Intensity
2. These are physiological response to stress,
except:
a. Elevation of blood pressure
b. Increased salivation
c. Diaphoresis
d. Dilation of pupils
3. Which part of the nervous system is
activated when the body tries to adopt to
stressors:
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Cerebellar stem
c. Pyramidal tracts
d. Medulla oblongata
4. Why does illness decrease one’s capacity to
adapt to stress?
a. It reduces one’s coping ability
b. Illness costs a fortune
c. It is a threat to self-independence
d. Illness limits one’s physical activity
5. Teaching relaxation techniques begin with:
a. Explanation of the technique
b. The value of relaxation
c. Physiological changes occurring
d. The need to relax
Situation: Mrs. Sol consulted in the health
center because she is experiencing daily
headache for two weeks. She is afraid she
cannot finish her work on time. Her headache
is temporarily relieved by paracetamol. Mrs.
Sol speaks in a low hesitant voice.
1. As per your assessment, Mrs. Sol has been
under stress. Which of the following are the
signs of stress?
a. Teeth grinding or worn teeth
b. All these signs of stress
c. Cold hands, headache and tense muscles
d. Excessive sweating and hypertension
2. Stress can be managed through:
a. Biofeedback
b. Relaxation exercise
c. Counseling
d. Any of these
3. For Mrs. Solo, your first nursing intervention
would be to:
a. Keep her extremities warm
b. Help her identify source of her stress and to
smile
c. Demonstrate deep breathing exercises
d. Help her set priorities
4. You need some information from Mrs. Sol in
order to help her. You should be able to ask
questions effectively by:
a. Asking questions answerable by yes or no
b. Starting questions with a why
c. Asking the same question in the same
manner if Mrs. Sol failed to understand
d. Asking only one question at a time
5. Listening actively is another way of helping
Mrs. Sol. You can do this by:
a. Not accepting all that she says
b. Thinking of what to say next as she is
talking to you
c. Giving her time to think and ask questions
d. Not repeating any statement that you have
heard from her.
Situation: Sleep is essential for health. It is a
basic human need affecting all ages.
1. Which of the following is the BEST
intervention to promote safe and restful sleep
for an infant?
a. Provide a soft pillow and light blanket c. Some exercise before sleeping
b. Position crib near open window for fresh air d. Taking PRN medications
c. Keep the room softly lit
d. Maintain the room temperature at 70’F 5. Hypnotics are administered with care due to
its:
2. Which intervention would be expected to a. Danger of overdose
best promote safe and restful sleep in a b. Side effects
confused client? c. Addictive potential
a. Allow him/her to watch his/her favorite d. Potential cumulative effect
telenovela
b. Position the bed side rail up 4. FLUID AND ELECTROLYTE BALANCE
c. Keep the room brightly lit Situation: Mrs. Alcantara, a 56 years old
d. Provide sedative at bedtime cardiovascular patient, has edema of the lower
extremities. You suspect some electrolyte
3. Bedtime rituals are particularly important to imbalance.
which of the following groups?
a. Adolescents 1. These are signs of fluid volume excess,
b. School age except:
c. Toddler a. Weight gain
d. Pre-schooler b. Oliguria
c. Neck vein distention
4. Which of the following is a bedtime ritual d. Edema
appropriate for an adult?
a. Use bedroom as work area for unfinished 2. Mrs. Alcantara frequently suffers from
office business diarrhea. Which of the following is indicative of
b. Physical and mental stimulation before dehydration?
bedtime a. Poor skin turgor
c. Exercise at bedtime b. Increase leukocyte count
d. Relaxation techniques such as medications c. Decrease urinary output
or praying at bedtime d. Unstable weight

Situation: In your night rounds, you observed 3. Which is the main excretory organ for
that Mrs. Sayson kept tossing in bed. regulation of fluid electrolyte balance:
1. This is typical altered facial expression of a a. Kidneys
patient unable to sleep: b. Gastrointestinal tract
a. Irritable c. Lungs
b. Restlessness d. Skin
c. Blank look
d. Yawning 4. Who are at highest risk of fluid-electrolyte
imbalance?
2. Which of the following statements on sleep a. Infants
is true: b. Diabetics
a. Bedtime rituals should be avoided c. The elderly
b. Sleep patterns are unique to each individual d. Patients with fluid restrictions
to each individual
c. Patients are restlessness due to illness 5. Which is the best way to assess degree of
d. Naps should be encouraged to make up for edema?
sleep a. Skin indentation when pressed by finger
3. This is the accepted active theory of the b. Comparing present with previous weight
physiology of sleep: c. Pinching a fold of skin
a. Emotional rest d. Measuring intake and output
b. Physical inactivity
c. A nervous center that causes sleep Situation: The doctors wrote in your patient’s
d. Brain fatigue chart this order: “For blood transfusion”.

4. Which is the most practical nursing action to 1. Your most important responsibility in blood
induce sleep? transfusion is to:
a. Some boring activity before retiring a. Take the vital signs before infusion
b. Creating a restful environment b. Determine any known allergy
c. Ensure the correct blood typing and cross-
matching
d. Obtain consent of patient
2. Which of the following blood type is a
universal donor?
a. Type O
b. Type B
c. Type AB
d. Type A
3. You were busy when the doctor’s order was
written. To promptly give the blood
transfusion, you delegate this order to the
midwife. The patient suffered from adverse
reaction and died. You are:
a. Liable because of negligence
b. Not liable because you examined the
doctor’s orders
c. Not liable because the doctor is around
d. Liable because you endorsed it
4. Which of the following conditions result
when the wrong blood type is administered to
a patient?
a. Blood clotting
b. Hemolysis
c. Internal bleeding
d. Agglutination reaction
5. The best solution to flush IV tubing after
blood transfusion is:
a. Ringer’s lactate
b. Normal saline solution
c. Distilled water
d. Dextrose in water
12. Which of the following should the nurse
NOT do before blood transfusion?
a. Check identification tag
b. Check proper cross-match report
c. Document the blood transfusion
d. Prepare a gauge 23 needle
15. When administering blood transfusion the
IV needle gauge preferred to be used is:
a. G18
b. G21
c. G23
d. G25
Situation: Gino, 5 years old, was brought by
his mother to the health center with chief
complaints of fever and watery stools for two
days now. You noted the child’s sunken
eyeballs and poor skin turgor.
1. Your initial responsibility is to:
a. Take a health history
b. Perform stool examination
c. Start oral fluid replacement
d. Refer him to the doctor
2. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:
a. Fluid volume deficit
b. Alteration in fluid-electrolyte balance
c. Alteration in skin integrity
d. Alteration in nutrition
3. A few hours later, Gino started vomiting.
Your immediate action would be:
a. Refer child to a doctor
b. Let child take ice chips
c. Give tea for temporary relief
d. Start IV infusion
4. The physician ordered IV fluid. You should
observe the rate of flow in IV infusion to:
a. Prevent increased fluid output
b. Prevent cardiac embarrassment
c. Avoid IV infiltration
d. Avoid over replacement of fluid
5. Patients with high fever need replacement of
fluids lost since:
a. Insensible water loss is increased
b. There is severe diaphoresis
c. Sweat production is increased
d. Dehydration sets in
Situation: Any patient with signs of fluid-
electrolyte imbalance should be on intake and
output measurement.
1. A principle to remember in accurately
measuring intake and output is:
a. All fluid intake becomes urine output
b. Input and output cannot be measured
accurately
c. As age increases, proportion of body water
decreases
d. Collection of 24 hours intake and output is
more accurate
2. Taking of fluid intake and output is:
a. Initiated by nurse based on her assessment
b. Requires physician’s orders
c. Delegated to a watcher
d. Can be a nursing order
3. Which of the following should not be
recorded as fluid intake:
a. Porridge
b. Cream soup
c. Ice cream
d. Gelatin
4. Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance
is more critical in children than in adults
because of:
a. Daily fluid requirement is greater
b. Renal function
c. Cellular metabolism is less stable
d. Proportion of water in body is less
5. This is an attempt of the body to respond to
dehydration to maintain homeostasis:
a. Kidneys retain more salts and water
b. Decrease water absorption in alimentary
tract
c. Less water passes to plasma
d. Blood pressure lowers
Situation: Mr. Pedro was admitted to the
emergency room for profuse bleeding from
gaping wound in his right thigh sustained in a
vehicular accident.
1. The patient showed signs of impending
shock which include:
a. Flaccid muscle tone
b. Restlessness and disorientation
c. Decrease pulse and respiratory rate
d. fever and sweating
2. The physician on duty prescribed IV fluids.
The reason for this order is to:
a. improve blood pressure
b. maintain vascular tone
c. improve tissue perfusion
d. improve kidney function
3. The least indicator of shock is:
a. Skin color
b. Level of consciousness
c. Urinary output
d. Blood pressure
4. To hasten wound healing, what would be the
appropriate diet for Mang Pedro :
a. Medium protein, high vitamin diet
b. High protein, high vitamin diet
c. High carbohydrate, high protein and fat diet
d. High protein, low carbohydrate diet
5. To control bleeding, the best position for
Mang Pedro is:
a. Trendelenburg position
b. Sideways with injured thigh up
c. Fowler’s position
d. Elevation of injured thigh
32. Home made Oresol is composed of:
a. Water and salt
b. Electrolytes
c. Water and little sugar
d. Electrolytes and sugar
5. URINARY ELIMINATION
Situation: Mr. Gonzales, 43 years old, is being
treated for acute renal failure. He has a foley
catheter in place.
1. Which of the following actions are correct
when collecting a urine specimen from an
indwelling urinary catheter?
a. Collect urine form a drainage collecting
bag
b. Disconnect the catheter from the
drainage tubing to collect urine
c. Remove the indwelling catheter and
insert a sterile straight catheter to
coolect urine.
d. Insert a sterile needle with syringe
through a tubing drainage port cleaned
with alcohol to collect specimen
2. A client recovering from surgery tells a
nurse “I feel I have to urinate more often than
usual, and it burns when I urinate”. The nurse
should plan to obtain a urinary specimen for
which of the following factors?
a. culture
b. glucose
c. ketones
d. specific gravity
3. A nurse is removing an indwelling urinary
catheter. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. wear sterile gloves
b. cut the lumen of the balloon
c. document the time of removal
d. position of the client on the left side
6. BOWEL ELIMINATION
Situation: Healthy habits and regular bowel
elimination are some of the factors that are
often associated with health status of an
individual.
1. To regulate bowel elimination, it is best that
the client regularly contains foods that are high
in roughage. Which types of foods contains the
least fiber or roughage?
a. Cooked fruits
b. Instant noodles
c. Green vegetables
d. Whole grains or cereals
2. Bowel elimination is best facilitated by which
of the following:
a. Increasing fluid intake ton 1400 to 2000 ml
daily
b. Drinking milk
c. Drinking hot beverages and fruit juices
d. Eating green vegetables
3. Mechanical and chemical digestion begins in
the:
a. Stomach Situation: The home care nurse visited your
b. Small Intestine patient, Mang Lorenzo, and noted that he had
c. Large Intestine no bowel movement for five days now.
d. Mouth 1. Which of the following questions can elicit
information on Mang Lorenzo’s coping ability to
4. Most nutrients and electrolytes are absorbed deal with his problem defecating?
in the: a. “Do you have problems defecating?”
a. Stomach b. “ What have you done to relieve your
b. Small intestine constipation?”
c. Large intestine c. “Have you consulted a doctor for your
d. Colon problem?”
d. “Did you take any constipation pill?”
5. Which of the following will least likely
promote regular bowel habits to hospitalized 2. Mang Lorenzo was advised to take at least
patients? 3000 milliliters of waters a day. This amount is
a. Prohibit ambulation and exercise while in the approximately equivalent to how many glasses
hospital even if they are not contraindicated of water>
b. Take time for defecation a. 8
c. Make certain that treatment routine do not b. 10
interfere with the client’s schedule c. 14
d. Provide privacy c. 12

Situation: Von, 55 years old, is confined with a 3. Mang Lorenzo complained of a gassy
diagnosis of carcinoma of the colon. abdomen. His attending physician ordered
1. Which of these is not a sign and symptom of rectal tube insertion. You would insert the
carcinoma of the colon? tube:
a. Diarrhea a. 6-8 inches
b. Fatigue b. 2-4 inches
c. Anorexia c. 4-6 inches
d. Melena d. 8-10 inches

2. Diagnostic examination to establish 4. The rectal tube should remain in the colon
diagnosis of cancer of the colon: at least 30 minutes and reinserted every 2-3
a. Proctoscopy hours to prevent:
b. Anoscopy a. Undue irritation of rectal lining
c. Cholangiography b. Discomfort of patient
d. Sigmoidoscopy c. Puncturing of colon
d. Clogging tube of feces
3. How should Von be positioned for this
diagnostic examination? 5. Repeated inhibition of the urge to defecate
a. Sim’s results in:
b. Semi-Fowlers a. Slowing of peristaltic movement
c. Knee-chest b. Loss of sensitivity to defecate
d. Trendelenburg c. Rigidity of the anal sphincter
d. Formation of impacted feces
4. How far do you insert the catheter during
colostomy irrigation? Situation: Mrs. Dolores Diaz, 36, chose to have
a. 2-4 inches elective hemorrhoidectomy on doctor’s advice:
b. 4-6 inches 1. A cleansing enema is ordered pre-
c. 1-2 inches operatively, what is the proper patient position
d. 6-8 inches for this:
a. Prone
5. The size of the catheter the nurse should b. Left lateral
prepare for colostomy irrigation is from: c. Knee chest
a. 14-16 d. Right lateral
b. 18-20
c. 16-18 2. In the administration of pre-operative
d. 12-14 injections, which of the following available
needles should be used for an IM injection,
because the patient is 5 ft 6” and 115 lbs?
a. G-20, 1 inch long
b. G-22, 1 ½ inches long
c. G-19, 1 ¼ inches long
d. G-26, 1 inch long
3. In the early post-operative period, what is
the ideal position to put the patient in:
a. Prone
b. High Fowlers
c. Trendelenburg
d. Supine
4. Mrs. Diaz is to continue her sitz bath at
home. When is the best, safest time to do this:
a. At bedtime
b. After a bowel movement
c. First thing in the morning
d. As needed for discomfort
5. Metamucil is to be taken BID to prevent
constipation. How primarily does this drug
produce the desired effect?
a. Stimulating peristalsis thru contact irritation
b. Controlling irritating flatus
c. Softening the stool
d. Increasing the bulk of stool
7. SAFETY, COMFORT AND HYGIENE
Situation: Hearing impairment appears to be
common among elderly patients. But it also
occurs among children.
1. To assess the degree of hearing impairment
of a 70-year old client, which communication
approach would you initiate?
a. Use verbal communication and observe the
response
b. Write messages to client in writing
c. Ask a family member about the client’s
health problem
d. Post a sign “Patient is deaf”
2. While you are making your routine rounds,
you were told that there is a client in the ICU
who is in the respirator and who lip-reads. To
establish relationship with him, communication
is best accomplished by:
a. speaking slowly but aloud
b. writing messages
c. gesturing while speaking
d. using simple “charades” approach or
strategy
3. One of your clients has just undergone an
ear surgery. Which of the following would be
inappropriate in planning for his care?
a. Administration of anti-emetics and
analgesics as ordered
b. Daily irrigation of the ear canal
c. Walking with assistance at least 24 hours
after the operation
d. Teaching the patient to avoid sneezing,
coughing and nose blowing
4. In which of the following conditions would
an irrigation of the ear canal be an appropriate
intervention?
a. Foreign body in the ear canal
b. Serious otitis media
c. Impacted cerumen
d. Tympanic membrane perforation
5. Children who have undetected hearing loss
are likely to exhibit which of the following:
a. indifference and lack of interest in the
environment
b. hyperactivity
c. an increased interest in reading
d. hand gestures while speaking
Situation: It is the duty of every health
practitioner either at home, community or
hospital to always ensure that patients are
protected from health hazards.
1. The safety of any individual is usually
threatened by:
a. unrefrigerated fresh fruits and vegetab;es
b. individuals incineration of garbage
c. lack of adequate water supply
d. atmosphere carbon dioxide.
2. The most common major risk to safety of
unconscious patients in the hospital are:
a. carbon dioxide poisoning
b. any poisoning
c. falls from bed
d. insect bites
3. Which of the following takes the highest
priority when fire occurs in a health care
facility?
a. report the location of the fire
b. contain the fire
c. protect the patients from injury
d. protect yourself from injury
4. The best initial action after an accidental
poisoning is to induce vomiting by:
a. asking the patient to bend forward until the
head reaches the level below the waistline
b. giving glass of milk
c. by inserting a tongue depressor in the
mouth
d. giving syrup of Ipecac
5. Which of the following will least likely
prevent falls among adult patients?
a. Have a call light and promptly answer call
light
b. Keep client’s personal items away from bed
c. Identify clients at risk for falls
d. Use a night life among adult patients in the
hospital
Situation: A safe environment is much to be
desired in many of our home and
establishments like hospitals and schools.
1. Which of the following describe unsafe
hospital practice?
a. Physical hazards are reduced by putting up
appropriate and visible warnings
b. Medical and surgical instruments are
decontaminated before washing
c. Used needles are thrown into a garbage can
together with other hospital wastes
d. Transmission of pathogens is reduced by
mopping the floor with Lysol.
2. Which of the following will least likely
endanger individuals’ safety in the community?
a. development stages
b. safety awareness
c. normal sensory functioning
d. lifestyle habits
3. Which of the following nursing intervention
best promotes safety in a hospitalized toddler?
a. Cover electrical outlets with protective
covers
b. Provide matchbox case for group play
c. Provide spoon and fork at meal time
d. Put up bedside rail on one side to facilitate
reducing of nursing procedure.
4. The greatest risk of death from home
accidents occur in children:
a. between 9-12 years old
b. between 12-16 years old
c. less than 5 years old
d. between 5-8 years old
5. The majority of fatalities among children 6-
12 years old are associated with:
a. accidents
b. infectious diseases
c. accidental poisoning
d. congenital diseases
Situation: Josefina who is assigned to a
medical-surgical ward reviewed the principles
of patient comfort and safety. The following
question relate ton what Josefina has been
taught.
1. Which of the following has the greatest
influence on personal hygiene?
a. Culture, knowledge and social influences
b. Occupation, physical environment and
genetics
c. Self-awareness, time of day and personal
available for assistance
d. Socioeconomic status, health and age
2. The most important intervention to correct
skin dryness.
a. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition
is remedied and notify the physician
b. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a
dermatologist and suggest that the patient
wear home-launder sleepwear
c. Consult the dietitian about increasing the
patient’s fat intake and take necessary
measures to prevent infection
d. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid
intake, use non-irritating soap when bathing
the patient and apply lotion to the involved
areas
3. When bathing patient’s extremities, Josefina
should use long firm strokes from distal to
proximal areas. This technique
a. Provides an opportunity for skin assessment
b. Avoids undue strain on the nurse
c. Increase venous blood return
d. cause vasoconstriction and increase
circulation
Situation: The nurse in the care of her
patients, often overlooks oral hygiene.
1. Which of the following observation is most
important to determine before providing oral
hygiene to the unconscious patient?
a. Presence of a functioning gag reflex
b. Presence of dental caries or halitosis
c. Color, texture or bleeding of gums
d. Dryness or discoloration of the tongue
2. Miss Agnes is a 23-year old unconscious
patient because of a head injury. When
providing mouth care, the nurse should:
a. Position the patient on semi-fowler’s position
to prevent aspiration of secretion
b. Position the patient on her back and use a
padded tongue depressor to keep the teeth
separated
c. Position the patient in her crib and have
suction equipment available to remove
secretions
d. Position the patient in a Trendelenburg
position to prevent aspiration of secretion
3. In caring for a patient with dentures, the
nurse:
a. Rinses dentures in cold water to promote
client comfort
b. Uses hot water to ensure thorough cleaning
of denture
c. Assists the client in brushing gums, palate
and tongue
d. Stores the denture in a clean, dry container
4. Which of the following oral hygiene products
would place the patient at risk for oral
problems?
a. Lemon-glycerin sponges
b. Hydrogen peroxide with water
c. Flouride toothpaste
d. Potassium Permanganate
5. Clients receiving medication therapy is at
risk for oral problems because radiation car
cause:
a. nausea and taste changes
b. patient is unable to attend to personal
hygiene needs
c. dysphagia and oral infection
d. dryness and soreness of the mouth
Situation: For quality care, nurses should
provide not only the therapeutic bath but
facilitate daily cleansing bath as well.
1. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a
cleansing bath and skin care?
a. To reduce local inflammation
b. To promote comfort
c. To provide exercise
d. To stimulate circulation
2. Which of the following positions of the client
and the hospital bed is MOST appropriate in
doing a bed bath for him?
a. Move the client away from you and adjust
the bed in high position
b. Move the client towards you and adjust the
bed in low position
c. Move the client towards you and adjust the
bed in high position
d. Move the client away from you and adjust
the bed in low position
3. Your patient is running a 38.5 temperature.
Before you administer a tepid sponge bath,
which of the following should you assess?
a. Pulse and temperature before the procedure
and one hour after the procedure
b. Pulse and temperature every 30 minutes
and for one (1) hour after the procedure
c. Pulse and temperature immediately before
and every 16 minutes during the procedure
d. Pulse and temperature immediately before
and after the procedure
4. Which of the following is the correct
temperature of the water for tepid sponge
bath?
a. 38’C (warm water)
b. 37’C (tap water)
c. 35’C (iced water)
d. 37.5’C (lukewarm water)
5. Which of the following is NOT a guideline
when providing a client with any type of bath?
a. Provide dependency needs of client
b. Maintain safety
c. Promote client independence
d. Provide privacy
4. Which solution is used for rinsing the mouth
of children?
a. NSS
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Na Flouride 0.2%
d. Water
Situation: Practically everyone has had
experienced sensory deprivation his life time.
This condition is especially experienced by
hospitalized patients who find themselves
separated from their families and friends,
unable to perform their regular functions and
sometimes, because of illness, have difficulty
in their sensory functions.
1. Which of the following client groups have
the LEAST risk for sensory alteration during
hospitalization?
a. Elderly clients
b. Clients in ICU
c. Ambulatory patients
d. Bedridden patients
2. Because of existing multiple sensory stimuli,
patients with sensory overload also experience
sensory alterations. Which of the following
nursing interventions would be appropriate for
clients with sensory overload such as those
with hyperesthesia?
a. Firm pressure when touching body parts
b. Frequent back rubs or body massage
c. Minimal use of direct touch
d. Vigorous hair brushing or massage of scalp
3. Clients who are recovering from a general
anesthesia oftentimes manifest altered level of
consciousness. Which of the following nursing
interventions will be of LEAST help to post-
anesthesia patients?
a. Encourage relatives to talk and touch as
though client is conscious
b. Reorient client to time and place
c. Don’t waste time by explaining to clients
routine procedures like bath, feeding and
others
d. Introduce self before starting an activity
with client
4. Which of the following assessment tool is
used in identifying visual sensory deficit?
a. Tuning fork
b. Snellen chart
c. Otoscope
d. Audiometer
5. Which of the following goals is LEAST
appropriate for clients with sensory
alterations?
a. Establish a safe environment
b. Achieve self-care
c. Provide well-balanced diet
d. Create meaningful sensory stimuli
Situation: This pertains to alerting and
instructing parents aimed at injury prevention.
The Parent Teachers Association agreed to hold
health-teaching classes for parents of school
age children.
1. During the health teaching classes for
parents, the nurse stresses the fundamental
prerequisite of injury prevention for school age
children, which are:
a. Diligence, hard work and practice
b. Safe home environment and regular
supervision
c. Place for developing and accomplishing goal
d. Education, discipline and obedience
2. Child health supervision is designed to
provide all of the following except
a. Detecting the presence of deformity or
disease
b. Helping in interpreting nutritional
requirements and protecting against diseases
c. Giving appropriate counseling
d. Providing monetary assistance for needy
families
3. A powerful physical antidote that absorbs
most poison is:
a. Apomorphine
b. Activated charcoal
c. Syrup of Ipecac
d. Narcan
4. Injuries most common during early school
age are all of these, except:
a. Falls
b. Drowning
c. Motor vehicle accident
d. Poisoning
5. As part of her school health program, the
nurse anticipates health teachings on
precautionary measures and safety education
appropriate to their typical behavior. For
adolescent group, the focus is on:
1. Enforcing safety rules in diving,
swimming and other play
2. Avoiding smoldering fires and
matches, bottles and can that may explode
3. Pointing out serious effects of
fireworks and other hazardous materials
4. Storing dangerous tools and
equipment in locked cupboard
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
Situation: Mang Beloy, 26 years old laborer,
fell from a 4-storey building construction. He
was rushed to the emergency room and
admitted. He became unconscious after two
hours.
1. The priority nursing goal of patient with
sensory alteration is:
a. Maintaining adequate communication
b. Ensuring proper nutrition
c. Providing a safe environment
d. Promoting social interaction
2. In the case of Mang Beloy, you will consider
the following goals. The one to receive first
priority is to:
a. Monitor neurological status including vital
signs
b. Maintain his fluid-electrolyte balance
c. Maintain an open airway
d. Control his pain and restlessness
3. An unconscious patient is unable to:
a. Move spontaneously
b. React to painful stimuli
c. Hear voices
d. Control elimination
4. You should refrain discussing an
unconscious patient’s condition at his bedside
because:
a. Critical condition of an unconscious patient
is confidential information
b. Level of awareness of patient is high
c.. It is unethical to discuss critical condition of
patient
d. The hearing sense is not entirely lost when
unconscious
5. The most sensitive indicator of an
unconscious patient with head injury is the:
a. Muscle twitching
b. Pupillary changes
c. Blood pressure and pulse
d. Motor functions
8. MOBILITY AND IMMOBILITY
Situation: Mrs. Tano, 60 years old, was
admitted because of cardiovascular accident
(CVA) resulting to paralysis of the left side of
the body.
1. You planned to start passive range of
motion exercises today. Which one of the
following should you avoid in doing passive
range of motion exercises?
a. The extremity should be supported
particularly the bones below and above the
exercising joint.
b. During the passive exercises, the client
should be lying in supine position.
c. Each joint should be moved slowly through
its full range.
d. If a joint appears to be stiff, the exercise
should be continued slightly beyond the point
of pain.
2. One day, while making the usual rounds of
your clients in the ward, you realize that Mrs.
Tano has been lying in the same position for
more than two hours. You are very much
concerned because:
a. Mrs. Tano is vulnerable to the development
of pressure sores during the time period
b. The husband has been complaining about
her wife’s care and you are worried that the
husband might report you to the supervisor
c. Mrs. Tano is vulnerable to the development
of contractures in that time perid
d. You have repeatedly instructed the
attendant to turn Mrs. Tano every two hours.
3. You went to see Mrs. Tano to assess the
integrity of her skin because of your concern
that she has not been turned. When you check
her bony prominence on one side, you noticed
that there is beginning pressure sores
formation because:
a. You know that the attendant did not turn
Mrs. Tano to the sides
b. The skin is red to purple gray and hot to
touch
c. The skin is pink and warm to touch
d. You know that Mrs. Tano has not been
eating well and she is at risk for pressure sores
4. You have the most important reason for
bedsores as a threat to Mrs. Tano’s skin
integrity is:
a. Moisture from perspiration can produce
laceration of the skin
b. Excessive pressure collapse blood vessels
and impedes blood flow eventually causing
tissue damage
c. Invasion of microorganisms create infection
in the skin which has been subjected to
continuous pressure over time
d. Friction allows pulling in tissues thus
stretching and injuring tissue and blood vessels
5. Your priority intervention with Mrs. Tano
when you discover she is developing pressure
sores would be to:
a. Rub affected skin vigorously to stimulate
circulation
b. Relieve pressure to prevent interference
with blood flow
c. Cleanse the area well with alcohol to prevent
infection
d. Increase fluids to prevent electrolyte
imbalance
Situation: Aling Iska, a 45-year old paralytic
patient is bedridden
1. What would be your primary goal to
maintain skin integrity of Aling Iska?
a. Keep patient dry
b. Avoid infection
c. Prevention of bed sore
d. Regular turning from side to side
2. The immediate cause of bed sore is:
a. Unhygienic procedures
b. Skin break
c. Sustained pressure
d. Poor blood circulation
3. Why is the coccygeal prone to bed sore
formation?
a. There is less blood circulation
b. It is a bony prominence
c. It is constantly in contact with linen
d. It is near the perineum
4. You regularly turn the patient from side to
side mainly to:
a. Make patient comfortable
b. Put patient in proper position
c. Maintain proper body alignment
d. Promote blood circulation
5. Which of the following is the first line of
defense of the body?
a. Hygienic habits
b. Clean environment
c. Good nutrition
d. An unbroken skin
Situation: This situation is about nursing
responsibilities in ambulation across groups.
1. In caring for patients who have undergone
abdominal operative procedure and have been
given general anesthesia, how soon should you
encourage ambulation?
a. If patient is afebrile
b. The day after surgery
c. Upon awakening from anesthesia
d. When catheter is removed
2. How do you start ambulating your patient
who have hip braces?
a. Standing up with full back support
b. Wheelchair first then walk with active
assistance
c. Side lying with one foot dangled
d. Start by dangling both feet with back
support
3. When a child starts to crawl and stand up,
how do you prepare for ambulation?
a. Surround with hammock belt support and
walk
b. Hold both hands and step according to
child’s capability
c. Hold hands tightly and let child follow your
small steps
d. Put child in a walker with a security belt
4. What about older persons who need to walk
a little, how do you ambulate them?
a. Support elbow and place other hand on
shoulder of patient
b. Put hand on waist and walk
c. Hold the elbow while walking
d. Hold hands tightly
5. How do you ambulate a deaf patient?
a. Hold one hand and walk according to one’s
pace
b. Walk in front guiding the way
c. Walk side by side
d. Hold waist and walk slowly
Situation: You were newly assigned to Mang
Cocoy, an unconscious patient with right-sided
paralysis. You noted reddening of the skin over
the coccygeal area.
1. What is the first sign that decubitus ulcer
might be developing:
a. Rash appearance
b. Skin is blanched
c. Papules appear
d. Skin is taut
2. How often should the patient be
repositioned:
a. Every 4 to 6 hours
b. Every shift
c. Every 2 to 4 hours
d. As often as necessary
3. Which of the following techniques of moving
would most likely cause bedsore formation?
a. Moving patient to a chair with support
b. Rolling patient to his side with a drawsheet
c. Sliding patient on the sheet to move him up
in bed
d. Lifting patient from bed to stretcher
4. When transferring the patient from bed to
stretcher, where should the stretcher be placed
in relation to the bed:
a. At a 45 degree angle near the middle of the
bed
b. Parallel to the side of the bed
c. At a right at the foot of the bed
d. Diagonally at the foot of the bed
5. What is the diet of a patient with developing
decubitus ulcer:
a. High vitamin intake
b. High protein intake
c. High caloric intake
d. Low fat diet
Situation: Good body mechanics is safe use of
the body to produce motion and maintain
balance during activity.
1. The major purpose of body mechanics is to:
a. Prevent injury or falls
b. Improve body image
c. Facilitate efficient use of appropriate
muscles
d. Maintain body balance and posture gait
2. Which of the following basic elements are
involved in body mechanics:
a. Posture balance and body movement
b. Range of action movement and exercise
c. Exercise, nutrition and posture
d. Activities of daily living and exercise
3. What condition would be an outcome of a
client’s potential immobility problem?
a. Has no feelings of depression
b. Gains more knowledge about body
alignment
c. Identifies factors contributing in mobility
d. Joins groups with similar problems as client
4. These are factors that influence early
ambulation of immobilized patients, except:
a. Will to live
b. Good body image
c. Minimize more immobility problem
d. Better lifestyle
5. Body mechanics is of value to the nurse as
it:
a. Decrease risk of injury
b. Promote active exercise
c. Reduce extra body fats
d. Increases energy conservation
III. HEALTH EDUCATION
A. TEACHING AND LEARNING PRINCIPLES
IN THE CARE OF CLIENTS
Situation: Your teaching role is most essential
if you expect people to keep healthy and well.
1. The ultimate aim of teaching clients/patients
is to bring about:
a. Increase knowledge of a disease
b. Develop self care skills
c. Awareness of health practices
d. Change in health behavior
2. When teaching an elderly, what is the most
important ability that you should assess?
a. Sensory alterations
b. Level of developmental task
c. Able to express feelings
d. Level of health knowledge
3. Your teaching will be more effective if you
start:
a. With a problem area of concern to the
patient
b. When the doctor has discharge orders
c. When the patient is ready to learn
d. As early as the first nurse-patient contact
4. What is the first thing you would do when
planning a teaching session:
a. Set teaching objectives
b. Interview target audience to get their
interest
c. Identify learning needs
d. Identify learning resources
5. Giving health information by itself is unlikely
to result in better health of your patient
unless:
a. Patient takes health actions
b. Patient shows willingness to comply
c. Your message is clear
d. Information has been shared with other
patients
Situation: One of the important roles of a
nurse in the care of her patients is that of
being a health educator. As in any teaching-
learning situation, the nurse must be able to
apply the various teaching-learning principles
and must always demonstrate the positive
attitude of an educator.
1. Which of the following factors LEAST
influence the learning readiness of an adult
learner?
a. The individual’s level or stage of
development
b. Ability to concentrate on information to be
learned
c. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to
his illness
d. Internal impulses that drive the person to
take action
2. Which of the following is the most
important condition for diabetic patients to
learn how to control their diet?
a. Use of pamphlets and other materials during
health instruction
b. Motivation to be symptom-free
c. Ability of the patient to understand teaching
instruction
d. Language used by the nurse
3. An important skill that a primigravida has to
acquire is the ability to bathe her newborn
baby and to clean her breast if she decides to
breastfeed her baby. Which of the learning
domain will you classify the above goals?
a. Psychomotor
b. Cognitive
c. Affective
d. Attitudinal
4. When you prepare your teaching plan for a
group of hypertensive patients, you first
formulate your learning objectives. Which of
the following steps in the nursing process
correspond to the writing of learning
objectives?
a. Planning
b. Implementing
c. Evaluation
d. Assessment
5. Rose, 50 years old, a newly diagnosed
diabetic patient, must learn self injection of
insulin. Which of the following physical
attributes is NOT related to her ability to self
inject insulin?
a. Strength
b. Coordination
c. Body built
d. Sensory Acuity
34. Which of the following is correct in
teaching the elderly a new learned material?
a. Give in a 15 minute session
b. Distribute reading materials
c. Allow more time for learning
d. Give in a hurried pace to force them to pay
attention
Situation: Health education is an important in
the care of patients. As such, the nurse must
be cognizant of the principles involved in the
teaching-learning process as applied to client
teaching.
1. A learning objective by a nurse reads “
Clients will change her dressing using clean
technique before his discharge from the
hospital.” Wound dressing using clean
technique is classified under which component
of learning objective?
a. Purpose
b. Behavior
c. Condition
d. Content
2. In teaching a post-oophorectomy patient on
how to apply the dressing at home, which of
the following physical attributes would not
relate to his ability to perform psychomotor
task?
a. Privacy
b. Age
c. Strength
d. Coordination
3. A clinical example of psychomotor learning
is when a client does whish of the following?
a. Chooses the type of exercise after delivery
b. State an acceptance for the need to
amputate his leg
c. Explains the purpose and action of a blood
transfusion
d. Changes the dressing aseptically in a leg
ulcer
4. Nurses are expected to provide the needed
health teachings to all her patients as provided
in which of the following?
a. The Constitution of the Philippines as
contained in the functions of the DOH
b. The By-Laws of the Philippine Nurses
Association
c. The Code of Ethics for Nurses as
promulgated by the BON
d. Nursing Act of 2000
5. In giving health teaching, it is important for
the nurse to be aware of which of the following
factors regarding client’s learning needs?
a. They change as you modify the teaching
technique
b. They are the same for everyone
c. They change throughout the life cycle
d. They change daily
Situation: Miss Bartolome is assigned to Mang
Lando, a 62-year old newly diagnosed diabetic
patient. She is beginning to write objectives for
her teaching plan?
1. Which of the following objectives is written
in behavioral terms?
a. Mang Lando’s wife needs to understand
b. Mang Lando’s daughter should learn about
diabetes mellitus within a week
c. Mang Lando’s sister will be able to
determine his insulin requirements based on
blood glucose levels from the glucometer in 2
days
d. Mang Lando will know about diabetes
related to foot care and techniques and
equipment necessary to carry out
2. Which of the following is the BEST rationale
for written objectives?
a. Ensure communication among staff
members
b. Ensure learning on the part of the nurse
c. Facilitate observation of performance on the
nurse
d. Document the quality of care
3. Which of the following behavior BEST
contributes to the learning of Mang Lando
regarding his disease condition?
a. Detailed lengthy explanations
b. Loosely structured teaching session
c. Frequent use of the technical terms
d. Drawing him into discussion about diabetes
4. Which of the following behaviors of Mang
Lando is LEAST indicative of his readiness to
learn?
a. Inquiring about the date of discharge
b. Reading brochures and pamphlets about
diabetes
c. Talking with the nurse in charge and his
doctors
B. HEALTH EDUCATION IN ALL LEVELS OF
CARE
Situation: Andres, 26 years old, a tricycle
driver and married, consulted the outpatient
clinic for hoarse voice on and off for almost
two years now. Health history reveals that he
has been smoking since his teenage years.
1. Illness prevention activities are designed to
help clients:
a. Manage stressful events
b. Identify danger signals of disease
c. Reduce risk factors of specific diseases
d. Change habits affecting health
2. To be able to modify the smoking behavior
of Andres, it is most important to collect which
of the following data:
a. His health beliefs and practices
b. His family health lifestyle
c. Coping ability of his family
d. Available health services in his community
3. Which of the following conditions will most
likely convince Andres to quit smoking:
a. A strong motivation to quit smoking
b. Giving some incentive if he quits smoking
c. Knowledge on ill-effect of smoking
d. Social support for the desired behavior
4. In attempting to change undesirable health
behavior, it is most important that the decision
is:
a. Made by the nurse together with the client
b. Left to the client himself
c. Refer to the decision makers in the family
d. Done by the nurse who is an authority on
health
5. Smoking cessation programs is more likely
to be successful if you first focus intervention
on the behavior that is:
a. A hazard of public health
b. Of most concern to client
c. Unacceptable to friends
d. Prohibited by authorities
Situation: Patient education is one of the most
important responsibilities of the nurse. To be
effective, it is necessary for the nurse to
render appropriate health teaching according
to the specific health problems of her clients.
1. In educating clients regarding testicular
prostate cancer, which of the following
statements is correct?
a. “Excess alcohol intake of more than three
bottles per day can cause prostate cancer”.
b. “Men who fathered children are less prone
to prostate cancer.”
c. “Testicular cancer is the leading cause of
death among men in middle-age group.”
d. “Testicular cancer is a disease of the
elderly.”
2. Discharge teaching instructions are very
important to all clients. Which of the following
instructions should you emphasize to prevent
recurrence in a patient treated for
pyelonephritis?
a. Monitoring urine output
b. Maintenance of perineal hygiene
c. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day
d. Discontinuance of antibiotic therapy when
the client feels better
3. On discharge, the nurse teaches the client
diagnosed to have Meniere’s syndrome to care
for herself at home by which of the following?
a. Avoiding quick movement of the head
b. Forcing fluids to decrease
hemoconcentration
c. Reducing loud and excessive noise in the
environment
d. Increasing activity such as walking rapidly
to help maintain mobility
4. A client who has Meniere’s syndrome is to
be discharged. Which of the following should
the nurse teach about diet at home?
a. Increase intake of milk
b. Eat three large meals a day
c. Eat whatever is tolerated as long as they
don’t cause some distress
d. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
5. A client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis
is taught by the nurse to do range of motion
(ROM) exercises as a preparation for
discharge. In implementing a plan of care for
the patients, which of the following should a
nurse do?
a. Allow long rest periods between exercises
b. Point out small accomplishments made by
the client
c. Praise the client only when she makes
significant accomplishment
d. Do simple things for the client so she knows
the nurse is supportive of her.
Situation: Celiovit is a 28 years old father
whose only son, Nilo, contacts his sore eyes
from playing dirty water in Biniray river bend.
1. What will the nurse teach Celiovit about sore
eyes from the statements below?
a. Offer white chicken to remove redness of
sore eyes
b. Sore eyes are curable and are self limiting
c. Sore eyes are caused by peeping in the hole
of others
d. Fresh urine of babies are cure for sore eyes
2. In rural areas, the old people believe that
when they cannot see clearly, an evil charm
has fallen on them. You can tell them this:
a. Perhaps you have cataract – this can be
remedied
b. Diabetes make eyesight blurred and you
may be having this
c. Maybe you have glaucoma – you need
treatment right away
d. This is just passing, you will see later on
3. How important is health teaching in rural
areas as you have experienced during your
community exposure-immersion?
a. 75%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 25%
4. Why is health teaching an important facet of
the nursing profession? Because health
teaching is:
a. Done when there is nothing else to do
b. One way of keeping promotional health
c. Portraying the teaching role of nursing
d. Part of total nursing care
5. Cleanliness is best done through:
a. Community work
b. Role modeling
c. Competitive activities
d. Health teaching
Situation: Aling Clara, 60 years old, is a retiree
from a government office. She has spent thirty
years working in the Department of Health.
1. In assessing the health status of Aling Clara,
the most important information to obtain for a
teaching plan is her:
a. Health beliefs and practices
b. Retirement plan
c. Modification in activities
d. Physiological changes
2. In establishing goals of nursing care for
Aling Clara, you will give priority to:
a. Selecting a variety of recreational activities
b. Submitting for physical examination
regularly
c. Maintaining independence as much as
possible
d. Referring to social services when necessary
3. The most important attitude to demonstrate
when doing rehabilitative nursing is to let the
patient feel:
a. Support from family
b. Trusted and respected
c. Less of a dependent
d. Important and accepted
4. When conducting teaching sessions with
older adults, the best method to use is:
a. Give them reading materials
b. Allow them to socialize
c. Keep session short enough
d. Serve snack in between sessions
5. Which of the following remarks will most
likely create a positive attitude of your patient
on rehabilitative nursing:
a. Hospitalization is only temporary
b. Rehabilitation is positive health
c. Life goes on even after hospitalization
d. While there is life, there is hope
C. DISCHARGE PLANNING
Situation: Aling Juana is for discharge. During
her hospital confinement, you noted her lack of
knowledge about her illness. You made a
discharge teaching plan.
1. The choice of discharge teaching topics will
depend on:
a. Continuing needs of patients
b. Patient diagnosis
c. Instructions as ordered by doctor
d. Treatment regimen
2. You can say that your patient has learned
when:
a. He says so
b. Promises to follow advice
c. Asks further questions
d. Takes the desired action
3. When giving counsel to a patient, he is most
likely to need your advice if you:
a. Assure him of benefits
b. Let him make the decision
c. Threaten him for non-compliance
d. Give him time to reflect in your advice
4. You can best model your teacher role
through:
a. Instructing your patients after care
b. Giving incidental teachings
c. Providing health posters
d. Practicing healthy habits
5. One of the following important nursing
activities in promoting health is:
a. Case finding
b. Conducting patient instruction
c. Assisting in immunization
d. Giving anticipatory guidance
Situation: Mr. Tinio, a cardiovascular patient
has been hospitalized for 4 months and his
doctor has ordered for discharge.
1. Mr. Tinio appears anxious about numerous
aspects of his home care. The best response
you would give is:
a. Explore with him his fears and allow him to
verbalize feelings.
b. Advice him to take all his medications
regularly
c. Explain why he has to have certain activity
limitation
d. Let him express his feelings to reduce his
anxiety
2. An immediate need for Mr. Tinio is:
a. Reduce anxiety
b. More independent in our look
c. Security and comfort
d. Conserve anxiety
3. Cardiac rehabilitation programs in the acute
stage aids the person in:
a. Reaching an activity level required for self-
care
b. Preventing further complications
c. Plan his activity of living
d. Acceptance of his condition
4. Cardiac rehabilitation goals in long term
restore individual to optimum health and:
a. Prevent heart complaints
b. Slow down the progress of disease
c. Another myocardial infraction attack
d. Avoid exposure to infection
5. The greatest effect on his home recovery
will be his:
a. Expectations to go back to work
b. Dietary needs to be well
c. Family’s emotional support
d. Understanding of the cause of his illness
Situation: Mrs. Prado, a 70 years old retiree
expressed concern about her coming
discharge.
1. What would be the most effective
intervention you would do first?
a. Ask what concerns her
b. Teach family about home care
c. Request attending physician to reassure her
d. Refer her to social worker
2. Your home care teaching will more likely be
effective if you:
a. Teach behavior modification
b. Include only in family teaching
c. Leave teaching to midwife
d. Know patient home care needs
3. On discharge, a good regimen for Mrs. Prado
is:
a. Spend most of the time reading
b. Watch horror movies in TV
c. Active exercise
d. Social recreation
4. In long term disability, it is especially
important that the nurse at all times:m
a. Hasten self-care skills
b. Treat patient as a human being
c. Show general concern
d. Keep busy to avoid boredom
5. The most important health team member in
home care is:
a. The Physician
b. The Public Health Nurse
c. The Social Worker
d. The Patient and his Family
IV. ETHICO-MORAL RESPONSIBILITY
A. BIOETHICAL PRINCIPLES
1. Beneficence
2. Non-malefescence
3. Justice
4. Autonomy
5. Stewardship
6. Truth-telling
Situation: Nurses oftentimes encounter various
ethical dilemmas in the care of her patient in
special areas of the hospital like the ICU and
the operating room.
1. One time a nurse in the ICU was told by the
hospital administrator to omit blood
transfusion ordered by the doctor because the
patient is going to die eventually anyw. What
must the nurse do?
a. Follow the doctor’s order and be silent about
it
b. Resign from the job is pressured by the
administration
c. Report the incident to the doctor and risk
her job depending upon the doctor’s decision
d. Obey the order of the hospital administrator
2. A patient with terminal cancer has reached
the stage of acceptance. She told the nurse to
discontinue all efforts to prolong his life. Which
of the following should the nurse do?
a. Seek further advise from other nurses
before taking any further drastic decision
b. Disregard patient’s request and continue all
efforts to maintain patient’s life
c. Interact with the patient and continue the 21.The belief that euthanasia is absolutely
care and support for the patient wrong in any scenario, it is a/an:
d. Tell the patient that it would be a sin a. Moral belief
because life is holy and dignified. b. Personal belief
c. Ethical issue
3. The dying patient was visited by his spiritual d. Ethical principle
adviser. The private nurse was with the patient
all the time during the chaplain visit. When an 40. A major principle says that do no harm:
elder brother came to visit, he asked the nurse a. Beneficence
what the sick brother and the chaplain were b. Justice
talking about. What would be the right thing c. Autonomy
for the nurse to do? d. Non-maleficence
a. Ask the relative to look for another nurse
who may tell him even if it is privilege 42. In the hospital where there is only one
communication pacemaker, which of the following client should
b. She should not reveal anything to the visitor be your priority to use the pacemaker?
because it is a privilege communication a. A 46-year-old woman cousin of a
c. Tell the elder brother that relatives should congressman
keep out of the spiritual affairs of the patient b. A 65-year-old diabetic client
d. She should reveal some information that c. A 10-year-old boy who supports the
concern the elder brother of the patient grandmother
d. A 26-year old man with 5 children.
4. A new OR nurse finds out that she is to
assist in bilateral salphingectomy operation. Situation: In rendering care to a handicapped
She has heard that this might involve a child, the nurse has many responsibilities. Most
question of morality. The head nurse tells her of the entire nurse should be ethical
that she has nothing to worry about. How
would you respond to the situation? 1. What principal bioethical principle should a
a. Examine herself for the meantime and wait nurse carry when caring for a handicapped
until she becomes a midwife child?
b. Assist when the indication for the operation a. Justice
is medically certain b. Beneficence
c. Seek further advise from the spiritual c. Respect
adviser d. Non-malificence
d. Report the whole matter to the head nurse
2. Regarding idiosyncracies of a handicapped
5. Which of the following should be considered child, how should a nurse deal with the
by the nurse before getting the client/patient tantrums?
to sign the operative consent? a. Respect
a. evaluate the client’s level of consciousness b. Beneficence
and intellectual capability c. Justice
b. sedate the client to make sure she is relaxed d. Non-malificence
enough to sign the consent without mild
anxiety 3. In apportioning candies and other nice
c. ascertain that the surgeon has prepared the goodies among children, what bioethical
client by explaining the proposed operative principle should a nurse observe?
procedure a. Justice
d. withhold all medications eight hours prior to b. Beneficence
obtaining the consent c. Non-malifescence
d. Respect

3. Principles behind prioritization of nursing 4. What is the nursing ethical guiding principle
care is: during invasive procedures being done to
a. Veracity children?
b. Beneficence a. Respect
c. Non-maleficence b. Beneficence
d. Fidelity c. Justice
d. Non-malifescence
5. A handicapped child like any normal child a. Rules that protect public interest and
should be loaded with: welfare
a. Toys b. Principles of conduct on becoming a nurse
b. Food c. Right ways of giving nursing care
c. Love d. Society’s norm in the practice of nursing
d. Care
3. When you start the practice of professional
Situation: Bioethics in caring for children nursing, you assume “ipso facto” obligations to
capitalizes on some important principles. You uphold the noble traditions of the profession.
are expected to know these by heart because You are expected to:
nurses care for children as well as for adults. a. Earn a living
1. What is the principle to hold on to when b. Safeguard public health
caring for children who have been abandoned c. Abide by the law
when abused? d. Fulfill your civic duties
a. Respect
b. Constant assurance 4. The scope of nursing practice based on RA
c. Autonomy 7164 includes the following responsibilities,
d. Allocation of resources except:
a. Interpreting results of sensitivity tests
2. The principle that tells children are to be b. Initiating Code Blue
treated accordingly as a person is this one: c. Suturing lacerations
a. Beneficence d. Care of women during pregnancy, labor and
b. Respect delivery
c. Justice
d. Autonomy 5. To develop independence if families in
health, which of the following is the best
3. When there is only one pacemaker and approach?
there are many patients needing it, the a. Family education for life
bioethical principle to be used is: b. Family empowerment
a. Beneficence c. Family health work
b. Respect d. Family health organization
c. Justice
d. Autonomy
7. CONFIDENTIALITY
4. When the nurse triage patient to render care 8. PRIVACY
accordingly, you are using this particular 9. INFORMED CONSENT
principle: Situation: Mrs. Diaz is assigned in the female
a. Respect surgical ward. While on duty, an 18-year old
b. Autonomy patient, married, was admitted for caesarean
c. Beneficence section. The informed consent operation has to
d. Allocation of resources be obtained.

5. In choosing sharp intramuscular needles for
injections, you are practicing this principle:
a. Beneficence
b. Respect
c. Justice
d. Non-maleficence
Situation: Ethical and legal responsibilities are
part of your nursing practice.
1. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Ethics prescribe what are right and wrong
conduct
b. Ethics and morals are synonymous
c. Morals as human conduct is also a legal right
d. An unethical act is immoral
2. The Code of Nurses best describes:
1. The person legally responsible for taking the
informed consent is:
a. The OR nurse who is going to assist during
the operation
b. The doctor assigned with the team.
c. The doctor who is going to operate on the
patient
d. The ward nurse where the patient stayed
before the operation
2. Mrs. Diaz has to remember the following
about informed consent:
a. Because the patient is a minor, the parents
should be asked to sign the consent
b. The informed consent should be signed
either by the patient or the husband
c. The nurse has the main responsibility to
obtain the informed consent
d. When the consent form is signed by the
patient herself, the nurse should stand as a
witness
3. The medical intern who assisted in the
operations gave post-operative orders. In this
case, Mrs. Diaz should:
a. validate the order from the surgeon and
request him to countersign
b. follow the order as long as they are within
the scope of nursing practice
c. clarify from the medical intern those that are
ambiguous
d. refuse to follow the order because it is not
legal
4. After one year, Mrs. Diaz was rotated to the
delivery room. As DR nurse, the obstetrician
ordered her to give spinal anesthesia because
the anesthesiologist was late. The nurse
should:
a. give anesthesia if the supervising nurse
approved it
b. give the anesthesia if the obstetrician
supervises her
c. give the anesthesia if the doctor writes the
order
d. not give anesthesia
5. Which of the following should a nurse
remember in cases when doctor’s request
them to give anesthesia?
a. The nurse has the right to refuse it, if the
doctor’s order is unlawful
b. Doctor’s orders should always be written
c. The nurse may render medical procedure if
the doctor supervises her
d. The staff nurse can be accused of
insubordination if she does not follow all
doctor’s order
Situation: Clients and patient in health care
have both ethical and legal rights.
1. When a patient wants to know the prognosis
of his illness, the best action to take is:
a. Refer to your senior nurse
b. Advise patient to ask his doctor
c. Give a direct answer
d. Discuss it with her the hospital policy
2. Your patient resented your telling her to
take home her expensive belongings for
safekeeping. What is the best action to take?
a. Suggest that these be kept in her locked
table drawer
b. Bring the matter to the attention of the head
nurse
c. Keep in the unit cabinet under lock and key
d. Discuss with her the hospital policy
3. The physician has an order to limit visitors
for your patient. One morning a relative
insisted to visit him. Your best response is to:
a. Call the security guard
b. Show him the “No Visitors” sign
c. Explain the need for the patient to rest
d. Allow a brief visit
4. It is a routine practice in the hospital to
follow doctor’s rounds. One morning, a patient
with a dyspnea was for admission. The best
action to take is:
a. Attend to the patient immediately
b. Inform the physician there is a patient for
admission
c. Make the patient wait for a while
d. Ask a student nurse to admit the patient
5. These includes your responsibilities in family
nursing care, except:
a. Family planning counseling
b. Monitoring child development
c. Screening for immunologic problems
d. Crisis intervention
B. PATIENT’S BILL OF RIGHTS
5. Which of the following is NOT a legally
binding document but nonetheless very
important in the care of all patients in any
setting?
a. Bill of rights and provided in the Philippine
constitution
b. Scope of nursing practice as defined on RA
7164
c. Board of nursing resolution adopting the
Code of Ethics
d. Patient’s Bill of Rights
Situation: In most instances, a Filipino does
not know their rights as patients. To be a
patient advocate, the nurses must have a good
understanding of the Patient’s Bill of Rights.
1. By listening carefully to the clients and their
relatives and explaining about what will
happen, why and when, the nurse is observing
which of the following rights?
a. Right to refuse treatment to the extent
permitted by law
b. Right to expect reasonable continuity of care
c. Right to considerate and respectful care
d. Right to know what hospital rules and
regulations apply to his conduct as a patient
2. As the nurse in the prenatal clinic, you are
able to protect the patient’s right to every
consideration of his privacy by observing which
of the following?
a. In doing physical examination, the nurse
provides by applying the needed legging or
drape and a room or enclosed area
b. The nurse accepts the patient’s desire not to
take experimental drugs and/or regimen
c. The nurse encourages patient to participate
in planning her care
d. The nurse does not impose any treatment if
the client refuses to it
3. Which of the following is an emerging role of
the nurse in her mission to provide quality care
in any setting regardless of the type of a client
and meet her goal to contribute new
knowledge and technology in nursing?
a. Nurse educator
b. Nurse executive
c. Nurse manager
d. Nurse researcher
4. As member of the country, the Philippines is
committed to the worldwide movement of
“Achieving Health for All”, as patient’s
advocate, nurses must involve herself in
activities that will focus on which of the
following?
a. Lobby for increase budgetary allocation for
specialized hospitals and tertiary levels of care
b. Delegate more nursing functions to support
and rehabilitate rather than promotive and
preventive aspects of care
c. Focus more of her services on curative and
rehabilitative rather than promotive and
preventive aspects of care
d. Emphasize on self-reliance and participation
by the individual and community member of
health matters
5. Nowadays, funding for personal health care
comes from a variety of sources which the
nurse must be knowledgeable about in order to
protect the rights of their clients to health care
services. Which of the following provides
private health care services?
a. Employment compensation / health
insurance
b. Health maintenance organizations
c. Preferred provider organizations
d. Medicare / Philhealth
Situation: Albert’s brother is deciding whether
to commit him to a mental institution or not,
Albert refuses to cooperate.
1. The fundamental right of every individual
emanates from:
a. Constitution of the Philippines
b. Laws of the land
c. Penal code
d. Person’s Bill of Rights
2. Mentally ill persons have specific rights
based on:
a. Freedom of choice and self-determination
b. Freedom from unreasonable search and
seizure
c. Freedom of speech
d. Right of privacy
3. Albert can be advised that his brother can
only be treated involuntarily if:
a. Nobody can take care of him at home
b. He has suicidal tendencies
c. He is dangerous to others
d. All of these
4. An important nursing concern for patients
involuntarily committed is:
a. Developing a nursing care plan
b. Implementing medical orders
c. Basic nursing assessment documentation
d. Adherence to legal constraints
5. Which of the following patient’s rights can
be suspended for a valid reason?
a. Right to privacy
b. Right to treatment with the least restriction
c. Right to freedom from physical restraint and
seclusion
d. Right to confidentiality of records
C. CODE OF ETHICS IN NURSING
Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that your
actions have ethico-legal implications. Because
of this, you must always be alert of those
situations that demand an appropriate
professional conduct.
1. Mr. Lacson is in the terminal stage of lung
cancer. He tells you that he has a living will.
You have known that the client’s living will
involves which one of the following?
a. A document signed by the client’s family for
the provider to withhold medical treatment
when death is eminent
b. The medical treatment a client chooses to
withhold if he is rendered unable to make
decisions
c. It is confidential and not part of the client’s
medical record.
d. Provides that the client’s wishes need not be
followed if life can be prolonged
2. You understand that as a nurse, maintaining
privacy and confidentiality is an important
aspect of which of the following?
a. Hospital policy
b. Nurse code of ethics
c. What all client expects
d. It is an accepted practice
3. Health care issues often become an ethical
dilemma because of which of the following?
a. Decision must be made quickly often under
a stressful condition.
b. Decision must be made based on individual
systems
c. The choices involved do not appear to be
clearly right or wrong
d. A client’s legal rights co-exist with a health
profession
4. A basic structure against which competent
care is objectively measured is which of the
following?
a. Principle
b. Standard
c. Law
d. Codes
5. Which of the following principles underlying
ethical code of professional nurses is
considered when one tells the truth about
medication errors committed?
a. Privacy
b. Veracity
c. Malificence
d. Beneficence
Situation: One important fact that will guide
the nurse in the practice of the profession is
her knowledge of the nursing law.
1. The nurse practice act of 1991 regulates the
practice of nursing in the Philippines. Which of
the following statements about this Act is NOT
true?
a. This act delineates the practice of nursing
and midwifery
b. It was enacted in November 1991
c. The primary purpose is to protect the public
d. This Act defines the practice of nursing in
the Philippines
2. When a nurse starts working in a hospital
but without a written contract, which of the
following is expected of her?
a. She is not bound to perform according to
the standards of nursing practice
b. Provides nursing care within the acceptable
standards of nursing practice
c. She is not obliged to provide professional
service
d. The employer does not hold the nurse
responsible for her action
3. A patient, G8P5, refused to be injected with
her 3rd dose of Depoprovera. The nurse insisted
inspite of the patient’s refusal and forcibly
injected the contraceptive. She can be sued for
which of the following?
a. Misrepresentation
b. Assault
c. Malpractice
d. Negligence
4. A patient has been in the ICU for 2 weeks.
The relatives have been consented to a “Do not
resuscitate” order. When the patient develops
a cardiac arrest, the nurse will carry out which
of the following actions?
a. Only medication will be given
b. All ordinary measures will be stopped
c. Basic and advance life support will not be
given
d. mechanical ventilation and NGT will be
stopped
5. When a patient falls from bed, which of the
following is your most immediate action?
a. Report to the head nurse and call someone
to help
b. Determine any injury or harm
c. Refer to the resident on duty
d. Put back patient to bed
Situation: Professional nursing has Code of
Ethics that spells out right conduct in nurses.
Each nurse should have a system of values
that demonstrate ethical behaviors in practice.
1. Which of the following values is paramount
in the ethical practice of nursing:
a. The welfare of the patients is ultimate
b. Every nursing activity has an ethical aspect
c. Nursing is a safe practice
d. The purpose of nursing is to promote well-
being
2. In your nursing practice, the desire to
choose good actions is mainly based on:
a. PNA Code of Ethics for Nurses
b. International Council for Nurses Standards
c. Board of Nursing Standards of Conduct
d. Nursing Education Ethical Standards
3. This is the best course of action when faced
with ethical difficulties:
a. Discuss with a lawyer
b. Assess the ethical problem
c. Reflect on your conscience
d. Refer to a spiritual counselor
4. In the final decision, your ethical actions are
most influenced by your:
a. Ethical knowledge
b. Conscience
c. Norms of society
d. Religious beliefs
5. Based on the RA 7164, this is a ground for
suspension of registration certificate:
a. Libel
b. Negligence
c. Sloppy work
d. Dishonesty
V. LEGAL RESPONSIBILITY
A. LEGAL ASPECTS IN THE PRACTICE OF
NURSING
Situation: Miss Javier is being interviewed by
the Chief Nurse in relation to her application in
tertiary hospital as staff nurse.
1. When asked whether nursing is a profession
or not, she quoted one authority two holds as
the view that a profession is characterized by
the following:
a. It is highly skilled and purely technical
b. It demands specialized preparation and
training
c. It is determined by the compensation of its
members
d. It is a developing science
2. The chief nurse explained to Miss Javier that
the philosophy of nursing in the tertiary
hospital is consistent with the generally
accepted definition of nursing which is:
a. Caring for the sick only because the “well”
parents are taken care of by primary hospitals
b. Putting the patient in the best condition for
the nature to act
c. Caring for the sick and well
d. Allowing the patient to determine the
medical and nursing plan of action
3. The chief nurse further explained to Miss
Javier that of the many functions of the nurse,
the only one dependent or interdependent
function is:
a. Application and execution of doctor’s orders
b. Application and execution of nursing
procedures and techniques
c. Observation of signs and symptoms
d. Supervision of patient and those
participating in his care
B. THE PHILIPPINE NURSING LAW OF
2002 (RA 9173)
Situation: The Regional Training Nurse must be
qualified before assuming the position.
1. What is the basic qualification of the public
health nurse at the Regional Office?
a. Three years abroad
b. BSN, RN with master’s degree
c. Six years as CI
d. Relative of the governor
2. What is the qualification of the public health
nurse instructor?
a. recommended by the mayor
b. BSN, RN with masters degree
c. experience as CI
d. experience in PHN
3. Functions and responsibilities of the regional
training nurse begins with the use of the
nursing process. Which process does she need
to design a training program for nurses and
midwives?
a. assessment
b. evaluation
c.. intervention
d. planning
4. Even if the nurse is already in the highest
position, there is need to keep abreast. Which
area of CHN should a nurse train or retrain?
a. community organizing
b. matrix of hospital administration
c. model of health care
d. use of high tech machines
5. Which one should a PHN retain as nursing
value in her community health practice?
a. Spiritual
b. Good Will
c. Human Relations
d. Academic
Situation: PHC utilizes linkages all over the
world.
1. Who receives referral from intermediate
level of care?
a. chief nurse
b. first line hospital personnel
c. cardiologist
d. medical director
2. When first line hospital workers are done
with severe dehydration, patient goes home to
your level of care. In what way could you
provide support?
a. Linkage with public works
b. Bring patient for check-up
c. Refer clients with same problems
d. Give IVs in case of repeat dehydration
3. The dual role of PHC workers area a
community health care developer and
community development. How could you link
and provide care at the same time?
a. Health direction for better tomorrow
b. Health care available even with high cost
c. Health care procedure with supplies
d. Health care accessibility with low cost
4. PHC is a system which emphasizes well
being of all segments. What is the result of this
effort?
a. Progressive well-being
b. Progressive nation-building
c. Economic development and technology
d. Economic progress and self-reliance
5. PHC activities are fully integrated with other
sectors. Which sector is always involved?
a. Industries
b. Politician
c. Congress
d. Public works
Situation: Mrs. Fuentes was promoted as a
nurse supervisor
1. The following are the qualifications of Nurse
Supervisor at the provincial level except:
a. BSN, RN
b. At least 3 years experience
c. Masters in Public Health
d. At least 5 years experience in Public Health
2. The following are the functions of Provincial
Nurse Supervisors, except:
a. Interprets policies, guidelines and SOP to
nursing and midwifery staff of the province
b. Assesses training needs and plans for staff
development program for nursing and
midwifery staff
c. Participates in planning, developing and
evaluating OJT for nurses and midwives
conducted by the department
d. Collects, consolidates, analyzes and
interprets health record and reports and makes
recommendations as needed
3. The following are requirements and
qualifications of regional nurse supervisor:
I. BSN, RN
II. With at least 5 years experience in
CHN
III. With MAN major in CHN
IV. With 2 years experience in
supervisory position
a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
4. The following are qualifications of chief
nurse in city health departments and health
offices:
I. Master’s degree in Public Health,
Major in Community Health Nursing and
Administration
II. Doctorate degree in Public Health
III. 3 years in supervisor position
IV. 2 yaers in the Asst. Chief Nurse
position
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
5. The following are the functions of the
Assistant Chief Nurse:
I. Assesses needs for community
health services as part of total health program
II. Evaluates the quality and effectivity
of nursing services in relation to the total
health program
III. Coordinates community health
services with other health and socio-economic
progress
IV. Supervises, coordinates and
evaluate the performance of the District Nurse
Supervisors and assist them in the evaluation
of community health nurses
a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I, II and III
d. IV only
Situation: The Nurse Practice Act of 2002 or RA
9173 was passed and signed into law in
October 2002.
1. Among the important provisions was the
composition of the Board of Nursing. Which of
the following is provided for in RA 9173?
a. The Board of Nursing shall be composed of
seven members
b. Have at least 10 years of continuous
practice of the profession
c. The qualifying age should not be more than
70 years of age
d. The academe qualification of the members
shall be a holder of Master’s degree in Nursing
or related fields
2. Which of the following is an additional
function of the Board, which is a departure of
RA 7164?
a. Promulgate decision for the improvement of
nursing
b. Describe the subjects in the licensure
examination
c. Recommends the opening and closure of
Colleges of Nursing
d. Issue, suspend, revoke certificate of
registration
3. Which of the following activities is
considered to be expanded scope of nursing
practice?
a. Conducting health education classes
b. Teaching in Colleges of Nursing
c. Counseling and doing research
d. Advance nursing practice
4. The following nursing positions require that
the nurse must be a holder of Master’s degree
of Nursing:
I. Dean of the College of Nursing
II. Chief Nurse of a Hospital
III. Instructor in a College of Nursing
IV. Supervisor of a general hospital
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. II and III
5. Who among the following is not qualified to
practice nursing in the Philippines under the
special or temporary permit?
a. An American registered nurse who is part of
the medical team invited by the Basilan
governor to perform cleft palate operation in
the province for free
b. A Filipino-American nurse who is part of the
medical team of a brain surgeon who is in the
country upon invitation to operate on a well-
known oligarch
c. A licensed nurse from Canada who is in a
medical mission to work as a volunteer nurse
in the ER of PGH for one month
d. A certified nurse who will work as a guest
lecturer in the training of organ transplantation
care.
Situation: The Nursing Act of 2002 or RA 9173
has a provision that the nurse must continue
learning.
1. Which of the following is formal continuing
education?
a. Tele conference
b. Enrollment in graduate school
c. Attendance in conference
d. Refresher course
2. Which of the following is the required
qualification of the Dean?
a. Nine units in Nursing Administration
b. Master’s degree in related fields
c. Master’s degree in nursing
d. Doctoral degree
3. The faculty of a College of Nursing must
have a Master’s degree which is:
a. Psychology
b. Nursing only
c. Public health
d. Nursing or relate field
4. Nurses in the Nursing Service must also be
qualified. The nursing service director must
have:
a. Master’s degree in any field of nursing
b. Master’s degree in health sciences
c. Master’s degree in Nursing major in
Administration/Management
d. Master’s degree in Public Administration
5. To be qualified, the nurse supervisors in the
hospital must at least have:
a. Master’s of Public Health
b. Nine units in Master’s degree in Nursing
c. Nine units in Management and
Administration course at graduate level
d. Master’s of Arts in Nursing
Situation: The Bachelor of Science in Nursing
(BSN) program prepares you to be competent
in first level of nursing positions.
1. As required by RA 7164, students admitted
to a nursing school belong to what percent of
their high school graduating class.
a. 60
b. 50
c. 40
d. 70
2. As provided by RA 7164, the authorization
to open a nursing school shall be based on:
a. Only the CHED
b. Permit to operate issued by the Commission
on Higher Education (CHED)
c. Professional Regulation Commission and the
CHED
d. Joint recommendation of Board of Nursing
and CHED
3. The Bachelor of Science in Nursing
curriculum is:
a. Competency-based and community-oriented
b. A step-ladder curriculum
c. An alternative health science program
d. Focused on related learning experiences
4. As a BSN graduate, you accepted a teaching
position in a nursing school. You can be liable
for illegal practice because:
a. You are not qualified based on RA 7164
b. You are not a nursing specialist
c. You may commit an error in teaching
d. You are not competent to teach
5. Based on the Implementing Rules and
Regulations of RA 7164, nursing faculty who
are not master’s in nursing graduate should
finish the required degree in school year:
a. 1998-99
b. 1996-97
c. 1999-2000
d. 1997-98
Situation: Mr. Cruz, 60 years old, is scheduled
for laparotomy the next day. The nurse in the
afternoon shift advised him he would be on
NPO after midnight. On waking up the next
morning, he saw his breakfast and ate it. His
operation was cancelled.
1. In this particular situation, who is to be
blamed:
a. The patient himself
b. The nurse in the afternoon shift
c. The attendant for bringing in his breakfast
d. The nurse in the night shift
2. Mr. Cruz’s operation was rescheduled, IV
infusion was ordered and you started it. Based
on RA 7164, an RN can administer IV injections
provided that he/she:
a. Has practiced nursing for at least a year
b. Has completed IV prescribed training
protocol
c. Is supervised by a licensed physician
d. Is a BSN graduate
3. A requirement to practice IV therapy is a
training certificate of completion certified by
the:
a. Association of Nursing Service
Administrators of the Philippines
b. Council of Continuing Professional Education
for Nurses
c. Philippine Nurses Association
d. Board of Nursing
4. The attending doctor of your patient
questioned why you started the IV infusion.
Your best response is:
a. “There was a physician around when I did
it.”
b. “This is my IV Nurse ID card.”
c. “The Nursing Practice Act of 1991 allow RN’s
to practice IV.”
d. “You ordered it.”
5. When you initiate IV infusions, which of the
following should you watch out for:
a. Comfort of the patient
b. Untoward signs of the infusion
c. When to start the next infusion
d. Out-of-vein signs
Situation: RA 7164 provides that all successful
examinees in the nursing licensure
examination should be certificate of
registration holders.
1. Registration after passing the nursing
licensure examination is given by the
government as:
a. A privilege
b. A right
c. An award
d. A recognition
2. Your certificate of registration can be
revoked or suspended for which of the
following acts:
a. Gross incompetence
b. Illegal practice
c. Practicing without a license
d. Unauthorized absence from work
3. You submitted together with your nursing
licensure examination application form a fake
Related Nursing Experience document. You are
liable to which of the following illegal acts:
a. Forgery of documents
b. Incompetence
c. Malrepresentation
d. Falsification of documents
4. You received a summon from the Board of
Nursing for complaints of unethical conduct.
You failed to appear. You are liable for:
a. Sanction
b. Contempt
c. Defiance of authority
d. Incompetence
5. You failed to renew your nurse registration
for more than five (5) years. You can be:
a. Summoned by the Professional Regulation
Commission
b. Charged with unprofessional conduct
c. Delisted from nurse registry
d. Liable for malpractice
Situation: RA 7164 declares that it is the
policy of the state to guarantee the delivery of
basic health services through an adequate
nursing personnel throughout the country.
1. In relation to quality nursing education, the
board of Nursing ensures that the nursing
schools
a. Meet standards of nursing practice
b. Graduate only competent students
c. Should be accredited
d. Comply with school requirements
2. To guarantee quality nursing education, an
applicant to the licensure examination should:
a. Belong to the upper 40% in high school
graduates
b. File all requirement for licensure
c. Possess qualities for safe nursing practice
d. Present evidence of competence
3. Nursing licensure tests require official
transcript of records from the education
department, except:
a. Graduates from foreign schools
b. Graduates of Level III accredited schools
c. Applicants for reexamination
d. When record of related learning experience
is complete
4. Nursing schools should provide learning
experiences that contribute to the development
of the:
a. DOH health programs
b. Community student laboratory
c. Country
d. School Program
5. This is a specific provision for nursing
schools:
a. Provision for community learning experience
b. Evidence that the school follows educational
standard
c. A 3-year college of nursing development
plan
d. Community based curriculum
Situation: The Standard Committee of Hospital
E recommended that all Intensive Care Nurse
be competent in IV injections.
1. RA 7164 provides that IV injections can be
administered by nurses under the following
conditions:
a. After completion of the BSN program
b. After doing at least 20 IV injections
c. On completion of a special IV training
program
d. Under supervision of the physician
2. Precautions must be strictly observed when
giving IV injections. Why is this so?
a. Any IV injection is dangerous
b. IV entails skill is insertion
c. IV is a delegated function of the doctor
d. Action of IV injection is invasive
3. As required by RA 7164, an IV training
protocol must be established by:
a. Philippine Nurses Association
b. Medical protocol
c. Association of Nursing Adminstration in the
Philippines
d. Board of Nursing
4. The following nurse’s notes should be
charted after an IV injection, except:
a. The doctor who prescribed
b. Number of IV drops/minutes
c. Time, IV, drugs and dose
d. Any complications noted
5. The established IV protocol requires
certification of proficiency issued by:
a. Chief Nurse of Hospital
b. Association of Nursing Service
Administrators
c. IV trainers
d. Board of Nursing
C. RELATED LAWS AFFECTING THE
PRACTICE OF NURSING
22. The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers
is:
a. RA 2382
b. RA 7277
c. RA 3573
d. RA 7305
Situation: The legal responsibilities of the
nurse in any setting must be given importance
to prevent litigation.
1. Which among the following is related to the
local government of delivery of basic services
including health?
a. Executive Order Number 119 Section 3
b. Ministry Circular Number 2
c. RA 7160
d. RA 7164
2. The Dangerous Drug Act known as RA 6425
states that nobody must do any of the
following in relation to prohibited drugs?
a. Report suspected user to authority
b. Sell, administer and prescribe
c. Use yellow prescription for doctors
d. Sell, administer and deliver
3. Which age group is required to be
immunized as per presidential decree no. 996?
a. Children with special needs
b. Children below 8 years
c. Out of school youth
d. School children
4. Which legislation aims to promote and
improve the social and economic well being of
the workers in government services?
a. RA 7164
b. DOH policies and guidelines
c. Alma ata
d. Magna Carta
5. The presidential decree that requires all 1. Among the overall goals of most hospitals
health workers to register all births within 30 which is an exception:
days? a. Take care of the sick
a. PD 615 b. Care of people with special needs
b. PD 651 c. Provides preventive services
c. PD 561 d. Serves health needs of people
d. PD 156
2. What is the purpose of an organizational
structure?
a. Provide a mechanism for work distribution
b. Explain lines of authority
VI. MANAGEMENT OF ENVIRONMENT AND c. Reflects mission and goals of the unit
RESOURCES d. Provides a written plan of organization
A. THEORIES AND PRINCIPLES OF
MANAGEMENT 3. Which of the following documents would be
Situation: As a nurse-in-charge, you noted that most helpful to a new staff nurse:
a lot of confusion occur in your unit due to a. Hospital physical plant
some disorganization. You decided to improve b. Job description
work performance. c. Policies and procedure
1. A deliberate course of action that results in d. Organizational chart
alteration of something different in a nursing
unit is referred to as: 4. In your new job, the least important is:
a. Planned change a. Organizational chart
b. Improve systems b. Policies and procedures
c. Re-education c. Physical tour of the hospital
d. Nursing process d. Job description

2. When resistance threatens needed change,
what important measure would you use to
overcome the resistance:
a. Send a memorandum for change
b. Use a problem-solving strategy
c. Gain early support from staff
d. Conduct staff re-education
5. The most important benefit of the
orientation program is:
a. Know employment working conditions
b. Builds employee’s identification with
organization
c. Learning about the work setting
d. Discuss your nurse’s roles

3. This is a factor most influencing acceptance

of staff in change: B. NURSING ADMINISTRATION AND
a. Externally imposed MANAGEMENT
b. Share its benefit Situation: You considered Mrs. Santos, chief
c. Staff participates in decision nurse of our hospital, a traditional and
d. Planned ahead bureaucratic leader.
1. The following statements about bureaucratic
4. The first step in the change process is approach to management are true, except:
facilitating change. This is called: a. Rules and regulations are emphasized
a. Refreezing b. The Chief nurse is comptroller
b. Unfreezing c. Decision giving is participative
c. Moving d. Specialization of task is formal
d. Status quo
2. What is the most basic principle in the
5. These are important qualities of a change human relations approach to management?
agent, except: a. When things go well for the worker, the
a. Leadership skills organization profits
b. Sociability b. When the patient needs are met, nursing
c. Credibility missions are accomplished
d. Management skills c. Strength, speed and skill are accentuated
d. Decision-making is a mediator
Situation: Orientation involves the introduction
of new employees to nursing service.
3. As a staff nurse under a traditional chief
nurse, notwithstanding, you are most expected
to:
a. Maintain professional attitudes
b. Observe hospital rules and regulations
c. Adhere strictly to your job description
d. Maintain competence
4. When you receive different directions from
the doctor and senior nurse, this situation is
referred to as:
a. Role difference
b. Role confusion
c. Role compliance
d. Role conflict
5. The role of nurses has expanded.
Acceptance of your role depends on all
conditions, except:
a. State regulations
b. Acceptance of clients / patients
c. Acceptance of physicians
d. Acceptance of nurses
Situation: Your head nurse called that she
cannot report that morning because of an
emergency that happened in the family. You
were designated as acting head nurse by the
supervisor.
1. You do now welcome the assignment but
under the circumstances what is the best thing
to do?
a. Take an emergency leave
b. Recall the staff nurses who are off duty
c. Utilize the team nursing method of
assignment
d. Explain to the patients the situation
regarding understaffing
2. You had no choice but to delegate some
nursing tasks to the ward attendant. In
assigning the tasks, which of the following
should you consider most?
a. Performing the head nurse role according to
standards
b. Making sure that the attendant is capable of
doing the task
c. Supervise her if necessary
d. Let her make a written report in case of
error
3. You noted that a medication dose prescribed
for a patient is unusually large. You verified
this with the doctor who got angry. Which of
the following is the best response?
a. “Doctor, I know my pharmacology.”
b. Doctor, I refuse to give medication unless
clarified.”
c. Doctor, I am just verifying the order.”
d. Sorry Doctor, but I am also accountable for
my patient.”
4. After the performance appraisal conducted
in the unit, your head nurse cites a long list of
behaviors needing improvement. Which of the
following statement is most applicable to
primary nursing?
a. Promote sharing of ward resources
b. Make a nurse accountable and reasonable to
a group of patient
c. Implies ward-manager responsibilities
d. Establishes a good nurse-doctor relationship
5. You suggested to your supervisor the use of
primary nursing care method in the unit. Which
of the following statement is most applicable to
primary nursing?
to primary nursing?
a. Promote sharing of ward resources
b. Make a nurse accountable and reasonable to
a group of patient
c. Implies ward-manager responsibilities
d. Establishes a good nurse-doctor relationship
C. THEORIES, PRINCIPLES AND STYLES OF
LEADERSHIP
Situation: Nurses encounter various types of
situation that calls for management decision-
making
1. Under varying conditions, the best approach
to management is:
a. Management by situation
b. Management by policy
c. Management by goals
d. Management by objectives
2. Management of patient care with varying
problems:
a. Entails problem-solving
b. Involves therapeutic use of self
c. Requires adaptation to circumstances
d. Depends on one’s style of leadership
3. Nursing management goals are best
achieved by which of the following:
a. Manager and staff nurses working together
b. Discussion of work with staff
c. Selection of competent staff
d. Knowing work’s schedule
4. An effective manager is:
a. Situation-oriented
b. Work-oriented
c. Goal-oriented
d. People-oriented
5. This is a major characteristic of permissive
leadership:
a. Uses guidelines for group activity
b. Believes all staff are work-oriented
c. Collaborates with staff in nursing care plans
d. Allows staff how to get their work done
Situation: Your co-staff has been promoted to
the position of senior nurse.
1. Which is a responsibility of first line
managers?
a. Oversees operations of nursing units
b. Coordinate with various units
c. Focuses on actual nursing services
d. Represents organization in the community
2. As a manager, your co-nurse first
responsibility is directed toward unit:
a. Patient classification
b. Work load
c. Resource allocation
d. Organizational structure
3. The most important category to consider in
unit management is:
a. Patient, nurses, administration
b. People, facilities, money
c. Realization of goals
d. Doctors, nurses, patients
4. You were assigned as team leaders for the
care of 10 patients in the pediatric unit. Your
initial activity will be to:
a. Determine abilities of staff
b. Give direction for care
c. Organize the work load
d. Identify patient’s needs
5. When you examine individual and group
performance, you are performing a function of:
a. Directing
b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Controlling
Situation: Ms. Lopez is assigned as team
leader in charge of 20 patients in a medical-
surgical unit
1. As a team leader for the day, her initial
activity will be which of the following?
a. Evaluate the abilities of the staff
b. Organize the work load
c. Give direction to the 3 nurse assigned under
her
d. Obtain patient assignment
2. When assigned as team leader, Ms. Lopez
thought that she would carry out her function
utilizing the principles, “Management by
situation”. How can management by situation
be best accomplished?
a. By personally selecting the nurse to be
assigned under her
b. By discussing work situation regularly with
the immediate supervisor
c. By obtaining the work schedule one week in
advance
d. By bringing the management forces in her,
the individual capabilities of the team leader
and the situation as closely aligned as possible
3. Which of the following is LEAST required for
an effective leadership and management?
a. Knowledge of basic leadership and
management theory
b. A well prepared supervisor and a good
planner
c. Self-understanding
d. Systematic use of self
4. Which of the following LEAST describe
leadership style?
a. How a manner works with followers
b. It is a form of behavior
c. The way in which something is said or done
d. A role or title
5. Which of the following does NOT describe
the goals of a nurse manager?
a. To select a style of leadership that looks
best for her and practices it exclusively
b. To use a style of leadership that best suits
the task to be accomplished
c. To use a style of leadership that creates the
best out of disruptions and conflict
d. To use a style of leadership that promotes
high level work performance
Situation: After three years of working as a
staff nurse in a medical ward, Miss Fernando
was promoted as a head nurse of a new unit
on the basis of the leadership skills she had
demonstrated with her co-nurses.
1. As a good leader, Miss Fernando has most
likely demonstrated that she can:
a. Influence her co-workers to work for the
achievement of the goals of nursing service
b. Always follow instructions as mandated by
the hospital administration
c. Expect pressure upon her co-workers to
achieve objectives
d. Be subservient to nursing authorities in the
hospital
2. Miss Fernando and her current staff in the
ward agreed together on their goals and
targets. She is managing by:
a. Contingency
b. Values
c. Exception
d. Objectives
3. Miss Fernando was tasked to decide on the
number of staff nurses she would need to
provide quality nursing care in the unit. The
specific tasks would require which of the
following skills?
a. Communication skills
b. Managerial skills
c. Cognitive skills
d. Evaluative skills
4. Miss Fernando is assigned two new team
leaders for one month. As a team leader, the
initial activity would be which of the following?
a. Document all nursing care rendered by the
staff
b. Evaluate the performance of the staff
c. Organize the workload
d. Get the patient assignment
5. After one month, Miss Fernando was
evaluated by supervisors and was found to
have obtained 80% attainment of her goals
and targets. When asked about her
management style, she answered, “None in
particular but deal with the situation as it
arises”. This implies that she is leading by:
a. Objectives
b. Laissez faire
c. Contingency
d. Consultation
Situation: The role of the leader is both
challenging and rewarding.
1. Which of the following terms does not relate
to leadership?
a. Goals
b. Influence
c. Motivation
d. Authority
2. When a head nurse relates to people
according to the roles, she is referred as a/an?
a. Authority
b. Leader
c. Manager
d. Decision-maker
3. This is generally an accepted concept of
management, except:
a. Getting things done through people
b. Influencing people to do the right things
c. Directing others to achieve set goals
d. Telling people what to do
4. In simple terms, planning involves deciding
in advance the following, except:
a. What and how to do it
b. When to do it
c. Where to report
d. Who is to do it
5. In the nursing unit, the main aim of
planning is:
a. Achieve set nursing goals
b. Describing organizational structure
c. Deciding staffing of a unit
d. Setting criteria for quality nursing
D. CONCEPTS AND PRINCIPLES OF
ORGANIZATION
Situation: To facilitate effective administration
and management of nursing service of any
health care facility, a nurse must be
knowledgeable of the institution as an
organization.
1. To guide the nurse in the professional
relationship with other department she must
be aware of the organizational structure of her
institutions. The purpose of an organizational
structures to:
a. Have a written plan of organization to share
with the governing bodies
b. Explain to each member the line of authority
c. Inform all staff members of the philosophy
and goals of the institution
d. Provide the mechanism through which tasks
are distributed among members for goal
realization
2. One of the things that Nurse A noticed when
she entered the office of the Chief Nurse is the
hospital’s organizational chart. Formal
authority in the organizational chart is
indicated by a:
a. Broken line
b. Box
c. Straight line
d. Rectangle
3. Ms. Nelia Hizon has recently been
designated as adviser on nursing matters to
the secretary of the Department of Health. Ms.
Hizon’s relationship to the secretary is
indicated in the organizational chart is
indicated by a:
a. Rectangle
b. Straight line
c. Box
d. Broken line
4. Unity of command in an organization
denotes which of the following?
a. There should be one goal at a time to
prevent conflict
b. Staff nurses work with other nurses to
accomplish one goal
c. Subordinates like staff nurses are allowable
to only one person
d. Staff nurses reports to two supervisors in
one department
5. The hospital where you are working is
celebrating its Golden Jubilee Foundation.
Three of the nurse supervisors were assigned
by the overall chairman to head different
committees. The principle of management
used here is:
a. Delegation of responsibility
b. Channel of communication
c. Unity of command
d. Command responsibility
Situation: Your head nurse participated in a 2-
week seminar. You were designated to be
officer-in-charge of your nursing unit.
1. In unit planning, which of the following
questions initiates the process?
a. How to schedule activities?
b. Who will do the planning?
c. What is to be accomplished?
d. Where to get unit supplies?
2. This is an example of data that should be
analyzed when identifying nursing needs
a. Number of nursing staff
b. Medical diagnosis of patients
c. Ward supplies and materials
d. Patient classification
3. To accomplish the nursing unit work, you
should first get information about:
a. Objectives of the unit
b. Nursing service organizational chart
c. Nursing budget
d. Mission of the hospital
4. This is an example of a patient care unit
objective:
a. To ensure adequate unit supplies/materials
b. To use the Kardex System of charting
c. To determine the number of nursing staff
needed
d. To provide safe nursing care
5. Which of the following tools can be most
helpful in the evaluation of staff performance?
a. Performance assessment
b. Performance standards
c. Performance audit
d. Performance appraisal
E. PATIENT CARE CLASSIFICATION
Situation: Miss Gregorio is a head nurse in the
ward where there are fourth year students
affiliating for their RLE in management.
1. The clinical instructor of the students usually
assigned two patients for each. The students
are responsible for the 24 hours nursing care
plan of each of the patient assigned to them.
This method of nursing care delivery is called:
a. Team approach
b. Case management
c. Functional method
d. Primary nursing
2. Regardless of the method of nursing care
delivery, the head nurse is still accountable for
all the nursing care of the patients in the ward.
This is an application of the principle of:
a. Scalar Principle
b. Unity of Command
c. Proper channeling of communication
d. Command Responsibility
3. Every morning, the head nurse confers with
the staff for 10 minutes to organize the work
for the day. Which of the following sequence of
structuring task is correct?
I. assign tasks to the team
II. present to the team the needs of
the patients for the day
III. match the task with the abilities of
each staff members
IV. ask for suggestion from the staff
a. III, II, I, IV
b. IV, II, III, I
c. II, IV, III, I
d. I, II, III, IV
4. One day, one of the members of the staff,
committed a medication error. Per hospital
policy, Miss Gregorio was to prepare an
incident report. In making an incident report
the head nurse should ensure that her report:
I. includes all pertinent facts regarding
the incident
II. names all involved practices in the
incident
III. includes her appraisal of the
incident
IV. is properly signed by all parties
concerned
a. I, III and IV
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. I, II and IV
5. It is the policy of the Nursing Service
Department that every six months, staff nurses
are evaluated. One nurse felt that she was
unfairly evaluated by Miss Gregorio. The right
action to take is:
a. Share the feelings with her peer group.
b. Keep quiet and respect the head nurse’s
decision.
c. Clarify from the head nurse that basis for
her appraisal.
d. Complains to the Chief Nurse of the hospital
Situation: The Nursing Service Director of a
leading hospital in Manila wants all her patients
to get the care they rightfully deserve. With
the permission of the hospitals board, she
asked one of the best head nurses to organize
a unit in such a way that patients are
categorized according to the severity of illness.
She wants this unit to be the role model of
quality patient care. The health personnel were
assigned in a manner that they meet the needs
of the patient accordingly.
1. Which of the following concepts can be used
in classifying the patients in the said unit?
a. Traditional
b. Combined traditional and modern
c. Progressive patient care
d. Modern
2. Which of the following is the BEST reason
for classifying patients according to the
severity of illness from the nursing viewpoint?
a. Nursing care of clients is better planned
b. Professionals and non-professionals are
delineated
c. Staffing requirements are met
d. Overtime work is avoided
3. In utilizing her knowledge of management,
the headnurse as the leader of the unit is
expected to first?
a. Formulate with her members policies to be
followed in the ward
b. Evaluate the care rendered to clients
c. Plan with members the nursing care of
patients
d. Delegate tasks to be done by her members
4. As charge nurse of one of the teams, you
are responsible to check the charts of the
patients assigned to your team. You noted that
a STAT medication that you know was given
was not recorded. You are expected to do the
following in order.
1.Call the attention of the medication
team
2.Let her explain reason why it was not
charted
3. Make her write an incident report
4. Verify from other nurses why it was
not charted
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 4, 1 and 2
d. 4, 2 and 3
5. The morning supervisor was visiting the
ward when the doctor of a patient complained
about staff nurses who failed to give the “stat”
medication. Applying the principles of ‘line of
authority”, you expected the supervisor to do
which of the following first?
a. Talk to the headnurse regarding the doctor’s
complaints
b. Ask the staff nurse to explain the incident
c. Report the incident to the chief nurse
d. Reassure the patient that next time the staff
nurse will not miss the medication
F. NURSING CARE SYSTEMS
G. DELEGATION AND ACCOUNTABILITY
Situation: As a registered nurse you will
assume accountability for your nursing actions.
1. Which of the following statements best
describe accountability?
a. Your employer has command responsibility
over you
b. You are liable to court suits
c. You are responsible to your employer
d. You yourself is answerable for your actions
2. How do you further develop your nursing
practice skills? By:
a. Giving direct care to clients/patients
b. Correctly carrying out your assignments
c. Attending performance appraisal meetings
d. Regular membership to a specialty nursing
groups
3. The primary skills you have to demonstrate
when carrying for your client is:
a. Perform correctly nursing procedures given
b. Establishing good nurse-patient relationship
c. Utilizing the nursing process
d. Consider needs of your patients
4. In nursing practice, you bear the
responsibility for:
a. Maintaining hospital’s good image
b. Safeguard of your patients
c. Living an ethical and moral life
d. Your professional growth
5. When do you say that a profession has
autonomy:
a. When it regulates itself and set standards
for its members
b. When it has code of ethics
c. When it regulates itself
d. When it is independent
Situation: You have five patients in Ward B. A
student nurse is also assigned to your patients.
1. Who is directly responsible for the safe care
of your patients?
a. The student assigned to the patients
b. You as the staff nurse
c. The headnurse
d. The clinical instructor
2. Which of the following is true?
a. Students are accountable to their clinical
instructor
b. Students are liable for errors in practice
c. Students cannot be held liable for their
errors in practice
d. Students are accountable to the head nurse
3. One of your students was requested by a
doctor to assist in an abortion procedure. Your
best action to do is to:
a. Leave the student to decide for herself
b. Tell him “no” as she is still a student
c. Refer him to the head nurse
d. Tell him that abortion is not legal in the
Philippines
4. One student sought your advice regarding
the patient who confidentially told her he killed
someone. Which is the best to note?
a. Keep information to yourself.
b. You may disclose information after patient’s
death
c. If summoned in court, you disclose
information
d. This is privileged communication hence
cannot be disclosed anytime
5. If your student has made an error in
medication, what would you first do?
a. Report to headnurse
b. Keep to yourself and the student
c. Call student attention at once
d. Check any harm to the patient
24. You are one of the nurses assigned in the
nursing service department and responsible to
interview nurse applicants. In interviewing an
applicant, what is the appropriate question to
ask?
a. Are you willing to go on 12 hours duty?
b. What is your latest nursing experience?
c. Is it alright with you to work in a
understaffed unit?
d. What is nursing?
25. You are a new staff nurse in St. Mary’s
Hospital and you observe that the medical unit
is understaffed. What will you do?
a. Observe for 1-2 weeks how nursing care is
going on
b. Ask the hospital director to hire additional
nurse
c. Decide to transfer to another hospital
d. Pull out another nurse from another unit
Situation: You observed that most of the staff
leave late after their duty hours. You looked
into staffing needs of the unit to propose
changes.
1. Staffing refers to:
a. Describing job responsibilities
b. Filling work force requirement
c. Recruitment and selection of nurse
d. Establishing qualifications for employment
2. Which is the more valuable resource of an
institution?
a. Personnel
b. Materials
c. Budget
d. Structure
3. The most important factor to consider in
staffing is:
a. Nurse-patient ratio
b. Nursing time needs
c. Patient unit census
d. Chief nurse decision
4. These are major factors on staffing plans,
except:
a. Type of illness sources
b. Patients needing direct care
c. Staff assignment
d. Competence of staff
5. These statements on loading are true:
a. Loading must achieve organizational goals
at all cost
b. Satisfaction and motivation are different
c. No single motivation sufficiently explain
human behavior
d. There are no average person just unique
ones
VII. RECORDS MANAGEMENT
a. Anecdotal report
b. Incident Report
 c. Memorandum
d. Hospital manual
e. Documentation
f. Endorsement and end-of-shift
report
g. Referral
Situation: Nurses use a variety of ways to
communicate information about clients. The
more nurses know about a client, the better
prepared they are to render high quality care.
1. Which of the following are general guidelines
that must be followed ensure quality
documentation and reporting?
1. Factual and accurate
2. Complete and current
3. Organized and confidential
4. Computerized and coded
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
2. Which of the following is appropriate
purpose/use of health care records when a
nurse review, client’s charts to assist her in
planning patient care during her shift?
a. Communication
b. Education
c. Auditing
d. Assessment
3. Medical record that is organized into
separate sections for data from doctors and
nurses is known by which of the following?
a. SOAPIE record
b. Source record
c. Modified problem-oriented record
d. Problem-oriented record
4. You have just finished your morning duty
shift. Which of the following is NOT part of the
verbal report during your endorsement to the
afternoon shift?
a. “Mrs. Castro has been uncooperative and
overacting the whole morning?”
b. “Mr. Cruz is for barium enema in AM.”
c. Mr. Santos’ pulse is fluctuating. It was
70/min at 9 AM and 100/min at 11:30 AM.”
d. “Mr. Lim’s pain in the leg is relieved by a hot
compress.”
5. The main basis of endorsement while doing
nursing rounds during a change of shift is
primarily which one of the following?
a. Information in the Kardex
b. Prescribed medication and therapy
c. The client’s health needs
d. Routine nursing care
Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that
proper documentation in the patient’s chart is
a legal responsibility.
1. A nurse gives a wrong medication to a
client. Another nurse employed by the hospital,
as a risk manager, will expect to receive which
of the following communications?
a. Incident report
b. Oral report from the nurse
c. Copy of the medication Kardex
d. Order changed signed by the physician
2. Performing a procedure on a client in the
absence of informed consent can lead to which
of the following charges?
a. Fraud
b. Harassment
c. Assault and battery
d. Breach of confidentiality
5. A nurse is witnessing consent from a client
before a cardiac catheterization. Which of the
following factors is a component of informed
consent?
a. Freedom from coercion
b. Durable power of attorney
c. Private insurance coverage
d. Disclosure of previous answers given by the
client
6. The rule of the RN includes which of the
following principles?
a. The RN must directly supervise all delegated
tasks
b. After task is delegated, it is no longer the
RN’s responsibility
c. The RN is responsible for delegated tasks to
conduct personnel
d. Follow up with a delegated task is necessary
only if the assistive personnel is trustworthy
Situation: As a headnurse in the medical ward
for two years, one of the things that you have
observed that contributes to the quality of
nursing care in your unit is the observance of
accurate documentation and reporting by your
staff.
1. Which of the following nursing activities
doesn’t need to be recorded immediately?
a. Providing a back rub at bed time
b. Carrying out the order for blood transfusion
c. Applying a pressure dressing for bleeding
d. Transporting a client to the x-ray
department for upper GI series
2. Your unit has been constantly recognized for
outstanding endorsement procedure in
between shift and has served as a model to
other wards. The major purpose of
endorsement report is to:
a. Inform the physician of a client’s progress
b. Communicate to the other members of the
team the care rendered to the clients
c. Provide an opportunity for nurses to share
common concerns
d. Provide continuity of care
3. The basis for the endorsement report is the
communication to the next shift of the:
a. Prescribed medical regimen
b. Client’s health needs
c. Routine nursing orders
d. Information on the Kardex
4. Which of the following information may not
be included in the verbal endorsement report?
a. “Mr. Tan will be seen by the oncologists in
the morning for the schedule biopsy”.
b. Mr. Baylon’s pulse rate was 85/min at 8:30
AM and 105/min at 1:00 PM
c. Mr. Diaz has been started on Penadur 500
mgs every 4 hours
d. Mr. San Juan has been uncooperative and
overacting during the day.
5. When a physician gives a telephone order,
the only way for the order to be legal is:
a. the physician must give his name over the
phone
b. the nurse must record the order in the
treatment sheet
c. the physician must sign the order within the
prescribed time
d. the supervisor must accept the phone order
Situation: Mrs. Santos, 80 years old,
underwent surgery for hip dislocation. She was
sent back to the ward after a stable condition.
During the night, she became confused while
attempting to crawl out of bed over the side
rails that caused her fall on the floor.
1. Since the event was uncommon and is not
consistent with routine activities in any health
care unit, the night supervisor would require
the staff nurse to write which of the following?
a. Affidavit attesting to her innocence
b. Diary to record the event concerning Mrs.
Santos
c. Situation report
2. Having a POMR Record System, the nurse
would record her observation about Mrs.
Santos in which of the following part of the
chart?
a. Flow sheet
b. Nurse’s notes
c. Progress notes
d. Data sheet
3. Utilizing the SOAP charting, the nurse would
record her nursing diagnosis under which of
the following?
a. P-plan of care
b. S- subjective
c. O-objective
d. A –assessment
4. Which of the following statements about
charting and documentation generally is
correct?
a. The client record is confidential and cannot
be used in court
b. All information documented in the incident
report should be duplicated in the client’s
medical record
c. Documentation and reporting are less
important nursing activities than providing
client safety and care
d. Mrs. Santos has the right to review her
medical record
5. Which of the following statements
concerning confidentiality is most accurate?
a. Nurses are the only one responsible for
protecting their client’s records from
unauthorized reader
b. Nurses may only use a client’s record for
activities directly related to the client’s health
care management
c. Nurses are legally and ethically obliged to
keep information about a client’s confidential
d. A legal suit, without the client’s consent
Situation: You often do not finish your nursing
work on time for shift endorsement.
1. This is an indicator of effective use of your
time?
a. Keeping a time schedule
b. Using a logbook
c. Checking Kardex cards
d. Reading ward notices
2. What evidence will indicate your effective
use of time?
a. Doctor’s bills have been issued
b. Charting completed on time
c. All serious patients have been cared
d. Patient’s bills have been forwarded to billing
office
3. You know that in practice, effective use of
time is good management. Which of the
following measures would be most helpful in
keeping track of the time?
a. Keep a log for the day
b. Plan your work activities
c. Do a time analysis
d. Request help in your work
4. You observed that much of your time is
wasted on answering telephone calls. Which of
the following would be a realistic alternative?
a. Hung up the phone during peak hours
b. Train a watcher to answer phone calls
c. Recommend a ward clerk for employment
d. Assign an attendant to attend to all phone
calls
5. Which of the following would you first do?
a. Organize activities by priority
b. Ask an attendant to help you
c. Attend first to patients without watchers
d. Complain about your patient load
VIII. QUALITY IMPROVEMENT
a. Standards of nursing practice
b. Nursing audit
c. Accreditation/certification in
nursing practice
d. Quality assurance
Situation: As a headnurse in the medical ward
for two years, one of the things that you have
observed that contributes to the quality of
nursing care in your unit is the observance of
accurate documentation and reporting by your
staff.
1. Which of the following nursing activities
doesn’t need to be recorded immediately?
a. Providing a back rub at bed time
b. Carrying out the order for blood transfusion
c. Applying a pressure dressing for bleeding
d. Transporting a client to the x-ray
department for upper GI series
2. Your unit has been constantly recognized for
outstanding endorsement procedure in
between shift and has served as a model to the
other wards. The major purpose of
endorsement report is to:
a. Inform the physician of a client’s progress
b. Communicate to the other members of the
team the care rendered to the clients
c. Provide an opportunity for nurses to share
common concerns
d. Provide continuity of care
3. The basis for the endorsement report is the
communication to the next shift of the:
a. Prescribed medical regimen
b. Client’s health needs
c. Routine nursing orders
d. Information on the Kardex
4. Which of the following information may not
be included in the verbal endorsement report?
a. “Mr. Tan will be seen by the oncologists in
the morning for the schedule biopsy”.
b. “Mr. Baylon’s pulse rate was 85/min at 8:30
AM and 105/min at 1:00 PM”.
c. Mr. Diaz has been started on Penadur 500
mgs every 4 hours”.
d. Mr. San Juan has been uncooperative and
overacting during the day”.
5. When a physician gives a telephone order,
the only way for the order to be legal is:
a. the physician must give his name over the
phone
b. the nurse must record the order in the
treatment sheet
c. the physician must sign the order within the
prescribed time
d. the supervisor must accept the phone order
Situation: As a staff nurse, Miss Cortes should
remember that patient’s records are
documents that protect her from legal suits in
the future.
1. Because of this fact, important observations
and interventions are to be communicated
through the:
a. Medication record
b. Progress notes
c. Flow chart
d. Discharge summary
2. Legally, nursing care that is not
documented:
a. is care provided even if it is not recorded
b. may be recorded soon after she remembers
c. may be recorded during her next round of
duty
d. is considered care that is not provided
3. Legally, patients’ charts are:
a. owned by the government since it is a legal
document
b. owned by the doctor in change and should
be kept from the administration for whatever
reason
c. owned by the hospital and should not be
given to anyone who request other than the
doctor-in-charge
d. owned by the patient and should be given
by the nurse to her client if requested
4. As a form of information to all those involve
in the care of the patient and to ensure that
the patient gets all the care prescribed and
planned for her, it is necessary for Miss Cortes
to document all care that:
a. she provided as well as those she has not
provided
b. the watchers provided
c. she has not provided
d. she has provided
5. The following is true for charting that is
done by nursing students and countersigned by
the clinical instructor:
a. The staff nurse is purely accountable to the
hospital for the nursing care rendered by the
nursing students
b. The nursing students is legally accountable
for all information she has written in the
progress notes
c. The clinical instructor attests that she has
personal knowledge of the information charted
by the student
d. The instructor cannot be liable because the
situation is part of the learning experience of
the students
IX. RESEARCH
a. Problem identification
b. Ethics and science of research
c. The scientific approach
d. Research process
e. Research designs and
methodology
1. Qualitative
2. Quantitative
f. Utilization and dissemination of
research findings
Situation: Ms. Torres is a new faculty of an
accredited school. One of the expectations in
that university is for faculty to do research or
publish a scientific paper at least once a year.
In order to appropriately decide what kind of
research Miss Torres is going to conduct by
next year, she must know the different
research methodology.
1. One title that she read in a local journal was
“Unintended Pregnancies in the Philippines:
Facts and Issues”. This study can be classified
as:
a. Quasi-experimental
b. Historical
c. Experimental
d. Descriptive
2. Miss Torres remembers one study submitted
by a student was: “The Intelligence Quotient
and Milk-Feeding of Selected School-Aged Pupil
of School X. This kind of research could be an
example of:
a. Descriptive
b. Experimental
c. Exploratory
d. Historical
3. One study that she read lately in the library
was “The relationship between the health
teaching given to a postpartum primipara
mothers having hospital confinement to the
incidence of infection in the newborn”. This
study is an example:
a. Experimental
b. Descriptive
c. Historical
d. Quasi-experimental
4. The title “Development of Instructional
Stimulators in Medical and Allied Medical
Education” is an example of:
a. Quasi-experimental
b. Historical
c. Experimental
d. Descriptive
5. One study that she read in a foreign journal
was “Improving Physicians and Nurses Clinical
Breast Examination”. A randomized control
trial is an example of:
a. Quasi-experimental
b. Historical
c. Experimental
d. Descriptive
Situation: After five years of working as a staff
nurse in the medical ward, you were asked by
the chief nurse to be part of the team that will
undertake a hospital wide research on costing
of nursing services. You recall that one of the
first lessons in your research class is the
method by which knowledge is acquired.
1. Having worked in the emergency ward for
six months, you are convinced that crisis
intervention is one of those services for which
a nurse can charge professional fee. This
knowledge is based on:
a. Scientific method
b. Experience
c. Consulting expert
d. Trial and error
2. The research team learned that some of the
nursing services of few hospitals are already
approved for costing and are to be submitted
to Philippine Health for approval. The team
invited the proponents of the study,
“Determination of Cost of Nursing Services in
Hospital” for information. The knowledge
obtained from this specific activity is through:
a. Experience
b. Consulting expert
c. Trial and error
d. Tradition
3. On of the problems encountered by the
other members of the research team concerns
bed sores. In one unit, it was learned that they
tried using the bark of banana to line the skin
where possible pressure sore is suspected.
Eventually they tried water pads to lessen
pressure on the affected part. The knowledge
obtained in this situation is through:
a. Trial and error
b. Scientific method
c. Tradition
d. Experience
4. One member of the research team used to
be assigned in the Reproductive Health Clinic
of the OPD. The nurses in that clinic were
trained on infection control and for a long time
have not been using disinfectant solution for
the sterile container after use and have new
sterile pick-up forceps and sterile dry container
everyday. The knowledge of keeping the pick-
up forcep sterile in this manner has been
acquired through:
a. Trial and error
b. Scientific method
c. Consulting expert
d. Tradition
Situation: A surgery of first year students in
your school showed that about 40% do not eat
breakfast before coming to school.
1. You would like to find out the possible
causes of this behavior. Which is an
appropriate title of your research?
a. Health behavior of first year nursing
students related to regular breakfast
b. A survey of the eating habits of first year
nursing students
c. Health habits of first year nursing students
related to nutrition
d. Health promotion practices of first year
nursing students
2. This is most practical data collection
instrument to use:
a. Interview
b. Checklist
c. Likert’s scale
d. Questionniare
3. The most appropriate research design for
the study is:
a. Descriptive
b. Retrospective
c. Ex post facto
d. Quasi-experimental
4. If you decide to study the relationship of
eating breakfast and performance in class,
which would be the independent variable:
a. Student’s characteristics
b. Meal patterns
c. Performance in class
d. Eating breakfast
5. The most appropriate statement of your
hypothesis is:
a. There is a positive correlation between
eating habits and class performance
b. There is a relationship between eating
breakfast and performance in class
c. Performance in class is more likely to be
affected when eating breakfast.
d. Performance in class is associated with
eating breakfast
Situation: An understanding of the usefulness
of scientific findings is more and more essential
for quality nursing practice.
1. You decided to do a review of literature. The
most important reason for doing so is to:
a. Improve your library reading skills
b. Get ideas on interpretation of findings
c. Formulate a conceptual framework for the
study
d. Decide on a sampling method
2. The sampling method where each member
of the study population has an equal chance to
be selected as a subject is called:
a. Purposive sampling
b. Selective sampling
c. Random sampling
d. Convenient sampling
3. The study population where you will select
your study subjects is referred to as the:
a. Research subjects
b. Study group
c. Population
d. Universe
4. Which part of the study relates to validity
and reliability criteria:
a. Hypothesis
b. Methodology
c. Variables
d. Instrument
5. Facts generally accepted as true or correct
are referred to as:
a. Premises
b. Phenomena
c. Delimitations
d. Assumptions
Situation: Backache after duty hours has
become common among staff nurse assigned
in the stroke unit. A group of nurses decided to
make a retrospective study.
1. A retrospective study would involve nurse
who suffered from backache:
a. Anytime before or after the start of the
study
b. During the period of the study
c. Previous to the study
d. No particular period
2. The purpose of the study is to determine the
relationship between lifting technique of nurses
and backache. The independent variable is:
a. Staff nurses
b. Backache
c. Back injury
d. Lifting technique
3. Fifty nurses consented to be subjects of the
study, 25 nurses with backache and 25 nurses
without backache. Which group is the control?
a. Group without backache
b. Group without lifting activity
c. No group
d. Group with backache
4. You obtained the written consent of the
study subjects. Which of the following
information will be given prior to the consent?
a. Assurance to withdraw from the study
anytime
b. Be participant until study is completed
c. Right to be informed of finding
d. Right to receive incentives
5. Due to some study constraints, the group
decided to a prospective study. This means the
study will be conducted:
a. At a specified future time
b. At a period when subjects are ready
c. When both subject and the lifting activity
are ready
d. When there are patients who need lifting
Situation: A study proposed by a community
nurse has this hypothesis: “Primipara mothers
who received education on breastfeeding are
more likely to breastfeed their infants.”
1. The independent variable of the study is:
a. Primipara mothers
b. Breastfeed infants
c. Breastfeeding practice
d. Education on breastfeeding
2. The dependent variable of the study is:
a. Education on breastfeeding
b. Primipara mothers
c. Breastfeeding practice
d. Breastfeed infants
3. A review of literature was done. The most
important reasons for doing this is:
a. To learn the research design used
b. To provide a theoretical framework for the
study
c. To decide on a sampling frame
d. To get ideas on result findings
4. The sampling method where each member
of the study population has an equal chance to
be selected is:
a. Convenience sampling
b. Selective sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Random sampling
5. Results of any research finding will be
valuable to nurses only when:
a. Disseminated to nurses concern
b. Put aside for future use
c. Published
d. Filed in library
Situation: When the total population appears
to be very large, the researcher may decide to
get a representative sample and yet make the
research findings still valid and acceptable.
1. This type of sampling uses the technique
whereby the population is undivided into areas
or section and then taking random sample
from each section.
a. Systematic sampling
b. Stratified sampling
c. Cluster sampling
d. Purposive sampling
2. In this type of sampling, data are collected
from anyone available as those who are
present in the coffee shop or those who are
present in the emergency room at one time or
another.
a. Systematic sampling
b. Incidental sampling
c. Simple random sampling
d. Cross-sectional sampling
3. In this type of sampling, selection of the
units in the sample is done by some sort of
chance.
a. Sequential sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Stratified sampling
d. Cluster sampling
4. A new public health nurse would like to
collect data on the common problems
encountered by diabetic patients in the
community. In this survey, she selects only the
diabetics residing in different barangays of the
community she is assigned. This is an example
of what type of sampling?
a. Purposive sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Stratified sampling
5. One nurse is interested to get the effects of
having foods with fortified vitamins A and D in
the development of children from preschool to
school age level. The type of sampling when a
given group of subjects are studied for an
extended period of time is called:
a. Cross-sectional
b. Longitudinal
c. Purposive
d. Cross-cultural
Situation: It is said that the half-life of
knowledge in the health care filed is 5 years.
Because of this, it is important that nurses
directly or indirectly participate in research
activities in order to add knowledge in the
profession.
1. Which of the following characteristics do
NOT describe scientific investigation?
a. Empirical data are gathered directly or
indirectly through human senses
b. It is planned and conducted in a systematic
and orderly manner
c. External factors which may influence the
relationship among advance phenomena are
not necessarily controlled
d. They are conducted to test or develop
theories and study knowledge
2. In which of the following type of research
does a researcher control the independent
variable but subjects cannot be randomly
assigned to treatment conditions?
a. Descriptive
b. Quasi-experimental
c. Exploratory
d. Experimental
3. When a nurse prepares a research report to
a captive group, which of the following is NOT
included?
a. Summary of other research studies with the
same result
b. The researcher’s interpretation of the results
of the study
c. A summary of literature used to identify the
research problem
d. A description of methods used to conduct
the study
4. Which of the following characteristics of a
clinical nursing problem is NOT a potential for
research?
a. It has the potential to change how nursing
care is delivered in the unit
b. It is value-laden and involves feelings and
perceptions
c. It reflects something that could be improved
in clinical practice
d. It is a problem that occurs frequently in a
particular client group
5. Which of the following is true in an
experimental study?
a. Clients most likely to perform the best are
assigned to the experimental group
b. Subjects are randomly assigned to both the
experimental and controlled groups
c. Conditions affecting the subjects are left
uncontrolled to generalization of findings
d. The control group receives the therapy
being studied
Situation: In your study of the health status,
including cause and effect of diseases in your
community, you will apply your knowledge in
statistics and research.
1. The initial result of the census you made
revealed that in 7 families the number of
children per family were 2,5,4,3,3,1,3. the
mean number of children per family is:
a. Data is insufficient
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
2. You will conduct an experimental study on
the causes of neonatal tetanus. The Lasic
difference between this study and an
observational study is that in the experimental
investigation, the:
a. Investigators determine who is and who is
not exposed to the suspected causal factor
b. Study is retrospective
c. Study and control group may differ in size
3. In selecting subjects for study you will use
randomization. This procedure will ensure that:
a. All these conditions
b. Selection will occur by chance
c. Study and control group have the same
characteristics
d. Placebo effects are eliminated
4. Which of the following measures is used
frequently as a numerator to calculate the
incidence rate of a disease?
a. Number of old and new cases observed that
occur in a period of time
b. Population at risk during a given period of
time
c. Number of population at risk
d. Number of new cases observed that occur in
a period of time
5. Which of the following rates best describe
this statement, “Children in Barrio B between
the ages of 1 to 5 years old have an average of
3 diarrhea episodes per year.
a. Secondary attack rate
b. Mortality rate
c. Morbidity rate
4. Case fatality rate
6. What type of data collection method in a
research on family planning by couples can be
used by the nurse?
a. Questionnaire
b. Survey
c. Interview
d. Research design
5. If research is to be made on eating
preferences of pre-schoolers, what design of
study will you use?
a. Analytical
b. Descriptive
c. Experimental
d. Case control
Situation: Nurse Vilma is interested to conduct
a mini-research on responsible parenthood
1. How should Nurse Vilma start the process of
research?
a. Make a survey in the neighborhood
b. Identify what should be the focus of the
study
c. Observe family relationships at home
d. Watch family interactions in telenovelas and
family shows
2. Where else will Nurse Vilma start the
process of research?
a. Conversation with classmates and friends
b. Literature review
c. Community data
d. Notes from lecture
3. Read very well this statement, Responsible
parenthood is a 50-50% sharing of
responsibilities between the husband and wife.
What part of the research cannon does this
belong?
a. Research hypothesis
b. Problem statement
c. Tool paradigm
d. Conceptual framework
4. Responsible parenthood through survey
research is best analyzed by what design?
a. Correlation
b. Qualitative
c. Triangulation
d. Quantitative
5. The data that will gather in the study about
responsible parenthood should give answer to
your:
a. Hypothesis
b. Conceptual framework
c. Research problem
d. Instrumentation
6. What is the way of life that is stable,
enduring, changes over time and is passed on
from one generation to the next?
a. Culture
b. Traditions
c. Mores
d. Habits
Situation: One of the terminal competencies
desired of graduates of the BSN curriculum is
the development of positive attitudes towards
research.
1. The main contribution of research towards
the improvement of the nursing profession is
which of the following?
a. Facilitate the development program
b. Assist the faculty in developing the nursing
curriculum
c. Assist the faculty administrator in planning
nursing staff requirements
d. Provide a theoretical/scientific basis for
nursing care
2. If you are to budget the time allotment for a
particular study, about 75-80% of this would
be allotted to:
a. Collating and analyzing
b. Writing the whole data
c. Survey or interview or actual observation in
a laboratory or clinical setting to gather data
d. Identifying research problem, planning on
the materials and research design to be used
and the subject to be used in the study
3. Which of the following statements is NOT
included in describing the limitations?
a. Instrument to be used in analyzing data
b. Limitation of the research in terms of time
and resources
c. Age, sex, religion of the subjects or
respondents
d. Knowledge of the researcher
4. Because of the time constraints and limited
funds, delimitations of research study is
acceptable. Which one is NOT a consideration
in determining a research study?
a. Novelty of the problem
b. Age and sex of the respondents
c. Geographical location of level students
d. Religion and educational attainment
5. Which of the following criterion is LEAST
considered in determining whether or not a
problem is researchable?
a. Cost of the investigation
b. Nationality of the researcher
c. Availability of a particular research
instrument
d. Time factor
Situation: For professional development, it is a
policy of the nursing service to encourage
nurses to participate in the improvement of
nursing practice.
1. Research contributes to the knowledge base
of professional nursing. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
a. Research seeks the unknown
b. Research solves a problem
c. Research studies the world of reality
d. Research relies on observable evidence
2. When you participate in nursing research,
your main activity is to:
a. Develop problem-solving skills
b. Explain a nursing phenomenon
c. Solve a nursing problem
d. Understand man as a human being
3. This is a type of research that attempts to
solve practical nursing problems:
a. Clinical problems research
b. Basic research
c. Applied research
d. Quasi-experimental research
4. The most important value of research to
practicing nurses is:
a. It improves clinical competence
b. It develops analytical skills
c. It contributes to new knowledge
d. It demonstrates professionalism
5. The most important criteria of a
researchable problem is its:
a. Potential to improve nursing
b. Relevance to nursing practice
c. Practicability and clarity
d. Simplicity in practice
Situation: In clinical nursing research, the
subjects are generally clients or patients.
1. Doing a random sampling of your study
subjects ensure that:
a. Subjects are arranged for organization
b. Anonymity of subjects are preserved
c. Subjects are assigned to specific groups
d. Every subject has a chance to be selected
2. When selecting your study sample, which of
the following activities should you do first?
a. Specify the sampling frame
b. Identify the target population
c. Specify the criteria for selection of subjects
d. Identify the available population
3. You decided to use convenience sampling.
This is n example of convenience sampling:
a. Selection with consent
b. Simple selection
c. Availability of subjects
d. First come first selected basis
4. When a subject is selected, your first ethical
consideration is to:
a. Obtain consent of subject to participate
b. Ensure confidentiality of responses
c. Inform subject when study will start
d. Assure anonymity
5. During the actual collection of data, a
subject refused to participate despite previous
consent. Which is the appropriate action to
take?
a. Proceed as previous consent has been
obtained
b. Respect wish of subject
c. Ask reason for refusal
d. Convince subject to participate
Situation: Research contributes to
improvement of nursing practice. It is essential
that professional nurses understand scientific
method.
1. Research in nursing is mainly aimed to:
a. Contribute to professionalism in nursing
b. Ensure safe nursing care
c. Solve a nursing problem 5. You decided to include all barangays in the
d. Improve nursing practice municipality and chose a sampling method that
would get a representative sample from each
2. This is a potential good source of barangay. The appropriate method would be:
researchable problems in the clinical area: a. Cluster sampling
a. Patient characteristics b. Stratified sampling
b. Nursing diagnosis c. Systematic sampling
c. Patient’s classification d. Random sampling
d. Modalities of nursing
Situation: A group of nurses decided to
3. The ethical consent in research requires describe the influence of religion on the
which of the following conditions: attitude of staff nurses in the care of dying
a. Consent of the attending physician patients.
b. Written without consent 1. In your review of literature, under what
c. Free and informed appropriate topic would you focus:
d. Must be written a. Care of the terminally ill patients
b. Attitude and religion
4. A review of related literature provides: c. Concept on death and dying
a. Characteristics of subjects d. The dying patient
b. A rational for the research
c. Synthesis of previous studies 2. The variables in your study are the
d. The research methodology following, except:
a. Religion
5. When participating in studies using drugs, b. Setting of the study
the nurse must be aware of: c. Care of the dying
a. Details of research protocol d. Attitude of staff nurses on dying
b. Names of subjects
c. The principal investigator 3. Which of the following research design
d. The investigational drugs would be most appropriate for the study?
a. Descriptive
Situation: Sampling is an essential part of the b. Ex post facto
research process. c. Case study
1. A sample is drawn from the study: d. Quasi-experimental
a. Population
b. Universe 4. This is an example of a continuous variable?
c. Study subjects a. Religion
d. Representative group b. Staff nurses
c. Patients
2. The most important characteristics of a d. Age
sample is its:
a. Population subsets 5. If you chose to concentrate in one
b. Randomization community alone, which research design would
c. Representativeness be appropriate?
d. Appropriate number a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
3. Random sampling assures that each subject c. Survey
has: d. Case study
a. Been selected based on criteria
b. Been systematically selected Situation: In your study, you examined the
c. Characteristics that match other samples age characteristics of the community using
d. An equal chance of selection descriptive statistics.
1. Descriptive statistics are useful measures in:
4. Which sampling method allows the use of a. Calculating standard deviation
any group of research subject: b. Summarizing data
a. Quota c. Determining frequency of data
b. Purposive d. Estimating central tendency
c. Snowball
d. Convenience 2. The age which occur most frequently is the:
a. Median
b. Mode
c. Proportion
d. Mean
3. When the mean age of your subjects is 54,
which statement is correct?
a. 50% of subjects are within normal range
b. Ages of subjects are skewed
c. Ages of subjects are normal
d. 50% of subjects are below 54 years old
4. When you divide the frequency of each age
by the total size of your sample and multiply
the result by 100, the value obtained is:
a. Percentile
b. Proportion
c. Ratio
d. Percentage
5. Fifty-seven (57) subjects in your study
ranged in age 21 to 40 years. The median age
of your sample is:
a. 31
b. 30.1
c. 30
d. 31.1
X. COMMUNICATION
a. Dynamics of communication
b. Nurse-client relationship
c. Professional-professional
relationship
d. Therapeutic use of self
e. Use of information technology
Situation: You were assigned to Mrs.
Tagumpay, a difficult patient.
1. When a client consults you for the first time,
the best question to start with is:
a. “Why did you come today?”
b. “Are you ill?”
c. “What can I do for you?”
d. “Do you have any health problem?”
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic
genuineness?
a. Consistent
b. Defensive
c. Open mindedness
d. Spontaneous
3. In establishing a helping relationship with
Mrs. Tagumpay, which of the following should
be a prime consideration?
a. Ensure open communication
b. Show an attitude of concern
c. Develop some degree of trust
d. Assure her of your competence
4. In assessing non-verbal communication,
which of the following observations would be
most helpful?
a. Posture and facial expressions
b. Physiological signs of anxiety
c. Reaction to hospitalization
d. Responses to pain
Situation: In nursing practice, assisting a
patient with his problem is a growth facilitating
process both for the patient and the nurse:
1. Which of the following nurse behaviors will
be most valuable in establishing a therapeutic
relationship?
a. Attention to desires of the patient
b. Listens to patient’s concerns
c. Gives prompt services
d. Available when needed
2. This is an example of a therapeutic
relationship:
a. Helping an anxious mother through delivery
b. Encouraging a paralytic patient to ambulate
c. Assisting a diabetic patient to inject himself
d. Providing services solely based on medical
regimen
3. Interacting with your patient involves:
a. Establishing goals with patient
b. Provisions of quality care
c. Sharing experiences on illness
d. Goal-directed verbal and non-verbal
interaction
4. When interacting with your patient, the
most helpful nurse behavior is:
a. Explain to patient your services
b. State your expectation from patient
c. A relaxed attending attitude
d. Initiate the interaction always
5. When a patient cannot see his problem
clearly, what will be your major task?
a. Assess his level of knowledge
b. Ask assistance from co-nurse
c. Help clarify his problem
d. identify possible problem cause
Situation: Miss Matias found out that Mang
Carding, newly admitted patient, has terminal
cancer and that his nurse has not yet informed
him of the diagnosis.
1. Initially, Miss Matias should:
a. Tell the doctor that Mang Carding has hinted
that he feels he has cancer
b. Be available to listen when the patient
decides to discuss his illness
c. Call in the head nurse to prepare Mang
Carding about his impending death
d. Inform Mang Carding of the diagnosis
2. On the second day, the wife of Mang carding
seemed to show signs of grieving. The stages
of grieving identified by Elizabeth Kubler-Ross
are:
a. Numbness, anger, resolution and
reorganization
b. Denial, anger, identification, depression and
acceptance
c. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression and
resolution
d. Anger, loneliness, depression and
acceptance
3. Which of the following therapeutic measures
is not useful in working with grieving families?
a. Discussing painful periods shared with the
loved ones
b. Providing emotional support
c. Encouraging detailed description of sorrow
d. Discussing plans for the future
4. Which of the following activities would be
most helpful to relatives working through
grief?
a. Group meeting with other grieving families
b. A course on death and dying
c. Volunteer work with hospice care of a
terminal patient
d. Psychotherapy
5. The nurse, when dealing with relatives of
dying patients, must be sensitive to their
emotional reactions. A family member who
blames herself for the condition of the dying
patient indicates that she:
a. has neurotic tendencies
b. is oversensitive
c. ahs psychotic tendencies
d. is potentially a high suicide risk
Situation: Nurses interact with a variety of
individuals and groups, sick and well. Good
communication skills enhance their caring
function.
1. This is an example of a non-verbal
communication.
a. Posture and gait
b. Body language
c. Gestures
d. Body image
2. These statements on effective
communication are correct, except:
a. Effective communication is a two-way
process
b. A variety of feelings can be expressed more
non-verbally
c. Listening is a part of communication
d. Verbal communications are often more
effective
3. Which of the following measures is specific
for impaired communication?
a. Refer to a speech therapist
b. Awareness of speech etiology
c. Provide speech exercises
d. Develop active listening skills
4. The overall goal for a client with impaired
communication is:
a. Reduce client’s communication problem
b. Assist client in communication
c. Correct faulty perceptions
d. Make honest statements to client
5. The best way to communicate information
about a patient is:
a. Dialogues
b. SOAP recording
c. Process recording
d. Kardex system
1. Reconciliation to prevent breakdown of the
sacredness of marriage maybe made possible
by:
a. True forgiveness and migrating abroad
b. Prevailing love and understanding
c. Good communication relationship
d. Calling the attention of both parent of the
couple
Situation: Stella, 35 years old, learned form
her doctor that she is positive with Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). She is nervous
and you want to help her.
1. You will prepare a plan of care for Stella. To
formulate this plan, the first thing that you will
do is to:
a. Discuss with Stella facts about HIV and
AIDS
b. Learn about the specific health needs of
Stella
c. Specify the objectives of your plan of care
d. Prepare a list of agencies where you can
possibly refer Stella
2. You scheduled her for counseling. You can
counsel well if you can:
a. Show Stella that you want to help her, give
her accurate information and help her make
her own decision about her being positive to
HIV
b. Show that you want to help Stella
c. Give Stella accurate information about HIV
and AIDS
d. Help Stella make her own decision about her
present condition
3. Which of the following is a good way to
greet a client who comes to the health center:
a. Good morning. Please sit down. The doctor
is not yet in.
b. Please sit down. I guess you want some
information about HIV.
c. Good morning, please sit down. How can I
help you this morning?
d. Good morning, please sit down. How can I
help some leaflets about HIV/AIDS.
4. In counseling, you can help Stella if you will
let her show her feelings. This can be achieved
by:
a. Helping her talk about her feelings
b. Performing all these tasks
c. Giving her full attention
d. Listening actively and questioning effectively
5. Which of these is an effective question?
a. What have you heard about HIV/AIDS?
b. Do you already know something about
HIV/AIDS?
c. Did your partner know something about the
result of your examination?
d. Why did you miss your scheduled check-up?
Situation; Sunshine is a headnurse in the ICU
of a big hospital in the city. There are 5
patients, one, a Chinese Taipan and the other,
a labor attache. One of the other patients is a
veteran from the Ilocos region and another
town mayor from the south who has a stroke.
The fifth patient cannot speak any dialect
except Bicol.
1. To be effective in interacting with the
patient coming from different cultures, which
one of the following competencies would be
most appropriate for the nurse to develop?
a. Language teachnology
b. Information technology
c. Transcultural communication
d. Interpersonal communication
2. The nurse facilitates competencies in
communication appropriate to the above
situation by identifying which of the following?
a. Areas of diversities
b. Global demands and pressures
c. Individual demands of patients
d. Areas of commonalities
3. Which of the following is the most important
factor in providing individualized nursing care
to clients in specific cultural groups?
a. Communication
b. Biologic variations
c. Environmental control
d. Social organization
4. Before a nurse can effectively care for a
client from an ethnic group other than her
own, it is best for her to do which of the
following?
a. Integrate transcultural communication in her
care of patients
b. Determine her own cultural beliefs and
values
c. Study the different cultural beliefs of the
different ethnic groups in the country
d. Work with the cultural minority and
disadvantaged groups
5. In dealing with patients in the ICU, the
nurse tries to talk with them as close as 1 ½
feet distance or a little more to make the
patients experience a close relationship
between them. Which of the following zones
make up the personal space created by such a
close interaction?
a. Social distance
b. Personal distance
c. Public distance
d. Intimate distance
Situation: Aling Maring, 32 years old from
Barrio Maasin was admitted for the first time to
the hospital for diagnostic studies.
1. What information would be most helpful is
assessing communication problems of Aling
Maring?
a. Educational level
b. Communication style
c. Nonverbal behavior
d. Culture-bound health practice
2. In developing a helping relationship with
your patient, it is best that:
a. The family be told about the plan of care
b. Nursing plan of care be prepared by the
nurse
c. Nursing actions be shared with watcher
d. Nursing goals be set with patient
3. This is a common barrier to meaningful
nurse-patient relationship?
a. Negative attitude
b. Failure to emphasize
c. Close mindedness
d. Ineffective communication
4. These are communication techniques that
contribute to a therapeutic relationship,
except:
a. Anticipate nursing needs of patient
b. Active listening to what patient says
c. Encourage expression of feelings
d. Make yourself available always
5. This is an indication that Aling Maring can
effectively communicate.
a. Comply with treatment
b. Follow nurse’s instruction
c. Verbalizes her needs
d. Chats with other patients
XI. COLLABORATION AND TEAMWORK
a. Networking
b. Inter-agency partnership
c. Teamwork strategies
d. Nursing and partnership with
other professions and agencies
Situation: In health maintenance, one of our
nursing goals is to provide continuity of care.
1. The aim of health maintenance is
a. Referring patient to another health facility
b. Part of your health monitoring function
c. Smooth transfer and follow-up care of the
patient
d. To enable patient to remain healthy.
2. Continuity of care is best provided through:
a. Home visits
b. A referral system
c. Regular clinic follow-up
d. Barangay health center
3. For continuity of care to be successful,
which role would be most helpful to the nurse:
a. Co-worker
b. Coordinator
c. Collaborator
d. Communicator
4. The most helpful approach to maintain the
health gained by a patient during
hospitalization is the:
a. Train the home care member of the family
b. Make a regular clinic visit
c. Follow-up home service
d. Make a discharge plan
5. Your teaching sessions with your patient is
nearing its end. What id your most important
goal in the remaining sessions?
a. Reinforce importance of home health
regimen
b. Promote patient self-confidence
c. Anticipate future problems and how patient
will handle them
d. Terminate the nurse-patient relationship
Situation: As a professional nurse practitioner,
it is expected that you are aware of issues and
concerns affecting the health care delivery
system in the country.
1. Traditionally, the most common services of
the health care delivery system include:
a. prevention of diseases and promotion of
health
b. hospice and care of the terminally ill
c. diagnosis and treatment of diseases
d. rehabilitation and gerontological care
2. Ideally, rehabilitation services begin:
a. upon admission of clients in the health care
system
b. upon discharge of clients from the health
care system
c. after the client’s physical condition stabilizes
d. soon after the client’s request for
rehabilitation service
3. In the Philippines, most, if not all, day care
centers can be managed and/or organized
nurses because they provide:
a. ambulatory care to clients of all ages and
are usually situated in malls
b. emergency psychiatric care and counseling
to clients experiencing extreme stress
c. care and supervision of older clients usually
those with emotional disturbance
d. care and supervision of pre-school children
usually located in the barangay
4. The Department of Health is faced with
health issues and concerns that need
immediate attention for the greater benefit of
the general population. Which of the following
issues involving health services can be directly
addressed by nurses either individually or
collectively?
a. Increasing cost of hospitalization
b. Unemployment and underemployment
c. Access to health care facility
d. Quality health care services
5. The legal permission obtained from client
before an invasive procedure, involvement in
research or administration of experimental
medication and intervention:
a. affidavit
b. contract
c. informed consent
d. power of attorney